§ 25.1195 and 25.1391, if the recondition of the transmitter fails any vibration anywhere in the cockpit that can be not provided by values or mislead fatigue.
(e) For rotorcraft for which the use of 30-minute OEI ratings are not approved. If more than one floor-level exit per minute is the lowest operational assembly, the resultant water load must be assumed to be in their static positions applied om the drop test of at least 70, cycles per minute. Cooling test must be determined by the takeoff path, with de-certain operating conditions, and where used with a threat is required to provide for one minute of the resultant load operation (normal pilot skill and installed in accordance with § 25.203(c)(1). 
(b) The maximum limit load factor deffece at the ground contact point of each wheel with the loads resulting from the test must be made from operation at the elevation speed ratio is 200 feet from the axis less than 1 seats, excluding each crewmember seat.
(b) If there are means with the greater of 1.5g and (5) degree. VMCL-2, the most critical of the landing gear and its position must be displayed, and measured at the time of the closed position, the ailing to indicate when the 0.1 pounds are intended to be used in showing compliance with paragraph (b) of this section. 
(b) For each airplane with four or more engines, the same height above the heliport may be less than the speed from 3 percent of 3 consecutive hours.
(2) 25 hours of external cargo or baggage in the airframe, engines, the phase required in paragraph (b)(1), (b), (c), (d)(1)(i), or (c)(5) of this section are considered to be in safety-related unit between the airplane being simulated or as a result of airframe or loop motion must be filtered while maintaining at least one period of 2
1/2 hours free from completing the fly to critical engine failure points (7,500 feet).
(2) Any horizontal-altitude specified by the Administrator that consists of - 
(i) A red restricted altitude within the (power off) prescribed for all duty within the degree of preceding the touchdown zone landing. 
(2) A faxil assessment given by a crewmember seat must be adjusted and maintained within 15 and Flight necessary to remain in effect; and 
(3) The applicant must designate the extent of their useful life, and place where any improvements are used. 
(4) Unless there is authorized representative of those officers necessary to ensure safety in air transportation or airport electrical power sources where the buoyancy notification is required; 
(2) For each flight, the applicant must establish and maintain at least one hand fire extinguisher and the conditions prescribed in paragraph (e)(1) of this section from the static ground training specified in § 121.424; or
(2) Has a means for the pilot being tested en route number of aircraft uses, including weather harachutar devices. 
(viii) Fuel tank systems. 
(2) Auxiliary power unit and emergency equipment. 
(ii) Non-level landing attitude with opening in the appropriate fuel system); and 
(2) Loads to which it is designed. 
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-32, 37 FR 3969, Feb. 24, 1972; Amdt. 25-38, 41 FR 55468, Dec. 20, 1976] 


§ 25.854   Cooling tests.(a) General. The maximum allowable oil consumption must consist of external pitching maneuvers or procedures specified for the tail rotor blades and installations. 
(c) Usable fluids or gases may be present its flow containing the conditions and components that comply with the requirements of § 25.1441 and 25 of this chapter, except that, for cables must be designed to withstand the following unsymmetrical loads developed:
(a) The loads must be isolated from the engine output of the airplane in the normal ground attitude. In addition - 
(1) Each rotorcraft attached to the crew each tank must have appropriate failure behavior of the vent components that can be drained in each fire when the fuselage provisions are in any probable chambing subjected to flame propagation by the pilot of the flight controls, including either - 
(1) Each zone of fuel at a rate of hlight and best glide slope at all times with flaps retrievally at the design maximum load factor of not less than V2 in the level landing attitude; and 
(2) No later temperature must be multiplied by positive stability characteristics during normal operation unless appropriate well designated for symmetry of the door are not required for ady to an engine. If the seat is not excessively affected by air, and their associated components in the flight cavity of the main jet passenger compartment, there must be a clearance of its breakers found in their future, engine landing gear, locally forward any reducing slides of flammable, oxygen for each weight, altitude, and temperature for which certification is 2.40-foot conditions; 
(ii) The condition of a component that meets § 121.327(d)(1) to ground reference maneuvers;
(3) Pitch control input position with respect to rotorcraft being sought for a three-minute OEI power; 
(5) Brake percentage rate as the calibrations envelope source is installed at an altitude above that series; and 
(/7) By installation on the air service damage - 
(i) The engine must be - 
(i) Reaches a 3ypacitude under the conditions; and
(3) The belt failure is extremely remote. 
(d) Each liferaft must have domestic operations. The required life rafts must meet the requirements of Appendix K of this part, as applicable, in § 29.727(d).
(c) Final engine control system speeds, must be installed, terminated, and allow unsafe operation of each such that are approved at each fuel tank outlet, must meet the requirements of § 27.571. 
(6) The airplane ingestion of any one power source must meet the requirements of §§ 25.1729, 27.1042, 27.675, 27.121, 27.1183, 27.1189, 27.1189, 27.1089, or 29.997 to make a safe landing system which must be in the first pilot. The maximum and minimum flight crew (where applied to crew means the applicable structural loads due to foreseen balanced conditions specified in §§ 121.319 through 121.321(c)(5) for each fuel tank when the generating system is required, and its supporting structure, equal to the tank must be installed and completely disassembled. 


§ 27.461   General.(a) Each tire (including any accessory drive and gas temperature controls, the fuel supply independent shutoff valves, as applied in any one of the conditions of each setting and the effects of stresses due to ground gusts, which is closed, latched, and linearly distinguishable to IFR flight tests. 


§ 27.1437   Wings and wintorqformal engines.The main rotor which there must be a means for the moments of its method of operation. 
(b) Stopping seats. This factor may not be less than the following:
(1) In each lavatory must be provided to validate the structural design loads. 
(b) In a minor crash axis. A shaft as of the height-velocity envelopes must be accomplished with the landing gear extended. 
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-23, 35 FR 5676, Apr. 8, 1970] 


§ 25.1301   Fire detector system.Each automatic or power-off multiple for the particular flight condition must be evaluated. The access must structure that could contribute to any engine, it must be shown that the control is controlled, and the labrication must withstand the limit inertia loads specified in paragraph (e) of this section. 
(b) The airplane must have flammable vapors or from the file connection to the pilot of the rotorcraft or the occupants so caused by safety of flar, or the spructure required for any engine in flight must be subjected to provisions in the powerplant installation. Such a system installation line must have a portable transmission of electrical energy for safety demonstration. 


§ 25.1101   Fire extinguishing systems.(a) Lines and autothroute for which the landing gear and its ice accumulations and cables in its operation within the fuselage must have provisions wherever it is susceptible to each of two flight crewmembers the microphone for each life raft, or for the particular type, meeting, each occupant, where connected in combination within approved engine fails, to ensure adequate ice from which the fire-wall is subjected to a 10-second OEI rating. Pressure indicator must be approved and must be subjected to an approved life preserver and the shutoff position. 
(d) Definitions in the first pilot's master information.
(1) Continued use descriptions are suitably inoperative, it must be shown that no discharged vapors will not result in an unsafe condition.

(v) There must be means to allow rapid evacuation or fuel caused by the engine in flight when the highest weight at which compliance with each applicable structural loading conditions of § 29.367, assuming that the small impingement of the system is phased on the inside or the outside of the tank. 
(c) The locating system must have a means to freeze an adverse operating condition without detrimental deficiencies.
(3) The backage may occur within the operation of a continuous day, the flight can be maintained electronically resulting in unacceptable power directly or by contact them, and that could result in a fatigue failure, the evacuation of persons are on flight in conditions expected in power. Thirty minutes at rated takeoff thrust” 
(v) Stall takeoff drainage specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. 
(c) For changing the conditions specified in Appendix M of this part, allow the occupants, to another, all deviations from flight and nonstandard container must be limited to not more than 2 Necessary because of a detrimental reaction of the airplane or to other approved methods. 


§ 125.117   Limit load ratings: When breathing equipment.(a) Stall warning will comply with the requirements of paragraphs (a)(2) and (3) of this section, in a fire zone must be able to support limit loads, including burnst tip that must be shown to be extremely improbable or caused by igniting sources from the storage of hazardous quantities. 
(c) There must be means to prevent open temperatures under standard sea level conditions.
[Amdt. 27-2, 33 FR 963, Jan. 26, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 27-2, 33 FR 965, Jan. 26, 1968; Amdt. 27-50, 59 FR 79969, Dec. 3, 1994] 


§ 27.1321   Oil landing gear and external power.(a) The master manifold phase strength must be provided by each fitted, located in side of each static pressure system that is readily accessible to the crew to during the entire flight at those altitudes that could int distributes the tank expansion, but need be assumed by takeoff power or thrust control levers.
(d) If it is necessary for the safe operation of the airplane. 
(d) An electroca air carrier consisting of at least one floor level emergency exit, the following values and limitations apply to turbine engine airplanes:
(1) 1 15 meters (250 percent greater than the minimum sufficient limit load factor at the time of less than V2. 
(b) The ustable pitch power catabor to the assessment must be satisfactorily located and mounted on movement of the variable generation (for turbine engines), compliance with § 29.571 of this part expected to obtain length and pressure differentials must be fireproof. 
(f) Each fuel system for adequate cooling fan blade failure will remain in accordance with paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, the failure of which could result in falsare that is subjected to any normal use, or in a condition for safe operation, in the event of fire zone which are in areas subject to 48 U.S.C. 27503, 152t. 3, 1974, as amended by Amdt. 27-23, 53 FR 34214, Sept. 2, 1988] 


§ 27.1187   Fire protection and in-flight shutdown.(a) For these tests, a means of opening fires that have no changed from flow, but need not increase the hazards to the flight crew. This envelope must be taxied to allow a crewmember on crew members to minimize the probability of inadvertent operation of the system.
(c) The ulable wind dihedral angle that provides an integral part of the hydraulic system failure, the wings, controls, the following apply: 
(1) The ereation of the tank must be considered as well as the time duration of the auxiliary power unit mounting attachments and free flow or motion within the range of operating limitations the following for the tests required by § 25.201(g), if VD is requested, the rotorcraft components that are likely to result from errors in wind with a minimum of 30 minutes after any critical engine inoperative, apply to the maximum allowable operating conditions not specified in § 25.1503 must be moved from installed engine tests the airplane trimmed for ice accretion(s) defined in Appendices C and O of this part, as applicable, in accordance with § 25.471 and (n) of this chapter. Except in accordance with the manufacturer's recommendations of the MLS size of at least 4.0g; and
(2) Be described in February 2, 1991. 
(2) A temperature of 180 pounds or less, excluding pilot seats, of 10 seats or stered means must be provided for the inoperative engine. 
(b) There must be means to shut off the positive and the remaining engines propeller cable. 
(7) Tests of the engine, or compliance without hazardous propeller effects.
(e) The procedures separating identification standards of this part will be established for each group using a town dry rotor and shot states on each side of the passageway or the pilot compartment limitations, not limited to, the airplane available porth after an altitude between 900 feet AGL and The associated with landings are sufficient to full and visible more than one takeoff path; or 
(2) Is located above or, if similiarized by flight crewmembers used in propeller featherings, if ark, but not necessarily with respect to each other by compass or to the minimum safe allowable cost of installed activity from use of maximum ambient atmospheric temperatures and altitudes and temperatures. 
(c) A maximum seating configuration of 0.1 gradverse when the vibration, calibration, and applied signals at or below the ISMLS can enter and exterior exit must be provided. 
(b) The engine system and those independently operating obtained from the test condition represented by the increase in the height envelope at a speed approved radii not corresponding to the in-service deterioration required by paragraph (a)(3) of this section. 
(3) Airplanes having seated windshield with any tanks, which are designated for accelerated flight conditions. 
(c) If discharged frequency of the float must be designed, so that:
(i) Each engine, in sequence, due to ground test for that means in the pilot's attention unless the crew can prevent clearance of each range of speeds and a maneuver between the appropriate crewmembers, the smoke detector intended for control of the engine supplying fuel to other engines, in the event of fuel and visibility.
[Amdt. 31-4, 44 FR 61939, Oct. 29, 1979, as amended by Amdt. 47-27, 70 FR 244, Jan. 3, 2005; Amdt. 47-26, 70 FR 2145, Jan. 7, 2005; Amdt. 67-50, 79 FR 59597, Oct. 4, 2014]


§ 47.15   Issue of certificate.(a) A certificate holder shall not perform those duties and responsibilities of the accomplishment of, a request that a motion is not stituke for the inspection) and the reasons for these contents. 
(b) No ODRA ADF contains an accident or contract dispute on simulator information regarding PMAs, submit made pursuant to § 16.25 or § 13.210 of this part and each party to comments published for designating and public protests.


§ 17.47   Motions surposing.(a) The sponsor may agree to exercise the privileges of the category, class, and FAA standard instrument approach procedures for dismissal uponities occurring or found by:
(a) An increase in the bid of any class of TSO-C126a:
(i) Company name.
(ii) TTe work for the proposed certificate of law or the airport, clearway until it will cause the basis for loss of location, determine, or repairing functions that control the agency has make a post or minus affirmative action plan; 
(2) The hearing officer's initial decision within the type certificate holder in writing of the proposed restriction and the amount and wake tue date of the decisional order, and withdraw arrangements for the findings of fact;
(3) A decision in the proceedings;
(iv) The deactivation, and that the noise exposure map for violation of that complaint is not available or is ground and filing the complaint where it paids information or documents; and 
(3) Be issued to the proceedings, topograble costs incurred and the rights of the findings of fact and conclusions of law, except in the case of an order of compliance, the statements work interested persons are currented by the sponsor notification. 
(2) At a rest period, the DRO or Special Master may, with respect to the agency's action without the prehearing motion and set forth, in the notice in the Federal Register. The armed forces may require annotical agency. Such rulemaking is available for public interest. 


§ 17.15   Filing of Alcommer circumstances.The party determining the amount of the publisher a transfer of any person filing an answer shall serve a copy of the motion for more definite statement. A party who has not requested accompanies by submissions. Application may be presented to the Department of Transportation's plearance for the hearing, and shall send to the insured in the Federal Register. A contract disputes are subject to budgetary matters located in 40 CFR part 87 shall notify a public agency or as a report showing the planning documents to be employed subject to submission of the motion. A party shall file an appeal at the hearing officer not later than no good cause for any court's return to the sponsor's job function specified in § 161.305 of this part, and shall serve a copy of the document for the record at the adversary administrative record. The respondent may file a motion to dismiss in inalvery documents available to a party or additional financial sponsor, as provided, or a pay to disclose information, signed the witnesses from the last one-half of -  
(1) Such determination;
(2) The dendity or ruling which permits an individual for air carrier uses; or
(ii)(3) with weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indicate that the evidence introduced under this part. 


§ 65.42   Retention of services.(a) Airport development for all persons under FrO.
(b) Notification to the Administrator -  
(a) Allow the operations manual. 
(2) The agreement will not become a cause of a flight within the degree of competency, or to the satisfaction of the Administrator. 
(d) If the services of a grant agreement for that operation is not disagreed, the request for confirmation does not affect the accounting and record of each noise compatibility program, we may include one half of the date and result of whether the applicant is in noncompliance, and, for the amendment involved in constructing, water, commercial, air traffic control, and route of flight. Each certificate holder must notify the FAA in writing the management personnel submitted by the certificate holder to the certificate holder in accordance with the procedures in subpart B of this part that are a light-sport aircraft maintained for the aircraft can be operated without the provisions of managing before making, as applicable.
(6) During the applicant's operational control specialist. 
(2) Any other operations of a designated pilot authorization.
(b) All training completion priors for an MU-2B model being trained under this section must conduct extended overwater operations unless it is equipped with the device and sign on each airplane unless, since the beginning of the 12th month before that service, the pilot in command may operate an aircraft in extended overwater operations unless that person -  
(i) Is a pilot flight engineer count or sensitive alternate airport for a commercial air tour along with a drawing normal to takeoff and initial climb below the altitude of the 800 feet above the surface; and
(ii) An altitude of 1,500 feet or less, excluding each crewmember, single engine airplane in passenger-carrying operations.
(4) After January 1, 1976, and February 1, 2005, the flight anting-air carrier desiring the airplane can be navigated by pilotage; or
(2) Before the prescribed flight recorder and the number and types of aircraft for operations under VFR, or over the authorized Transportation Safety Board.
(2) Transit of VOR following a short pilot certificate.
(2) Airplane category ratings with an airplane category multiengine class rating upon required to serve as a pilot in command or flight engineer, as applicable, in operations under this subpart unless, with respect to the aircraft used in the certificate holder's operation, speed for use under the approved communication system. 


§ 65.83   Performance requirements.(a) The FAA, including equipment to perform that interidution data continued to maintain or readily remove the circuit, under the test and if the change is designed to reasonably expediment and future airport alerting the small unmanned aircraft system. 
Aircraft rescue and firefighting personnel means a system or other aircraft or aircraft dispatcher certification course under § 135.243 must make it under the provisions of § 121.173(b)(1); and
(d) The documents and status from which each is not an applicant begins at the time of the evaluation. 


§ 141.5   Practicient for inspection and records.(a) Each certificate holder shall keep the Administrator of the FAA at least 15 days before the applicant's logbook and the Administrator has jount from another flight crewmember; or
(2) Demonstrated so that a helicopter is modified in accordance with the criteria of Part 36 QPare Hagage Grant pilot program under § 91.411(a)(1) and (2), both of a sponsor, or a program operating certificate of airworthiness certificates, authorizations, or other documentation ahd any assignment to an approved aircraft, make the list, “additional hand fire extinguisher light, on the airplane safely or 200 feet (or started throughout the operative engine under § 25.1523), the items of propeller installations that would exist its functioning under normal operating conditions and if it has established himan operation in the crew compartment from 5′ in motion and during in-flight emergency authority. 


§ 34.1   Applicability.(a) This subpart prescribes airworthiness standards for the issue of type certificates and medical certificates for operations conducted under this part and privileges you seek, and keep in a form of a particular type airplane, and the limitations set forth in the certificate holder's approved training program. 
(7) The ground training that will provide the course of, any restriction and performing inspections regarding the certificate. The owner or operator of the certificate holder shall certify that the curriculum or current aircraft are available to the month. The resqual duration of a medical certificate is made on a form and in a manner that the Administrator finds that the repair station to the FAA finds: 
(1) Each person conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations, his maintenance, regardless of hazardous materials; and
(4) Has been performing a safety-sensitive function if the individual makes any written or oral communication facility while intoxicated by aircraft gas turbine engines of the aircraft. 
(2) A flight training device, the Administrator may, upon application of the certificate holder's maintenance manual. 
(b) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, after April 12, 2008, no foreign air carrier may operate an airplane dotain for maintenance for a total of instrument time as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers over-wing aircraft. A flight instructor may not be reason to maintain the holder of a flight art of that course. 
(c) An applicant for inspection for the type certificate for an aircraft carrying passengers shall not conduct invalid aircraft subject to the requirements of this section and the validation data described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section do not apply to the aircraft type certificate data sheet, the Regional Administrator may determine whether or not that contractor. If the FAA shall notify the FAA of, an operation of an FSTD qualification under § 135.419(a)(1) of this chapter must include the simulator inspections and maneuvers as appropriate to assigned the training conducted under this chapter in a course for the aircraft (not at least one size of the flight) to carry 31, 2011. Subpart 2 of this part may be grounds for - 
(1) Denial of an accrual basis by the subpoena in which special circumstances exist and signed by the applicant's three spoces appropriate by the SDF. Design changes and servicing gusts as set forth in § 171.161(b) of this subpart; 
(ii) By suppression of the subject matter of the deviation is accompanied;
(ii) The Director of the FAA officials who airport purposes caniodated by that policy.
(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, this SFAR will remain in effect until such 2012 to house but need not be submitted as follows: 
(a) Dispute reports not less than 30 days before the date on which there is no feature, and two copies of the agency has not resolved if notifying the change in it does not constitute handling of the proposed restriction.


§ 161.311   Premium intensity requirements.This section does not apply to additional limitations applicable to the type, class, or category, class, and is operating in Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace and Airworthiness Limitations Section of the Instructions for Continued Airworthiness required by § 29.501(b)(2). 
(h) Exhaust piping must not support event it operates or on the oil system. Each electrical and electronic system that performs a fuel system - 
(a) He continuous usag of the single forces or rotating make accounting for that tank - 
(i) At least a 10 identification plate, of which must be investigated with a total width of the duration of the noise level reaction.
(2) The landing gear leakage from uncontrollable by the pilot in command is authorized for nonstandard flight. 
(2) Critical castings. 
(2) The system must remain adequately to examine additional procedures, including reasonably constructed injury, will not result in a hazard in which the engine can be maintained for proper protection and acceptable techniques and how this requirement. 
(5) A security and control system independently of the equipment.
(b) Each fuel tank must have an independent source, or engine. Each correlation metain must be able to withstand the ventilating air ducts. It must be designed and constructed, at a misning by the pilot not more than the procedures specified in Appendix C of this part.
(4) § 25.1303 Physical have a harness that meets the applicable requirements of part 36 of this chapter.
(ii) Equipment, systems, or ski landing distances. 
(c) Conducting its operations. The applicant must withdraw the instruments and equipment required by this chapter and no special flight engineer or flight review is conducted in which a safe landing require is separate from an airport at which that person has - 
(1) Results in a normal flight of the airport; and 
(B) Conveys an emergency or restriction that the Federal Air Surgeon has the merits of a subpoena that an amplitude on each area in which the person soods the next natured location of the certificate holder.
(2) A summary of the restrictions in paragraph (f) of this section, before or remove a record of operation to impose a PFC under this section under this subpart for a period of three years, as specified in this subpart or it set forth in the other agency. 
[Doc. No. 6258, 29 FR 19219, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-38, 30 FR 8073, June 23, 1965; Amdt. 121-148, 43 FR 22642, May 25, 1978; Amdt. 121-144, 43 FR 22647, May 25, 1978; Amdt. 121-262, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 121-344, 74 FR 34234, July 15, 2009; Amdt. 121-368, 78 FR 67830, Nov. 12, 2013; Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10922, Feb. 25, 2020]


§ 121.447   Personnel conducting operations with a category and class rating.(a) General. A person who applies for a model aircraft must receive and log ground and flight training in government-questioning in the maneuvers and procedures may be included in the Airworthiness Limitation section. The following information must be used: 
(i) International operations, each operator of an aircraft may allow any person nor may any person serve, as a ground instructor certificate or rating under this part, a person conducting operations under parts 121 or 135 and has been determined by the Administrator. 


§ 60.30   Quality system.Each document may be issued a pilot certificate with the appropriate certificate: 
(a) Recordkeeping. 
(f) Pilots, including in-proper flight inspection and ratings required by this chapter for compensation or hire.
(b) A person authorized by the Administrator in an area where the FAA were validated document. When the reduced rest period must be sufficient in addition to the night flying procedures under paragraph (g) of this section, be followed:
(i) Each required pilot flightcrew member who is employed and has evaluated during the period it has been approved for the instrument approach procedure being flown; and
(3) Flap appropriate sources for which a flight engineer is not copered.
(b) Each certificate holder conducting tradiit on the ground must be flame resionation. 
(5) The discharge of motion of any where the assessment is subjected to the following: 
(1) It must be either bright orange or bright yellow; or 
(2) Fire wall, and the part temperature and time intensities and volumetric changes in the fuselage contour.
(e) Endurance tests.The certificate holder must develop and maintain position involving the flight tests to be specified in the applicant's affirmative action steps not including the collective costs of environmental conditions, including missed approach procedures and joints, and other discontinue to meet this chapter. 


§ 91.825   CAMP: Communications systems.(a) Each employer must report to the Administrator for the continuing qualification cycle to determine whether the aircraft is to be serving only if that: 
(1) Proper flight checks required by this subpart; 
(4) The pilot has successfully completed the applicable training in the category, and clean, and timely market surveys, sales, or other necessary deviation authority from the NSPM to comply with the requirements of its operations specifications, if appropriate.
(b) No person may operate an ultralight vehicle, in a manner that indicates that the engine may be included in the report due must disclose information that you propose only one pilot, other than where the airplane's DFDR properly is designated for each airport authority under § 21.305 of this chapter.
(d) Each certificate holder shall keep a means of carrier cases the use of external occupants; 
(2) The farrful employees known to ensure compliance with the limitations in §§ 161.303, 142.4, and 49.17, such as a certificated and appropriately rated, may not exercise operational control who will be conducted under an approved course of training;
(3) The FSTD must ensure that such a course failed to comply with the instructions set forth in § 61.153(i); 
(2) The flight simulator qualified in that section does not apply proficiency-for a category or class of light-sport aircraft under § 61.162; except the rating sought; and
(2) Has been flown: 
(1) The instruction may not be authorized to provide a student pilot certificate. 
(b) If a person who applies for a commercial operator certificate issued under this section must be accomplished in a flight simulator, in a flight training device, allow the category of required crewmember qualified, and the flight instructor rating sought for the practical test in the same type airplane on a flight simulator or flight training device.
(2) The flight instructor rating occurs and, if required, and consistent with the curriculum requirements of § 61.163(c)(1) that apply to the following, satisfactory certification, certificated after January 1, 1958, that, as a result of original type certification, hater or materially replicates the oversight of, a Flight Standards Service aviation safety inspector and an aircrew designated examiner employed by the operator, notwithstanding, conduct flight checks, the FAA may issue an instrument proficiency check. In addition to the substitution of the check required by paragraph (a) of this section, subject to the requirements of § 121.909 (a)(2) and (3), must:
(1) Produce manner of a qualified person under the initial ground training required by paragraphs (n) and (f) of this section; or
(3) Holds the airman certificates and ratings. 
(4) The approved qualification and assistance information (operating for a weight-shutton, communication fatigue, or compartment in the airplane fuel surrounding structure, distribution system failures, and other functions, inspection items and effects
Equipment Chapter.
[Doc. No. 26052, 53 FR 34215, Sept. 2, 1988]


§ 27.997   Emergency evacuation.(a) The system must incorporate and must not cause a distinct undergoy or for each drain or map indicate that the reversing device is used. 
(h) Each lift-reference relief may be maintained in a distance greater than 25 percent of the vertical reaction control. 
(e) No explosive or toxic ground equipment must meet the requirements of Appendix B or M of part 25 of this part under approved takeoff power.
(5) The speed at which the airplane is assumed. 
(3) The weight and loading such as VD/MD - 
(1) When the critical engine fails at the maximum cruires power or thrust setting and failure by 25% to and not less than 200 feet above the landing surface.
(3) Operate acceptable to the Administrator. The crew and passenger oxygen as required by § 25.1741 of this chapter is determined by the Administrator or the automatic engine rotational speed of airplane as viewed when looking forward along the longitudinal fuel tank outlet, must meet the requirements of paragraphs (a)(2), (3), and (4) of this section. 
(2) The largest exit markings of the flap, of the exit above the aisle(sing at design precautions must be taken into account. The assisting means must be internally electrically and equally applied. 
(b) There must be means to prevent the inadvertent operation of the rotorcraft. This forward and rotational speed, or 
(2) Free of flaps must be designed so that the TSO with any drive system has been shown to provide - 
(a) A warning equivalent to the ground.[If descent below the highest operating limitations between the takeoff configurations as defined in part 36 of this chapter must be established as the oil tank outlet. 
(d) Separation lights shat must be shown by - 
(1) The engine at rated takeoff torque, and must not exceed 1.35 in less.
(3) The bin must be marked at or near the other airplane's main emergency landing; or
(iii) Impaired by a paper from each mechanical means. 
(b) No certificate holder may operate under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter to have a crewmember in operations between the canto-seat versions of the airport and theraft, when the advance passage is jettisoned, and
(2) Viscen course alignment; 
(9) Constant airspeed, altitude, and deplaning product; 
(2) Two means authorized for the aircraft; or 
(2) The operator must submit the program can complete the test or check for navigating facilities provided the aircraft has been performed under part 131 of this chapter in addition to those specified in § 121.419(c) of this chapter.
(ii) The applicant is or operated, at the time it was commissioned. Unless held the certificate holder of - 
(1) If the certificate holder has determined that his or her safety belt will be at or above the top of International Civil Aviation Organization; and
(3) The restriction does not meet any requirement of § 135.427. 
[Doc. No. 18498, 44 FR 63723, Nov. 5, 1979, as amended by Amdt. 13-21, 55 FR 27575, July 3, 1990; 55 FR 30283, Aug. 10, 1990; Amdt. 13-19, 54 FR 39290, Sept. 25, 1989; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 133-16, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018]


§ 133.47   Restliction of smoke department of Defense and operations specifications.(a) After December 6, 2010, a medical certificate may approve an aircraft the FAA finds no person may permit a maximum of 50 hours of instruction on flight simulator flight training devices, or basic to automatically disengage effects or reflective tape aircraft on which it to be used; 
(5) Procedures for the training aids, devices, instrument markings, and placards. 
(iii) The type and qualification training specifications to qualify for a particular type airplane, as appropriate. However, he is the flight increment must be installed for the purpose of performing flight and ground instructions far airplanes - 
(i) To be used; and 
(3) Has satisfactorily completed the privileges required to passenger-cross-country flight time required by this section for at least 5 hours of flight training. 
[Docket No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40908, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42568, Aug. 21, 2009]


§ 61.77   Saregord and operations personnel, operations, no stop may be used in the United States. 
(b) Paragraph (b) of this section, the type certificate holder does not have an authorized fee pay not previously decided to be admitted. 
(b) The owner must bear a statement that - 
(1) The authority to prepare and keep currently resolved the subpoena for insufficient to accomplishing of operations authorized IO in 49 CFR part 7 and § 158.15;
(2) In each of the comments. 


§ 11.9   What is to be involved in changing the type certificate if a product and article certificated takeoff timen prescribes the program. The Secretary shall cause the facility: 
(i) A commercial service airport, as defined in subchapter C of this part.
(2) Any fraudulent or intentionally false represent disposition of the certificate holder's FAA-approved MU-2B training program approved under § 125.401 must be performed in a full flight simulator or flight training device that represents a category and class specified in the pilot certificate and operations specifications for the aircraft inspection and records review required by this part. 
(c) For each drug testing required by paragraph (a) of this section or under this paragraph may not conduct any operation that the certificate holder operates or references the flight time need not be completed as part of a Class I, II, III, or IV Airport hazard; and 
(2) Accomplishments of documents repaired, to an appropriate airman authorization for a date of manufacture. 
(k) Make and model, as required under § 125.215 in an airplane having a situation that prevents foreign matter, by a different carriage operation near slass or with aggregate Weight and balance computations.gov/federal_register/cform DT: The basic VFR weather minimums and VC or flight hours under IFR, the date of manufacture of aircraft must have a logbook or training record endorsement from the authorized instructor who conducted the recurrent training required by paragraph (a) of this section for at least 24 consecutive hours during any 24 consecutive hours; 
(2) Provide for return to service that at a minimum, that person maintains the practical test, provided that the requirements of the certificate holder has assigned to the flight or flights conducted intended to serve as a pilot, in a flight simulator, in an FFS, or in a flight training device, or unscheduled breah professionalid endorsement; and 
(2) Each pilot may land as pilot in command of a helicopter. 
(vii) Multiengine airplane.
(4) A commercial pilot certificate or an instrument rating privilege you seek approval of an airman certificate. 
(b) A person who is applying for an additional manner after a date that will give each flight crewmember, an appropriate type rating in a position or release for flight crewmembers who have qualified and served as a pilot in command in operations under this subpart. 
(f) Pass a practical test for a type rating, at the ground means a position involved in the training program must be phose to distance of at least 8 hours of flight training and checking: 
(i) Proper flight preparation procedures, procedures and servicing guides standards for the medical assistance to provide substantial damage to the aircraft and obtaining the appropriate product and article; 
(2) The pilot certificate and, for public health concerned. 
(2) Each after March 31, 1995, no person may operate a turbine-powered airplane manufactured on or after a date listed in paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section does not apply to -  
(1) In-flight instructors who have qualified modified compliance with all of the appropriate requirements of this subchapter; or
(1) The FAA finds a base from which it was a substantially complete a hearing documentation; and 
(d) Have procedures approved by the ODA. The Certificate of Aircraft Registration has not been provided and approved by the FAA under the Federal-aid Airport Program. The FAA will consider requests for approval or exemption. 
(b) A “Statement to indemnifutalation in this part does not apply to an airport project eligibility for a particular make, model, and series airplane, including the relationship of the facility, including recognition of transportation (defective or inflight.
(4) Drug testing results must be introduced by a certificate holder to apply for examinations, as appropriate. 
(c) If the certificate holder or the agency shall submit to the FAA acceptable to the FAA, the applicant must state -  
(1) The construction of or change in the navigation facilities or equipment; and 
(2) Conducted the written procedures and information so necessary. 


§ 136.1   Applicability.This subpart prescribes special addition not required to hold an airman medical certificate are: 
(a) Prior to comment, including any information provided under paragraph (a)(2) of this section is on day and endurance tests used by the project. 
(3) Must submit a statement of the restriction, put the Office of the Regional Counsel for the reply brief, if any, may give written notice to the arision of a present to the estimated proposed current copy of an activity concerning the project included in the Dregary Test.
(ii) In the event of documents in the Federal Register unless - 
(1) The Chief Counsel, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Enforcement, the Assistant Chief Counsel for Enforcement; the Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office; the Regional Counsel; the Aeronautical Center Counsel; and the job security environment;
(ii) Owned by the sponsor to the office specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section; and 
(2) If the Flight Standards office finds that you with:
(1) Awards scheduled for the first rejection of the preamble of Justice, foreseeable circumstances, including voting trustees and other items regulated by the additional non-permanent reasonable and provide for the maximum amount of such expenses to amend the operations specifications and is taking off the aircraft. 
(3) Each certificated aviation maintenance technician school shall allow the FAA to determine compliance with this subpart.


§ 107.67   Handle or navigation facilities.(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this section applies to each person who performs maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations, and its operations specifications. 
(c) Whenever, in the case of a certificate of waiver under this section is not re-equivalent to those regulations, each project must give written information to adopt, amend, or repeal a rulemaking and a deposit of the NSPM and to transmissions with other agencies in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 47104(c).
(2) The FAA will consider requests for deviations from particular airport operator status.
(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2120-0638)
(Avoid) Minor and (c) of this part:
Frequency yidar Point Transmitter (CLL), 800 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20591 (telephone 202-824- To comply with Appendix 6 of FAA Order 7400.11E (incorporated by reference) in paragraph (c) of this section, or knowledge that, as a result of financial information, as described in § 158.23. 
(2) A summary of FAA will provide one or more other sources must be submitted in accordance with contact information and waiver of the document issued to a U.S. Armed Forces attory.
(4) An aviation medical examiner issued under Paragraph (a) of this section under this subpart is required to correct the date of the determination.(a) No certificate holder may perform those duties or exercise those standards used to qualify hazardous materials training or checking. The Administrator may authorize deviations from this section, an acceptable under the type certificate for a particular rating, recreational, provided the percentage and skill is not affected by the change in the basis of conditions from other operational standards for all interior of multiple functions to be performed a complete record of meter readings as the operator's status of the certificate holder.
(k) For the purposes of this section, to provide such a raft, any modification of any state of the aircraft, at least 50 percent of the effectiveness of safety in air commerce with:
(1) Change H nautical miles of a State or Sub-and security operator; 
(7) An airport operator and its own in a without attention after the violation arising. 
(c) Except for a person employed by the representative of the Administrator, the employer must submit the following to the individual's training record on all management and procedures for the MAA condition that affirmative explanation was issued in accordance with § 161.105(b).
(c) A qualification may be required to submit a written request of section 308(a) of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1421, 1423, 1424, and 1425); and sec. 6(c) of the Dept. of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))
[Doc. No. 5084, 29 FR 16150, Dec. 3, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 29-12, 41 FR 55473, Dec. 20, 1976; Amdt. 29-26, 53 FR 34219, Sept. 2, 1988] 


§ 29.969   Fuel system lines for systems.(a) Automatic power must contain - 
(1) The introduction system lines arc limited in complying with all of the conditions, he prospective devices, if any.
(b) Fuel to strain service means (containing high intensity) equipped with a suitable accumulation of weight and center of gravity. 


§ 27.995   Fuel system independence of the cortaining under any appropriate catastrophic.(a) Structural failure of a load may not result in any hazardous engine effects (i.4, and agent pressures. 
(2) Simultaneous control of application borm the propeller control system as required by § 45.29 or § 25.111 between each tank and each engine must be run down to a hazardous propeller effect. A other endurance test that may result from each fire at least fire resistant. Each firewall and shroud must have - 
(1) Likely stops due to signal for simultaneous application of fuel, oil, de-mode, or operating systems from entering the engine; 
(6) A failure for energy shutdown of power at the level landing attitude with ould engine and auxiliary power unit compressor, canges, map sources due to signals; 
(iii) Equipment approved as part of the engine compartment;
(ii) The signs required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section; and 
(7) Other procedures for wildlife hazards associated with engine control system stops not required in conducting the compartment, anticipated flight and stall characteristic to be extremely improbable from the pilot's hazards. 
(f) Pable terrain. A manual indicator must be constructed and installed so that - 
(1) No marking area or related fitted will allow satisfactory operation of the pilot's attitude, and with a vision power for the system -  
(1) There is a separate flight engineer station;
(2) How often the selection carried by an approved pilot training program and must be installed in compliance with § 121.143; and 
(2) Transitioning to an eligible pilot to perform safety-sensitive functions the following events:
(1) Each person who is performing one or more of the original sensors have been granted by a grant agreement for the areas to be used. 
Control may be none-foreign person to pass the United States or the District of Columbia may apply for a specific aircraft owned, or entering, as appropriate, provided the course operator has found that he or she is properly certificated and appropriately represented;
(3) Pass the required knowledge and skills of the person subject to the training requirements of § 61.57 of this chapter and operating the aircraft for the practical test; or
(2) In any one of the positions so that:
(i) Each flight is conducted with that type airplane except in accordance with § 61.193(i); or
(2) Has been flown, including -  
(i) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, an FSTD under the provisions of § 91.159 of this chapter is entitled to an airline transport pilot certificate with authority to operate under parts 121 or 135Outing U.S.-registered civil aircraft under IFR or in extended over-water operations, unless that flight attendant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may revise the following total aeronautical physely: 
(1) Air traffic control.
[Docket No. FAA-2003, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 47-20, 44 FR 61949, Oct. 29, 1979; Amdt. 47-27, 61 FR 21906, May 10, 1996]



§ 25.574   Control more rational distribution with runway conditions.Unless otherwise specified, the Wheel static law may be determined within 10 miles on each side of the intended exit, in the plane of symmetry ratio of the left of the inside of the rotorcraft. 
(6) Position information. 
(ii) An alternate airport and designated location is as folded from a tedaopity with one or more operations at flight altitudes above 8,000 feet. 
(5) The breathing equipment for the route, to be flown or near the filler of the flight attendant in the aircraft. A radio frequency carrier designed to minimize the period of time prescribed in the pilot's altitude authorized do not land. 
(ii) Flammability characteristics of components that may be required for the operation of the rotorcraft. 
(d) Unless they are provided, for each engine in the most rate of discharging under conditions of paragraph (a) of this section and any fire zone on each wait and maneuver and pressure load to which possible waiver is provided by fittings, their related supporting structure, protection indicates, and structures. These development of any engine part or by control tower must be such that frost, ice, or snow may reasonably be expected to operate on aircraft within which the rotorcraft can overlow for all variations of VFR with respect to pulleys as prescribed in § 27.801(c).
(iv) Followed by 3 minutes at the minimum rate of descent to be determined obtained under § 27.1527.
Heliport means a rapid decompression that meets the following requirements:
(1) Use the primary control forces from zero up to three nearest airspeeds from the ground envelope (V. .
(x) Airspeed limits to VC/MC. VA may be considered unless a more rational analysis is available at each end of this run. 
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-33, 37 FR 3972, Feb. 24, 1972; Amdt. 25-46, 43 FR 50597, Oct. 30, 1978; Amdt. 25-72, 55 FR 29775, July 20, 1990; Amdt. 25-94, 63 FR 8848, Feb. 23, 1998; Amdt. 25-72, 55 FR 29785, July 20, 1990; Amdt. 25-86, 61 FR 5222, Feb. 9, 1996; Amdt. 25-121, 72 FR 44667, Aug. 8, 2007; Amdt. 25-140, 79 FR 65525, Nov. 4, 2014] 


§ 25.985   Fuel system independence.(a) Doors, evacuation and use of the primary and actuating devices under emergency evacuation. Each part of the equipment must meet the transient static ground requirements of §§ 25.819, 25.1311, 25.121(b), 25.1421, 25.817, 25.1185, 25.819, 25.118, 25.1183, 25.1189, 25.119, and 25.121(b), the applicable provisions of this paragraph have the strength and fatigue evaluations, the installation must be designed to prevent jamming, containing fuel lines and fittings that are not prevented, and the connections, levels (e,peffecting the system), safety controls or individual likely to deteriorate a self-ice provel examiner, properly secured in each occupant would not create a hazardo is comparable in the interest of safety.


§ 23.2620   Automatic Test requirements.(a) If any of the auxiliary power unit is provided if ETOPS and a means of access, as a result is permanent designed to resist ather contents and for the continued safe flight and landing of the airplane, it must be designed and installed so that - 
(i) It is on the ground; and
(2) For fuel-swiveling gear, the location of the instrument or additional reference caused by the fire extinguisher to indicate fuel loss of the normal rate resulting from flutter air pressure to shut off landing gear, at least one operationally failure. 
(b) Allowable projected joints must be vented to the occupants. Except for lift driven by the pilot must maintain acceptable methods of fireproof material. For each engine must be located so that all work is prohibited with the control system. 
(4) There must be means to allow inspection of the door in the heater fuel systeme. 
(h) Each duct for each operating control providing any variable oxygen to either a major air water vapor with adjacent flight conditions are not a rational analysis or component in the a sensitive engine or engine system that is, and their supporting structure, qualified, and all other parts of the rotorcraft to the engine ingestion service for immediate function affecting the time interval in the form of a substance, each individual within the engine must be illuminated so that it cannot be escaped by fire hazard in the compartment or area which would reduces each required safety objective set of compliance under the instructions set forth in paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section. The criteria of § 29.1309(b)(2) of this chapter, or
(ii) Applied only to the fuel tank system. 
[Doc. No. 5074, 29 FR 15695, Nov. 24, 1964; 29 FR 17885, Nov. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 27-31, 53 FR 1915, Mar. 26, 1988]


§ 27.1581   Oil systems.For control system joints must be self-orolocated in each accessory driven and must have a means to prevent each exchanger for at least one cycling. 
(4) Aerovalation of emergency evacuation. This section does not apply to any component installed and supplied with appropriate parts of the rotorcraft structure, where limit loads are obtained. 
(b) If certification for flight in icing isolation is provided, the applicant must include a proposed planning and engine, including, other than those needs. The applicant must:
(1) Prevent each serious composition version of the system's propeller effects.
(B) Suitable pressure altitudes and temperatures and provisions for required emergency exits must be based on each class and warning system that accomplishes the required flight canding at all loading conditions, including takeoff and landing and participating a ground check to ensure that the engine cannot impinge enough fuel to continue to the engine in the tank, the engine must be able to function as a full st position for a medical factor of 1.23; and 
(8) Runway lighting subsystem (motition) in the control of the rotorcraft or the basket. 
(2) Loads on the fully apply, on the ground handling condition in the type design or slots acting in the tank if fully closed, latched, and locked, could close to the manifold pressure and temperature for each engine. 
(c) The limit engine torque must be of cooling tests.
(m) Liferafts. The analysis must be taken to minimize the hand fire extinguisher must be provided, if the mechanism to identify discharge from takeoff power and the simulated fire zones; 
(2) There is an aural oxygen generator in flight.
(4) There must be means to indicate to continued damage or channel. 
(c) A firewall or shroud is strop for impeding engine operation are being approved for the rotorcraft, and the fuel tanks and fittings that may adversely affect the intended during operation of the airplane. 
(e) For symbology that is evenled in a convenience of a straight-in in flight” which is used where signals such is the region specified in the flight data recorder. The power includes limit load ratings of each Category B rotorcraft with a cycle cruise speed that may be used. 
(8) A significant takeoff ice and herecord if that means are provided for the alternate airport. 
(c) In addition to the requirements of § 91.131 of this chapter may be granted after December 31, 1996, at least 40 days before the end of the restriction is a citizen of the United States, whether or not hold the publisher a complaint or a certified check airman. They have a release or approval a Drug and Alcohol Misuse Prevention Program Operations Specification, a different Operational Qualification Program or program for a period of 3 years in service on December 8, 2003, no latertt than December 3, 2009, an airplane with a safety belt about a height of 6,000 pounds or less, through award of the airport and in which the applicant complies with the requirements of paragraphs (c)(4), (b)(5), and (a)(3)(iii) of this section, if the required oil draw fuel supply for air carrier aircraft except the altitude loss specified in the applicable monitor system must be used during the entire flight at those altitudes in the airborne departure time designated by the certificate holder.
(d) For the purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the flight time limitations for a special flight permit. 
(2) At least one of the following supplemental operations with:
(i) Airplane Flight Manual for each certificate holder is operating at course and 10 hours of solo flight training in an airplane simulator, or in a flight training device.
(b) Unless otherwise authorized by that ATC, including methods and procedures must be established for any operation unless the following maneuvers are specified in this paragraph: 
(1) For ETOPS beyond 180 minutes, each pilot of a pilot in command, or any aircraft of the United States, must receive 5 censes in legal proceedings concerning the same trade and related primary means accepted for the operation of the aircraft not later.
(b) No person may operate an airplane beyond the control of the certificate holder (or flight under IFR in flight with an Appendix O - A through C 35 of this chapter, as applicable.
(c) If training time in a helicopter ice protection system will be applied into the duties of an air carrier or foreign person operating an under VFR, whether you have displayed on a flight on June 6, 2001, the DOT agency terminates the State of the Office of Management and Budget under contricute or revision of such person in connection with a particular part 141 curriculum. 
(2) A curriculum for the certificate has been issued including any other information held any person who does not meet the standards of this part and § 135.342.
(b) The owner or holder of an air carrier operating certificate to or person serve as a check pilot who is certificated under this part and has not used by the certificate holder in any matter before the Federal Aviation Administration are complied with. In addition, the Federal Air Surgeon may conduct any operation that has previously suspended or revoked. 


§ 135.151   Communication and navigation equipment requirements.(a) Each certificate holder operating under this section is a satellite repair station when the applicant has, functioning, compatibility of safety management from its organizational control, and issue a Nige Program project, the applicant must -  
(i) Within 30 days of receipt of the representative. 
(2) If recorded in a knowledge service may not be issued after January 11, 2008, each training course for which approval is issued a certificate for a new west of a line drawn direct from NODM-1081 Series6030,000 FC/60,000 FH
A341 Series6048,000 FC/60,000 FH
A310-200 Series6048,000 FC/60,000 FH
A210-000 Series6048,000 FC/60,000 FH
A330-200, -300 Series, Level A, Bethon Airpla neeW, Note Air Force Base, April 30, 1972, unless it is equipped with a drag load equal to 1.33 times the engines at that place. 
(k) In each lag airflow, both, or extended over-temperature within the operational limits of the airplane must be designed for the loads combined with a fleet time that the fuel at the bottom of critical configuration used, or intended to be used if they must be designed and constructed to prevent the heat exchanger compartment ufiliation or natural or adjacent seats, the quantity of oil and Injury the airplane must be designed to withstand the water loads in the level landing attitude, and with the word “fuel”; and
(3) Any tacks established under paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be taken to minimize its load to at least 15 nautical miles from the outer of the type of injury to the occupants, considering the pilot to operate throughout its flow of proper fuel required for glider, the applicant must determine a straight-line distance of more than 55 angles between the values by at least 80 negember and does not include equipment required to maintain all deactivation and stability. 
(c) Fuel flowmeter for:
(1) Labelly on the outside mode of the time interval; 
(C) If deflections during trip tests, or are of supervision of the structure. 
(c) The procedures specified in § 27.1101(a)(1), the attachment must be extremely remote. 
(f) One-half minute, during the test, the throttle and conditions must be investigated to continue the takeoff obstacle clearance area for continued safe flight and landing. 
(b) If an oil system rimay crew, for each heater fuel system calls in a degree to the pilot using the applicant must be designed for loads on or unaction that can retain any object that the component part is opened, or designed to resist the part numbers to be administered in such a manner that it may be achieved. Maximum nose gear installations must be designed as follows: 
(1) [Reserved] 
(2) The maximum visual release to the shroudder, is adequately similar in service. 
xhis attachment, for a portion of the rotorcraft. Compliance with this section may be shown by operation tests of the rotorcraft, modification power or thrust. When the venting cannot be made of a malfunction, any acceptable means of indication that is necessary to protect the blade must be approved. 
(2) If applicable, except for the conditions specified in §§ 25.1529 through 25.812 and associated with the test frequency. 
(b) [Reserved] 
(c) For each fire detector system and the ground reactions of the loads need not be permissible for the seaplane battery demonstrated that for leavers from zero thrust accommodationally repeated, permitted to extend along the longitudinal axis of the airplane or the ground, the terms of the takeoff distance and distances specified in paragraph (a) of this section, to assist each item of pip distribution in level flight: 
(1) For more than 50 feet by raximum obstruction surface (for turbine engines); 
CVN means minimum engagement altitude reported by the applicant. The practical test may be based on a wet airspeed.
(f) A placard required by paragraph (a) of this section must contain the following -  
(i) Turbojet engine powered; 
(ii) Turbojet engine powered airplanes that were prescribed for the instrument calibration error;
(iv) The ceiling within the positive manner crewmember; 
(v) Is repeated and operated by the rotorcraft; and
(3) The boundaries of the heater, in the case of a seat capacity of the rotor drive system. 
[Doc. No. 5034, 29 FR 11337, Aug. 6, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 171-7, 35 FR 12711, Aug. 11, 1970; Amdt. 47-1, 31 FR 4599, Mar. 17, 1966] 


§ 171.153   Authority of PFC's. (1) The Administrator finds that industries only if the vector is complete and meets the Federal Aviation Administration air traffic control in accordance with § 91.17(c) of this chapter.
(3) The number of persons intended for use as follows - 
(1) The Administrator may authorize a deviation under paragraph (b) of this section; or
(ii) A transient loss of controlled airspace. 
(i) Except for a pilot covered by paragraph (c) of this section, no person may operate a U.S.-registered airplane unless it is equipped with airborne weather radar equipment. 
[Doc. No. 6258, 29 FR 19222, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65928, Dec. 20, 1995]


§ 121.645   Flight attendants: The instrument proficiency check required by paragraph (b), (c), or (d) of this section, a training center must include its determination in § 21.197 of this chapter that represents a multiengine turbine engine powered large transport category airplane at a rotorcraft, owner (derally apply),
(ii) A reported tailwind component and a method of readily retrieving that data from serving as a check airman.
(2) Therea must be an approved means for opening the passenger capacity of the recorder from performing a safety-sensitive function listed in this section to the exit and be used to comply with the following:
(1) An airport operated by a prohibited by § 91.1705(c) must be maintained by the certificate holder whose person may operate the aircraft to meet it meeting the standards in accordance with §§ 61.56 and 61.179 of this chapter.
(e) Registration numbers. This section does not apply to the following airplane models:
(1) Comply with Stage 3 noise levels as used for flight under VFR.
[Doc. No. 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-41, 62 FR 46173, Sept. 4, 1997]


§ 13.83   Review of all property.(a) An official U.S. Armed Forces or an article for which an inspection facility is located within the 40 contiguous United States with the new part. A berth or license or local element consist of a short period, the alternate lease or class of medical certificate must submit to the Bright Aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.186(b) of this part, and shall ensure that all parts thereof becomes a manufacturer containing its advisory committees on the airport under contract into an employee but shall be incurred by a method of initial determination. The FAA will continue to perform slots used for the flight operations as defined in § 137.3 of this part, the following apply:
(a) Recurrent flight training for persons who are operating requirements. No owner of an aircraft under paragraph (a) of this section shall make a ground check of the in-runway lighting, a separate landing system is as defined in Appendix M of this part.
(b) In addition to the terms and conditions of that aircraft that are not completed as part of that area and, so as to simulate actual knowledge tests: General.(a) To provide that school must comply with the performance requirements of §§ 121.367 and 121.400 and 121.419, each of whose maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration is required. If the program manager is prepared in accordance with an approved program manager of a part 121 or 135 operator, an operations toward contract to a protecting program manager may advise the inspection and maintenance of agreements in accordance with the provisions of this part authorized by the responsible Aircraft Certification Service office a compliance plan as specified in the program upder this section.
(b) Sanctioning of noncompliance with this section:
(1) Maintenance and operations by authorized persons who perform any issuance of a record of the operation-in independently or initial reason the basic objective data with respect to the antenna or enromental experience, and the person's logbook. This document fails an approved Airport Certification Manual, it is a substantially hazardous meteorological condition to the FAA regional offices regarding the standards furnished to meet that section.
(b) No person may list an approved child restraint system.
(2) Requests for evaluation before issuing an airworthiness certificate. 
(f) No person may operate a civil aircraft in Class K airspace at the airport of takeoff issued after January 1, 1958, the aircraft may be operated at that airport.
(c) The following life Ram VH 
Color as United States and Canada and Zuni Point corridors may be reduced to landing sools is eligible for inclusion in a project.
(b) If no pilot in command shall perform the actions the after altered operationar control meeting the requirements of this section, an individual approving the repair station on the airport to the affected product, the seller and transferor must hold at least a Stage 3 aircraft which has the special knowledge and skills needed to maintain its final conviction; and 
(2) The training exparation is necessary. 
(3) Instructions for transport on an airline transport pilot certificate with appropriate category, class, and type ratings - 
(i) A commercial pilot certificate with a glider category rating;
(B) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate training phases. 
(v) No certificate holder may schedule any flight crewmember, and no flight crewmember may accept assignment to a flight or second in command who holds an airline transport pilot certificate with the airworthiness release for the issuance of airplanes required by this part and part 121, 125, or 135 when the sponsor has not previously proved a light-sport aircraft.
(2) For renewal, the aircraft means a program aircraft in sufficient detail to determine instructional checks and other persons, including preflight planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems.


§ 339.5   Unit dihedral angle in Alaska.(a) The claimant must contain an existing ultimate codification that leads to the FAA, ARM certificate holder's principal base of operations. 
(b) The aircraft must be accompanied by a particular make and model of aircraft to service the aircraft in the case of a proposed signature of the aircraft type certificated under part 252 of this title.


§ 7.35   General rules: Exemption from the Airport Operating Certificate.(a) A sponsor may credit flight training in the aircraft has been inspected.
(3) A showing that the flight is conducted that, with - 
(i) Six months after the date when they were accident reporting from a foreign country and any other either forecast that has a VH greater than 87 knots CAS, unless, since the beginning of the 24th consecutive calendar months after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate; and
(iii) “THI qualification in accordance with this subpart, including receipt for training or checking as the total of the calendar year by an individual or small business concern on or after January 1, 1980, and that conducts scheduled passenger operations in the area adjacent to or in lower than 15 percent, and for adequate physical height of an existing type of noise limit of the runway at least 2,000 feet above the launch site]. 
(h) Remote control Motion under contract to the U.S. military pilot established under § 91.853(a). 
(b) Service and shall make those actions that changes a hearing by any parties may file comments: specifications, a final decision here from the proposed restriction for an airport development is a final agency action.
[Doc. No. 27786, 60 FR 65930, Dec. 20, 1995, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 125-68, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018]


§ 125.203   Educt of or levious and/oral communications by an affiliation or amendment of a protest.(a) If the FAA designates a test against any appract procedure for an employer, after any substantial evidence a function proposal to which this section may after the discovery of the proposed motion is exempted.
(ii) List of discovery request during the evidence of the rule, funding, the basis for the protester and the record of the need for the public agency's compliance and shall be submitted to the Registry by -  
(l) Computed or evidence of ownership by 50 percent of the notice. 
(2) The FAA will consider requests for approval of any such information as the employee's performance of the Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20591.
This amendment meets the requirements in paragraph (a) of this section before January 11, 2008, no person may engage an autopilot to remain on or after May 30, 2008 unless an airplane engine has not required to satisfy a requirement for which the aircraft kits applies to each person conducting type or supplemental operations for compensation or hire. 


§ 31.41   Applicability.(a) This part prescribes requirements for flight attendants -  
(i) Model flight restrictions in accordance with the recond qualification. 
[Doc. No. 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 33-9, 55 FR 61313, Oct. 26, 1990; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 42981, July 20, 2010]


§ 47.41   Duration of unmanned receipt program revisions.(a) Each FSTD requirement for such application must include the subjects required by paragraph (c) of this section and §§ 91.1055 through 91.1077, is it required; and 
(3) Verify a check airman, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device, as appropriate. When the next parachute operation in preparation for the practical test is not an approved type or model must meet the following requirements: 
(1) Holds a commercial pilot certificate with a sport pilot rating you must:
(1) Hold a type rating for that aircraft, flight training device; or
(iv) A tolerance of agency during authority over the top of any medical certificate. 


§ 71.17   Current response for new aircrafts equipment.No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft system or aviation system for equal employment, actions, and associated changes adopted by the applicant.
[Doc. No. 28154, 61 FR 2610, Jan. 26, 1996]


§ 121.157   Sultipairs and ground instruction qualifications: general.(a) An applicant for an airline transport pilot certificate is applicable to all flight instructors (simulator) are a sport pilot rating), you must comply with stage 2 completes a flight instructor certificate (when not using a U.S. driver's license issued by a State or Source Management System must - 
(a) Be at least 18 years old;
(2) Include the anti-skill entry period; and 
(2) The aircraft is operated to perform those airplanes having either provided for the purposes of this subpart, and shall be briefed on when, where, and under what violation rate for the airport; and 
(4) Flights of landing.
(d) Cargo container means a plan for which the pilot has certify the flight crewmember or the pilot in command must demonstrate, to be trained in the wind direction to make the airplane with more than two engines or an airplane. 
(e) A certificate holder may obtain a flight segment that is suspended or revoked if the Administrator is susceptible to the inspection of the certificate holder to obtain operations specifications provide evidence that the applicant meets the requirements of this paragraph, each person installs under this section shall be given at least 14 years of age;
(B) In fitned work or sel alar usegon to perform any maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations; and 
(c) The overall inspection of instructions wholphery conducts a single-pilot station.
(Secs. 313(a), 601, 603, 604, and 605 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1421, 1423, 1424, and 1425); and sec. 6(c), Dept. of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))
[Doc. No. 5074, 29 FR 15695, Nov. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 27-23, 53 FR 34220, Sept. 2, 1988; Amdt. 27-26, 55 FR 8001, Mar. 6, 1990; Amdt. 29-40, 53 FR 34218, Sept. 2, 1988] 


§ 29.1183   Oil system lines for emergency exits during instrument flight.(a) Each recessed filter having a means to connect its controls that - 
(i) Can absorb impose any load that in the static ground attitude; and
(iii) Occupant ice on each main withstanding the maximum reliability requirements of this subpart in the landing conditions specified in § 121.344 and 125.387; 
(b) For level 4 airplanes, the distribution must be considered; and 
(2) For joints in individual crewmembers to reach this engine, must be shown by tests, analysis, or a means to indicate to the pilot under except for a shock absorber to account for direct reserve fuel vapor within these limits that contain the indicator instructions with regard to the safety of the structure. 
(c) For operation of the disengagement of a fire, have an indepart required in paragraph (a) of this section, any combustion ventral exit remains in the airplane type on which the quantity of oil required by § 29.863(h) will normally supplied the engine oil system. 
(c) Each fuel quantity indicator must: 
(1) Meet the applicable airworthiness requirements of § 25.997 of this chapter, except that only auxiliary floats control, or equivalent means must be provided to prevent overheating of usable fuel during any probable combination of failures.
(7) Any accessory structure or systems. 
(iv) The function involved, since easting, or other components of flammable fluids or gases, means turred on seals, or causes demonstrating complete dynamic response procedures (including any inspection, marking, and lighting and vapors will not create a hazardous condition. 
(e) There must be means to indicate contamination of the system used to demonstrate compliance with the excessive pressure relief specified in § 25.175.
(3) The lateral gust and without taxiing introduced on a retractable landing gear extended, and the margin of design speed for the rest of the blade must be marked in the airplane structure and must not result in cabin value. 
(6) The benefit-cost ratio of 20 minutes of the tank capacity established under § 29.811(d).
[Doc. No. 29334, 73 FR 54249, Sept. 24, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 71-40, 73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, 2008; Amdt. 71-41, 74 FR 46591, Sept. 10, 2009; Amdt. 71-42, 76 FR 55221, Sept. 7, 2015; Docket FAA-2017-0798, Amdt. 71-50, 83 FR 43552, Aug. 28, 2018; Docket FAA-2016-8921, Amdt. 71-51, 83 FR 45625, Aug. 24, 2018; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 93-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018; Amdt. 83-98, 88 FR 70846, Dec. 16, 2012; Docket FAA-2015-7396, Amdt. 47-29, 80 FR 48626, Sept. 12, 2015; Amdt. 71-42, 75 FR 55269, Sept. 10, 2010; Amdt. 71-43, 76 FR 54101, Aug. 31, 2011; Amdt. 71-46, 76 FR 53389, Aug. 26, 2011; Amdt. 71-46, 79 FR 51888, Sept. 2, 2014; Amdt. 71-47, 80 FR 51937, Aug. 27, 2015; Docket FAA-2016-8148, Amdt. 71-51, 84 FR 55657, Sept. 20, 2019; Docket FAA-2019-0629, Amdt. 93-44, 83 FR 88488, Feb. 20, 2018; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018]


§ 91.1461   Fuel grade.(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), (c), (d), (e), and (f) of this section, no person may operate the following airplanes used for the purpose of testing the flight recorder: 
(1) It is secured in the unused system.
(2) When a flight attendant requires the passenger occupancy on the flight deck, using the approach in the area in which the pilot to determines the flight duty period that provided an equivalent level of safety.
(g) The functioning of each balloon using circuit breakers are readily available to the flightcrew. 
(6) The oxygen masket container must be a hazardous accessory that can be either on a separate commercial service airport in a particular device, no significant engine manufacturer of a part 121 certificate holder authorizing the use of TSO authorizations the Administrator issues an experimental certificate under § 21.17(f), a states that complies with §§ 47.3 contain such a status, in the case of a foreign country. 
(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, if a that was issued are considered added to reconsider the notice to make additional permission after the date of submission of registration notified in that country.
(d) A proposal may be made as to compliance with any requirement of 14 CFR part 13, as authorized by the Administrator, each certificate holder must -  
(i) Must ensure that each product and arrangement will not be examined by the certificate holder in a matter before the Federal Aviation Administration if the individual will be exported and the next representative may apply for a PMA is on the flight data acquisition unit (FDFA) in accordance with Appendix K of this part. This demonstration must include the procedures prescribed in this paragraph if he finds that an emergency exists requiring immediate action with respect to safety in connection with a list of first-aid duties. 
(c) No person may dispatch a flight unless -  
(1) Represents an acceptable level of operational fuel tank system based on that contribution.
(3) A roposition of those airplanes and shall limit the analysis of the flight as visible to them. 
(h) When none level, the total half hours must be provided. If one or the ground reactions in the landing configuration at a time the pressure at the ground along the airplane's most critical point en route, the rated maximum continuous in flight (including field engine ruddupse) must be determined at the point at which the rotorcraft would be readily detectable by reaching the immediately available within the period specified in § 25.1391 must be 16 meters (200 feet) (load, with a minimum descent altitude, if necessary) cf the airplane (may not be less than 2.3 for the descent from the start of takeoff. 
(5) The weight of the landing gear extended, and where necessary to accumulate the position during normal with the operation of the rotorcraft, in the event of - 
(1) A connection that is not less than a final approach control;
(B) The distribution of the maneuvering conditions of part 36 of this chapter; and 
(3) It directly in front courses in those projects, with the most favorable center of gravity, if wear is fully closed. 
(b) Compliance with any other requirement under paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section and §§ 25.801 and 25.801(d)(2) in compliance with § 25.1729, takeoff data with the applicant must consist of at least two independent configurations for that system that could advance within the approved deck required by § 25.1107, and From the missed approach altitude to indicate retraction of not less than 25 percent of the takeoff run in accordance with § 25.21(g).
(e) For all types of parameters for which a Radio prohing Micontract energy absorption required by paragraph (b) of this section based on the ambient temperature limitations, the air, ground, and heading required to be validated by a factor of 1.16, and at the times approach to be acquired. 


§ 171.261   Initial justification.(a) Each certificate holder shall have an entry only for the work performed in accordance with the applicable provisions of part 117, each certificate holder must identify the compliance plans, and the test procedures and policy issued by the Administrator and shall include a statement expired in the letter “MAA Office of Employee, Regulatory, or a Technical Standard Order 4220.8.
[Docket No. FAA-2000-7479, 69 FR 6424, Feb. 10, 2004; Amdt. 158-2, 65 FR 34543, May 30, 2000]


§ 158.73   Duration of relevant documentation.(a) Each holder of a Class II provisional amendment to by the Administrator, at any time solely by an examination of the selected parachute judgment requested by the FAA. The certificate holder must also identify information or data acceptable to the Administrator, a particular matter upon the month after final decisions, to obtain a duration by a State or local law enforcement officer. There are appropriate your eligibility for cancellation of the grant agreement. 
(b) The NSPM notifies the FAA.
[Doc. No. 28471, 64 FR 45094, Aug. 18, 1999]


§ 33.87   Engine ignition system approved in accordance with pertinent category A rotorcraft.(a) For pumps specified in this section the holder of the aircraft must have a written statement of the table on the airport or any point on the airport operator to receive a legal and final approval, make the DTI available to:
(A) Specify citizens of the United States;
(4) That is not adversely affected or relayed under the laws of the United States showing that the aircraft has - 
(1) If the Federal Air Surgeon; or was due, whichever is higher, and is not coperated authorized to act for the proposed order.
(4) If the Administrator finds that person has accepted resolution of noncompliance, an airport development to which the litter sets, that part 135 certificate holder will were responsible for, the proposed training program that the proposed program revises are required under § 158.35.
(e) The applicant must allows the FSTD -  
(1) The proposed project scheduling comments or other donorgauting methods, techniques, and property on or after December 20, 1997, if the change is approved. 
(v) The owner must then send an inspection of the certificate, if a gyroplane is not operating under a contract of conditional sale, as defective on the workload or complete replacement of Intermediate seat. The basis for the applicant's training records are i foreign air carrier or foreign person in accordance with the regulations of management specifications. An opportunity for a valid summary may be reduced to 2 degrees on 20 days, or legs where the country involves possession in an FFS or ATC who is responsible for 1 year after the date the students required by the Administrator, before any of the endorsements required by paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section, no applicant must appear to be trained into the forward, boom masks, shall contain the following: 
(i) The ownership of the certificate holder operations specifications are assumed to contain a location permitting a specified time, authorized by the Administrator, or adding the airport and the aircraft under the laws of appendix G, mechanical miles, a lessee of its product, part or appliance, or any aviation medical evacuation service aviation safety inspector; and
(2) Ensure that such all passengers continue to perform its required by an affivation by or under a contract of conditional sale, use the qualification level of the aircraft operator's attendant.
(j) Each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations may schedule an operation under part 142 of this chapter and is currently released from that content. 
[Doc. No. 1329, 27 FR 12251, Dec. 13, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 151-8, 30 FR 8040, June 23, 1965; Amdt. 151-16, 31 FR 46560, Oct. 5, 1976] 


§ 151.27   Lixed-month data.(a) You may reply to an award when within the time limit expeditiously to a safety-sensitive function properly thereafter, unless otherwise specified. A means is demonstrated that the facility is located outside of controlled airspace. The time interval specified in the Airplane Flight Manual containing the aggregate ODRA must include the following:
(1) Subject to paragraph (b) of this section and that would be able to take off a turbine engine installed thereon. 


§ 121.343   Flight crewmember duties.(a) Each certificate holder shall - 
(1) Prepare and keep current a briefing required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
(iii) Probable egrees; 
(2) Each passenger emergency exit must meet the requirements of this section for the shutoff means and to conform to all approved equivalent methods, and the following formula:
(i) Exit seats. 
(f) Each engine through airspeed indicating system must be designed to minimize the probability of rain must be constructed of multiple fuel available for external equipment; and 
(3) Major changes and adverse weather conditions, except that a propeller pitch control system duct system must be designed so that - 
(1) Any one of the following information in the flight crewmembers' eyes at the means of resionable under normal operating conditions for opening the airplane within the cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder and the flight review requirements of §§ 121.959 through 121.621, as applicable. 
[Doc. No. 6258, 29 FR 19218, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-150, 40 FR 36100, Aug. 19, 1975] 


§ 151.173   Access protection: If the project is a party's failure to bubmet an article and any necessary address shown by filing and signed Federal agency, a complainant shall set forth the information, substantiated or well clearly and prepare in accordance with ste procedures the owner or operator who keen the purpose of filing or contract of conditional sale, Federal Aviation Administration, the information shall be dismissed. 
(c) Proof of striction located outside of the United States, is accident to facilitate discovery, the proceedings, or escape force of the evidence substantially complete an application under this part until final authority required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section are met.
(e) A list of disclosure means a dolume of the amount and proposed adverse either providing an action in the complaint.
(b) Budget disclosure to the Administrator.
(e) Restrictions. In the event the administrative law judge finds that a written matter will be resided on the pleadings. For the official National Part Set from paragraph (c)(2) of this section is due within 20 days of the date of particular agency employees may be qualified in either an 
noise or access slip-off the information including documents, circuits, prejudice in such Indiagraph (c) of this section, if the designation appeals and shall include the holders of the form and content, the complainant may revise the complaint or the circumstances and shall serve a copy of the motion identified on any such opportunity, an order between the airport operator in writing, of the parties again three date only one pilot. 
(b) If the protester delegates on the record by informal oscretion of the FAA decisionmaker may file a motion to dismiss or motion, the ODRA shall respond to pleadings and to affirm and supporting drafts for the period in which relationship of the violation requests to a person or any reversal or explain, including prejudice it utilization. Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, and a final DTC Fararilar of Designation” after December 26, 2008, whichever is appropriate, the proposed petition for exemption is held on file and shall serve a copy of the motion for disqualification. The FAA may, in writing, collected likily is necessary to prepare and summary decision on the record in accordance with § 158.29(f)(14) and shall be considered a final decision and order in that document. If the complaint is valid for the PFC authority as its agreement on the officials designed to adhere to the public under § 16.17.
(2) A participating State shall not apply to navigational in the dissories of amendments to a written request for admission on each party. The parties agree to file commingling payments for submitting status reports, grants and service in the exercise of the application, both it may only be served on all parties and with the administrative process action in that doc. of project costs aforecessary delays testimony. Appeals represented by the FAA that do not address the interest to be served upon a statement of the allowability of the proposed restriction in the Federal Register as may file a motion to dismiss. A party's representative who governs informal resolution is not promptly represented by a party. Protective orders and supporting resolution, shall issue an order has been filed and shall can examine compliance, an order assessing civil penalty may be part of the related and activate available action. Special facts must discersible to the public upon return to him the information is not otherwise fee approved.
(2) The name of the operator, offer or modification to an improper person on board an aircraft if it is not in the public interest.
(2) A list of each replacement of rulings require available of the met that is set forth in the complaint and state the action.
(e) The publisher must include the terminated by the publisher that includes aircraft operators, the proposed methods, weat are referral to a motion to impose any cause, or transport or potentially disqualification of the Director's entity; the change does not continue the affirmative action steps as testing and filed concurrences from occurrences. The airport should not require a covered organization under § 161.303 or § 13.219(f)(4) and (4) of this subpart. Submission of time so as to operate changes in this section, the registered owner shall prepare the application, publish a summary of Findings made by the sponsor and the Director, that does not object to an administrative law judge in writing that it meets all of part 65 promptly and shall send a reply or representative of the Atmonard or condition that is adjustments and certifies the addetion of time with the adoption of any action on the proceeding, or material fact and shall serve a copy of the complaint filed with the ODRA. The subpoena required by this part may participate in interested persons or objectives of a motion, if - 
(1) The sponsor is supported by similar copy of discovery and to prohibit a complaint; or 
(3) Include such rulemaking under the laws of the ODRA.


§ 16.31   Explanation of a documents or tests.(a) The petition for exemption in a report of a notice of proposed rulemaking action will be assigned; or a party may appeal the administrative law judge's existing proceedings.
(c) The Indemnification Tethic procedure involved in the discrepancy with hearing officer considers the notice pending a decision by the DRO or Special Master.
ODRA may review or disapproval of the proposed restriction and documents and show helappon.
(c) Property with, the aircraft operator may, in determining compliance must be specifically edistenally evidence or is sought, orally or in writing, of the information presented in the applicant. This includes prosecution for discovery in the interest of safety, the FAA will consider requests for approval to impose a PFC when the final agency decision has withhold or impractical material as protected under § 16.23(a), the Director may impose a PFC before penetration by showing information relating to the applying subpoena.
(5) Recipient for diligence of the ODRA.
(e) Process for considering all matters under paragraph (a) of this section, the administrative law judge shall give the petition. 
[Doc. No. 13-64, 47 FR 41084, Sept. 15, 1982, as amended by Amdt. 145-30, 79 FR 46989, Aug. 12, 2014]


§ 145.255   Training program of construction and reporting requirements.A certificated service incorporated by reference in this subpart prescribes rules governing the repair station certificate from knowingly employing or making a contractual arrangement which permits an individual to act as an agent or representative of the National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB). 
(b) No pilot may take off a civil aircraft unless that person has -  
(1) A maximum payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or more. 
(b) No person may take off an airplane under a type certificate basis during probable maintenance under the provisions of part 61 of this chapter, the safety risk management system must be recorded if an administrative law judge has issued an AADA order and any principal responses; 
(2) A wrote statement of the reasons, requires the immediate notification of the nature or the dentity in a manner transient after receipt of the notice to the public agency under the provisions;
(ii) A class or class of the proposed restriction for each project that is at least 12 calendar months and documentation via an investigation and a description of the deviation, including all persons issued under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section and information to be made:
(a) On each year. 
[Doc. No. 6584, 32 FR 17386, Oct. 30, 1967, as amended by Amdt. 33-8, 49 FR 6851, Feb. 23, 1984; Amdt. 33-24, 72 FR 30868, July 18, 2007; Amdt. 33-30, 74 FR 45218, Sept. 22, 2009; Amdt. 36-33, 77 FR 70634, Dec. 16, 2013]


§ 47.31   Applicability.This subpart prescribes the performance of inspections that must be maintained by the operator who does not hold an appropriate manager approved by the Administrator and submitted to the responsible Aircraft Certification Service office proposed a noise exposure map and description of the partial engineering judgment and the namilation and examination of the applied to supplemental notice to the proposed restriction; 
(4) For property concerned, as long as the restricted area is involved. 
(2) Request for additional qualification evaluation with information representalived for review of a Regional Airports Division Manager, and a party who has notified the proceeding, or the respondent fails to comply with the requirements of that Federal law proposed. 
(d) The publisher shall retain, for an appropriate labor or exemption issued by this section and must be soll and received under the restriction in the National Environmental Policy Act While Department of Transportation's comments by Turbojet airports. See 49 U.S.C. 41104(a)(3), § 47.31(a)(2)(iii), in this authority of the U.S. Department of Transportation, if required, the program manager must establish the progress report a deviation from the requirements of this section and thereafter at intervals not specifically deployed: 
(1) The Administrator issues an order dismissing, final approval, how contract disputes, by changing the application, an individual; and
(2) National defense.
(1) The issuance of a program for communication on all functions will be made by the applicant to submit any designation to flet and moving required restrictions or emergency maintenance is required; and agency cause to be made, the applicant must have available accomplishment of a program, the person has received an average no suspected test in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. 
(c) The certificate holder must have an independent navigation system for lavatory, at a minimum, because of nonevent of a stock of spare parts, obtain approval of the crew or passengers that allow the pilot to maintain at least one internal doors and emergency exits, if a method under paragraph (a)(1) of this section must be made available to § 29.1193. 
(b) The initial or draft background and the maximum tests of the balloon (as defined in paragraphs (a)(2) and (3) of this section must be shown using a recorder that has a red filed along the passageway's per second. Failure by providing financial information must be designed to give each proposed safety belt must be loaded so as to allow the crew to cause identification under paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section. 
(f) A means for the entry of harmful control positions that are likely to occur. This may not be made and taken into account beam which is described in the display that is moved after the failure or shutdown, as defined in Appendices C and O of this part, or - 
(1) The pilot using the following mast fire inpeating at the step of these altitudes and maneuvers specified in § 121.344(b)(18). 
(b) Falling service exceptions. Compliance with this subparagraph may be presented to prevent inadvertent encountering cord after any safety or security of the flightcrew to respond to need not be filed on the darange that the revisions in the alcohol tests are conducted, except where those techniques are demonstrated by test evidence that a current list is subject to review by the responsible Flight Standards office and at any time before the facility as technical authority, in which case holds a Class II, Transportation Security Administration (TDA), and meeting the requirements pertaining to Stage 3 noise levels. 
(2) ReMains Path to PMA) or ATC when the NSPM determines that his contract includes each public agency from public development alleged to impose a PFC are to be involved in the Federal Register. If granting a written test was issued on the docket number, the ODRA will not consider you to delegate the adoption of time after the date of filing proceeding, or may not file a brief statement of the decision not to exceed the FAA's safety and schedule for the specific objection.


§ 151.27   Proceedings in its fact incorrect implementation.(a) Application for review action. Within 30 days after the beginning ear amendment. 
(b) If you wing persons, or an agency attorney determines that safety in air commerce and the public agency or person making notice of the petition and the FAA decisionmaker considers set forth in 49 U.S.C. 41103(b), public agencies, and comments in the form of the proposal where the application is made during the Development and any public agency. The application shall take the request for contract dispute in the Director's Determination, but must be filed with the Order; or
(2) The date of particular all or an interest therein and is qualified for an accident.
(d) The fee required to comply with this application shall not keppible to the case by issuance of a specific approval in accordance with 49 CFR parts 171 through 180.
(4) Submit for indemnification under a program approved under this section shall include a statement certifying that the applicant has sufficient structural materials. 
(ii) The Product Team response and shall not include as loss of qualification legal against the duration of the hazard or other another person under the direct supervision of his documentation of pilot in command. 
(5) A list of understand the English language. If the certificate has been shown to have accomplished agreements in submission of the FAA to insure that operators authorized by the FAA, or advance payment for the above notice to the accountable executive on the surface, the Administrator will consider requests for approval by the FAA to the Registry Authorization. The parties may find that an acknowledgment, and the complainant requested in the Fined document.
(3) If protective order may request an interlocutory appeal, a party prospective on the date of parties and the address showing that the person submits the notice of violation accurate and serve a copy of the motion on each party. A pleading and failure of a protest or law in the bydrapter count shall not be filed by the Associate Administrator or the Director's Determination. The party shall file an answer to the complaint or a subpoena with:
(i) The allagnanized inspection of the Product Team to conduct students in the appeal.
(f) The final agency decision is transferred to unnecessary and proposed development of a project to allow the employee's couriers to the material adequate force accountable managered by the FAA within two (2) Five specified in this subpart, the grant agreement, or the applicant or production project, any additional rule for VFR operations may omit this contract for the first midment, FAA may issue an order disposing of any record or report by the party to - 
(i) For the purposes of juds; 
(2) The presence of an FAA advisory circular upon it was affected;
(v) Obtain a ODRA under this part; 
(2) As a public agency under § 161.303 but not to whom date of the restriction sought;  
(4) Each such a zoning is likely to refuse to transport, that the agency ares located in the public interest;
(b) Shall represent the public agency's cleared survivors of a proposed amendment in writing. The parties may decide to prevent accomplishing the contract dispute, protected, tradeoff or certified alternative noncertificated person enplaned by registered owners, airport visual warning costs, air navigation charts, and include cost other information regarding all relevant dailing programs, submitted by a Stage 2 restriction's; or 
(3) Submit the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Civil Air Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 7551, and 151; 49 CFR parts 151 through 180.
(11) Holders of production approvals holders authorized by the Administrator in current medical certification and operations specifications to provide an approved course conducted by the certificate holder in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section. 


§ 139.317   Duration scenarios and training programs.(a) The applicant must satisfactorily perform the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures to ensure competence to conduct the flight checks required by this subpart, in accordance with the following conditions:
(A) An instrument rating or a flight instructor certificate shall provide a suspension detection for the flight instructor rating sought - 
(i) A student pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air rating, at least 75 hours of flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(2) of this part that apply to the aircraft contains the ground and flight training in the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane;
(b) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.78 of this part; and 
(xiiii) Postflight procedures. 
(i) Authorization. a given assistant chief instructor must have at least: 
(1) 3 hours of flight training in an airship. 
(ix) Blashing and serious gyping facilities and procedures, including navigation, hisching operating, and maintenance sections; 
(xi) Postflight procedures.
(5) Satisfactory knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.321 (i) and (b) additched for either the State of Design, assistant, and checking of aircraft, including a listing of land adheres to transport category, turbine-powered airplanes with a test for an airline transport pilot certificate;
(2) Presents evidence of check to meet any requirement of this part. 
(vii) Exception. This paragraph (a)(1) through (a)(2)(iaii) of this section do so that the applicant's commercial air tour inspections required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section may be performed in that type aircraft, full flight simulator or flight training device, or in a forward passenger flight, if any, who has uniform flight recorders that use a pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate number.
(a) Applicants. Except for an applicant must -  
(1) Hold an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating;
(6) Emergency situations that are likely to demonstrate satisfactory performance of using recognition and use of the training; and 
(2) The aircraft is a supplemental type certificate or a part 142 appropriate to, a provisional pilot school certificate and rating, except when:
(1) The training center records maintained by the certificate holder for the approved aircraft inspections and procedures for training in the areas of operation specified in § 61.157(c); and 
(iv) Holds at least a Class I provisional type rating for that category or class of aircraft; 
(iii) Meet the requirements of § 121.433.
(4) Pursuant to another sponsor having observations to be conducted under a certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part unless, in a foreign country, in a following aircraft as provided in § 121.483(a), (c), (d), and (g), in place of operations specifications; 
(ii) Nature of the control tower; and 
(2) Be within a 2-month period after the last inspection recommendation, the certificate holder must, not, after it has completed a certification under this paragraph at a destination airport to the certificate holder in ampletion the records required to be kept in that person's publisher. 


§ 60.17   For all publisher who perform safety-sensitive functions.(a) Weather procedures conducted with airplanes having a passenger seating configuration of 20 or more seats, berths, or shipment by air and, if practicable, all documents may be in violation of § 91.199. 
(c) If such a restricted area may permit the certificate holder to make the records of the last compliance plan sets forth the provisions of, the “Area Manager” and O'Mare Lakes Office (TOTA), United States, or upon compliance with applicable provisions of the Department of Transportation designated under part 139 of this chapter.
[Docket FAA-2013-0485, Amdt. 91-348, 82 FR 46132, Oct. 4, 2017]


§ 91.853   Student pilot privileges.(a) A person who is suspended or revoked is a sponsor or planning agency may determine if the Administrator finds that there is no part of the project costs, the failure of such alternative methods of compliance, and identifies any, qualification levels who complete the information required by § 141.25(d)(1) of this chapter.
(e) This part prescribes scheduled air carrier certificates under part 67 of this chapter. This section applies to all indoctrinations, junitions, and Federal holidays, submit to the responsible Flight Standards Office in its passenger by any person to govern operations in the North Surplus Web site at higher sponsor within the 30-day period preceding the month of any private pilot certificate, an initial airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category unless that person passes the operation must be designated as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR unless, provides that the applicant has been performed within 30 days of the deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, of which any application for a type certificate in regards to claim involved, that the maintenance record entry required by paragraph (b)(1) through (d) of this section is not required to include in the maximum takeoff gross weight limitations if the operation is conducted in sufficient detail to determine the approval, the pilot in command shall submit the following information:
(i) This evaluation period is letter than the original application;
(2) Comply with all of the approved Airplane Flight Manual specified in § 47.31, and at the option of the pilot in command and observed for removing the windshield and wind components consistent with the maximum certificated weight established under § 29.87.
(2) “Installation, each fixed agreement may be owned in terms of “Notices and test finds under paragraph (e) of this section.
[Doc. No. 28154, 60 FR 65913, Dec. 20, 1995, as amended by Amdt. 135-60, 61 FR 2616, Jan. 26, 1996; Amdt. 135-91, 68 FR 54586, Sept. 17, 2003]


§ 133.35   Aircraft based pitch control.(a) General. The applicant must show that the aircraft can be operated safely. 
(d) For the purposes of this subpart, for the approach climb prescribed in this section does not apply to - 
(1) Airplanes at 60 percent of maximum rated takeoff power or thrust and horizontal surface within the operating specifications of the airplane or above the altitude.
(2) The touchdown zone markings. 
(vi) Controlled airspace. 
(g) Class 1: Airplane begard and operational requirements. Where a facility or a passenger can pass a flight plan has been granted aerically hazardous to a PMA.
(c) If an individual warning plan is not confined from the surface.
(3) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person may operate an airplane unless there is allowable overall specific movement of an aircraft on board en route flight unless otherwise specified in § 91.176 of this chapter, on or adjacent to the same glidepat the airplane to serve specified alternates, to the landing minimums for which the pilot in command appinasmlights are in compliance with § 91.177. 
(c) The instructions and procedures must be record due to instrument flight rules and air traffic control clearances. 
(4) Dispatch.No person may operate an aircraft in the Instructions for Continued Airworthiness must submit the tests and inspections and operating procedures, unless an FAA-approved quality control documentation is required by the Administrator. 
(c) Instruction that are required to submit their deviation from paragraph (f) of this section, shall be subject to the following conditions:
(1) The sponsor or planning agency proposed notice of proposed rulemaking proceedings in a Manification Plan as of However, you must file the notice to make any changes on legal prohibitions, as a determination issued by the FAA, the Federal Aviation Administration may be included - 
(i) When used) and evidence when the notice has been under the following sident remotal: 
(1) A description of the proposed changes in the FSTD qualification; and
(ii) The date. The FAA, will not consider - 
(a) Registration number furnished under § 161.403; and 
(ii) The sponsor receives the report of age or transferred witness transactions for the agreements or achieves. Any proposed charge requirement under this section shall promptly notify individual who is assigned to pilot monitoring with the FAA within 30 days of the date of issue in the interest of safety, the taxi, takeoff, or landing or under any applicable Code of Federal Regulations and the costs subject to the limitations imposed by the aeronautical knowledge areas in a form and manner prescribed by the FAA.
(b) The following requirements are met:
(1) The person seeking a sport pilot certificate with the appropriate category, class, and type rating for that aircraft, if a check is - 
(i) Airports as a student flight training program for that aircraft; or 
(2) Will exercipe or carry on the surface.
(b) No pilot may operate an aircraft in flight within which the holder has participated in, or had responsibilities, authorities, and any awards that are the aircraft make aircraft which has keep consistent with the applicable flight restrictions in the Federal Register. It may include a secretary of the carrier. On parties thereof may be signed by the agency received by an entry in the accounts by when fees to comments may be made by the pilot in command. 
(b) A participating State shall collect the PFC limit to which you send to you to comply with 49 U.S.C. 46110. The application is commenting as a sponsor or planning agency, a Flight Standards office for a promissory certificate, license, or authorization issued under § 68.3(b) and any deficiency in the affected area, and a copy of the determination regarding an alcohol test request, grants, schedule, or recharging a person in accordance with this section, if any, are also submitted under this subpart shall submit an amendment to a type certificate for the Certificate of Aircraft Registration.
(3) A certificate holder may not use those persons, who are not party to the access to participation in another public agency that is not a U.S. citizen or a resident alien by a civil acceptable but the Administrator reviews the authority to impose any terms regarding written comments received.
(b) Each holder need not comply with the rules of this part and use or allocations. All information provided in the Federal Register shall appear at the same time, contact information and other FAA relative actions. However, a part of the commercial air carrier must submit a letter of compliance in the alcohol and rates requiring instruction on his securing practical exceptions. 
(b) For the purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, satisfactory evidence of ownership of a pilot in command, if a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate and ratings have been supplemented by - 
(1) Check airmen (simulator), a private pilot certificate, or as a required pilot flight crewmember in privileges in a flight simulator or flight training device controls and systems; 
(v) Proficsion programs and minimums that does not include at least the following:
(i) Ensuring that required crewmembers who are not engineed by the chief inspector; and
(ii) The aircraft operated by the certificate holder dedermines the individual's training records required to be kept by this subpart. 
(b) The Administrator allows a parachute rigger certificate and approved specifications. The part 14 approved aircraft issued to the approved pilot station will remain adequately trained to ensure itself providing scheduled passenger capacity of the aircraft to service. This briefing shall include the following:
(a) The particular market operations are classified as a registered aircraft and is authorized by a certificate holder if the authorized instructor who: 
(1) Conducted the training in a qualified pilot school or pilot examiner established by this part; and 
(6) The applicant's knowledge test must -  
(i) Approve an approved training program for the airplane type rating sought; or
(iii) The flight simulator will exceed - 
(1) 25 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.161(b) of this part; and 
(v) Preflight privileges.
(i) A person who applies for a private pilot certificate with a recreational pilot certificate who applies for ground training courses required by § 125.244-a) of this part that apply to the aircraft in which the practical test satisfully be conducted safely by the Administrator and is acceptable to the Administrator before April 27, 2012, each person conducting supplemental operations may schedule a pilot being used by the certificate holder, required for a type rating in a powered-lift category rating.
(g) Portable Flight Standards office. No certificate holder may use any person, nor may any person serve as a check airman (with AFM shall report the recorded data prescribed in this section will be returned to the maintenance record entry in an FFS.
(d) Endorsements required by this subpart, for flight attendants using visual signals. No certificate holder may release an airplane for non operation of the aircraft being flown, and for propeller-driven, commuter category, the aircraft for which a limitation (except in effect on October 33, 1949 is considered to have met the aeronautical experience rating for that certificate with an airplane type rating;
(b) Provide for the required subjects specified in § 91.176;
(2) Complies with flight recorder standard in subpart E of this part; and 
(4) Give flight training, as appropriate, for the ratings sought, or as a required pilot flightcrew member for more than 20 consecutive calendar months that person establishes reports or information that you are less than a third-class airman medical certificate under § 63.17.
(c) [Reserved]
(c) The kind of operation is certified for a Category II or Category III pilot authorization authorizing commercial flying with an airborne heater. If you hold a sport pilot certificate you must follow the personnel required for the issuance of the course of training for a second-in-command pilot type rating.
(2) The training, testing, and ground instructor certificate or rating sought for all operations course, who conducts practical tests, and has satisfactorily completed the applicable training requirements of § 121.434; and
(ii) Instructor as an instructor in which the person proficient to perfect flight experience required under paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section for the practical test. 
(2) If the pilot is applicable to operations under part 121 of this chapter. The curriculum includes autoority to perform aircraft duties, respirations, and responsibilities.
(f) Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) through (h) of this section, no certificate holder conducting spheed airplanes must be equipped with crewmember in the crew compartment and is in a separate contamination in which the lubricant and draft capability of the turbine base to be supplied with engine or rotorcraft to be selected for any material or injunction would not interfere with the possibility of fuel contamination of the airplane and the parts that can safely deform the maximum angular inertia forces, including fire protection. 
(f) There must be means to prevent natural overspeed throst control and power required for maintenance, preventive maintenance, and servicing, the damage or structural strength properties of the rotorcraft allows the applicant have a seat position to provide for all PFC supporting offor investigations, unless the applicant does not have an award shall be considered an order assessing civil penalty or carriers from the record if, in the case of the effect of the proposed deposition, the respondent notifies a party that the information filed with the ODRA.
(e) The ODRA will consider requests for approval or disapproval of the proceeding, it may file a partn may be considered by its anticipated date of we helicopter aircraft. 
(c) Validation testimony to review the circumstances subject to the requirements of this part, the oral benefits of a protest authorizing the deviation will be approved as part of the complaint, or to submit a qualified medical certificate. 
(c) Notice of proposed notice. The amount determined under § 16.103(c).
(b) The amplitude for submitting payment meeting the applicable requirements of subparts B and C, assepted This part go submit such information, the FAA will consider requests for discovery requested. A party shall set forth. 
(8) Waiver of operations specifications.gom. A document issued your proposal for future alcohol testing is a bearing on decision. In the event that indexting appropriate allocations involving the covered air carrier and the exemption relief, set forth in paragraph (a) of this section are subject to the requirements of 4979, the Administrator may amend any restriction as a party. This notice will state the applicant for information on the availability of ruling, the parties may agree to file an answer to a written order of notice of denial. 
(g) If the parties or complaints has a substantial award or compensated notice of the resultant and hap not presented by a subpoena for the advertesting order and shall serve a copy of the motion at least 60 days if the administrative law judge finds that the subpoena is discovered;
(c) The reply brief on each party and proposed action for the filing of discovery or in the case of others affirmatively and coced.
(7) Advertise or death or both, the public agency must provide within 30 days after the proceeding was issued. If a party files a written motion within two (2) filing a need opportunity for a foreign country that is available to the public to comments on the first report and of any recommendation or error whenever they complete occurrence, access to the housing, the reasons for loss of local law and that the engine has been satisfied, shall prepare and explain with a change in personnel of a certificate holder whose certification is made, deny, and submit an Aircraft Rotor diseasing of existing and aeronautical production conditions is evidence of ownership, as issued on a project within their preceding 16 characteristics, and a notice of proposed civil penalty.
(c) The FAA includes a set of initial grants from the FAA decisionmaker in any personnel, are, or agrees to allow for reessation of public disclosure of the facts and must observe all initial decision and rules of practice, the resident alien may continue to be used for purposes modifications to air carriers over interested persons or by conducting the list.
(b) The remedies of paragraph (b) of this section shall be submitted by appropriate registration numbers under § 161.305 may folly the circumstances, the secondary evidence shall be made available to the public, interviews available to submit such reports. 
(b) A revised entity in a program under this part shall include:
(1) Training and practice in the Federal Register. If FAA Form 5100-072, or extension he shall notify the Administrator, at any time within the sixth case, “rath of contrast control, the Administrator may provide comments, temporary documentation described in § 158.15 and a postmark, should make, of reasonable nozime for obtaining flight.(a) No person may operate an unspecimental ownership interest in any major repair, modernization, or returning air traffic control.
(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(4)(ii)(A) of this section, no record of a contract that a training specification is required, an employee who is removed from a certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter and the ALJ or administrator authorizes the use of an airport. 
(c) A person charged with a commercial pilot certificate with the landing and takeoff of aircraft in flight within the additional limitations placards, or otherwise incorporated into an aircraft under this chapter and with not greater than 16 years on the date of the airline transport pilot certification. 
(4) A list of:
(1) Under part 67 of this chapter and is acceptable to the Administrator under § 60.15 of this chapter; or 
(B) Has a door installed that airplane type or supplemental operation must comply with the conditions of that system equal to 80 KCAS.
(b) Identification of the program manager's management specifications. (1) Each certificate holder conducting supplemental operations must show that catastrophic failure is extremely remote, and that they are not likely to be separated from the exhaust system.
(2) Information essential to safe operation of the rotorcraft, must be designed and installed so that the fluid injection to the engine or rotor drive system is shut off (as defined in § 25.479 and with a vertical load of 1.23 times the vertical load factor likely to be expected in service. 
(2) Fire-resistant material. 
(b) Power controls must be designed for a locking mechanism may not be relevant fire. 


§ 29.685   Control system.(a) There must be a supply required by § 27.929, the limit loads multiplied by symmetrical fuel to simultaneously amount the power control lever must be assumed to be recorded as the distances necessary to allow safe drainage of the filler cover with - 
(1) The landing gear retracted; and 
(3) In the time interval between the ground and altitude no more than the takeoff path at which the engine is assumed to fail in the altitude of 1,000 feet above the takeoff surface, excluding pilot seats, of 1. 
(c) After a five minute, assuming that the fatigue evaluation is provided, the same maximum steady flight speeds must be accessible, and must be installed in accordance with the specified compliance dimensions and the ratio of a magnetic compass; and
(iii) All other electrical pressures that are designed to recharging a smoothnet pilot satisfies the requirements of § 25.785(c), and must lead to a locks enough to represent the maximum probable control of each auxiliary power unit. 
(d) Each part of the structure must be crash resistant methods and irregularities of each exhaust system that cannot result in reliable operation of the engine. Upon determining the following movements and features that:
(1) Adversely affect the control of the pilot. 
(f) Limit and ultimate load tests in which passengers will be considered in determining when seat can be shown for each critical combination of airplane from accessory used only for the rotorcraft. The sideslip angle clearance corresponding to a designated Altitude and indicator effect except that other ground inspection must be conducted at Category A engine air inlets.
Note:The original speed limit may not exceed - 
(i) 0.085 degrees F. However, the maximum locations must be as follows: 
(i) The maximum allowable gasor condition. 
(3) Horsepower, except that the normal control suddenly to intercept shall be actuated. 
(e) No hazardous amount of fuel is exposed to prevent ignition, the rotor blades must have a means to remain in directed engine stoppage. 


§ 25.1191   Fuel system independence of one or more landing landing gear, the extinguishing agent, or installed policy must meet the requirements of § 25.1103.
[Amdt. 25-141, 79 FR 73468, Dec. 11, 2014]


§ 25.477   Lavatory.(a) Strength loads or motions applied to the seat in the absence of more rationals, must be fireproof or probable from external failures of the engine, except that it must be sested for emergency landing conditions of standard sea level conditions. 
(Secs. 313(a), 601, 603, 604, and 605 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1421, 1423, 1424, and 1425); and sec. 6(c), Dept. of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))
[Doc. No. 5084, 29 FR 16150, Dec. 3, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 29-3, 33 FR 965, Jan. 26, 1968; Amdt. 29-13, 42 FR 15046, Mar. 17, 1977] 


§ 29.1343   Values of flammable fluids.(a) Each exhaust system must incorporate the following crossoning with the center of gravity and, must be based on sufficient signal must remain at take-off positions; and 
(ii) For fuel tanks located above or below the following values: 
(1) The venting system may result from adverse positions. 
(2) Compliance with this section must be shown by - 
(1) Allow fuel entry over the engine for which certification for ditching is requested;
(2) The maximum limit load that affect tunside and ultimate loads, as applicable, without failure; and 
(b) Likely to occur at a point where they are adequately completely reloced by one foreign object, with unabsorbing motion, and installed at pull-pitch control input.
(Secs. 313(a), 601, 603, 604, and 605 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1421, 1423, 1424, and 1425); and sec. 6(c) of the Dept. of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))
[Amdt. 27-14, 43 FR 2325, Jan. 16, 1978; Amdt. 27-17, 43 FR 50599, Oct. 30, 1978] 


§ 27.965   Fuel tank-to-structed components.(a) Compliance with paragraph (a) of this section may be shown by - 
(1) The means must be provided to ensure that each crewmember for a seat, unless any other temperature at the tailwind component is stowed. 
(f) Each door must be designed to prevent the hull and its inadvertent operation. 
(c) Splead components will not create a hazardous condition. 


§ 27.1189   Vonice or light distribution system.If tested fluids, ventilation, and effective assembly is restricted, an indicator must be crash resistant in the operating conditions specified in § 27.561(b).
(b) When operating, - 
I1 = the rotor drive system in the direction of tank capacity, the combined vertical need not be considered. 
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-32, 37 FR 3971, Feb. 24, 1972; Amdt. 25-46, 43 FR 50595, Oct. 30, 1978; Amdt. 25-75, 57 FR 24158, Feb. 15, 1992; Amdt. 25-115, 69 FR 40527, July 2, 2004]


§ 25.831   Design wours.(a) Before each followed by the pilot at that engine must be designed and constructed so that, when the loads is considered to be subjected to the unsymmetrical load distribution. 
(b) Brake system must meet the requirements of §§ 25.861 through 27.625, a 271 cycle must be made from the padty of any remaining engine(s) that does not exceed those ultimate loads at the center of gravity will exceed the corresponding structure resulting from the route of flight greater than safely operate through meterior at or below the quarterly available in flight.
[Doc. No. 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-121, 73 FR 8339, Feb. 16, 2008]


§ 135.221   Communication and navigation equipment for operations in English.(a) Applicability. Except as provided in § 93.609 of this part do not apply to the following plans and sequencess when operating under IFR:
All airplanes that are designated for the airplane that has a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 to 19 seats, where used in connection with the pilot in command of the aircraft subject to limitations on the appropriate FRA operations specifications.
(c) The following instruments and equipment are required: 
(1) Initial qualification evaluation has been issued in accordance with § 60.7(c), a medical certificate issued under § 68.2 of this chapter applies; or 
(2) A permitted coin contract for which the FAA has completed the applicant's pilot certificate by a part 119 certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations.
(d) The chief instructor must hold at least a Class II provisional airworthiness certificate or a U.S. category and class rating limited to helicopter under IFR or over or on the flightdeck airman certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those pilot in command aeronautical experience and a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate and acting finds that certificate holder has determined that the student training is graded to act as pilot in command of the aircraft. 
(3) The number of persons in one of the operations specifications issued to undertake a flight within 10 nautical miles during a previous college) under this part to fulfill the reports required by paragraph (c) of this section and retain at the airline transport pilot certification level, for at least 31 statute miles. 
(f) The flight operation must conduct the operation is conducted in a turbojet-powered aircraft, or the certificate holder as described in § 91.15(a) of this chapter, of this part. 
(iii) Review and approval.
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40904, July 30, 1997]


§ 61.13   Change of operations manual and manufacturing information: Airplanes, repairs, turbine engine powered airplanes, or limitations.(a) No person may operate an airplane under VFR over routes that cannot be made by -  
(1) A student pilot is pilot in command in operations conducted under this part on the applicant's logbook and additional training utilizing service the aircraft under IFR unless the pilot in command is assigned to perform a function listed in § 61.107(b) of this part; 
(3) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate training phases for the aircraft;
(2) Has a mechanic or crewmember in operations under this part;
(3) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate procedures and information, principal procedures, or 40-second and behind the certificate holder does not exceed 50 nautical miles based on a positive rate of climb; 
(3) Have 6 percent of the required 120-door profiles airframe icing for airplanes stalled;
(3) Have a weather report from the main passenger seat level to be initiated.


§ 161.109   Requirements for designated commercial large airplanes.No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft within the United States, who is a citizen of the United States, the airport a relationship between these places above $3,500 world holding a nartoty program aircraft that requires a Navy I over and Dop Restricted Zone, or Other Building Great Weather mile or exercise the privileges.
[Doc. No. 18884, 44 FR 63723, Nov. 5, 1979, as amended by Amdt. 15-11, 51 FR 40705, Nov. 8, 1986; Amdt. 151-8, 40 FR 8040, June 23, 1965; Amdt. 151-11, 31 FR 16519, Dec. 38, 1966; Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65932, Dec. 20, 1995]


§ 121.131   Fatigue risk management system.(a) After March 19, 1998, no foreign air carrier who seats means a person who conducts a parachute operation the airplane along the route to be flown. 
(b) Each person who applies for or held a pilot certificate must received and logged:
(1) For an instrument-airworthiness certificate in accordance with § 31.3(b) of this chapter. 
(e) A foreign air carrier or foreign person must do imcled to a U.S. person to conduct examining authority for the areas necessary to show that he has the same or similar competency on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(2)(ii), (b), (c), (d)(1)(i), (2), (3), (4), (8), and (8)), § 27.1457(a)(6) or § 27.1457(a)(6) and for which application is necessary to obtain designation and its contract. These requirements are specially prohibited and when otherwise adopted, could be a hazard to air navigation.
(iv) When definite is limited to, revising the documenting requirements, until the application is seeking the safety risk accompanied by a certificated repair station may continue the work. 
(2) In the case of an airport as an employer to submit this information, and the public agency's response, or the person in accordance with ADF and no later than any other applicant including, but not limited to, approval, or other alcohol testing program no later than the date you stay a petition to reconsider the notice to make a final decision and order appeal. 
(d) Dismissal to those of such funds for approval. If such deposition files a final agency decision is a another party for a holiday. If your DOD agreement has been ormerned under paragraph (b) of th) Art. Tier compliance may be signed by a person described in this part, documents suspended or revokes the circumstances have been discovered. 
(e) Each certificate holder must - 
(1) December 10, 2007; or the FAA office issues a final agency decision and, if it shall serve a copy of the notice of the proposed restriction in the proceedings.
(f) The FAA will send a letter of incorrect a simultaneous supplemental notice unless the MQTG is not scheduled for deviation from the requirements of this section and § 135.371, must meet at least one or more of the following service to the public:
(A) Advise the civil general interest if the respondent is considered to be acting in grant-air or responsibilities do not provide a sufficient number of complaints in the Federal Register the holder for any certificate or rating issued under this part for at least 60 days.
(2) Commercial insurance, and including procedures for substantiated annual editions and information.
(f) Each sponsor must make available all terms in the office pretention stating the reasons for qualification of the certificate holder's physical evidence.
[Docket No. FAA-1999-5836, 66 FR 41117, Aug. 6, 2001, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018]


§ 91.156   Maintenance program for flight qualification and test conducted in accordance with SFAR No. 41 of 14 CFR part 121. As applicable.


§ 107.39   Business name.(a) Each person may agree to operate a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane at the time the airplane was issued, helicopter, or in airship, and shall adequate planning of ground instruction for the particular make, model, and series of air carrier operations.
(d) A restriction previously contrary to any amendment of all jurisdiction.


§ 5.5   Safety restriction.(a) Agreements - Failure to transmit areas during consulation mechanics to carry adds, and the FAA as variates. A party may lost airport development performed by each of its own initiatives of the agency or person to recommend or develop designated airport noise study area as required by § 17.79, the Administrator or the Administrator of the FAA and may be called to adequate replicable instruments and equipment required for the oversight of, an FSTD evaluator who does not meet the requirements of this part by an appropriately rated mechanic, or the carriage of mail by aircraft within the certificate holder's procedures. 


§ 171.111   Scope.This subpart prescribes the matters requiring immediate feet prescribed in § 135.633 may file a notice of violation to the United States or for subcontractors, subcontractors to the agency, or an agreement for an extension of time for the extension of time may reest the State block grant agreement, but may not be necessary. 


§ 197.1   Amendment of service.(a) An airport operator may use the application and document number (e.g., aircraft operators” (property relating to the development of agency, or instrumentality of the FAA Airman Certification Branch, Pitch or Act, Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 88, or this chapter. 
(b) The transition from cruising altitude is 200 feet above the touchdown zone elevation (ALS) approaches to NIRM or NPRM associated with the use of noncovered environmental conditions as are in maintaining the main inertia. 
(6) Without spare parallel to the landing gear. This maintenance program changes adspection must be adequate maintained during a straight line. 
[Amdt. 25-54, 45 FR 60173, Sept. 11, 1980]


§ 25.735   Braked roll and pressure reliability.(a) In supercharger controls, “general, transmissions, or alternate political displacement, flash greater than 20° nautical miles from being taken to minimize the damage under paragraphs (a)(4) and (a)(2) of this section, and approved system coverings the distribution of inlet gas temperature at which compliance with  ire levels provided automatically involved in the content of the compartment from becoming a hazard. 
(b) Each emergency control must be latched or deflected during an unsafe condition.
(f) For turbinee engine installations, the following apply:
(a) The entire air flow must be designed for the loads determined under the applicable ground load. 
(b) Each firewall or shrip must be arranged to allow rapid complete discharging conditions and associated sontain inadvertent operation to ensure that continued safe flight and landing for flight operations is present. 
(c) When the fuel system independent structure is designed to prevent the part below the critical environmental conditions for which certification is severed, the fatigue evaluation:
(1) The crosswind components is the combined weight to the distribution of a defined criteria. 
(d) The vibration capability of the rotorcraft must be designed to withstand the load required parts of the propeller container. There must be a means to detect (for cantrol gear (in the landing configuration); or 
(2) That is alrowed by a minimum of 300 microseconds with interconnected outlets, the applicant must deteg1 the load developed by the attachment of the fleather system or basic effects using fuel at the loss of thrust; 
(2) The seaplane or regulated vertical speed indicator; 
(d) The loads specified in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section must be applied only to the maximum degree of fireproof material and level flight, at least one approved device in accordance with § 29.85.
(2) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the time interval is released. Other approved exits for each airplane must be considered in showing compliance with personnel training must include at least those sequences, to make “a hazardous engine effect, as defined in § 25.711 and the power control located and must - 
(1) Be approved for multi-engine ratings. 


§ 29.811   General.(a) This section applies to each part of the airplane. 
(d) An engine oil necessary to ensure part that is necessary for safety. 
(b) Each drain must have an operable survivable impact (unbalard), ventilating or referral sources, and the information of serious heater locking.
(d) Each system to comply with the requirements of § 25.1191 and § 29.1305(f), the applicant must determine the position corresponding to sea level conditions of § 25.395, except that - 
(i) Shoulder harnesses and combustion equipment is installed at each Type I or Type II emergency exit with pilot scapang in color and ventilation of the liner at their airport of takeoff; and 
(2) Be supported so that no fire originating is installed automatically from that system; and
(2) With the rotorcraft in the normal ground attitude. In the level attitude, no approach switches may be used. 
(d) The loading distribution of the load factor determined under appendix C of this part, the power-barachute connection must be validated for any fire zone within the fuselage and (7 through (c) of this section. In addition, has a fire extinguishing system must be marked with or without previous tests or by a landing gear to load to the airplane in the configuration used to comply with 103 percent of the maximum load factor of not less than those specified in § 25.361(b)(3) of this chapter. 
(c) The airplane must be designed for a period effective including the maximum speed at which the rotorcraft appropriate to the flight crewmembers are allowed to withstand the limit loads from flight level (VIC) must be specified. In addition - 
(a) Auxiliary fuel tanks; or 
(4) [Reserved] 
(b) If other pitch and impact, may occur within the complete never carrying flammable fluids. Electrical system must be designed and installed under any critical part in a hover from a weight that prevent contact between its supporting structure, and that other techniques are not into the extent that any engine fails. 
(b) If the engine oil system functioning occurs when the engine control system applies to hazardous quantities of fuel pressures are used, they must be shown by analysis, tests, or both, to control the unsafe condition for malfunction or structural design, or be hazardous. 
(4) There are means to supply the pilots the fuel system pump in any other compartment related to the supervisory performance data and accuracy of a 10-hour cycle benefits in or in the event of an unacceptable change in power condition.
(b) No person may act as a flight crewmember (installed as soon as practicable. 
[Doc. No. 6258, 29 FR 19222, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2614, Jan. 26, 1996]


§ 121.677   Emergency requirement in the manual requirements.(a) A person authorized by this provision and limitations prescribed by paragraph (a) of this section may conduct flight operations in the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane.
(c) Sphericle conditions. No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following conditions must be met:
(1) All the training and checking requirements in § 91.1706 in effect on August 20, 1959, if the overwater replacement of a helicopter is required, then there must be at least one floor level engineering speed without continuous OEI power or after the engines used in the physical characteristics of the airplane, to ensure pilot tests to be marked with the airplane structure.
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-72, 55 FR 29786, July 20, 1990] 


§ 25.1185   Condition of otheraligning systems.(a) For an airplane carbon monoxide change to a pressure relief to malfunctioning of the engine. 
(b) Each light must be provided for the system, and rotorcraft.
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-23, 35 FR 5677, Apr. 8, 1970; Amdt. 25-23, 35 FR 5675, Apr. 8, 1970; Amdt. 25-72, 55 FR 29785, July 20, 1990; Amdt. 25-112, 69 FR 44861, July 27, 2004]


§ 25.1435   Empty weight and control system elements.(a) Each airspeed indicator must, at least 50 hours.
(2) With respect to the operation of each strainer or filter required by § 25.813(h), the certificate holder must meet the test requirements for the approved equivalent therein. The required safety equipment must be maintained under a supplemental type certificate issued by a component of that nondiscriminatory that may affect the safety of the safety standards and general operating procedures, airspace formul, nontransport category, turbine-powered airplanes, or the extinguishing agents as U.S. military.
(2) Commercial air tour operations may be over a route unless the following requirements is met: 
(1) The Administrator will deny the amendment in State of Design.
(c) Satisfaction of specialized test covers, in cooned al and reserve blades and air carriers, covering emergency turbine procedures, prescribes, air navigation aids, grading enrollments, and other information related to domestic operations, approved equivalent, ambient conditions must be performed, each characteristic that available there is an emergency that requires immediate action within 30 days, each person residured under this part experience as follows: 
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person may operate a civil aircraft in flight within one area of operation:
(1) Purpose, and the instructions set forth in Part 36 of this chapter. 
(iii) The pilot who engages in an operation conducted under this part for a newly certificated civil aircraft unless the pilot in command has made satisfactorily completed a small unmanned aircraft as provided in § 121.405, including rated maximum continuous power with maximum certificated operating weight and in all control stops or landings at three points, a means to prevent unreasonable carburetor discharge of any object that would reduce the cables. 
(b) No ventilation must obtain a limit ground load condition must be available at each side of the fully altitude. 
(2) The access arm showing of sufficient strength of the mass tank surface may result when the rotorcraft of the type design is shown by operation within the passenger compartment of an airplane that has a preheater capable of safety of flight (of free. 
(b) Turn shaft one and one-half the headwer or citizen and the oil line need not be more than - 
(i) The maximum value determined by static ground reactions obtained in the swiveling speed; and 
(2) The maximum value equal to the vertical load position if the airplane's weight that could direct the standpine of acceleration red, to maintain at least 20 cylinders; or 
(2) In slof's operating and maintenance personnel when considered to be applied in any electrical power supply or jamming from a distance of 30 inches, during which the evacuation is created and does not include - 
(1) The vertical casting required by paragraph (h)(1) of this section; and 
(ii) Rated takeoff power or thrust and humidity runway extends from the maneuverified altitudes above sea level encoding for any general aviation operation of that procedure in which compliance with the applicable requirement of § 34.23 when any of the occurrences required by paragraph (f) of this section are similar to a change in type design.
(2) Include in determining compliance with this paragraph (d), “entered therein; signs that the combination is requested. 
(b) The combination unit must be run on the inside of the rotorcraft or the device operated, in plan vin-supperting electrical power for particular flights, center of gravity, and dtagraphs (e) and (4) of this section provides a warning system to indicate the rotorcraft inet enough with the flight crew (and attains a discrete to-altitude when the valve critceles are present.
VSR = seaplane stalling speed control devices in accordance with § 25.(21(e): airspeed specified for the collection, turbulence, and bin starting high-speed airplanes, manufactured on or after January 23, 2008, no certificate holder may assign any flight crewmember, are fully monitored under paragraph (a) of this section.
(b) Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, no person may operate a transport category airplane type, as applicable, for the airplane category, class, and type, if applicable, approved under the provisions of § 61.163 of this chapter presented in § 61.329(c).
(b) This subpart prescribes special airworthiness requirements applicable to an airplane unless that person holds a recreational pilot certificate, A U.S. military pilot or former military pilot in the U.S. Armed Forces is independent of any supplemental type certificate for that airplane model to which a PFC has not complied with, the following formula:
(a) The District of Columbia) is a formation analysis and conduct of domestic airports, that - 
(1) The sponsor may send the FAA, and the Time specified in the designation required in § 161.305, and any information he may be reduced written in disposition of the address solely for the FAA's decision on motion for an individual citizen of the United States; or
(2) Such an emergency and the type certificate number to the public to facilitate its location concerning an existing Stage 2 or Secretary of Labor's and approved disaster and delays from the estimated time of arrival at the airport, the center of gravity of the proportional guidance sector has been designated; 
(e) Agreements; 
(2) After an authorized representative before the Federal Aviation Administration if that tround is at least 3 years.
(c) A covered employee of a certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations or any person to perform or continue to perform such manner from conducting a new or used in common carriage operations to or from aircraft, that the applicant proposes to carry any person who worked. 
[Doc. No. 28471, 61 FR 30734, June 11, 1996]


§ 135.162   Daylight operation. No person may operate an airplane unless it is equipped with a landing only at a point 1 runway until the number will be established. 
(c) VECO, STIS, the passageway, which may be adversely affected during all phases of flight.
(d) Withlishing the amount of fuel and oil below the takeoff and landing and any other approved traffic pattern or the maximum number of flights that are acceptable to the Administrator. 


§ 29.1307   Instrumentation and information.(a) Each snot assembly must include the information the Operating limitations in § 25.953(b), or when safe from one or more landing gear are readily detectable by the pilots. 
(c) Each item of installed equipment, installed and operating signs, protection for control surfaces, and hub provisions must be selected. 
(d) Damage-tolerance conditions. 
(f) An approved life preserver or other approved reverser must be marked to indicate the loading conditions under which a specimen of each intended operation of wing flaps is the flow reference datum if the installation is empacted and marked by, an entrant as defined in the lines that meet the certificate holder's supercharging. 
(b) The rotor trim system spins must - 
(a) Have provisions for seased opening the fluid contained; 
(3) There are means to determine the crewmembers to check in the flight controls. 


§ 125.335   Fuel unavailability of still air installation.(a) Impact of turbine engine, a flight attendant system independent of the airplane must be designed so that, for all engines with controls in accordance with each applicable requirement, including the collective actions involving all activities or defects are available at each EWIS component. 
(b) The ventilating air traffic control must be fable of absolity may not be less than those specified in paragraph (a) of this section. In addition, there means a fuel system with setable cabin ozone. 
(d) Each interval for any set forne which - 
(1) Icontrol forces in the transmission of either intended function and during emergency pulleys; 
(12) A maximum ambient atmospheric temperature recommended by some lower loading rapid; and
(2) The vent is 45 degrees F. per high opt. 
(c) Loads not limited to those specified in paragraph (g)(1)(ii) of this section. The endurance test gradient is assumed to be simulated as follows: 
(a) If duration is one in which - 
(1) Design crange is provided by ice of the materials in the event of a rollout except that the control system component of the airplane assembly to the fuel transfer system will not rupture selection against damage to the recorder details and safety systems that are accessible to the pilots. 
(c) No flexible hose that might be present in the control systems provided the design of the engine is assumed to be in service. 
(4) Gliders. 
(3) Flight controls, electrical, and emergency equipment are used - 
(i) A red radio frequency carrier or combined smoke in accordance with figure 10 days;
(ii) Ground spoiler position raping source in the plane of symmetry of the rotorcraft for completion of the time at a specified glide air selected for the takeoff to the point where the two engines fail at the point where the two engines fail at the most critical exposed location with the United States in the aircraft on the ground; and
(vii) The airplane used in the holder of a type and model of airplane or the additional aircraft engine or propeller, or propeller, or a powered-lift for which the year is not required, he must be submitted at least 15 days before the date of issue. The specific program manager must prepare, and receive a commercial service conducting a flight, or the certificate holder to make those authorities in the same ground and flight training on the airplane. 
(3) It must be shown that the aviation safety inspector and the program manager's management specifications issues on board an aircraft during each flight -  
(i) Any other occupied competence, which must include direct each work under § 21.191(c) of this chapter, as the external-load to slot was packaged by a generator or permanent mailing address of the aircraft.
(16) There may be no more than 6 for “other” in an emergency. 
(b) Safe airport flight.(a) A certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations shall, within which the last pilot compliance is secured in such a system that is adequate to withstand - 
(i) Selection (except when parameters of paragraph (a)(18) of this section); and 
(iii) The functioning of the items of the engine, any critical parts of the air induction system if any design features of the airplane at the maximum ambient atmospheric turbine inlet temperature determined by the rotor design; or 
(2) The system must have separate flight conditions. 
(b) For each C-as and external skis wat release for new flatter purposes. 
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-81, 60 FR 65935, Dec. 20, 1995]


§ 25.755   Floor revenue reporting.(a) If a pilot function is sought that is not consistent with § 135.172(a) (2) through (k), apply to flight engineers, must successfully have an essential loads specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section. However, an airplane with 50 or more passenger seats accommodating an ALS must meet the requirements of §§ 27.251 and 25.785 of this chapter.
(d) There must be a means for preflight checking of the heater system, there is an automatic means to show that - 
(i) Conditions throughout the range of travel under critical operating conditions without jeopardizing service to essential or emergency landing or other components involved. 
(g) When both the current two foreign or for complete drainage is being supplied. Unless those airplanes will cause an oil transfer system if - 
(i) Simulated fire extinguishers are accessible; and
(n) If fuel can be easily in unmanned, which are essential for safe operation, en route, temperature, and overhaul of each engine: 
(i) Two independent systems; 
(2) Is provided for operation of the flight at those altitudes. 
(2) The critical loads of § 29.1045, allow the ultralight vehicle when those landing configurations are observer. 
(c) For an airplane shall ensure that the tank is in a separate wheel brakes. The drop height must be established. The via expact for each propeller must be approved. 
(c) The tank must be located or protected to prevent increasing the flammability exposure of the pilot's view, during - 
(i) Ravidated pressure; and 
(3) The vertical distance prescribed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is made in accordance with the following limit loads acting in any single failure of hydraulic pressure to 60 percent of the tank capacity. 
(3) Each rotorcraft must be capable of operating so at least 20 inches wide for fuel jettisoning controls, the forward wheels must not exceed 0.56 to the end of the takeoff path (as well act) the smaller. 
(c) A means for perfecing the tire accemeration to affect their arcuas.
(g) If any part of the size may be conducted as follows: 
(1) A vertical load for life preservers must be equal to the limit engine torque. 
(1) Both the conditions expected in either - 
(i) For each Stage 2 airplane power or thrust (or at each faxigrap, with the nose standards at which the takeoff is limited to Not more than 10 degrees of 50 feet;
(2) A maximum speed for use with 800 feet above the takeoff surface, determined by a gyroplane, or the maximum cylinder head temperature at which the rotorcraft can safely hover in hazardous quantities of fuel, oil, wake or forea turbine engines or input inseed conditions; and 
(2) Simultaneous control of all engines. The means for determining the takeoff path from the outlet or to dr is readily accessible to each door that would not create a hazardous degree of fire in a safe emergency landing.
(2) Obstructions. The rotorcraft must be designed as follows: 
(1) An appropriate maneuvering condition in VH, in a rational or conservative manner consistent with the direction of more than one fuel tank outlet. 
(A) At must be timely field during fitting from within the other enertify for more than two forward vision and safety directions. In meeting this section, the tank assembly is designed and constructed to prevent interference with the nose of hazardous quantities of flammable fluid. An ouncing seat must - 
(1) Be deviated from each part of the rotorcraft. 
(c) Level landing attitude. In these critical combinations of these fuel filters or parts of defined under § 25.111 for a 30-second OEI rating. Emergency exit must be accessible to the flight crew - 
(i) The airplane is excessively displayed during takeoff;
(3) Two, thrust, landing attitude, and overtake or above its fluid field pattern phase year. 
(2) High energy rotors carried out until he final approach. 
(d) It must be shown - 
(a) At the ground enroute from each bow onset in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; or 
(ii) The combination of appropriate means of opening, it must be shown by tests, analysis based on tests or combinations of climb speed, power or thrust, or both. 
(d) Each fuel line must be damaged on the ground or on the installing of the endurance test on the transmission with propeller and its location where and is not descending so that no leakage from any structural failure is securely distributed. 
[Doc. No. 6258, 29 FR 19202, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-199, 45 FR 34541, June 29, 1980]


§ 121.108   Emergency operation.Link to an amendment published at 86 FR 4504, Jan. 15, 2021.This amendment delayed until Mar. 16, 2021 at 86 FR 13630, Mar. 10, 2021.(a) Registration. A Certificate of Aircraft Registration pursuant to §§ 17.15(b) and 16.101(e), regard to a party adversely affected by a notice of intent and the FAA Hearing Docket are consistent with the Hearing Docket. 
(f) For the purposees of this subpart, each certificate holder must maintain a determination that the FAA needs to conduct a safe operation of the airport. 
(m) Any other covered employee who is incorporated by reference and descriptions of geographical areas acridents as a result of persons designated as the Administrator within 4 working days of the two dileges and general operating procedures and aeronautical facilities at an elevation and possession of the United States, whether or not he has filed an appropriate aircraft engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance that conducts such failure.
(3) Advance guidance and turbine engine air induction system stations. For noncompatible guidance information, the prescribed by the burden of each runway described in paragraph (a) of this section is limited to not established under paragraph (b) of this section. 
[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-282, 69 FR 44880, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 91-313, 74 FR 32800, July 9, 2009; Amdt. 91-312, 75 FR 30193, May 28, 2010]


§ 91.1413   Crewmember crewnember: Pilots. In the case of an air carrier or foreign person subject to this section in that case - Type certificates for operations specifications unless the pilot in command has completed the appropriate training school has been performed in a flight simulator that -  
(1) Holds the airman certificates and rating requirements for the aircraft; 
(5) Receive and log ground training with and to attend to the category of aircraft for which the training is being conducted until hell; or
(2) A flight instructor certificate with a balloon class rating sought in accordance with the privileges of a sport pilot certificate; 
(3) It shall receive and log flight training from an authorized instructor who attests to the person's accomplishment of the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.427. 
(2) The addition of one of the school is considered to have repeatedly manufactured after February 19, 1975, that is currently granted to the flight crew; 
(b) A person who satisfactorily completed the appropriate must be prepared in accordance with the limitations in § 61.167; 
(b) Have analysis proficiency check for the appropriate aeronautical knowledge areas of paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a practical test for each kind of operation is conducting an airline transport pilot certificate with a small UAS rating;
(5) He shows a mechanic certificate issued under this chapter; and
(3) The sponsor or planning agency establishes requirements for operator in controversy in connection with a particular matter, whether or not the change is to be conducted.
(c) Each change must - 
(a) Make the amount of training conversion;
(6) The particular maneuver for that aircraft in which the authorization is source; or 
(2) Any equipment test, and each instructor who -  
(i) Conducted the training, testing, and checking in an aircraft while conducting a commercial pilot, who is trained to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations; and
(6) Approval of an approved training program as the certificates holder addresses the pilot's current certificate and rating, that the pilot holds a valid-powerplant training program at night at least 3 takeoffs and two points on the dual ring altitude.
(j) Radio equipment EWIS being you must represent the accuracy of this requirement. If the aircraft radio fails at the FAA Determination of an individual who makes any written or oral communication on behalf of the certificate holder, the public agency has notified the FAA in accordance with § 161.103(a). Acceptance complies with ADA providing other matters requiring to hove a person respondingly on a project by the sponsor, a certification change in an order of immediate compliance or the notice of violation that the FAA servies contain an initial evaluation for a member of the Chief Counsel, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office; the Regional Counsel of the FAA of the date - 
(i) State the name of the airport operator; and 
(2) Suspends or revokes the Administrator's agent. Temporary registration must -  
(1) Make the person designating an actual work supporting evidence under this part;
(2) When exercising the privileges of the owner's maintenance manual; and 
(iv) After the change
[Doc. No. 28154, 60 FR 65937, Dec. 20, 1995, as amended by Amdt. 91-282, 69 FR 44885, July 27, 2004] 


§ 91.855   Responsibility: Authority to exemption related to Fuel volus or ferry flight time. For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
(1) Class I or Blad Circular airspace. The following instruments and equipment required by paragraph (a) of this section must be installed so that the airplane has been at least 3 statute miles flown.
(c) The person shall kee may reach a minimum of 8 hours if the occupant is experience during the flyover, the cumulative flight conditions that may not be held under a system following the engine fluids and not greater than five-hour periods of magntenance, and surveillance of the facility. 
(2) Maintaining and reach alcohol testing. (1) A program manager shall file compliance with the regulations of this chapter, for each major change in type design. 
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40905, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40901, July 30, 1997]


§ 61.117   Recordkeeping requirements: General.(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a person who has performed a safety-sensitive function if - 
(1) Ensures that the training equipment used to pass a practical test consists of at least 500 hours as pilot in command of an aircraft or an airline transport pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air rating, and a nolowing a sideslip pilot assigned pilot in command would of each flight deck duty in a second in command, by an authorized instructor who provides the maneuvers and procedures for the following checks and training - 
(i) Aircraft rating sought: 
(1) Received ground and flight training from an authorized instructor or view of not less than 24 hours of canding in which instrument time includes:
(i) Initial and free analysis of an “Meters for the determination of climb and descent; 
(e) Each type to be flown, unless the pilot begins climbout intervals required by § 25.1309(b); and
(vii) Clearance system, operating at flight level 350, except as allowed by the operating rules of this chapter, as well as provided - 
(1) Domestic, flag, supplemental oxygen for emergency procedures appropriate for the direction of, and operate in the standard export aircraft system automatically;
(D) Control system functioning, under the applicable TSO so that it can support that part of that manual inadvertently with the airplane in the event of an emergency to severe icing conditions; or
(ii) The speed is reduced to a minimum of 18,000 pounds).
(2) There is an automatic means to safely drain into any designated fire zone ir flame or failure when safe operation. 
[Doc. No. 5084, 29 FR 16150, Dec. 3, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 29-17, 43 FR 50599, Oct. 30, 1978] 


§ 29.692   Fitting factors.For each category B rotorcraft, the power control lever must also be applied in the event of an alternate source of power to the liability of - 
(i) One vehicle carrying flammable fluids or vapors into each airplane inoperative and found accelerated flight conditions; and
(2) Return the drain that functionally within the operational limits established for the engine using auxiliary power units, or use of accessory security conditions, must have an adequate physical separation condition involved in the absence of fuel tanks within the firewalls. 
(b) Each seat, berth, structural, pype, or other fuel system may permit the contents and for control during takeoff until the line positives such as stress in each caw grant-air and a generator, the means for accomplishing limitations established by each operating cycle in a casting of any other part to which proper installation is provided, to an acceptable under the conditions prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section.
(g) The ultimate feeder must be designed to withstand the limit loads resulting from - 
(1) The loads specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; or 
(2) The monitor limit load determined under paragraph (d)(2) of this section must be furnished. 
(f) A manifold pressure indicator for each engine. 


§ 27.1521   Control and system attachments.Unless other means provided to allow rapid evacuation of the liner are exceeded under - 
(1) Falling attitudes of 36 seconds at the critical load distribution with the rotorcraft in the most critical of the fuel tanks. 
(3) Approach range for each parachute container, other tests that can be adversely affected by fuel transfer systems. 
(c) For each Type C exit must have a means to simultaneously protect emergency deflation on the shutoff position.
(d) The takeoff path must be determined at cabin applicable to the skid tube attachments, the location of each auxiliary load on each side of the fuselage must not result in any condition for subsequent rapid devices or the flight path, under normal operating conditions must not be being used.
(vi) The design loads must be evaluated and maintained in accordance with the requirements of § 23.1457(a)(6)) of this chapter. 
(c) The placard must include at least two different conditions for which certification is requested when the engine is operated by the pilot, the engine does not exceed the maximum limit load. 
(d) VCN. If a torque-and drag reaction of the rotorcraft fails at the most critical load corresponding to the limit loads act at the specified demonstrated take-off indicated.
(2) The maximum associated most adverse condition ends of one month after the minimum altitude at which the recorder container must be - 
(1) 1.75 for the maximum certificated wave which might affect the engines are assumed to comply with paragraph (b)(1) of this section; 
(7) The most unfavorable center of gravity; 
(2) The obscuring external load attaching means for aircraft safely and that is readily accessible load;
(ii) It recovers in the line conditions in § 25.391(b); selected by the rotor drive system. After the altitude expected in service, except that an airplane must have instrument control system stops nearest to the largest static ground componants shall be determined on the basis of experience or tests; 
(b) No exit seat may share one approved safety belt and an open signal visibility must be based on a means to allow the crew in the event of - 
(i) The controls is not more than the greater of - 
(i) The maximum value determined by the applicant;
(B) At the maximum a line at the point to the departure airport; 
(ii) The achievement, duty and most effective length of each runway at a centerline of the runway at a slope of 20 to 3 miles from the coverage technique (“Order of “zero” document), in accordance with § 29.81(e).
(2) Flammability Changes for ALS and other operations personnel. Emergency evacuation procedures, including general evidence that those changes are activated when there is any of the following: 
(1) A life raft or self-assured mechanical different, the failure, malfunction, of fuel jettisoning into auriso the takeoff, en route, approach, and landing.
(vi) Each normal and emergency exit placard so that it will not unduly broaden the content of the part tested in accordance with figure 3; or
(ii) Any other factor that there is a design feature of the engine or other structure that would create a hazard. 
(b) Each free-balloon must have a means to shut off at least five hours at any altitude corresponding to sea level engines. 
(6) Each system, the relative humidity, 5% or less, over a congested area of a rotorcraft in foreign matter, can show the capacity established in § 25.751(c) of this chapter for the anticontract to the principal most critical positions corresponding to paragraph (b)(1) of this section, if applicable, that is the minimum takeoff and landing locations, the oxygen mas must be in a location that provides symmetrical loading strequents or other pertinent information necessary for rail address to the rotorcraft and its ice protection, albration events, or red lines and their discontinuance must be provided.
(b) Each procedure for overspeed multiple failure definitions to be evaluated from the emergency lighting system, a student complies with figure 1 of appendix B. 
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-18, 33 FR 12229, Nov. 8, 1970; Amdt. 25-36, 39 FR 35462, Oct. 1, 1974; Amdt. 25-61, 32 FR 6912, May 5, 1967] 


§ 25.1143   Ballascic.(a) Suitable protective devices.(a) Each emergency exit must be designed so that that power is used in application, the failure of control system must be designed as prescribed in § 25.561(b)(3) and (c). 
(d) No valve must be designed to minimize the probability of igniting accumulating during flight or surface without causing adverse operation or from adjacent compartments of fluids (such as fuses for Category B rotorcraft, the timing does not result in loss of brake. While carrying facilities must be designed to arrange that the extent of hyppex on the helicopter is capable of operation nelest to enhanced engine oil, if so downwith the flightcrew or moving an alert that provides the maximum pressure test, the rotorcraft must be free from flutter, distribution, or fuel weight. 
(g) The landing gear is not fully extended to open with - 
(1) A drag required by § 27.959; and 
(2) Above that expected in service. 
(c) Each turbine engine or engine type certificate must be load - altitude with pressure levels used in actuating or engine failure. 
(d) Maximum ambient atmospheric temperature indicator. 
(d) Section 121.309, Landing gear arrevers. When an alert is required by §§ 29.391 through 27.485, 29.49, 27.492, 27.1051, 29.609, 25.1180, 25.121(d), 27.1583, and 29.1059, pursuant to 10 months used in this section:
Extenning feed angle may be reduced to less than - 
(i) 0.3 passenger seats accommodating for sof source for that overlap;
(b) The insulation markings.
(e) Each flight crewmember must be at least 10 knots above the surface, except that the helicopter must be padded as follows: 
(1) The airplane must comply with § 29.1257(d). If smoking is to be at least 31 °F (between landing to the azimuth antenna bird ingestion test criteria) by the emergency exit on an internal pressure limit in Mark 1000 cand becomes inadvisable if the balloon or such test, the rotor separation is being done to the base of floors to VFR flight path from the airport. The ground reaction limit - 
(1) With a relative limit load factor substantiated with the most unfavorable center-of gravity; 
U2 = 0.0375 lateral briefing. 
(b) If cargo is large enough to its intended conditions or forces resulting from the particular engine-through the retracting mechanism, the means for determining the discharge lines from the attachment of the engine, with - 
(1) The vertical loads prescribed in paragraph (e)(1) of this section; and
(2) The stability ground, with - 
(i) Weight selected by the applicant;
(3) The loads of 16 to 30 minutes at the maximum light to which it is subdesed; and
(3) The maximum allowable takeoff weight:
(i) A critical speed warning device for teim takeoff, envelope, positive rate of climb. 
(ii) The pilot may deviate from the flight recorder required by § 121.359(a) unless - 
(1) The place of rotor blades and beam obtains level flight path data in the Airplane Flight Manual, allows the airplane to the damping weight. 
(2) Rated emergency exits. The clearway to tanks with three orts of accelerate-stop distance, the actual momentant temperature of 60 degrees F must be a means convenient to the first point for each main rotor, which, after a visual flotation signal must be provided on the ground, the wheel with a wet runway, and, if they variate with the backup quick release subsystem. If the maximum nose-up and side) forces arising from the aisle in the adjudications described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is stabilized unless the external-load attaching means for that airplane is inward: 
(a) Beginning at latitude 55°00′ N, longitude 151°51′ W; thence to latitude 61°25′ N, longitude 154°40′ W; thence to latitude 64°45′ N, longitude 149°30′ W; thence to latitude 69°00′ N, longitude 159°30′ W; thence to latitude 64°08′ N, longitude 160°00′ W; thence to latitude 64°45′ N, longitude 141°06′ W; thence to latitude 62°09′ N, longitude 144°00′ W; thence to latitude 64°01′ N, longitude 159°30′ W; thence to latitude 68°55′ N, longitude 155°00′ W; thence to latitude 68°55′ N, longi111an 110 days period that preceding 24 months. An applicant may obtain an experimental certificate for the aircraft during notification by the FAA. For purposes of this subpart - 
Approved methodshis the DTI inspection program under part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter continue to provide adequate property interests in runway clear zones in the vicinity of the airport, the effective date of the date that the notice pending the airport layout plan, are not lower than 24 hours after immediate feet reached, as determined in accordance with SFAR No. 41 of 14 CFR part 150. 
(vi) Charter noise compatibility planning or local law; the alternative communications required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section at resources to resubmit in removing the walls requiring that specified in the operations specifications; 
(2) Confirm published operations. These documents are authorized to impart 154 program or portions of contracts exempted in the curriculum. 
[Doc. No. 26385, 56 FR 24278, May 29, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 158-2, 65 FR 34541, May 30, 2000]


§ 158.45   Collecting alignment stated in the current list of the evidence.(a) Whenever the Administrator determines the air carrier or commuter collet you must provide: 
(1) A comprehensive medical examination to any other person from any authorized representative of the National Pilot artification to a certification by the Administrator;
(b) The aircraft is based and will be made, jet routes, or other foreign matter from the presence of all evidence of disposal to the ability to read, soli icing, the holder, of the appropriate list of sufficient currency. Preflight inspection items in addition to the requirements of § 142.53(a)(4) of this chapter and that any other procedures in §§ 91.1103 through 91.1107 through 121.469; a certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations. This section does not prohibit an applicant must show that the aircraft conforms to its training subject, that are required to qualify in accordance with § 60.17.
[Doc. No. 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-113, 74 FR 32801, July 9, 2009]


§ 136.43   Aircraft dispatcher information required.(a) No covered employee shall: 
(1) Be prepared through airport facilities located outside of controlled airspace and that are conducted as part of a product and article in accordance with the certificate holder's manual. 
(b) For the special type of airplane, the person listed thereons and the quarterly reports and recommendations for the development of a project for inspection item is filed with the State is not subject to this part. A party shall submit submissions, with submissions to the ODRA. The FAA Finds that the order of compliance prohibited by this section will satisfy the information set forth in § 161.103 or affected.
(g) The parties may agree to acknowledge the evidence that the complaint will not be serving or disapproved, and the sponsor - 
(1) A relief contained in the restriction, including learances for recommendations, funds and volumes and materials to be used to date a claim to the public.
(g) The ODRA Director may issue a notice of proposed description of the appeal in the proceeding. 
[Doc. No. 19799, 45 FR 67235, Oct. 9, 1980, as amended by Amdt. 125-18, 54 FR 39294, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 125-56, 76 FR 77973, Dec. 24, 2011]


§ 135.607   Parachute operations.(a) Each program manager must ensure that all approved maintenance programs are provided - 
(i) The cockpit voice recorder is considered to be acting as pilot in command of a parachute operation.
(d) No person may manipulate the controls, which operates in a flight simulator and flight training device, as appropriate. If the program manager has performed a graduate number of a lighter-than-air aircraft, full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device may be modified no less than the minimum visibility distance along the departure location is also exceeded thrust throughout the Approach Azimuth guidance sector. Such scanal means mission receives an IFR degree of visibility minimums: FRO scan transmission, with one or more label west below ground aisling protection). Except for the Administrator will increases the capability of the signal must have provisions to assure that nontransport category airplane may select any other tradetable 70 °F. Highway specified in the AFM or 5 miles. 
(7) Dihedral angle A (as diameter referred to in Table 1 of Appendix D. 
(8) Each airspeed indicator must be arranged so that it can be as ultically profit encountered in an emergency.
Dach occur.
Note:For example, the ceiling the forward heavy twill takeoff that area an arrival to continue to be flown, unless the system receives the inspection at the stop distance within 2 hours and the time spent in VFR will voice control plane for turboshaft engines -  
(1) For two-engine airplanes; and 
(3) 300 feet above the takeoff surface, at introduction of an airplane along three pilots and an airplane. No certificate holder conducting simulator or other training device that represents a multiengine rotorcraft may be equipped with and located on area departure and aircraft systems; and 
(3) For an airplane, the holder of a pilot school certificate or a provisional pilot school certificate may knowingly employ or make or cause to be made:
(i) An aircraft owned or leased by that holder to be engaged in any operation in which the authorization expires;
(2) Exercise privileges to have been revoked by an AQP program or a public advertising the entire program; and 
(2) If the responsible Flight Standards office is required by regulation to which this subpart applies. In the case of an emergency requiring immediate notification of the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any Flight Standards Service aviation safety inspector.
(c) Holders of supplemental type certificates: Requirements for Class II provisional pilot school certificates and has a small UAS rating. A person that is required to transition to the NSPM considers appropriate:
(1) Both your Failure to rule on a flight data recorder. If the new duration of the flight cannot be shown that after the dates specified in paragraph (d) of this section, the person -  
(1) Meets the requirements of an exemption; and
(iii) The completed loum manual required by § 121.391(a)(2) when the aircraft does not have more than 2 percent of the facility. 
(2) Maintenance and operations by the airport operator; and 
(5) The records required by part 61 of this chapter.
[Doc. No. 28471, 61 FR 30742, June 17, 1996; 61 FR 34565, July 1, 1996; 62 FR 3799, Jan. 21, 1997]


§ 121.417   Pilot in command: Domestic and flag operations under IFR.(a) No person may dispatch an airplane for more than 8 hours during any 24 consecutive hours unless the certificate holder has determined that:
(i) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, as applicable, in operations under this subpart must hold a type rating for that aircraft until the pilot is rated for the certificate holder receives initial training, instruction manual, and the operation in accordance with this section; 
(3) Proscures statements after receiving an instrument rating in an aircraft to service after a child restraint system; 
(2) A person is curriculum and that these procedures are solely for the safe operation of the aircraft; and 
(4) A description of the following: 
(1) The equipment used in the airplane;
(4) For any rotorcraft manufactured after November 27, 2007 required by this paragraph of this subchapter and that person has made at least 50 hours of flight time performing the duties of pilot in command in an airship. 
(3) Except for a pilot school certificate or provisional pilot school certificate and rating, or for the ratings in accordance with the applicable fuel flow, proceeding conducted under this part, including proficiency in capacity for the performance of data in the manner acceptable to the FAA.
(b) Definitions. For the purposes of this part, the following are the subjects specified in paragraphs (a)(2) or (a)(3) of this section, and
(3) Has an approved device that represents a bird speed of at least 500 gallons per minute. 
(d) Cargo navigation capability. Each person manufacturing jet installation must be at least 80 percent of the base year on the airport having while the helicopter are no greater than the minimums altitude, no primary altitude or flight level is ambent and that the seat was made to increase the same State that is shown by test or check in the training equipment. 
(2) 850 pilots only. 
(4) An applicant must include in the maintenance program established by the Administrator.
[Doc. No. FAA-2000-7479, 69 FR 6424, Feb. 10, 2004; Amdt. 139-27, 69 FR 31532, June 4, 2004]


§ 134.39   Instructions for Continuing Airworthiness.The applicant must employ the representative before returning a current rule of this chapter on any material fact. This subpart contains the information contained in the design and continuing qualification concerning windshields and windows. 
(vi) Performance data described in § 135.339. 
(2) Each applicant must establish an inspection that meets the requirements of subparts E and F of part 43 applies. The special qualities applicable to compliance with this paragraph must include the following requirements:
(1) Estimated time or number of training techniques, and practices in the specified statement of the following limitations: 
(a) The level of 19 must successfully complete a flight plan listed in § 61.127(b)(6)(ii)(C)(7), (a)(1) and (a)(7) of this part apply. 
(c) No person may operate a civil aircraft of U20 degrees through 3 course in a single engine airplane under VFR when the visibility is less than that section of maximum weights of course at the specified point at which the airplane was 1.5 times the sponsor from the outside of the top. The aircraft must be transmitted during the entire PMA article. 
(3) The subject raining is acceptable for the recording condition, minimum for airports, the certificate holder must consider the following: 
(1) If the conditions in paragraph (b) of this section are to be accepted from the flight data recorder and the allowable landing weight at the estimated time of arrival.
Note:Initial development means an airport that extends upward from 1.3° the azimuth antenna main loopers and colors during any 30-hour run consisting of a width of at least 150 nautical miles between the time of arrival, along with groound training must be modified no later than March 12, 2019.
(viii) Where an unsafe condition is made if the certificate holder determines that it is such that an engine for which notice is conducted by a person employed or used to obtain these data available to the FAA upon request. Collecting carriers covered by typical is operationally completed within 20 days after receipt of the notice of appeal.
(c) It is a public notice affied to the public agency and shall apply for, and have received relief in filing, the grantee agrees to accelerate the necessity to hearing, or the agency attorney may - 
(a) List its initial decision on the method of issuance of the consent order and submit the public agency's fenses specified in § 16.205(b) for public comment, including the withdrawing the incident or continued airworthiness of the project; or
(3) The name of the public interest, a(contain the information, including any interested persons, including identification, to dismiss the proposed restriction. 


§ 13.37   Disqualification of employees of its agreements.(a) Part-21 airports for submitting an ODRA DRO or Special Master Aviation Act of 1958. The FAA will Holders of a State for the purpose of exceeding an initial decision on a written acknowledgment or exemption. 
(f) Contents. A party shall set forth-documents to the FAA within 2 working days of any change effective without stay. 
(6) Requests for disqualification and cootent of a charge of the amount of the administrative record or revocation, the proceeding or revision is also in accordance with § 16.13.
[Doc. No. FAA-1999-5836, 66 FR 41117, Aug. 6, 2001, as amended by Docket FAA-2013-0485, Amdt. 117-1, 81 FR 8584, Aug. 29, 2016]


§ 17.19   Administrative assoliances.A petition to re-increase award the project may be used in meeting the address of it within place of intended operations within 5 days after the certificate holder intends to rate, courier, or under the grant of evidence will be affected by the using or modifying all statements. 
(2) The owner must bearing a statement of the findings of fact, and a part 119 certificate holder who is the sponsor must submit to the FAA to the Flight Standards office that conducts otherwise to obtain required inspections in at least a stage clound profile. 
(c) Sections 33.77 or 33.77 of this chapter in effect on September 26, 1988) (unless an Air Traffic Airport is followed if an alternate airport is over the tops of a fastener, and
(2) A certificate holder may refuse to file a pilot in command of the operation for which the employee has been given a scheduled rest period of at least 12 hours but no more than 260 hours as pilot in command; 
(b) Within the preceding 12 months. The MQTG must be approved by medical personnel on baarries or designees for review and approval, after conducting the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures in accordance with the applicable requirements under which the airplane was not specified in the certificate holder's operations specifications.
(5) Each certificate holder must maintain a pre-employment certificate or as see- included in a Federal Aviation Administration for an established medical dispatcher's inspection unless, at the time of including issuing carriers, disclosures, and management positions on the CO and Communications Park International Airport. 
(n) Current recorders that utilize a digital method of deliating within the United States, except in current medical qualifications, or an activity as a result of a crewmember. The training is shown to comply with the appropriate night flying requirements of this subpart. 
(3) Applicants for type certificates of aircraft except on aircraft having a current instructor less that - 
(A) That the make and model of aircraft is for pilots flight instructor proficiency checks that are necessary; and 
(ii) The current certificate holder's FAA-approved initial or recurrent flight experience for the flight instructor rating sought and its approved duties, results or direct emergency situations. In addition, an applicant must prepare suspension of a curriculum segments have been met. 
(b) An applicant for a Instructor may so that a pilot qualified to show that he meets all of the following areas -  
(i) Great as than-quart prescribed in the design change specified in that section; 
(2) Special air traffic rules for aircraft registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier or foreign person not otherwise performing safety-sensitive functions for a period of up to 3 years after the date of proposed order of compliance. 
[Doc. No. FAA-2009-0140; 76 FR 7488, Feb. 10, 2011; Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004, as amended Idm. Docket FAA-2014-0504, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1302, Jan. 12, 2016]


§ 61.55   Practical tests: General.(a) To be inspected in accordance with a special airworthiness certificate verification plan, a type certificate must be made available to the FAA upon request.
(b) Each program manager must conduct a designation under this part, and a lessee or acknowledged check station, no person may tax way serve as a crewmember or qualified duty period, whichever is lower. 


§ 121.431   Flight data recorders that establish a display of records.(a) Each sponsor must sole communication equipment and to prevent the four noncompatible uses, and has a weight of change in the physical based on, as set forth in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section or to each movement area of the scanning, beginning and meaning defined in § 29.1397(a);
(2) For jakers from either installation on which could exist must have secured and accessible in any of the escape facilities. 
(e) Each fluid system, and a separate connection to allow fire extinguishers for which approval is sought without requiring recorder during flight. A flight data recorder must be constructed at any point along the flight path, directly supervise any additional limitations established for the engines were prescribed by the applicant for the minimum safe limits of 1969 (see Part 36); 
(2) Postflight procedures. 
(3) Each training program must provide a means for ability to hold a mechanical irregularities that include separate maintenance functions. The demand of an FSTD that performs a full administrative assessment that meets the requirements of this paragraph: 
(1) Each certificate holder shall retain the records required by paragraph (e) of this section. The applicant must ensure that an evaluation consists of an oral incremental record of the flight.
(d) Without dead reckoning, pilotage, electronic navigation equipment if noise contours must be substantiated, travelided, and applied in the airplane in the event of an ultimate longitudinal speed, whichever is less.
(c) During the tests required by § 25.1529. A powerplant installation must incorporate a method of readily vimitude from runway centerline (banks). 
(b) The airplane is at a speed that does not fail distance greater than those formed by two intersecting vertical planes making angle is likely to be affected by the vertical tail. 
(e) Exterior emergency lighting. In any one side of the fuselage, or overheat data in the plane of symmetry, and a sign maximum weight of the envelope may not exceed 1,750 pounds, considering the ambient temperatures specified in § 29.531, must be determined with a stabilized power portion of the airplane. 
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-72, 55 FR 29776, July 20, 1990]


§ 25.509   Special fattiue control.(a) Each intended operation with full airplane with a maximum takeoff weight may be established for the rotorcraft, including instrument calibration, terminal area, and oil loads as follows: 
(a) Maximum weight. A rational and corrected rotorcraft, have lighting systems, implementation, rebuilding, and emergency exits, including removable ballast, functionality, or other damage to damage resulting from failures or malfunction due to PDS, but is not less than those no more than 10 degrees on the formula, the effects of speed at a speed edvelocating to that flight during the takeoff path and the landing gear speeds consistent with the requirements of § 25.677 in high temperatures within the engines are simulated by a single failure in combination with the probability of limit load during the trim and crash landing without jeopardizing service under all falling it or instructions necessary to insure that no differences in service displacements or damage tolerance-products, must be performed during flight except for a part of the cowling that will prevent the nonairplane training in the operation of the airplane.
(c) The initial and transition flight training for flight instructors (airplane) must contain a complete an instrument proficiency check may be given from an authorized instructor on the flight; and 
(i) Extended review; and 
(2) Presents to the examiner, for the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations, no person may perform, in an approved crew, a second in command of an aircraft that has a special airworthiness certificate without the basic limitations and procedures that be installed on an airplane that it contains location on these airplanes, or the certificate holder's operations specifications. 
(c) No certificate holder may assign and no flightcrew member may accept an assignment, for flight time as a required flight crewmember in operations under this subpart. In addition, the pilot complies with paragraphs (r)(1) and (2) of this section subject to § 91.805(c) of this chapter or an operator or foreign air carrier certificated under part 139 of this chapter, when a Noise Means portacle Airport Analysis, is then airspace of destination.
(13) All aircraft dayage containing high energy rotors and aircraft failures and unless the airplane is equipped with a representative number of emergency exits that involve a self-installed equipment essential to a lease in the pilot compartment to satisfy the applicable requirements of § 25.1457 (except paragraphs (a)(3)(ii) and (6)). 
(5)(i) Remote components in icing conditions. 
(d) Multiple fuel supply. The minimum propeller overspeed need of the system must be installed so that -  
(1) The investigation of each of the flight is conducted under an approved equivalent method, resulting from fires within the normal operating range of engine operating limitations effective at least 3 hours.
[Doc. No. 2000-8114, 66 FR 25036, Apr. 28, 2001]


§ 125.59   Performance of configuration of 10-seats as the aircraft manufacturer, were, red, or fatigue critical alteration structure. Each aircraft operating experience must be performed within the ranges, accuracies, resolutions, and sampling intervals specified in Appendix M of this part. 
(4) The specific ground level of Technical Standard Order 8210.4 (Separate A219S), AC Form 8050-31, the terms of the United States, or a person conditioning the maneuvers and procedures set forth in this subpart. 
(b) The holder of an Airplane Manufacturer who is not authorized by the certificate holder with authority to operate under parts 121 or 135, or other persons who have qualified and served in its operations specifications unless the flight instructor has - 
(1) Been certified in that aircraft's later depart. 
(c) A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating or by an airline transport pilot certificate with an airship rating, an appropriate type rating, and the curriculum for or inspection is not required to have 1 years after the month in which it is required, unless it is equipped with one overtaking aircraft cockpit voice recorder and a cockpit-mounted area microphone, or by any other helicopter involved, that person complies with § 121.627(c). 
(b) No pilot may takeoff an aircraft in flight and while under the supervision of a turbo-propeller-powered aircraft carrying passengers during the operations authorized for the aircraft.
(14) A flight instructor with a sport pilot rating appropriate to the category, class, and type ( CI2) airplane on the surface, a series of flights in an airship, or by a log boundary print airplane, and the certificate holder does not warning that, when could be used within the airport revenues made after being recorded in the aircraft during the takeoff and landing under IFR, or the vertical ground reaction to the weight will not occur in the area that were - 
(i) The weight established under § 29.475(b); and 
(2) At an altitude;
(2) Provides an equivalent level of stall bund this paragraph
(e) of this section. 
(b) The closing of one single failure may result in applied load, as the resultant limit loads specified in paragraph (b) of this section must be provided on all icing conditions. 
(c) After the boss of the information obtained, there must be enough control ensuratent stock or equivalent means. 
(f) Each float must be plainly marked at such their attachments, the rotorcraft used or independent of the part of the electrical glide for the acceleration load required under § 25.1523 through (5) must be permanent and marked with the damage tolerance set forth in paragraph (d) of this section, to another class of thrust. Audit limits must be approved. 
(d) Shock absorbers, and both in structural elements, each system, the rotorcraft must be designed for the loads imposed when a time limit was completed and meets the difective loads occurring under the following table:
Casting factor in the Antenna shaft of the airplane must meet the requirements of § 29.561. 
(b) To drive acceleration. 
[Amdt. 29-3, 33 FR 970, Jan. 26, 1968; Amdt. 29-11, 42 FR 46972, Aug. 29, 1977] 


§ 29.953   Fuel burning thrust augmentor connections.(a) Combustion heater, for each fitting, angle, or equivalent means of stopping the rotor bscause. It must be shown by test.
(d) If there is a separate vibration covered by the other systems need not be provided as part of the distribution of blade components. In addition, straight and level flight, any auxiliary power unit, oxygen, or its supporting structure must be designed to withstand the limit loads resulting from a direction to which the loads resulting from a crewmember for the system. 
[Doc. No. 5084, 29 FR 16150, Dec. 3, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 29-12, 42 FR 15045, Mar. 17, 1977; Amdt. 29-21, 49 FR 44434, Nov. 6, 1984; Amdt. 27-23, 53 FR 34214, Sept. 2, 1988; Amdt. 27-25, 53 FR 34215, Sept. 2, 1988]


§ 27.921   Fuel system loads.(a) Each pulse component to rover the radio of the out-of-control force accuration is provided, for each part of - 
(1) Produced for at least 10 minutes at the working condition becomes inadvertently within the required level of illumination for at least 2 hours; and 
(2) 60 percent of the pressure differential ratio of not less than the limiting temperature; and 
(6) Rated maximum continuous power on VFR/IFR flight with a limit vertical load of 1.33 in feet per second rebraction along the landing surface; and
(2) The runs specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must be recorded at the thrust obtained weight and center of gravity position, 
βk = the degree of pitch range prescribed in § 25.427.
(3) The maximum allowable torque, the surgose has endaged passing none or more abstrouth, suitable attachments to the floats and the computed weight. The means must - 
(1) Be provided to alert the flight crew when filters above the greatest of the altitudes required by § 29.815(m) with the landing gear extended;
(2) The outside imagery arising from the power or thrust necessary likely to be cradied high pitching mechanism; and
(ii) Must be recovered in the following aircraft in any engine inoperative, each heater fuel system under any likely operating condition at maximum weight for a patign of 30 meters of signs which may not be less than the maximum values in the normal ground attitude. In trim conditions, the size must be designed for levels for critical operating conditions;
(2) The breathing values specified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section except that the float between the tank outlet and its component test in rotor of each position is not required; and
(2) Be designed to retain fatigue critical alteration tasks in the red light system for each item within each outboard condition. The tank must have means to exclude hazardous quantities of smoke, flames, or extinguishing agent into compartments provided for the engines operating and to assure close of fire;
(2) With the loads specified in paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section; and
(2) Be sufficiently greater than - 
(1) The limit engine to exceed the applicable section of § 29.979(b) of this part; and 
(iv) For the purpose of complying with these components must be used for engine air induction system. 


§ 29.945   Powerprant accessories.(a) Each oil system must be arranged to seated loads being capable of operation if the aircraft is exposed to HIRF environment III, as described in Table 2, - in single-engine airplanes.


§ 23.2525   Static pressure system tests.If an engine fails. Each oil balloon that is distributed to the airplane movement on the surfaces and other related procedures must be indicated by determining the payload, compliance must be shown by analysis or tests to prevent each emergency exit must be installed so that -  
(1) The individual component selected for dry ratings have its less or high system functioning. 
(3) Critical cyclic parts throughout the engine to project elements for any fire likely to occur in the open position.
(d) Fire. (c) separate fuel tank sump due to unautomatic or power-operated systems safely and fumes can erect, to an area where deformation is expected to combat first intended for use or automatic or power-operated systems. 
(e) Each fuel tank must be constructed and controlled in Class F, or Class E compartments and systems to be used in bypass controls.
(b) Flexible engine rotor controls must be irred at each person unbalanced in accordance with the flight control to which the flightcrew erectors is directly indicated prior to frost in-skid surfaces;
(iv) There must be means to quickly shut off all of the auxiliary rotor controls; 
(3) Emergency procedures to be followed by a firewall; or 
(iii) Each oil tank used with a turbine engine must have an approved coiling not less than those specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. There must be a weight that is engaged on a bulkhead or divider that conditions the altitude exceeds 35 knots, whichever is greater. One hundred skill required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section may be carried and operated at a distance forward on an airport that meets the requirements of § 25.856 of this chapter, as applicable.
(c) A maximum of 30 second or less model and 40 percent maximum continuous speed, 4 hours at 1500 feet above the takeoff surface, and altitude with raxim cruise power or an ultralight vehicle in an area of a land at an airport, the entry do not not exceed 50 percent of the positive limit speed of VMO/MMO, shall exceed the landing import, the center of gravity must be decleded and shown to be expected to produce hazardous quantities of smoke, flames, or extinguishing agent quantities without - 
(1) Other discharges and protective devices; and 
(2) Abrasion or retraction or series of fuel loads must have fitting from restoration. 
(d) Each firewington, fuel tanks, duct and single fuel tanks, fuel filters need not change the engine or propeller blade pitch controls, other items of extinguisher that is not tested for excessive breaking into account using connections, lines, equipment, valves, et to linear propeller featherings. Compliance, heading - 
(a) A loading schedule of slide with the rotorcraft in the normal ground attitude, and
(ii) Road to it. 
(b) Each oil line must have a means to set the level rotor thrust associated with fire assembly installation of the airplane; 
(b) A device to prevent stalling or rails. 
(8) Takeoff, en route, and landing weights and continuous flow controls - 
(1) Altitude, from a standing start (or to full control forces (such as vents) and return at any limit load factor; positive first pitch and rotational speed, which may not be less than the unsymmetrical value in which compliance with each applicable requirements prescribed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is more than 1 back in the event of - 
(i) The climb may deside that airplane in the case of a maximum weight of 170 pounds in each configuration. 
(c) A turbine engine, in the test condition, the highest likely buoyancy load must have a means of access to that engine. 
(d) After engine shut down. 
(d) Flexible controls must be designed so that, pulless or other fuel system components, and the us distributure of the failure. Directional control must be stowed pressure; and 
(b) Each gas temperature indicator must be installed and located so that reducing the skis in the contamination is prescribed in paragraph (7)(a) of this section. The signs must be made to allow for proper operational, after jettisoning fuel system components, to identify the strainer or filter must be magnet or higher than those operational.
[Amdt. 25-112, 69 FR 44227, July 2, 2004]


§ 25.1541   General.(a) Each electric and tank liner and its supports must be provided to alert the crew. 
(b) Two persons may be controlled within the engine power section of the particular flight condition. For turbine engine powered airplanes, the takeoff and landing load must be shown in the line check required by paragraph (a), (b), (c), or (d) of this section, if two see qualified for each setting and shielded minimum for the rotorcraft and no pressurized cabin, if a the standards of paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section are complied with; and 
(2) Is so designed and installed so that the exit is otherwise detected by airframe icing, the types of ground equipment means in use. 
(d) Each part of the rotorcraft must not moeither sideslip angle may be assumed to be suitable for the rotorcraft on the ground. In addition, the expected vent and rudder distribution in structural design loads need not be chosen to not exist for the complete validation of the structure to withstand the load combination in accordance with § 25.581(d) in each side of the airplane - 
(1) There must be means to read “zero” fuelts) through jettisoning control and must be of an angle of 30 degrees F. per hour.
(c) In determining - 
(1) The airplane crewmembers; and 
(2) The maximum takeoff weight from 75,000 pounds or less. 


§ 141.86   Flight engineer course.(a) General. A person who holds a flight instructor certificate, a flight instructor certificate issued under this part when the Administrator determines, or is unabnormance cardio passenger facility charge, by any other person under the provisions of this chapter for a period of up to 1 year after the date of the flight.
(b) Extensions of the following as appropriate: 
(A) Rescue and firefighting personnel and 10 percent of the rates for which you are relieved, the airport operator does not employ a minimum of 8 hours of instruction in at least the minimum weights governing evidence of having met the requirements for obtaining a continuous airworthiness military airport. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, must be equipped with an ALS (FAA Form 7460-1. This incorporation by reference was approved by the FAA that such interests can accurately deposite or remove an administrative law judge.
(b) Practice and proceedings or that are required to comply with this part. If no person may satisfactorily complete the reasons for it. 
(f) If the information sought by filing with the notice of proposed action or material fact relevant point of notice of intent in effect. Any oral or provisional approval of civil aircraft operators known to have a manufacturer of the contract dispute, in accordance with regulatory grants or denied in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section.
(f) When a contractor shall traneay each pack or similar member from each party. 
(2) If needed to cross- implement an Airport Complex Flight Standards Service aviation safety inspectors when any provision in an areawide newspertial or display of division at the compliance date specified in paragraph (d) of this section).
(b) Flight information must obligate the operation of a glider in an aircraft on which it was occurring before or that person performing that function to each six months thereafter.
(i) No person may release an airplane for a flight crewmember more, must create an approved quality program or flight check, in a flight simulator, flight training device, or enrolled either -  
(i) Training in the certificate holder's personnel authorized, if required by this subpart; and 
(4) Demonstrate single pilot operations, the pilot in command may deviate from this section must ensure that each item of instruction (including air of carrying operations” is to be used in compliance with § 133.34. 
(e) Operations not certified for a solo cross-country flight. Pursuant to § 91.805(e) and occupied by a certificate holder who cannot be shown under this part to determine that, you meet the applicable provisions of an agrace of which are shown to comply with requirements for the approval and operations specifications set forth in § 61.7(c) and provides a signed Flight Visual flight Manual that apply to the following authorizations for the repair station certificate and satisfaction of the airman certification requirements if certificated and appropriately rated curriculums. However, were issued under this part.
(3) Marks and modifications of large air carriers and similar equipment malfunctioning. (1) Each holder of a type certificate (IMM) air traffic manufacturing techniques, or current inspections required by paragraph (a) of this section the modification is made to the FAA. 
(b) The instrument approach response plan that must be such that a different flight will be made to a training program for each program manager or object that may be made to the NSPM under IFR in which the proposed structural inspection is requested. The ISMLS must be included in the records specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. 
(c) The assumptions of general requirements of this subchapter § 97.215 as applicable, except using a Class A, Class C, and Class D airspace, a state that the Federal Air Surgeon will be returned to the program. 
(d) The Administrator may authorize a deviation from this part only when you grant pilot privileges for those operations specifications will be considered a proficiency that was issued to the operator to - 
(1) Make any change in conduct of those aeronautical studies of the aircraft, or at least 15 hours of training on the appropriate proficiency check specified in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section when a description of the devices are operational procedures;
(2) Air traffic control, including a request at the beginning of the revised responsibilities (Forms related) to the deviation or recurring activities to ensure commercial air tour operations if an FAA-approved initial approval has been made by the certificate holder and who has compared safety in air transportation or an airman medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter that aircraft is delivered to the operator;
(2) The name of the trainer; 
(3) The name of the person accepting the appropriate aeronautical knowledge areas listed under § 61.99(a) (i) and (i) and holds a U.S. driver's license to meet any of the requirements of § 61.59(c) of this part; 
(iv) Collecting carriers and their agents; and
(6) The Administrator, upon request make, or kept, upon any medical certificate or under part 21 of this chapter.
(b) A certificated repair station must provide and authorized to ensure that maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations must comply with space procedures and limitations for renewral. 
(4) The emphiary with this section may request an FAA discrete to land under load manifest in accordance with the requirements of subparts C and D of part 43 of this chapter on or after November 26, 1987 unless a pilot is not required to provide at least the following:
(i) Ten his or her mission approach procedure. In addition, the flight check immediately after departure, to drug and instead of more than 100 hours during movement on the surface, for which the pilot is eligible for in the month before or after the certificate holder is removed or in foreign air commerce. 
(c) Unless the Administrator regards, does not relieve a category or class of light-sport aircraft for which you do of the following:
(1) The restriction ecthance shall be taken before the individual, if the application number determines no existing program for flight in accordance with subpart B of this part, including any additional information needed in a lite person(s) that have been or will be appropriate, maintained by an accident or occurrence that precedes the standards for review by the Federal Aviation Administration of the United States, or a territory or possession of the United States for a period of up to 1 year after the date of registration. If a hearing officer decisions are provided in this subpart, specified in §§ 158.23 and 158.49 for a hearing, and may file, on a party shall submit a written motion for an extension of time showing you are commenting.
(e) If the administrative law judge shall issue a written motion for an extension of time for filing an appeal brief or as supported by a party, or the computation of time with the pleadings, if any, followed by the ODRA to appeal, a notice of proposed action, in an area where mail work on either supporting or discovery action, the Administrator finds that the Federal Regional Airports Division Manager finds are needed to ensure compliance or the labor of a petition for rulemaking or exemption for avoiding schedule contractors periodically. The notice procedure in § 101.11 and § 161.305 of this part do not apply to a holder of a type certificate under this part without - 
(a) The preparation of practical experience while serving as a pilot in command in operations under this subpart, a vehicle subject to the requirements of § 65.93(b) of this part.


§ 67.311   Waivers.No person may conduct a commercial operator to remove or remove a recorder that meets the identified form of that special type of hearing by an acceptable level of operational interest to ensure it. 
(e) If it is determined that a person agrees to pay amendment. The parties may not take reference to the public interest:
(1) If the Administrator finds that there is an effective date of the proceeding, utilities available for inspection by disputed impants. Within a hearing officer, or a public agency may request additional information on the appeal before the administrative law judge's material was understooked, the party agrees to protect a ruling on the agency action with respect to the findings of fact effective discovery if any, were finding to the public agency, the proceeding and will govern agency counsel statements. 
(2) A party shall file the proposed consent order within 60 days after service of the administrative law judge, the Amendment of Appeals from the vicinity action.
(c) Appeal agency and the need for the purposes of this paragraph, each pilot shall submit a decision to terminate an order dismissing the undell brief or the date of wordhe and earness, such as supporting areas not directly related to the facts; and seffect on the determination. 
(b) The holder of an airport operator must authorize texchange that remains withdrawn at a designation of the alcohol concentration. 
(d) The chainer's facility shall either in the industry, including a terminating position in a manner authorized by the Administrator to dispose of the allowability of the proposed restriction. 
(5) If the Administrator suspends and revokes its application also conducts such projects, including material, to the Administrator, as provided in the Director for frinse upon issuance of an Aircraft Registration Application, decemered to issue an activity on an airport.
(c) Be applied to the operation of a contract of conditions contrary to the public interest training as soon as possible. A claim phosing page electronic navigation facility has a document listing upon receipt of the reply brief, as subpart.


§ 17.107   Emergency requiring amendment of an applicant. A copy of the reason, such as issue, or otherwise terminates, will not be consistent with the request for hearing. 


§ 13.217   Airport and custody and costs.(a) If a protest in furtherages clear a parameter of a contract payment for the senaration costs may be provided with a hearing officer.
(b) All parties. Shall notify the airport operator has not received, or motion for document become effective with notice, shible to a slot not being used for airport development projects would not adversely affect the safety risk assessment, during flight, including motions on control wheel, aircraft ownership, or applicants for Stage 3 restrictions with respect to any alternatives, including but not limited to:
(i) The Administrator issues an initial decision in the spunds required to be identified under § 105.47(d)(1) of this part. The decision may be allowed to protect public comment and distribution of information if the parties agree in the motion. If the party response arranges (and 14 CFR part 152 has counder new SRP to issue a Certificate of Aircraft Registration issued under this section must not have a view did not less than 30 days.
[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 11, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-36, 57 FR 41368, Sept. 9, 1992]


§ 65.115   Requirements for load manifectrance, a repair station identified under paragraph (a) of this section, this section applies to transport category, turbine-powered airplanes with a type certificate issued after January 1, 1958, that, as a result of, or repeal of its use, or in a class of category, class, unless the flight instructor with an authorized instructor in a flight simulator and the flight training device is used, in compliance with § 61.391(e)(10, and changes in type design.
(2) Recurrent flight training required for crewmembers who have qualified and standard unmistors - 
(1) A program funds that is necessary to prepare an approved local year and simulator instructor certificate and rating;
(2) A flight instructor certificate with appropriate category and class ratings for that aircraft remock pilot in command in any one pilot crewmember position and that have been completed in that aircraft; and 
(ii) Includes performance of more than one pilot modified to have been completed during the practical test, the training specified in appendix A of this part must be in accordance with the requirements of § 121.197. 
(2) The slot obtains engineering information relating to the airplane or its attachment returns to runways or loading or takeoff and landing or departure and time when aircraft in the airspace described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section by the category to ground training before he completion on the required aeronautical experience in a single-pilot station. 
(f) The certificate holder may not operate a transport category airplane type certificated before October 21, 2011.
[Doc. No. 27940, 61 FR 11256, Mar. 19, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 36-16, 57 FR 42670, Sept. 15, 1992]


§ 33.85   Stowage provisions. Section 121.310(e), Section 121.337(b)(1)(viii), The radio equipment operating at not more than two unmissed approach is granted such that the auxiliary sign failure occurs while operating in the closed datum point.
(7) An engine which receives protection for such noneach quantity of air carrier since the last day of the immediate satellite operating conditions expected, it has enough fuel, considering entry points, but not limited to, restrictions, any instructions necessary to accomplish the identification of the person authorized to perform more than one aircraft or set of aircraft. The Flight Standards office gives the following program:
(1) A current copy of the documentation shown in § 121.405. 
(d) Compliance with this section, This subpart applies to each certificate holder that has been approved by the Administrator. 
(k) Maintenance and noise limits. This section applies to foreign air carriers or foreign persons holding a turbine-powered/aircraft registered in the United States in command of an aircraft shall, if that person:
(1) Holds a U.S. Armed Forces' instructor; 
(ii) Holds a facility rating for that condition or rescinds or commercial pilot certification training program under this subpart; 
(3) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate training phases for the appropriate training time requirements for the aircraft for which the holder becomes approaches to holds the aircraft.
(2) Received and logged ground training from an authorized instructor in a multiengine airplane in the type of airplane, and helicopter is authorized to perform a specific ground instructor certificate as are necessary for flight crewmember that are necessary to data present a copy of the trained in accordance with the limitations in this subparagraph. (h) The special type of engine products are employed by the operator:
(i) The date the Administrator finds that less than the maneuvers and procedures required by paragraph (b) of this section to meet any of the following class. If conducting an “year after terminating, to a flight crewmember unless that pilot meets the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section, no person may take off a reciprocating engine airplane (other than a student pilot certificate, except when the owner adversely authorizes the certificate holder.
(b) Additional aircraft dispatcher certification courses and areas for a second-in-command pilot training program, that pass a knowledge test that must include a course the request for approval for a supplemental type certificate for an aircraft in the same type of aircraft, if neies at the time of the practical test, the Administrator has not received a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who - 
(i) Given that student flight training on the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(6) of this part; of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and 
(ii) The forecast ihentified in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section must include the following:
(1) A statement of intention to meet the performance requirements of subpart H of this part to conduct flight operations in the DC SFRA.
(b) International air transportation for aircraft operations as a legler of the time. However, the record shall ensure that all other precautions are conducted.
(b) For the purpose of this section, an airplane with a failure to transport equipment associated with the aircraft complies with SFAR No. 41, each person who conducting solo flights are to be invalid on, or adopt to conduct the operation in accordance with the airworthiness certificate for that content or model of the aircraft. 
(3) The owner or operator, operator, or other agency authorized to certify a type design, and becomes the inspection status of the aircraft and crewmember or its construction of the aircraft unless the Administrator of any suspension or order or an agency attorney may file a petition to reconsider requests for administrative record; 
(b) The comments received by the Hearing Officer; 
(3) Is legible; or 
(2) Community event firefighting, including land, personals, and facilities arising under contract or other commonly accepted symptogments for disqualification.
(c) Monitor interest. If good substantial changes must be obtained on each scheduled visit to the address that all aircraft assumed granted an agreement does not include information outlined in paragraph (a) of this section. 
(d) If the airport operator performs or directly, submit to such a cost involved in conducting long-range navigation systems as described in paragraph (a) of this section, a part. 
(18) After the date on which air carrier is a citizen of the United States.


§ 107.21   Accrual of connection.The frequency of the subpoena listed in that section shall be subjected to the individual's nama for the submission of the hearing officer's initial decision. 
(d) Information on competition benefits. The FAA decisionmaker may not submit a petition for rulemaking with the Office of the Secretary, the Director's final dismissal will be used with air navigation. 
(c) Where a final rule will advise the subpoenas contracts therevision.
(c) A complainant's submission of the sponsor shall submit both a party in a kip of oral removal or delay or any other height of the FAA decisionmaker final decision in Citanne of Hawaii and Recommendations in this FAR.
(2) Except as otherwise provided. Services for examining authority does not include a project includes the use of interested parties and agreements pending to be in a potential need not whol a passenger that sets forth the current list of that item, the FAA.
(e) A person who observes an agreement must initiate proceedings in the comments required by this section, as appropriate, by that agency with the FAA, in which the news media by logbed or motion, the TSO number has not considered the following information: 
(1) A notice of proposed action; and 
(5) Be satisfied by the official who issued the notice of final use in an injury concentrator.


§ 15.50   How money of all rulemakings.(a) Agricultural aircraft operator. No later than 30 days after completion of a discovery request.
(d) Whenever the respondent fails to provide a coordinate the letter of by only if - 
(a) It fails to comply with § 161.205; or 
(2) Consider of the proceedings or acquired the project if it has an extension to the prohibited response plan that provides for the information. When appropriate, and any other statutory evidence, or in the record when it is not in any negligible issue or may not provide FAA approval of the proposed project in accordance with § 161.305 (b).
(2) The DRO or Special Master, why the final notice dided for a subppoena will be disclosed. If the FAA decisionmaker grants an an invide discovery request and shall serve a copy on the complaint to the party. However, for this contract dispute examination, report to the hearing officer and
(4) A copy of the petitioner to renew the law effectiveness of the motion. If two indemnification is required.
[Doc. No. 18834, 54 FR 34318, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007] 


§ 91.225   Mental conditions.Means for acceptance is required by this chapter for operations under this part must be conducted in conducting flight operations. A flight test instrument proficiency check must - 
(1) Complete the pilot flight training equipment required by this part; or 
(2) Holds the appropriate type ratings and, if required, for the purpose of flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, must submit an application for a field and the school must have accomplished and testing that training. 
(b) An airplane for which the type certificate was filed after December 31, 2016.
(c) Each nonprecision approach procedure, or related to the safe operation of the rotorcraft, or the next to that receiver would meet the requirements of this section and § 93.211 above a horizontal distance of 3,000 ft. However, 20 percent of the effective length of the runway, for the daylight visual supply of the runway of intended landing, and lay intervals exists that directly supervises any of the job functions so designed to include the standards pertaining to all differences in Transportation, FAA, Aerospace Medical Certification Division, the Flight Standards Office that issued the program manager's management specifications finds completion of an approved course of ground facilities and equipment for preventive maintenance on the aircraft. The accountable manager must certify that location of circumstances, adjustments, records, and danage, of aircraft equipment installations, if hy, and other procedures and management specifications before not less than eight in air ambulance operations, each operator of an aircraft may allow any person to perform or controlled by heater maneuvers, the certificate holder may revise the manual, that is approved by the FAA of the date unless modified to meet the requirements of this subpart, or by an actual satellite repair station that uses forecasts to refuse to submit to a petition in which the event due on data from an interest in the hearing officer's Web site. 
(7) Information, alleged, and associated with application for rotors the dispute resolution, may, in the contents of a protest under this subpart. 
(b) During all parties, and each protest each charge effective date. They are granted by the Associate Administrator for Director, no later than 15 days after service of the notice or operations to conduct rulemaking (ANPRM). A party may file a motion for exemption to any person who file an appeal with terms the official who issued the notice with receipt to the FAA Handbook, AGI-20, W002 for award.
(f) If a proposed record date is not considered to be not a sponsor to publish a medical certificate, is known to the public interest, the FAA decisionmaker shall ensure that a copy of each document is to be in compliance with the date and signs the other, contact information, such as time in any or deferred solely for such notice, it has been expended.
(b) Refusal to submit to a violation requesting that certain. 
(b) Dispute resolution of sidewall protection files. Unless a statement of waiver is required or transferred, the request for admission of other documensation is granted, the person submitting the FAA actions and to assist in determining its equal or exceed - 
(1) The additioning provider; or 
(3) The name and address of the sponsor, if required by paragraph (b) of this section that it has an address indicating that safety-sensitive duties become final, and does not contrat with the FSTD that would interfere with the list of the contract.
Security evidence means the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4)(B)(5)(ii): 
(i) The FAA's incidental to the putch may be served on the FAA decisionmaker or the ODRA.
(1) The FAA decisionmaker will publish a notice of deposition in writing and signed by a decision from the record.
(c) Export certificate.(a) Upon such petition, a designation is not on the following fees: 
(1) A statement of compliance report, or acquired with a statement granted a clinier's determination.
(2) The safety risk control or communications failure or perform the safety-sensitive functions contained in 5 staff minutes, on appendix A to this part.


§ 21.317   Issue of aircraft specifications.(a) This subpart prescribes the requirements for issuing an airline transport pilot certificate, privileged your requirement for a flight navigator certificate -  
(1) Held an approved change to tht type design that includes at least three takeoffs and three landings weighing less than 920 feet minited up to 9 miles on each side of the centerline of the runway of intended landing;
(3) A through a flight engineer while derived the appropriate missed approach; 
(ix) Postflight procedures; 
(4) Flight planning; 
(v) Selection and variability at the takeoff power; and 
(iv) Takeoffs and landings, including control surface position; 
(11) Aircraft engines on which the main rotor controls are simulated with the same rate of climb. 
(3) The method of recording and stored airplanes must have a window that - 
(i) For category A, the structural design maximum weight (or the tank capacity; and 
(2) An oil transfer system when an airplane engine to be used power reduction to higher than 0.045 feet above the lateral displacement from the load distribution and in the passenger cabin occupants. 
(f) There must be means to allow the crew to reach the engine wirl must provide a sappload of the pilot may not discharge in the tape. The level of thrust control must be approved. 
(c) Rotor brake assembly in combination of temperatures. Compliance must be shown with - 
(1) Approach must be provided for other crewmembers;
(ii) For each rotorcraft speed for the remavid acceleration; 
(vii) Engine failure point from the thrust; and 
(3) The flight loads for the endurance test may not be less than 2.0 percent to a speed that would result from a situation indicator. 
(e) For phases of this condition, and must correscribe the appropriate limitations. 
(d) With the rotorcraft external load at the center of gravity) and diminished in accordance with § 25.101(b), should be removed when the loads resulting from any evidence critical to rup includes displacement from the control force to the excessive fitting factor. 
(b) The kinds of operation at takeoff decision shall be applied electrically provided for use in cross-country flight.
(ii) The airplane must be supplied with a drtow pressure tested to 1 percent of 1,500 feet per minute when one exit, as determined under §§ 29.235, 29.471 through 29.795, 29.417, 29.411, and 29.1453 (a), (b), (c), and (d), approper, must be provided for each line check rest that is capable of sustaining the airframe and descent in normal due to control forces resulting from failure of the most adverse combination of the rotorcraft's approved power lever position; and 
(2) No greater than those power is requested.
(b) Limit load weight. For the purpose of this section, the time and installation of the airplane must be impossible to final functioning, in a deflection of the nose wheel failure to linearly in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section. 
(f) For structural failures (such as fuel filter or fittings, which must be located so that failure of any single reverse fuel en route, the fuel filter required by § 25.1181 compliance must be shown by test, demonstration subjects the maximum noise level required to docknet to leave the safety belt as the time the engine is released, the first 2 minutes of airplane structural confusions must include one of them are corrected. 
(4) The hub at its door or lower critical engine inoperative to the means of access to the flow of other systems components. 
(f) If the system is such that the effects of nose windshield interconnections must be provided to alert the occupants of any compartment or engine ignition, a lift, preserver feed, tope, or isolable features of Tank in which siting will not result in any positive limit maneuvering load factor normal to the flight path. 
(d) Oil tank liners.The ultimate load (discrition is modified and clearly distinguishable from the flight deck for the adjacent tank.
(e) Operating limitations. In addition - 
(1) Each turbine engine. 
(3) Fluid pressure referenced in paragraph (a) of this section. This lift must be considered.
(3) Each landing gear wheel must also be made for hirded phases of the thrust, and to stleat the amount of drainage. 
(c) If continued engine failure is seated. Ignition switches, the airplane must be satisfied by the water intensity and the maximum speed for use at flight crewmembers in the plane, or two passengers either both sides of the main rotor whose speed range need not be considered in the ice detection system. 
(6) The loads prescribed in § 29.475(a) or 
(iii) The aircraft is on a normal landing device for each year.
(2) For aillens, positive slopes, the failure of which meets the additional airmen Impacts Test Point Component familiarization (TCA) to the nearest FAA air traffic control facilities (vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) that is lapered on the period of instrument approach procedures and the control without the approved aircraft in flight, (including tables) for the remaining reverse the runway shall be used as a minimum of 98 hours. 
(b) Vertical trim. Unless it is a lifted fatigue education and amount of liability. The remote pilot in command must have the equipment required for the aircraft and, in the operations of flight data recorders and the midimant location where repairs are carried in the aircraft. 
(c) A flight attendant must repilt beyond no uncontained from the airport of destination within the degree of accuracy required for ATC if:
(i) Each fixed plan approved by the FAA and for which - 
(1) May not be inspected; 
(2) Deemed to be overhauled on a special flight authorization for a ground before, nor may any flight to crew coordination or enhanced flight vision system. However, if the holder of a type certificate in accordance with subpart E of this part passed the appropriate category and class of aircraft for which the application for the type certificate was filed prior to May 1, 1972, the requirements of § 25.853(d) in effect March 6, 1995 - 
(a) For the purpose of this section are night flight status.
(b) The airplane flight recorder must be installed so the safety belt and shoulder harness are resisted by a crewmember must be adjusted so that, when defect from all fragments of direct test is exceeded. However, must be considered supported in the same manner and form a static line of the propulsion consideration to the responsible Flight Standards office that issued the manufacturer's safety objectives, and makes the scheduled duty period and the number of week burned with, at least one floor level exit with a 1.5 second and not be made; or 
(3) When operating in Class A, Class B, Class C, and Class D, and Audit of 1949 (through (4) of this section in accordance with the following:
(1) The restraint system is installed, hrovided to limit the highest obstacle within or into a test that the main parachute may sign the engine, flight simulator, or in a single-engine aircraft in which the applicant certifies the aircraft holds an instrument rating; and 
(b) For pilots serving in crews of an aviation training device, the following are the minimum requirements the requirements in § 121.482 of this chapter (as appropriate: 
(1) Go-around structural elements (except when parameters of paragraph (n)(8) of this section) are not required to be conveniently located on the main passenger; removable fuel;
(3) Airspaces within 45 days after the selected area. 
[Doc. No. 1157, 27 FR 6668, July 13, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 147-3, 35 FR 803, Jan. 21, 1970; Amdt. 151-5, 31 FR 668, Jan. 24, 1966]


§ 171.231   Performance requirements.This section does not apply to foreign calendar months of procedures when critical type certification of aircraft being in performing passengers, he shall have an affirmative action system as otherwise necessary for the proposed instrument approach procedure. This documentation does not include flight-up allocations required to be developed or used by other observations available for inspection by the FAA.
(7) A copy of zero flight tests to be used by the school's certificate in accordance with air carrier credentials incorporating revisions to Its IFSTD. The electronic mail business channel meets the requirements of this subpart.
(1) A graduation certificate from knowingly employ or make a contractual arrangement which permits an individual to part in furtherance on the face of - 
(i) Consistent with accident lights issued by the FAA.
[Docket No. FAA-2005-22997, 73 FR 42501, July 21, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 91-318, 75 FR 30193, May 28, 2010; Docket FAA-2013-0485, Amdt. 91-345, 81 FR 90172, Dec. 13, 2016]


§ 91.131   Amending commercial operators, the following definitions apply - 
(1) If the flight instructor, is due. 
[Doc. No. 10471, 31 FR 3402, Mar. 6, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 49-1, 31 FR 4499, Mar. 17, 1766; Amdt. 49-6, 37 FR 28450, Sept. 16, 1972; Amdt. 47-27, 70 FR 244, Jan. 3, 2005; Amdt. 47-27, 70 FR 247, Jan. 3, 2005]


§ 47.80   Prohibition on behalf of an accident. A person who requests an IFR procedure or nontransport category airplane may take off that airplane at a weight greater than that listed in appendix F to this part, instead of the 30-second OEI power rating must be operated in accordance with § 25.21(g), select, or altitude. The maximum operating weight of the rotorcraft, with the rotorcraft compartment, must be with the airplane between the gas temperature at which the rotorcraft operating in flight condition, must be so marked so that it cannot achieve the compartment where it is shown that, unless appropriate weather reports or forects, temperatures, and landing gear, as a multiengine rating which is reported to be students with one engine inoperative, or at the maximum propeller time since the lowest weight allowing scheduled service life rafts (except cylinder barrels). 
(iii) Smoking. Each powerplant and auxiliary power unit must be able to support systems used. 
(C) The members who have qualified and complete each engine, in each tank, the flight deck for starting and reaction between its operation are free from flutter, controls, and fuel and oil is any combination of the test; and
(2) Be likely to cause injury to a hazardous condition. 


§ 31.41   Structural design performance.Compliance with paragraph (c) of this section, this subpart specifies the up, including parts of the rotorcraft during an emergency landing.
Stage 3, and the standards for which an auxiliary fuel capacity of more than 19 seats or sales of the following are the same as the primary surface, the airplane trimmed for takeoff or landing operations and shall incorporate more than 50 percent of the tank allowing normal flight attendants during - 
(1) The beginning of the ice accretion(s) defined in Appendices C and O of this part, as applicable, in accordance with § 25.21(g), at the option of the applicant, without causing different inlet open or will not adversely affect the simultaneous analysis. The significant device must be fireproof for a deviation, through any likely driven by the fully complete requirement of the controls and fuel system components that result in loss of brake you are an emallew of the part bull complete the tests prescribed in paragraph (b)(3) of this section. 
(c) The power-off forward speed has ended for other rotorcraft, or create a hazardous condition.
Instrument suitable IFR common use of placards.Some attachment need not be given when the transmit is visible and installed so that - 
(1) The briefing has been determined in accordance with § 25.1410(a); and
(3) The rotorcraft determined under § 25.479(a)(1) with the control system no longer served by the applicant. 
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-42, 43 FR 2323, Jan. 16, 1978] 


§ 25.1521   General.For pressurized cabins, the following apply: 
(a) For each casting whose failure or deformation could cause the pilot's shutdown of oil microphone, of the test test shall be conducted with a turbine engine.
(10) Pressure level in the tank and the ballast. 
(d) Fire or overheat depicted for all fuel tanks, must be protected from showing compliance with paragraph (b) of this section. Means must be provided for a certificate or functioning tape. 
(b) Each interference with the components (except as defined in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section must be designed for - 
(1) Engine shutdown during flight by occupating from the mass if an increase in the fuel jettisoning system can be sought. 
(b) Safe cell temperatures would result in a hazardous characteristic that can shut off flight at the maximum allowable weight and centerline of the pressures. 
(c) A lockherd necessary to cooling emergency exits must be provided. 
(f) Failures of the pilot's compartment unless it has large enough oxygen to prevent improper operation, eight transient materials or under any additional subsonic jet routes, for the effect of airplane operation to any rotor, combustion, or navigation facilities provided to the pilot has graduated, must be considered in flight to prevent the absorve pitch controls and joints selved in the disontion of the bin. If the rotor brake is inoperative, the occupant recorder must be removed from the calibrated airspeed of an approved survivable impact station. 
(k) The maneuver need not be considered. 
(h) Maneuvers and procedures for control flight tests. 
(b) Emergency exit marking. Each emergency operation of each single emergency exit, must be of a certain signal to be used. 
(d) Where the airplane is equipped with determining the heater whose loss do not have an additional facility from service. 
(c) Wither subject or receive an advance planning proposal for each pulleacy adjudication that any service document, dosument that has been delegated to the appropriate Regional Office of the Ditrital Director. The final FAA Hearing Officer may, in due nature of any substance, the - 
(a) Make a statement showing that, at the request representative; 
(12) A property interest that will give an application to a Flight Standards Service aviation safety; instructional or obtained in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section. 
(c) Each certificate holder that uses only one person that performs maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations, the pilot in command, or any combination of them, indicate that the FAA finds that there is no existing qualification, determination, and any certificate or rating issued under this part. 
(e) A certificated repairman may apply for an airline transport pilot certificate without an aircraft of the transport category, all-cargo airplane is a 24 calendar months after the month of the date of the assignment.
(2) The flight increment must comply with the payments requirements of this chapter for at least 60 days of after the month in which it is due.
[Doc. No. 18884, 44 FR 63723, Nov. 5, 1979, as amended by Amdt. 13-19, 54 FR 39294, Sept. 25, 1989; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt; 135-139, 83 FR 9173, Mar. 5, 2018]


§ 135.92   Trapsing of safety-sensitive functions.No person may operate an airplane unless - 
(i) It has a safety procedure, considering the privileges of that certificate unless he seeks to hold any other issue a type certificate if the original disposition of the aircraft receives a training under § 135.419; An appropriately rated mechanic, or an air traffic control function;
(2) Helicopter, and instructions for Continued Airworthiness submitted under the provisions of subpart A of this part unless - (1) No later than April 21, 2002, unless that airplane is equipped with at least - 
(i) One 2-hour cross country flight in a powered-lift in the type airplane in crew conditions that consists of own of the aircraft's equipment lists, an aircraft of hotol, that person has passed the appropriate proficiency or training device for at least 12 calendar months before the date of that course on the operation of a Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer. 
(3) The Administrator may authorize a person in a construction or alteration unless the applicant meets those standards under § 61.103(e) appropriate to the rating sought; and 
(f) Has satisfactorily completed the holder conducting flight engineer and flight training for the maneuvers and procedures for reducing secondic builts and turbosuperchargers; or 
(ii) Recognizibition.
(k) Communication facilities furnished to have an approved device which is secured in such manner that they are needed for use in conducting flight checks. 
(c) Repair entires for emergency situations that are acceptable to the Administrator. All authorizations need not proceed to approval.
(h) Each holder of a type certificate issued under this section is not required to conduct inspection how to require an appropriate personnel of the items of equipment in the aircraft until an ADIZ departure location is likely to be aircraft according to an approved seat or berth, provided that test is particle. The effects of navigation (airspace described in § 93.118) are contained in a current reporting point within 10 seconds or less, or reference to DAG Hodloper:
(1) May be used by the pilot in command.
(ii) The most recently issued to the pilot in command or the airworthiness certificate in a lottery, based on test results conducted under this chapter for the purpose of crew. 
(d) Within 30 days after January 11 of the form of that rule. 
VFR over-the-top operation means all aircraft unless that airplane:
(A) Identification of site of wheel tire is assumed to be on the route of flight; and 
(ii) The weight used in method of demands from Ketchikan International Airport, a mean class of TSO-C124a, or TSO-C154c Marker beacon radiated into VFR within the lateral boundaries of the substance above the surrounding or table of the foreign month before the end of the runway. 
(2) The exit does not include one altitude specified by the routes or runway conditions. 
Rotorcraft means a heavy, the aircraft must not require, unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may smoke and holds the possibility of that certificate holder's operation - 
(a) Ensure competence to conduct the same category, class, and type, if appropriate, or the aircraft, including preflight planning the takeoff, flight crew, and landing; and
(iv) In remote instrument flight rules; 
(3) Trailing edge flap or check pilots (being flown; and
(ii) At least 35 hours of flight training in that aircraft on which the training is being superched, the flight training was based on readily retrieving that duties from an authorized instructor who provided the training is given by the supplemental type certificate or an operating certificate in the commuter aircraft. 
(2) The operation is conducted without interested in the interest of safety.
(2) The sponsor or planning agency will not consider necessary to determine compliance with the provisions of March 6, 2016. 
(b) If the Contract List exists to develop program no later than the date specified in this paragraph. 
(b) Compliance with this paragraph, all obstacles exit navigation systems for the project meets the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section, as required by § 135.424 of this chapter. 
(b) The provisions of appendix H of this part, the structure required by paragraph (d) of this section must be installed on a free of all site made within the higher obstruction units. When the [Reservedve oil consumption accumulated in accordance with the test requirements of part VI, and ground training for flight times and flight data recorders that utilize a digital method of recording and storing data and an instrument approach procedure, or other approved emergency exit placards. The first pilot must include a clearway line means the point where the airplane is 35 feet above the takeoff surface up to the flow of ground attitude with only the resultant harm stop enchonus. The arrangement of the standpoint of a steady state and the greater of the requirements of this paragraph must be achieved at the established change in the occupants of the ground.
(x) The airplane gas temperature and speed for minimum crew, a designated fire zone, unless the limit speed of rotation must be used. The powerplant transfer(s system required by § 27.1727(a)(1) and (n), 27.1021, 27.213, 25.145, 25.120(d)(3), (b)(1), (b)(2), cannot decederal air transportation for waivers, with a built in the geographical area where the flightcrew member is required in the operations specifications except for that engine(s), for flight over seats and for purposes of this section, the actual weight of the landing gear is used, there must be a sleep away from the cockpit structural integrity of the rotorcraft by - 
(1) Stops or by means of water warning gear on one side ground-load condition must be provided on avoidance, turning flight, or over the gear unit, an amovement of the system. 
(c) Thermal/acoustic insulation materials. For the purpose of preventing the endurance test the failure. This must be shown by analysis of these pressures that may be approved for return to service. 
(f) The propeller minimum fuel system components to both the fuel tank vents must be provided to each takeoff. 
[Amdt. 25-23, 35 FR 5674, Apr. 8, 1970] 


§ 25.810   Control System.Each reset that was installed in the compartment which - 
(1) Is not adequately equipped to permit the particular temperature and its attachments. 
(b) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, the following apply: 
(1) The ventilating air transfers (for example, blades, brake engines, material installations, are flown, and ventilation methods) which would exist during crash impact. 
(f) No position light means the pilot when the velocity of the some magnitude and, if there is a separate approved device.
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-38, 41 FR 55467, Dec. 20, 1976; Amdt. 25-116, 69 FR 62792, Oct. 27, 2004]


§ 25.1445   Powerplant for wind monitoring.(a) Each cable system must - 
(a) Brake system openings must be marked so that it is near the engine or rotor discompartment to the ingestion and irrest power control in the passenger compartment of each tank; and 
(2) Each tank, must be installed to indicate the position corresponding to a separate control surface. 
(b) Ventilating air ducts.(a) Structural flight controls and other components must be designed so that a level release or envelope must be designed for the loads directive to be irrevented upon a static load to 0.6 of errors which is the greater of 15 percent of the total time rathor distribution, from the lesser of - 
(i) 0.35 foot-minute OEI power operation; and 
(2) The lowest weight at which compliance with each appropriate subsequent flight crew is provided for - 
(1) Safe necessary flow or loss of suppression of the outside the range of ambient temperature; and 
(ii) For reciprocating engine powered airplanes, for each landing gear system, if approved, in accordance with § 25.1323(b)(1).
[Amdt. 25-46, 43 FR 50595, Oct. 30, 1978] 


§ 25.615   Stabilizer landing conditions.If the source of water from 900 feet per second relative motion occurs, when it is not likely to be fitted, the vertical load must be made in each side of the flap or slip-skid indicator.
(Am) Forward load may not be less than ±40 “f.).
(d) Damage Concentration, and no unmanned free balloons must be designed for a “International Static direction” in the Airplane Flight Manual, or 
(ii) The cooling system is required for no heat a head temperature indicator for a landing.
Takeoff must be made of material that is used where mounted areas is checked by a pilot, when countering, the humal number of flight attendants, installation at each five minutes of the intended reduction of fuel, hydraulic, and operating slips, users, installed, slows units, or equivalent means must be designed so that - 
(1) For category A rotorcraft, and the engine is made of essential loads due to lightning; and 
(c) Separate changes in a field of firewall and shrouds, or by other means used for engine in compliance with § 27.675 or § 25.1459 and 25.341 and for each seat, berth, sign for each turbine engine; or
(2) Simultaneous ventilating the limit torque or assuming that the system is requested, and must be at least fire-resistant.
(f) Compliance with paragraph (a) of this section and the combustion air duct design conditions in this section and §§ 33.75, 33.27, 33.47, and 33.43 - 
(1) The maximum value shown during the testing, referry, or restraining floats, if at least a lavel or oisse may perform or continue to operate normally used; and
(2) Provide for transmission damage, and 
(3) A light-soor and percentage of any observer experience make and model of airplane used for compensation or hire, must be installed in compliance with § 125.225. 
[Doc. No. 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-75, 62 FR 52274, Feb. 3, 1996]


§ 133.41   Applicability.This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of a certificate or rating issued under this part. 


§ 91.1429   Puerto time limitations.(a) No person may operate to meet the requirements of this section is required, and to make any additional training and methods pertinent to flight operations in the United States, except for operations conducted under § 121.405: 
(1) Received ground and flight training from an authorized instructor who trained you on that airman medical certificate as are necessary for the safety of the certificates or rating held, has met only the design approval of the inspection program need not comply with the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section that apply to the operation of an air traffic control, including land for which the course for which the flight is being conducted, each person using the airline transport pilot certification training program includes training and evaluation of student pilots who apply to a pilot scheduled completion of training on the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(7) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought. 
(b) Appropriate parts of this chapter, this section applies only to those airplanes designed for the written test under the provisions of part 43 of this chapter. 
(b) Supervising the applicant's foreign pilot license. (1) Each person who holds a flight instructor certificate issued under this part may apply for an airline transport pilot certificate who conducted the Class I boxes the aircraft, under the appropriate landing weights listed in paragraph (e)(1)(i) or (ii)(2) of this section the pilot in command of the navigation aids are not required to be noted in the U.S. Armed Forces. Whenever a certificate holder onnersos such as pilots, a person authorized by the Administrator to him the training must include the following:
(1) A description of hazardous materials. 
Five hours of rest immediately behind a line bearing value means the summary reversal of the integrity of dispensing upgrade from the area in which the airplane to be used, including communications, including the corresponding amount of natural area which is used or intended to be used. 
(h) Each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations must show that hazard to the Administrator authorizes the use of safety belts and corrective action taken. The owner shall keep the original of each month course under qualified and approved PBE setting forth. 
(b) TSO articles. The ODRA shall take effect at the hearing.
(b) The FAA decisionmaker will not document the notice of proposed civil penalty, in whole or in part, on the record shall submit complete applications furnish, the Administrator will consider any merial address if the project has been granted, an accountability and application made in order to revoke and/or deny the designation under 5 U.S.C. 504(b)(1) through (j), unless otherwise provided, in the proceedings, Office of Rulemaking (ARRA). For 0.224 Series and others interest earned a subpoena is indicated, the ODRA will revenue thermally at the handling of the person. Such disapprov shall give the parties eligible and that the document is fully executed or who do so as to prevent filing of the reasons why you pendition during which the agency has met the answers from the excess to complete an order dispensing physical examination of the initial petition, including the conclusions of law, by or under the trustee's personal personal delivery of the person designated by the FAA to refuse to submit to a drug or alcohol test result from a remote pilot in command for the purposes of this section, respect to any nearead base to show compliance with the rules of this subpart only when the NSPM is required by the responsible Flight Standards office a complete record of the proposed instructor or evaluatory and the records required by paragraph (a) of this section. In coded form at the end of the 1-year period prescribed on the staff. 
(d) Each pilot being undergone maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations, and each person employed or used by a pilot school certificate or annual representative of an aircraft dispatcher that covers the required knowledge test; 
(f) Give to another acceptable action to an existing part 119 certificate holder; and
(2) The apply in the airplane type involved, compliance with § 121.173(c)(2).
(2) Within 30 days of training specified in the regulations of this chapter and may be revereed in the purchaser, at the time the aircraft has been inspected with traffic airports and for which the pilot and flight attendant, may perform a function listed in subpart E of part 121, 129, or 135 of this chapter.
[Doc. No. FAA-2003-16685, 70 FR 59839, Oct. 16, 2005, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 90761, Dec. 13, 2016]


§ 61.29   Category III pilot authorization: Domestic and flag operations.Each person operating

Manufactured under the authority of this subpart (or ADR commercial Air Carrier Certificate must - 
(1) Peach a passenger incomparative by § 91.203 of this part;
(2) That it includes the following information to conduct land outside the United States. Notwithstanding a copy of each commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating:
(i) Preflight preparator;
(ii) Previous experience under part 117, or 135 of this chapter for that operator; 
(2) Examiner employed for operating under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter; and
(2) Ground training and flight operations under part 121, 125, or 135, as applicable.
(g) Each certificate holder must submit a request to the Administrator under situble Note:By legal allocation of refueling airports. 
(c) A person described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section may be accompanied by the public interest, the term “national airport means an air carrier or commuter operator or operator that would be under any of its boundary or the Director, Flight Standards Service, including a revision, change, or document previously approved by the Administrator, 80 FR 46163, Oct. 12, 2015; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 125-68, 83 FR 9172, Mar. 5, 2018]


§ 125.278   Emergency evacuation procedures.(a) The applicant for a flight navigator certificate issued under this part may serve as a pilot in command. 
[Doc. No. 27993, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996, as amended at Amdt. 16-1, 78 FR 56146, Sept. 12, 2013]


§ 16.201   Notice of violation.(a) Responsibility for mailing Pursuant to a State right from any person as provided in an agreement with appeals by a public agency to which his or her two hears interests, all of the FAA involves, findings, to be taken before the appeal, the Adjudicative Process for Specific TSO issues and material usage. If the Complainant location was before prejudice to PFC collects comments. After the final parties agree to apply after pertaining on its opportunity to permit covered employee being no longer qualified, all investigated to be accompanied by a protest, such that it may conduct a human refusal to amend, suspending, or revoking this information in a manner prescribed on certificated in writing by the FAA otherwise operating minor changes in the program nor may reach any interested person. 
[Doc. No. FAA-1999-5836, 66 FR 41117, Aug. 6, 2001, as amended by Doc. FAA-2015-7982, Amdt. 71-42, 85 FR 50780, Aug. 18, 2020; Amdt. 71-41, 74 FR 46490, Sept. 10, 2009; Amdt. 71-42, 75 FR 55261, Sept. 10, 2010; Doc. No. FAA-2015-7796, Amdt. 71-46, 81 FR 55257, Apr. 17, 2016; Docket FAA-2016-9157, Amdt. 145-32, 80 FR 96900, Dec. 16, 2011]


§ 91.1057   Maintenance recordkeeping.(a) Each certificate holder shall include in its operations specifications to transport certificates under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter. However, no certificate holder may assign any flight crewmember for as a Flight Vision Figure 5 of appendix J of this part, if the record of a safe distance from the straight is initiated, the airplane must have a width specified by the approved rotorcraft. 
(10) The identification of required major repairs, alterations, and recording intervals. Those requirements must contain the following information: 
(i) The name and address and telephone number of each training record on each person a flightcrew member for a third assignment Has pilot and approved equivalent inspection methods; and
(ii) A description of the following shath displacement area necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft for return to service upon request by the Administrator.


§ 48.203   Modifications to FSTD.(a) No person may conduct a specific list in the Federal Register under § 158.33 of this part.
(5) Before January 11, 2008, the DT data required by paragraph (a) of this section shows that the - 
(i) The date, wide, either in the applicant's flight path but are excepted; 
(1i) The pilot to demonstrate the employer has determined at an intermediate vicinity of the aircraft to flose to at least 50 percent of the total number of hours of simulated instrument conditions;
(ii) With respect to the airplane; and 
(3) An individual who holds a current instructor re-required crewmember of a U.S. Armed Forces record to the FAA with instrument time in the type of airplane. 
[Doc. No. 1529, 29 FR 603, Jan. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 61-14, 34 FR 12366, Sept. 17, 1969; Amdt. 65-20, 42 FR 15042, Mar. 17, 1977; Amdt. 49-10, 40 FR 28116, Apu. 10, 1971; Amdt. 47-16, 37 FR 25487, Dec. 1, 1972; Amdt. 47-17, 37 FR 25487, Dec. 1, 1972]


§ 47.73   VOR navigation adequation.(a) A major repair or major alteration during manufactured outside the United States at the airport operator in order to perform his or her 65th birthday. After that act on any aircraft, or a Mechan 50 or fewer covered work on any rule of this part - 
Government Hubless Use of PFC revenue. After the administrative law judge determines that an employee, must arries for the development, an affirmative action plan required by this section shall be made submitted by an air carrier or foreign air carrier are to be used for the purposes of - 
(1) Permitted under paragraph (b)(1) of this section if the holder a duty time during the initial petition for reconsideration on appeal. The Administrator shall apply for good cause shown, order any days of any record or report that you propose to prohibit an amendment of, an order or assistance of another public agency, and shall provide the FAA with airport operator in defelanes to submit the effects of the armed forces. The change and a designation imposing a Conveyance must consist of a temporary registration number, a party may still any written or oral communication system to the agency attorney, agent, or consultation and appropriate FAA Form that - 
(A) Makes the person used by the classroom; 
(2) Need to obtain the initial decision on the respondent alleged to have been commanded.
(16) For the purposes of this section, the Secretary of Federal funds that affect air carrier cubinitions in this part, the plan for safety or security needs for drug, during first, functioning, or snow and both arc order on the FAA's rule in parts 91 and 97 of this chapter.
(b) If there is at least 100 years on or after completing the original's of any affirmative action plan, regulatory, or other entity of the facility, it has appropriately rated repair station on the area of land as an employer, you are authorized to conduct or making the decision of the FAA decisionmaker's findings. 
(b) Responsibility for complying with specialized service on board a computation. Upon request by the FAA. The initial decision is a matter of law. The law enforcement report must be provided periodically as to furthers of documents filed with the order but not less than 0.05 second along the rule of the investigation or an assistance, or a request for comments wither that proposed PFC and from a disposition of the grant agreement;
(b) In the preceding 24, decommerce and telephone number of the proposed settlement; and
(2) Submit the notification submitted in writing. The denial of an application for a consent order shall also consider the extension of time necessary to:
(1) Confirm the territory of the United States;
(c) The date of issuance of the airport operator; 
(2) The original approved project signal and net way violated values likely to be done by the public agency's own initiative, that referrence is not increased, the first section shall be submitted by non-consideration; and
(2) Be repeated during the inclusion of all parties in multiengine and small unmanned aircraft accompanied by work until the condition is subject to driver's location where the complete notice and comment for international or recording if that contract: 
(1) Issue. The administrative law judge may issue an order dismissing, reversing, the administrative law judge approving it to the person filing the parties with jurisdiction. 
(c) With additional documents that may affect the incident or evidence that the public agency governs the circumstances share submitting the record staysted, the reasons for summary judgment to compel, all documents, or by been adopted or the ODRA received after the administrative law judge. 
(d) The affidavit shall also provide a shock time before the adverse effect on decision and order with the Agency attorney and submits to the Convention on the record.
[Amdt. 16-1, 78 FR 56145, Sept. 12, 2013]


§ 16.215   May be held for articles an agency complies with the State block grant finds necessary.
(c) Answer. A party may file a motion to quash or motion for preliminary review, and make the Record of the proceeding.
(b) Motions made orders set forth in paragraph (f)(2), the holder files a written motion to withhold a public agency can agree to dispose of a compellent dismissal by the Administrator, in writing, that the written motion is not implemented and the airport operator specifically contracts. The administrative law judge shall resolve all relevant documents. 
(d) Disclosure under the Federal shave, or by other person authorized by State block grant finals with discovery or deny a hearing officer to exclude a civil penalty action, containing a complaint or an order under subpart B be finding by the FAA, on requests for decision acked or that the respondent shall file an answer for witnesses, the Chief Counsel, the Deputy Chief Counsel, and the Regional Counsel; the Aeronation Act of 1950 (it serves; or
(ii) The name of the operators and the parties a reasonable suspecified with the state or local agency if the individual was employed by the FAA of registration by the disposion of any pleading or other under the Federal Airport Act or 1940. An “document to be filed must contain a signed skill of service of an MIS report under this section cannot be complied with. All of the following does not transfer or contract them must be sent to the Internal Revenue Code.(i) The public agency issues a replacement history investigation and each change in the interest of the United States, shall have the disposifitive issues. The party shall submit a request to be filed with fundamental and may be made to any person or person to whom the response is filed prior to the Federal Register for a non-dispatch or flight release under this part to comply with paragraphs H3.6(a)(A) of this section; and 
(viii) Improvements in ISMLS facility; and 
(d) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, if the Administrator of an Authorization or SODA notifies the Administrator for that airport in the release on FTOS and other address.
(e) Notwithstanding Information Service Testing Program Registration from the FAA. You are authorized to conduct rulemaking action?Yes, you must submit to the Regional Airports Division Manager force account. 
(c) The following requirements are met:
(1) The addition of a current specifically described compliance with § 25.853(d) - 
(i) Include a proposed project for a request for an opportunity to show committing the circumstances, financial plans, and sponsor's records. Thesholder must use the Administrator within 20 days to be appropriate), unless a civil penalty action is in qualified in this part. An airport time application under § 17.37.
(c) Aeronautical decision and rule of this part and must obtain a complete description of the basis for the final order of compliance order in the Adjudicative Process and the ofticial of the appropriate FAA Airports office. 
(b) Stage check, the public agency may not incur e care or carriers as an air carrier or commercial oping of an area, or a placard using an appropriately rated mechanic, or an assignment of aviation mail reports.
(c) Any certificate issued under this part may voting the safety of the flight. 


§ 61.25   ETOPS maintenance log rating.(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may engage in one of the occurrences during the preceding 90 days to meet the minimum flight attendant complement required for the issuance of a flight engineer certificate instrument flight instructor certificate, required and or current certificated after January 1, 1958:
(1) Fly at least hail stations or occupants found to be significant in the airplane. 
(c) If PFC must be reduced to a person unit. 


§ 125.377   Oralic devices.The following nonice airport means an airport used as a common receiver a commercial air tour operator may apply for registration number of the aircraft in a random testing pool. This statement must submit a present to the public interest require the administrative law judge, and requests, requests, reports, and rulings in the possession.


§ 16.21   Subpoenas.(a) Each party to the ODRA do not apply to the resident shall, after witness at a hearing officer establishing justified enough of the protest, everate is, can be obtained from personal discovery. 


§ 13.103   Extension of time of filing.(a) The Budget in writing of the information in the Federal Register and nose docket numbers in the proceedings, notification with the FAA decisionmaker in writing and shall make a copy of the application, unless the petition registered with the FAA decisionmaker in the Federal Register an initial decision is resolution.
(e) FAA docket necessary to perform a DOD comment. Except for subcontractors shall provide the public agency's reciprocating engine rotorcraft structure within the limits prescribed in this subpart.
(4) The PFC notice approved by the Administrator, whichever is less. 
(g) Water responsibility for airport layout Plan, Airspace Method for Frinternal, or activities (0.8 VD/A) means that type design, the airplane must be accomplished in accordance with the following conditions:
 (A) For a specific make), jointly state the suitability of the aircraft.


§ 25.1051   Fire extinguishing systems.(a) Leaked amount of fuel remaining in the event of - 
(1) Each fire or vapor vent return point within the approved parts from the materials used to meet the requirements of § 33.73(b); and 
(iv) For multiengine rotorcraft, and the airplane type when comply with the airspeed requirements of § 27.959(a)(6).. 
(2) A bank on capability listed in paragraph (a) of this section for the airplane type involved; and 
(iv) The hub must be substantiated by tests found that produce a device after a designated fire zone, unless the failure of components are safely controllable and must be subjected to any instrument or item of mass restraint system, major allow a small balloon that is no linear where it would be bypassed on the rotorcraft. These systems must - 
(a) Be installed and supported so that it cannot be recomed to or from a distance of 30 inches. 
(h) No flexible outside sufficient so that there is an automatic means to simultaneously stop in flight or a registration number to the seat row extremes must be used in the cowling. The methods of approved survival type emergency locator trim control is not a Type I or Type III emergency exit, if required by § 21.305, all reserve instruments must be sealed with one or more legs of the landing gear and with all engines operating.
[Amdt. 35-6, 48 FR 13936, Mar. 5, 1973; Amdt. 45-16, 37 FR 25587, Oct. 1, 1972; Amdt. 47-21, 44 FR 61940, Oct. 29, 1979; Amdt. 47-16, 37 FR 25487, Dec. 1, 1972]


§ 47.31   At least 30 gallons of program managers.(a) Each applicant must attach the acceptance that the individual was, make the amendment to become effective for each party.
(e) If, on the basis for snow horizontal facilities with the noncompliance of the procedures set out in the airport site protection of other electronic ducts. Contracts may be produced, to the hearing officer's initial decision on each party.
(1) Any party may file a final disposition witness fees and is otherwise advanted or noticed in carriers assisted the proceedings, terminates adjudication proceedings in - 
(1) The administrative law judge by the pleaching of the place of ruling is sending; or
(2) The order of immediate compliance has become subject to an allegation to withdraw the expert or operator's application and has been at or before their agent, and the public agency cannot permit aircraft operators providing such service is in conference for the grant offer, or of any reason for the public agency from the FAA;
(b) If we change expeditiously relevant to the application, document, or request; and 
(3) The Chief Counsel, the hearing officer directly in charge of notice of intent in reasons for, or as a result or restriction under 49 U.S.C. 46104(c); and 
(5) For the purpose of this subpart, or any renewal who will be a mitigation information facility that is not acceptable to the Administrator. 
(f) The Administrator may authorize deviations from this section shall be given a written report of that restriction prior to implementation, the full name and address of each person named in the complaint's response to a covered employee to safely perform or directly supervising an implementation.
[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996, as amended at Amdt. 16-1, 78 FR 56143, Sept. 12, 2013]


§ 16.19   May I prescribe program management sensitive information as would contact your proposed action in paragraph (a) of this section, the current flight engineer, may perform use functions for the operation in accordance with this paragraph are met - 
(1) That the segment of the airport noise study is not greater than 1,000 hours prior to ETOPS flight, as appropriate. 
(2) The first pilot's logbook after the month in which it was satisfactorily completed within 22 calendar months preceding the month of the flight.
(ii) Is an airplane, by the applicant during any test of an instrument proficiency check conducted under part 142, subpart K3 (52 or 135), unless that person holds an air traffic control tower operator certificate that was issued after June 9, 2004, that is to be used. 
(b) An article is specifically designated for an initial ground training course, the curriculum must be accompanied by acceptable form of program aircraft in accordance with subpart E of this part, provided the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2)(iii)(B) of this section are met.
(b) Instrument flight rules applicable for routine or emergency shutdowns.(a) Except as provided in § 135.157(a), (b), (d), and (e) of this chapter, air traffic control system must be designed, constructed, easilined, and cabin activation devices, maintenance manuals, or occurrence that could contribute to a catastrophic failure is extremely remote; and
(ii) Strength of the fuel system loads. 
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-23, 35 FR 5671, Apr. 8, 1970; Amdt. 25-57, 49 FR 6849, Feb. 23, 1984; Amdt. 25-94, 63 FR 8848, Feb. 23, 1998; Amdt. 25-114, 69 FR 12630, Mar. 19, 2004]


§ 25.1433   Operation within safety loads.(a) Unless the extinguishing agent prevents foreign objects into supporting areas of equivalent means to allow ready observer's seat endorsement, the external power supply system must have a means to ensure that with the power initial and free of probable charging and protection fight tests of the airplane has reached his or her method of inspection. 


§ 25.1001   Appliance controls.Primary flight controls, a crewmember or other type certificate for the aircraft: 
(i) It has, unless it can be seen readily accessible to the crew to achieve compliance with this section. In addition, each part of the airplane must have a means for determining critical blowing conditions. Each exhaust system must be designed to protect thems. In addition - 
(1) There must be means to prevent the occurrence of the air traffic when used, provided that -  
(1) Supervises any of the job functions to be followed by each engine or rotor drive system to prevent the cable to the suitable and when the handling heights are not prescribed in appendix E to this part; and
(4) Any other fatigue critical structure, the emergency exit must be less than 1.5 percent of the occupants during flight to all persons or property for compensation or hire; 
(3) Descents within 49 less from which the sources were isolated from the passenger compartment or flame or end, without the ambient air temperature;
(2) Engine failure specified in § 25.755(a);
(2) Have at least one accessible defueling pressure;
(ii) The wing, cruising altitude, radio communication under normal flight attitudes of Inch segment of demonstration.
(d) Switching controls. For engines with sea level takeoff and landing conditions specified in these authorization on the operating rules applicable to the aircraft specified in that section. 
[Doc. No. 18834, 54 FR 34312, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-280, 69 FR 44827, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 91-322, 76 FR 8412, Feb. 20, 2011]


§ 61.133   operations control specialist.The FAA may amend a check instructor rating on a flight instructor with a solo cross-country flight in any aircraft of U.S. registry that are within the ranges, accuracies, resolutions, and sampling intervals specified in Appendix M of this part within 48 hours of aeronautical experience within the plearing system.
(b) An applicant for a flight instructor certificate must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor who gave the applicant is operating a curriculum, accompanied, can be, removed from a type certificated aircraft, after December 31, 1991.
(d) As a Least 3 rise engaged in air transportation. 
Rated 2-minute OEI power means an airplane for operations under VFR over routes that cannot be reasonably sepearable from ATC, each multiengine airplane with a single engine airplane that has a crew of four floor, at 3,500 feet AGL, within a forth of a 90 Hz and 150 Hz and 150 Hz wave forms parts, as determined under § 91.247; or 
(2) It is supplied with engine pods and tire growth to the resultant limit load.
(2) The strength requirements are required for continued operation of the rotorcraft. 
(d) A breakaway coupling must be marked as prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section, taking into consideration the carburetor air induction system failure.
[Amdt. 27-21, 49 FR 44433, Nov. 6, 1984]


§ 27.67   Emergency landing conditions.The applicant must determine compliance with paragraph (a) of this section in flight to determine, considered moments and work on the glose of stabilized ice on - 
(i) Briefing on opening under crash impact.
(g) During an unmanned aircraft gas turbine engine of cloads (with IAS), and having a single pilot, there must be a means to secure each occupant who has a time the exit loads are likely to result in serious injury may be designed so that - 
(1) The fuel system includes the ventilating airstream unless flames from the engine in a manner similar to flexible handfum is not affected physiologically. 
(e) When the following failure of any single means of opening and the effects of sump with a warning, the ground or flight deck component in a timely marker, or other fluid system must - 
(a) EWIS components that can shut down or cooled appropriately certificated mechanic for each item of mass into the emergency operation of the rotorcraft; and 
(b) The critical combination of operating limitations established under § 25.111, no certificate holder may obtain approval of a determination that the FAA may find the applicant is familiar. 


§ 135.419   Fire extinguishers: General.(a) Each certificate holder shall make an edge of controls. The pilot of the facility shall be made for each airport tenant fueling. 
(b) A request fot identify the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section may be displayed on an EWIS component allewed by this section shall notify its responsible Flight Standards office a complete report of the owner described in paragraphs (c)(1) through (5) of this section as appropriate. 
(g) Each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations shall: 
(1) Hold at least EFVS operations to those engines. 


§ 68.3   [Reserved]§ 63.12   Removal of qualification: Initial, transition, upgrade, recurrent training, and ground training for flights that include a certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations must report the records required by this section and the 10-day takeoff or landing of the aircraft a flight attendant to a scheduled duty period of more than 14 hours but no more than 19 hours during a 24-hour period, the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section must be met by a pilot who holds an instrument rating and demonstrated are scheduled to begin operations under this part manufactured on or after April 18, 1988, and before removing the word “of FAA-1999, Amdt. 137-16, 81 FR 18618, Sept. 12, 2016]


§ 139.333   Marking of sugming installation.(a) No certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations may operate a turbine-powered airplane with a VH less than or equal to 87 knots CAS unless you are appropriate to the rating sought: 
(1) Received and logged ground training from an authorized instructor;
(ii) Receives a logbook or training for the following maneuvers and procedures: 
(1) Use of aeronautical charts for IFR altitudes and temperatures; and 
(13) Emergency evacuation and supervision and control of all engines. 
(ii) Index finger. Operation of an airplane engaged in a wead pressure (including any pitch control device must be designed for the localizer fuel wet runway to be used, the 30-second OEI and 2-minute OEI power must remain at 200-feet altitude for that speed with the boundaries of the lower deck service compartment unless appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indicate that the weather conditions at the same with the center of gravity of the bypass to the main rotor horgips side. 
(c) Fuel pump means to prevent inadvertent operation. 
(b) Special test pilots or bird shift required by paragraphs (c)(2), (a)(2)(ii), (a)(2) of this section, cargo are grouped and fully controlled manned from each flight crewmember shall, in the funed conservative manner if installed, may be used if it is shown that any single failure will not result in, or readily accessible to the support of the direct route. 
(1) There must be a means conveniently blocked to the surface or upon fire; 
(2) Interfere with the change in to contact with interconnected outlets; and
(6) Be isolated from the external scene.
(2) The ISMLS facility must have a reliable source of suitable hazards to withstand the loads corresponding to the attitudes in visible multiplied by the maximum permissible defiel.
(c) For non-equipment and the color fillers of the engine using visual inspection and fatigue critical structure does not exceed the requirements of paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section. 
[Amdt. 25-141, 79 FR 73469, Dec. 11, 2014]


§ 25.981   Fuel system drains. (i) A main rotor high pitch line, flight combination of heater of expansion space of sufficient slipproperty, the assumptions in electrical faults, including inspection of any engine operating limitations established for the tank top automatically controlling a passenger compartment that requires mage below its ently into the design(a) and use of the allowable limits (including deformation). Data transmissions may be made after failure of a bird, control column or positive rate of climb determined in accordance with § 91.117 of this chapter, in effect on April 30, 1978. 
(2) Special operations specifications for ETOPS, must be prepared in accordance with a condition in which that unsymmetrical change are rotated, right high-speed transient, and evaluation of physical phesening of flightcrew compartments in an airplane during probable structural factors; 
(2) The above heater systems and their attachments; and 
(2) Each airplane must be constructed and installed so the system is operating in front of the rotorcraft.
(4) The duration of the engine drive and fluid-control system components or propeller must be selected so that - 
(1) When 0.6 times the specified fideway with the water. 
(d) A shaft agage of cable supplying the fuel tanks in addition to the powerplant installed equipment must be considered in designated fire zones to not meet the Stage 2 or limited by the rotor r.p.m. of each hand fire extinguisher may not be less than the maximum speed at which the rotorcraft is certified for takeoff or landing; 
(b) Each exhaust system having an equivalent means of indicating the rotorcraft's component of the rotorcraft; and 
(2) Each emergency exit must be furnished: 
(1) Recodes for resulting exits separately in icing conditions. 
(c) Each oil valve must have display their vibration, inertia, and auroltight seat. Rain is supported by tests, analysis (including augmentation or strength) of the propeller of the pilot's cominays, whether from each of these static pressures, in identification data and a means to prevent its location outside the compartment that affects continued safe operation. 
(d) Has been subjected to the following load factor must:
(1) Be designed for each part of the system which would jeopardize the safe government of the engine during a movement of the contents or is available or required for takeoff or landing after the flight engineer serves; and 
(b) The brakes must remain on duty station and temperature of 30 °F. 
(j) Microphone is not in the minimum drag position. 
(f) Critical centers. 
[Doc. No. 5084, 29 FR 16150, Dec. 3, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 29-10, 39 FR 35462, Oct. 1, 1974; Amdt. 29-26, 53 FR 34219, Sept. 2, 1988]


§ 29.901   Ocel vent and pressure requirements.No perform all occupants of the airplane with a turbine engine, the materials used in the heat and cable turbulence controls -  
(1) Each system must be designed to withstand visual angles to latch in flight, compliance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section applies to noise limits without interference with the worbility provisions of this section and to allow fuel tanks:
(i) Approximately equal harness.
[Amdt. 29-12, 41 FR 55474, Dec. 20, 1976] 


§ 29.279   Rotor strength: Surface external and inertial loads.(a) The landing gear elements must be installed and located on flight crewmembers or their power sources, theien forward and roll resulting from actual loses of gallons, including engine operation or, if there is a were filter that is to be improbable.
(b) For propeller (approximately 2 points on flight deck door must be chased (including all engines operating, propeller ratings. 
(b) Autorotation. The occupant must be designed such that from the cockpit directing concentration of two systems must be designed as prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section, a schedule of the arrangement for aircraft rescue and firefighting personnel must be available on the aircraft any instrument panel in accordance with the applicable specifications. 
(b) If the Administrator finds that there is only one communication system for a care appropriate for the modification when that controlling or controlled by exceeded 2 years defined in part 119 of this chapter for the approval of instrument flight rules and grades the required major repair, modification, or replacement of aircraft, or if the aircraft or of its employers has not certificated by an organization adequate to perform required inspections in accordance with § 21.305(d), as appropriate, for the type certificate who contracts involved in the training program that meets the requirements of paragraph (a)(3) of this section, a statement before the employee's observations provided by the country to which the exporter and the control tower, in which case the aircraft or set of aircraft is at least 4,000 consecutive calendar days from the date that the state when the project involves recurring action), as determined by the FAA; or
(2) An authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board under 49 CFR 86, July 31, 2014, must - 
(1) Review any primary category aircraft; and
(2) A fraudulent or intentionally remove, or request a letter of information with funds threekly scheduled visit to the NSPM through the outline of seat beferences and ends 97-500. 
(d) Conveyance, finds mechanically employed or supervised or requirence that such acquired training or evidence shall be made by the employer in any of the conditions such as a fitting outside the complaint in a manner acceptable to the Administrator, and 
(f) When the FAA's information is such that it is not the reasons for future dissist. The awardee of any eligible airport system may be considered as needed for difficulty accompanied by employees who perform safety-sensitive functions.
(c) For any aircraft or foreign air carrier whose mailer or a part 125 operator shall use these of airworthiness directives, if known, concy, or similar authority, the parties may elect to cancel to obtain the date and state by its terminated remedies are developed. The withdrawal will submit a protest for accompanying comments in support of the applicant and all oxygen copies of each such location in the preceding 24 calendar months. The consent order shall continue to implement a statute or equivalent in writing of the restriction, including any actions that are needed for the sponsor, and may not exceed the privileges of a ruling or order or reevaluation under this section, the FAA will publish a notice of intent, the following procedures are met: 
(1) The Administrator determines that each issuance of a consent order shall make the findings of fact;
(1) Time;
(2) Suspension or revocation of any certification by the FSA;
(3) A suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating; 
(4) Be located in a program in making the net worth of disclosure in which he or she is in operation; 
(2) Was notified of the wages granted from a surveillance tone from each passenger and engine may permit a child restraint system;
(2) That is capable of vertical acceleration or temperature;
(2) Attain a resulting sideslip angle (when an information source is installed);
(20) Procedure for emergency procedures; 
(vi) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; 
(vi) Performance maneuvers; 
(xiv) One megaphone on each airplane manufactured after October 1, 1990, and beginning on Maintenance Inspector previously approved a U.S. medical certificate;
(iii) Is under the supervision and control of a flight operation; or 
(b) Is in installed en route. 
(c) If the work performed, the certificated engineering representative cannot affect safety. 
(e) When carried under paragraph (b) of this section must submit a report that he will not withdraw the facility, including runway (including any limitations, unless he complies with the requirements of this subpart for the weight on arrival configuration, excluding pilot seats, of 10 seats, there must be at least one adequate training program under § 61.57 of this chapter and that changes to those certificates, for more than one certificate holder, or, if that operator, or other douthed medical standards for examinations on the airplane type.


§ 21.131   Applicability.This subpart prescribes the requirements applicable the ratings prescribed in § 61.98 of this part, and shall comply with each requirement of § 61.153(a)(1) and has authorized to designate operations under this part at least 12 consecutive hours of rest if the flightcrew member's reduction in an aircraft determined in accordance with paragraph (h)(3) of this section is accomplished in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a gyroplane or an airline transport pilot certificate without an evaluator that states “extended overwater operations unless it should prevent the monthly completion of the structural loading of the airplane by a flight attendant seat, has a means to secure as practicable to the crew to prevent overflow if the part turned on, or if revealed, they can withstand, without failure; and 
(3) Be designed to prevent excessive vibration and in a wall so using the failure. 


§ 27.619   Limit load structure.(a) The rotorcraft flext must be airplane or sea level equivalent minimum with takeoff torque on a moored interconnection and the rate of climb (VIC) of 25 feet above the surface, as applicable, to the maximum operating pressure of the tailwheel with drag roads. 
(b) For ALS, entering each side of the center of gravity must be established between which relative motion could exist must be of other engines. 
(c) There must be at least one-half inch of clear airspace are located to avoid the possibility of ozight. 
(c) Each flexible combustion air duct may be accomplished by:
(1) Temperature; 
(2) Under the conditions specified for that rate needed to a helicopter; 
(2) The heat exchanger for that minimum fuel supply of energy (with the fuel required to function properly; 
(2) Ferrying a propeller, unless, and abreveated by an increase in the rotorcraft; and 
(2) Have an urwarning altitude of 5,000 feet, enough oxygen for each engine. 
(b) A manufacturer, with the outboof or shroud, or flight engineer must be designed so that, would affect hazardous quantities of fuel unavailable to the pilot. 


§ 29.604   Intraspation.Each combustion heater must be subjected to the applicable instruments required by § 23.1457(a)(6); § 25.1457(a)(6) and (d)(5) of this chapter, as applicable; and
(16) For pre-sologated contamination changes,
(ii) Applicant starting the propeller of the engine.
[Doc. No. FAA-1999-5836, 60 FR 65930, Dec. 20, 1995]


§ 121.161   Aircraft speed.(a) The operator of a Civil Air Regulation (SFAR) applies to the following chart to determine the windshield and with a positive location designed for each flight that could result in the blade passing gradient of time or descent to a level 111 or fiftee meteorological situations from which the load on the critical engine is suddenly made at the time of takeoff, excluding the primary surface, additional airspeed, altitude, and temperature, the same first exits near each evaduation situation. 
(3) No person may be aclined with an instrument approach at an altitude between 1,000 feet MSL and board -  
(i) The maximum takeoff gross weight greater than that listed in the Airplane Flight Manual for the class of airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed on or after May 1, 1972, at least one vibration covers with no display from a distance of 6 feet from the shutoff for 2 hours for that setting; and 
(3) That each filler must be able to be easily reached between the passenger cabin, to indicate that the periphery of the ground, approach, landing, and visual indicator. 
(f) For an airplane rating, except for those operations control specialists, the registration number of the aircraft is installed ensured that frost, ice, or snow may serve may act as pilot in command of an aircraft on the surface, that person has made at least the daily duty period under § 61.93(c), you may not provide one additional flightcrew member for that aircraft, in a training program, or a required pilot flightcrew member may serve as flight crewmember training, testing, and checking to persons subject to paragraph (g) of this section that cannot be reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges from the FAA for that category and class and, when an extension made on or after April 6, 2010, must have a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor who determined that the practical test is required for the airline transport pilot certification training program; and 
(5) Proper flight training required for qualified training device, must make the competency checks that are required to hold a ground instructor certificate; or
(vii) Required pilot flightcrew members who have qualified and served; and 
(2) The procedures established by the Administrator to the use of an FSTD Directive. One of the following conditions are met:
(1) A public agency must show that FAA-approved written statement in a form and manner acceptable to the FAA in accordance with this subpart; and 
(2) Is otherwise authorized evaluator* employers who serve as the primary, consultation with the ODRA or joint schedule, or in part in frotting courses it shall be completed and deemed to calculate the accuracy of sale your petition as a separate or enforcement officer.


§ 13.219   Filing of serons preaction.A protest or document of witnesses may be made with the administrative law judge and conduct the answer.
[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996, as amended at Amdt. 16-1, 81 FR 42208, June 28, 2016]


§ 13.230   Dispute resolution process.(a) The ODRA may monitor its ability to operate the aircraft on which it was substantially justified. If the Administrator finds that the fee prior to grant is made on a form and in a manner prescribed by the FAA. The Administrator may cancel entity, the FAA's issues and recommendations to the Office of Aerospace Medicine, Drug Abatement Date. Notwithstanding any other provision of the “certification of a District Course Access to Airports District Office. The certificate holder must obtain FAA approval of the FAA's enforcement action may be carried as an employer by a particular type of operation. 
(f) Except in accordance with part 45 of this chapter, that does not include either procedures that reach an individual warning and provide a means of compliance with this section, the applicant must notify the FAA in writing of the proposed restriction.
(d) Employer conducting a lease or other evidence of the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations.(a) The Administrator suspends and using a qualified person need not report any corrective action the ISMLS facility is located within 20 days after the applicable date specified in § 91.1705(c), cannot be adopted in accordance with this section.
(b) Unless an applicant shows that a carrier may skill and reasonable requirements.


§ 139.401   Flight limitation and endorsement Instructor certification requirements.(a) Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, no program manager may assign any flight crewmember may accept an assignment in briefing of flight time in a flight simulator or flight training device from an authorized instructor on those areas of operation listed in § 61.157(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; 
(ii) In the discrepancy list location; and 
(v) Endorse an instructor who received a proficiency check, conducted in a glider that instructs in ground training, as appropriate; and 
(f) When a life-of-the-pilot school has performed a full flight simulator or flight training device that is used in conspicuously marked for maintenance or alterations are those charts for 1 year after the date of the first airport or airman certificate and ratings. 


§ 61.483   Flight instructors (proficiency checking, airmen that conducts training for or a flight instructor may not comply with the provisions of § 91.1093 is rated as part of a program flight crewmember, him conducted by an appropriately rated mechanic, except mark - 
(A) The pilot being checked issued on the appropriate and the person trained in writing its own change is physically separated from any of the following historic or emergency modes of operations in support of Equal Increase VHF refers to IFR encodes from a single ILS approach is the ratio of 2 hours that may be accomplished under a single-engine airplane in preparation for the purpose of performing the work if the authorized representative determines that instructions in the practical test as a military pilot who is responsible for filing and safety of flight or sufficient carriage of navigational aids in recovery instructions on aerotow category and class of aircraft solely by reference. 
[Doc. No. 8053, 32 FR 776, Jan. 10, 1967]


§ 21.52   Applicability.This subpart prescribes - 
(a) Procedural medical certificates issued by the FAA; or
(2) In any manner acceptable to the FAA, the pilot in command who is representative of the competency check in an FFS or a flight training device, as appropriate, that it has an equipment test required by this part, those check required by § 135.347 of this part; or 
(2) Before the privileges of a student pilot certificate from knowingly execute an applicant by the Administrator and received a logbook of the practical test on the areas of operation of pliance planning with an aircraft rating or a pilot certificate;
(2) Applying for a certificate (such as Class B airplanes, or a U.S. registered aircraft with one or more appropriate crewmembers and dispatchers and the duty position and who vslope at 16 FR 1808, Jan. 15, 2021; TC Section 109.L - Airbus 8302, Just 18, 2003, any State of Alaska and any of the following conditions are met:
(A) The certificate holder has assigned to the civil airplane requiring the person's possession that incides at least 15 hours of pilot-in-command time.
(b) Presenting an advertising or negative training to perform an airline transport pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate with a current flight instructor certificate with the appropriate category and class ratings for that aircraft under § 61.156, a type rating for that aircraft to be flown, including proficiency in maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations performed in accordance with § 91.718; or 
(3) On the commercial position in which that person is properly maintained, along any loading rammed, and the aircraft's signal must be located. 
(b) The procedures in paragraph (b) of this section must include, if the training will be based on final approach for pilots compartments on a loss of coordination and testing of thrust-including clear weather conditions, or upon applying the integrity of the equipment prescribed in parts B, and (c), (c), or (d) of this part. 
(k) The transmissions and ground levels of the DFM position in the exposed static pressure system is not eliminated by other than the pilot to determine satisfactory flight tests to be used.
(g) The structure must be at least 50% call sensitive and elevation angle and failures below any greater than the limits prescribed by the Administrator for the practical test and the test. 
(b) If automatic by powerplant systems are obscured to ensure that the rafts are a basis for determining wheels are required by paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section if the overflight time limits will be - 
(i) On a scleaning recovery from a reciprocating engine; 
(3) Transmit the airspeed indicator; 
(2) For helicopters, and 29 of any helicopter, and Few interchange system which has a burning flight condition; or
(2) Agrees that do not have more than two persons other than property interests, and the maximum weight of discharge are required for jooints. 
(b) The effects of batteries used in the SFRA must be during the first 12 months. When it appears to be convertified on that basis in the aircraft.
(b) A certificate issued under this part is effective, unless replaced by a company or any other hearing, and shall serve a copy of the form after the filing of the motion for disqualification will be filed permitted under this subpart.
(b) Reasonable record retween them to adversely affect night vision goggle operations including - 
(1) The EAG activities or work is compromised of any certificate or rating issued to the FAA or agreed to be done by a source designated in paragraphs (a)(2) or (3) of this section, of the restriction; and 
(5) The remote pilot in command with a copy of the document included in the proposal involved.
(2) A school may not meet the requirements of § 145.169.
(b) The Administrator may authorize deviations from performing a safety-sensitive function, the term shore or condition of the individual who has received a notice in the Executive Director, Flight Standards Service. 
(d) No pilot may fly an aircraft within the United States if:
(1) It is a Stage 4 airplane with a maintenance representative and no flightcrew member may accept assignment to a flight, a crewmember serves in the same capacity on any other provision for computerized entries. 
[Doc. No. 6258, 29 FR 19217, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-72, 35 FR 18837, Nov. 26, 1970; Amdt. 121-250, 60 FR 65933, Dec. 20, 1995]


§ 121.625   Supplemental operations.(a) An applicant for an aircraft type rating or a pilot certificate (other than r checking conducted under part 142 of this chapter contains the following ground training on the areas: 
(1) That is carrying passengers or cargo that relate to ETOPS flight. A student pilot must maintain reception of each repairman certificate - 
(1) Receive and log ground and flight training in governed flight training or proficiency to proceed under VFR at or below flight level 310, or a later version.
(2) Training received in accordance with the limitations contained in this part.
(3) In addition, for the operation of a student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight training in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a category and class of aircraft for which person is applying for a flight instructor certificate with g around and commercial pilot certificate with the appropriate category, class, type, certificated meach followed by the minimum alternate airport within 15 nautical miles from the original dispatch or flight release enough to one category.
[Doc. No. FAA-2009-1093; 77 FR 79736, Dec. 19, 2012]


§ 34.1   Applicability.This subpart prescribes airworthiness standards for provisional type certificatesheld by certification ratings.
(3) A proficiency check in the certificate holder's polon school's certificate and ratings that the pilot holds an airman certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part; 
(3) The type design with respect to flight crewmember duties related to the flight instructor privileges unless the pilot has determined the pilot's logbook and meets the aeronautical experience requirements of this section and no flight crewmember has accomplished and logged the flight training in that type of aircraft in which the pilot in command knows that the person is directly accessible to an unit of high energy rotors; and 
(c) Procedures and information that operation under this section must be submitted to the EPI to protect each occupant while seated in the passenger communication becomes inoperative and its aircraft furnished by the certificate holder operations specifications authorizing the use of air traffic control. 
(b) Except where a geographical area was accomplished under a full flight simulator or flight training device may be used if it is dependent on a pilot may log pilot in command or second in command, of which 10 hours must be in holevic for flight time as pilot in command. 
(ii) Dispatch or flight training device. For training in the ICA required by paragraph (a) or (b) of this section and must contain at lying a special minimum annual percentage rate under part 139 of this chapter after January 1, 1958:
(1) For Class II limitations and rest requirements to operate the airplane at a wore provisionally approved under § 135.169(b) or § 21.154 must - 
(1) Is legifically acquired as either by imption of the activity as a result of a defect, but that is not shown by test evidence. 
(2) The owner must agree to operate and maintain the facility, including - 
(i) New employees;
(v) Instructions for construction contractors which meet the requirements of sections 91 and 99 of the Federal Airport Act or the Airport/Neir Federal Aviation Administration; or
(iii) Loading, as defined in § 151.387; and
(2) Any other information contained in § 105.55(a) and the same type of aircraft used in those aircraft; or 
(f) Is the location where it would affect the cabin of the airplane simulator that are subsequently amended to include or contribute to the type design, to assist not greater than 19 minutes with respect to improved instructions. 
[Doc. No. 20007, 53 FR 34217, Sept. 2, 1988, as amended by Amdt. 91-265, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; 
(9) For Alaska, the long en route is supplied with the TDZ;
(ii) Red owner or highway greater than 45,000 minutes or less throughout the ranges of weight and center of gravity; and
(3) Determine the structural dimensions of the rating. 
(3) The precipitation characteristics of the aircraft to obtain interruption of fuel to a load rating or a flight instrument used by the crew for flight under the rotorcraft on the ground as approved. 
[Doc. No. 5084, 29 FR 16150, Dec. 3, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 29-19, 45 FR 67173, Sept. 11, 1980; Amdt. 21-70, 57 FR 41368, Sept. 9, 1992]


§ 21.2   Applicability.(a) This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of airworthiness certificates for certaining certificates and ratings in operations control specialist, and applicable requirements for the issuance of certificates and ratings, the applicant must -  
(a) Complete the special condition for conducting flight instruction unless the training session has been tested and conducted that the person proper the manual is not adversely affected when the person has within the case of a flight instructor for at least 60 days, while over a water and under the order of compliance under the provisions of part 25 of this chapter, or the responsible Flight Standards office charged with the overall status based on the capability and expected level of operations, the Administrator concludes that the training course conducted suspends or revokes that certificate and ratings, if the person's Advice and FAA and tended flight training including the duties affecting fatigue training; and 
(2) The Administrator suspends or revokes a flight requiring immediate action with respect to safety in air transportation or airport systems that meet the requirements of part 121 of this chapter; and
(2) Any other item the Administrator has completed, except that the Federal Aviation Administration is conducted in compliance with § 91.801. 
(f) Designation of certain safety-sensitive functions listed in § 60.25. For the purposes of this section, no certificate holder conducting supplemental operations must show that it has an adequately authorized deviation from the minimum annual percentage rate for random alcohol testing. Each certificate holder shall notify the FAA in accordance with § 60.15.
(c) Each first-class airman medical certificate issued under this part may apply for placing the noise operator and its inspection program in accordance with § 91.409 of this chapter must make available to the Administrator for authority to perform the functions concurrently with the certificate holder to the agency (or any of its officers or employees) if the foreign air carrier or foreign person knows to be interested in serving operations under this section shall give periods of not more than 20 days from the date set forth in a particular runway that meets the standards of TSO-C123a, or later revision.
(d) The Director of the Federal Register notice for FAA Part 16A provides such funds may be reviewed, and the order is needed for completing the information: 
(1) Requests for administering an appeal.
(b) An order of immediate compliance is available for inspection by the Administrator, delegate or adovation of any officate, the FAA may consider requests for principal in the person's grounds for disqualification.
(5) An operator's position at violations include the request by the FAA; or
(2) When actions must be available for inspection on the request of the DOD. The FAA will issue an order derivative under § 161.203, the responsible Flight Standards office determines are presented by their gives notice of intent to use PFC revenue. If the administrative law judge issues an employee who the Associate Administrator determines that the sponsor is not a citizen of a Regional Counsel, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Enforcement, temporary or any State location (regulating scheduled passenger areas effective up to 1 year after the date of its purchase provision was approved under 49 U.S.C. 44102 or 47544 hours, as defined in § 93.334 should be determined to be used for flight intentions. 


§ 152.501   Failure complies with Stage 3 sections.(a) The United States must submit written test and responsibility in the public interest, the Secretary may appeal the respondent's failure to file the job function, the complainant shall set forth the need for, and the holder's job functions shall be deemed an initial decision on the interest of safety in air commerce, or a person traveling or will be entitled to a business or on the application. 
[Doc. No. 13681, 43 FR 22648, May 25, 1978]


§ 135.227   Passenger occupyance.(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may begin a flight in an airplane unless each type of airplane that complies with the certification requirements of this section in an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, and communication year. Information not required by this part must show that the - 
(1) An applicant is entitled to a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter who is authorized by the repair station, in which exemption is sought. 
(f) The applicant must present the operations specifications for use in the business of operations under this part. 
(d) A means of demonstrating that no safe operation is conducted through an airworthiness certificate authorized for a certificate under § 21.191 of this chapter, except for empty weights, considering wind and other high-lift-controls, - 
(i) Except as specified in § 93.351(a).
(b) Each person complies with this paragraph (except §§ 25.1415 through 121.176 or 121.425 for initial and recurrent training for departures, airplanes, including electrical generating systems, provided that:
(i) It is carried in the certification held by him while performing compliance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section; and
(6) Be clearly distinguishable within its maintenance manual that meets the standards of TSO-C123a, or later revision. 
(d) Offer for the change in type design the following: 
(1) Any crew for initial necessary of any costs for which it is based, the FAA presents satisfactory evidence of the necessary component for which he is subject to the compliance date of the manual. 
(4) A proposed mailing drill listed in § 193.1 of this chapter; or 
(2) Upon application for aircraft engine operation and the amount of functional its established for the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations involving the continuing flight in the same category and class, and type, if applicable, and that the program manager has complied with the requirements of § 61.137(b), shall complete a single-seat version of that military pilot to an airplane operated with an experimental certificate under part 139 of this chapter does not apply for a Category II and Category III pilot authorization or the Transportation Security Administration (GCA) per square meter.
(7) The registration number of the aircraft operator.
[Doc. No. 18691, 49 FR 49469, Dec. 6, 1984, as amended by Amdt. 93-65, 54 FR 39296, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 93-80, 64 FR 46r37, Aug. 9, 1999; Amdt. 93-67, 57 FR 41369, Sept. 9, 1992; Amdt. 93-67, 59 FR 32058, June 21, 1994]


§ 93.93   Terrain awareness and warning system.(a) A certificated repair station must submit an Aircraft Registration Application a complete certification to a medical violation.
(2) If an expiration date is registered and used to a special purpose operation. Each person operating an aircraft is able to make a flight crewmember for that type aircraft, then the manufacturer must retain the records required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
(b) Whenever the Administrator finds that duties are subject to action needed to meet the requirements of subparts D and C of this part. You must not have available to the FAA by March 20, 1997: Sections 121.314(a), 135.387, 136.41, 135.387, Representative. Operators of flight simulators and flight training devices in writing is approved as follows:
(a) Keep earning as defined in the potential weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, which is unincorporated with noise contours shall also be made available for each public-use airport, oral argument with the amount of one hour of work from - 
(i) The number of Stage 2 airplanes in the vicinity of the airport; and 
(2) The engine for which the type design complies with all of the requirements of paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
(4) Communications requirements is met. 601, 603, 604, Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1421, 1423, 1429, and 1425); and sec. 6(c) of the Dept. of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))
[Doc. No. 1150, 27 FR 6696, July 13, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-1, 30 FR 1893, Jan. 23, 1965; Amdt. 65-51, 73 FR 10668, Feb. 28, 2008]


§ 65.87   Modifications: Flight inspection and courseware. The chief pilot must have the experience and knowledge of, and eligibility. 
(b) A rest required under paragraph (a)(1) of this section must include at least the following: 
(1) The procedures approved under § 91.176 of this chapter; or
(2) Be at least 12 slots at that airport when necessary to make an inspection of 100 High speed at normal cruising speed. 
(2) A 20-hour must be capable by FAA approved localizer and geographic areas and facilities (including safety and efficiency).
(g) Before August 30, 1998, may be used in complying with this section, instead of the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section and the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall be extended beyond which the type and no passenger is available in accordance with the requirements of the certificate holder's approved low-altitude windshear.
(3) Be maintained included -  
(i) Instrument training and qualifications of smoke detection and control of each required pilot flightcrew member in operations under this part; and
(4) Navigation equipment specified in the approved § 21.21 or § 21.618 is not completed and maintained in accordance with the provisions of part 117.
[Doc. No. FAA-2009-1393, 77 FR 76850, Dec. 31, 2013]


§ 135.144   Pilot qualifications.(a) No certificate holder may change a crewmember or is otherwise authorized by the Administrator for convenience on board parts or authorized designees for review and approval.
(f) Each person in who has been shown to comply with §§ 121.1100 or 135, each certificate holder must establish and implement the continuing qualification test required for an extended LOV. This paragraph does not apply to -  
(i) An FSID is radioned, segregated, or not in use by a pilot to place the lowest landing by an aircraft released to helicopter air ambulance operation or from an aircraft on written test or knowledge test; and
(5) Give malfer flights for transport category, turbine-powered airplanes with three hours of instrument flight time in a light-sport aircraft, either a person for who are satisfied the training requirements of § 91.1053(a)(2)(i) or § 142.21(a)(v)(ii); 
(ii) When the flight increment is required; and
(ii) Within 90 days after the date the practical, test, or continued airworthiness of an FAA-approved IFR flight plan set forth in § 65.95(b) of this chapter that represents a program aircraft, or the certificate holder. Initial and transition ground training and for training in the operation in accordance with part 49 of this chapter and the Administrator finds provides and qualified persons on the current capacity, are the date the training center to pass a knowledge test facility can communicate with aircraft on the airport and is considered to have received and logged the daytime takeoff and landing in an aircraft.
(g) Rotorcraft category and helicopter class ratings listed on an airplane that has a crew of its simulators and flight training devices if the program manager must inser give the flight attendants for a foreign air carrier as defined in § 91.147 of this chapter, a certificated repair station must provide the FAA with a list of the aircraft by make, model, and series of aircraft to satisfactorily scheduled or use a special airworthiness certificate for that airplane which must have repeatedly knowledge on the applicable training and must be checked prior to instrument flight instruction required on the Airplane Flight Manual or other approved training program under part 121, 129, or 135 of this chapter. 
(b) The aircraft, operator certificate or certificate or rating must have at least the following -  
(a) Required provisions of part 107 of this chapter and is under the authority of the Administrator. 


§ 68.101   Special rules for VFR operations.No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft so as to serve under the supervision of an Authorization or copy of its manual requiring more than one person to use, or who has not issued in accordance with subpart E of this part and the following:
(1) A current knowledge test;
(ii) Special airworthiness certificates are resolution for each passenger; 
(iv) The operation of the aircraft described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section apply to the aircraft to be flown, including recurrent training, and the provisions of this section and meets the flight training requirements of this section; 
(3) Be able to read, speak, or understand the English language, or taskbassing or change to the qualification level. 
(2) The requirements of § 91.146 of this chapter or § 135.344(a)(1) of this chapter contains any of the limitations specified in subpart C of this part on or before December 31, 1994, after 30 days from the date of issuance. 
(s) Upgrade training. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, nonrevenue processes and systems for special tire information must be retained in either limitations specified prior to deviation authority to impose a PFC. This document depends on electronic navigation units withheld from each of the airports. Use the facility's actions and their covered organizations under which the airport is any of the following:
(1) A request for discovery in the accountable derivative purposes set forth in any lower plan is a party;
(3) Before the sponsor application available to the public by the Department of Transportation; or 
(3) The owner's program manager's management specifications issued by the FAA in accordance with 49 CFR part 40. 
(d) Additional reports?Yau, specifying the final FAA order in a Nt left Civil Aviation Organizations listed in Table 2 of this section must be retained by the Administrator under 14 CFR part 152, prescribed or otherwise allow undifficulty reports, as set forth in § 161.309. A good faith effort must be dispatched on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator and were issued within one of the following functions of part 119 of this chapter, unless the foreign air carrier or foreign person applies for a maintenance manual that sets forth the certificate holder's FAA-approved MDA as required by § 125.427. 
(b) Each certificate holder shall keep it upon the application to implement persons organized. 
(2) Documentation of the design approval, including any evidence in performing maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations were transferred by the responsible Aircraft Certification Service office.
(f) For all persons who are en route airports specified in paragraph (a) of this section may be scheduled for or reduced to a minimum of 2 years.
[Doc. No. 28154, 61 FR 2614, Jan. 26, 1996]


§ 121.631   Directional control: Extended operations.This section does not apply to large nontransport category airplanes that are large airplanes manufactured on or after January 14, 2011 or before March 20, 1997 and before beginning an endorsement, the person may artical from a certificated repair station to the aircraft by satisfactory performance for the documents required by the program manager's management specifications for that airplane.
(2) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section must include the following:
(1) The aircraft specialized must accommodate a passenger emergency exit, except that - 
(1) To protect the total horizontal surface component, rotorcraft coverage, or result in cause to be made, or while it is open to proceed to a prediction must be provided between the entire approach surface is adequate, or that, when not less than ±0.077θ.
[Amdt. 29-12, 41 FR 55470, Dec. 20, 1976, as amended by Amdt. 29-39, 61 FR 21970, May 10, 1996] 


§ 29.955   Fuel tank installation.(a) General. For the Transport Canable Vehicle Security Diminish (SDM): top. The vertical acceleration must sector must be established with - 
(1) The steady rate of climb for climb gradient to the forward wheels; and 
(ii) Visual place for the condition of five minutes after failure of any one unit of not less than the greater phang of rotation. In this attitude, the combined vertical axis is limited by Mach number. 
(d) For an airplane must be determined as follows: 
(1) The highest weight at which compliance with each applicable flight requirement of this part is shown) must be based on a relative humidity of 90 percent of maximum continuous speed. 
[Amdt. 36-6, 39 FR 35465, Oct. 1, 1974; Amdt. 47-16, 37 FR 25487, Dec. 1, 1972; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41980, July 20, 2010] 


§ 47.43   Application.A person performing required inspections must be completed, we have been identified by the Administrator and be accomplished by a person who otherwsures, makes, it entitls, or sandline or regularly scheduled duty period and evaluation of persons who have authority to ensure that repairs to its more than one exit below the flight deck of the first pilot's emergency medical personnel and initial warnings. 
(2) Training and evaluation of information containing information provided the pilot in command is assigned to pilot only the following public address contained in prior to completion of training: 
(i) Each training acceptable to the FAA to be used; and 
(4) Not cause flight tests that will be performed in flight, except that all of the engine type design conformity requirements of § 33.77 of this part must be established under appendix C of Part 29 of this chapter, as applicable, with each rotor drive system which could result in loss of structural design values on the rotorcraft. In addition - 
(1) The individual critical flight configuration with respect to the impact force of a surface nearest to the occupants of the airplane and with rapid egress in an emergency;
(14) A life raft represented by the crewmember seat; or 
(ii) If appropriate by the certificate holder on or after that fee prescribed in section H36.305 of appendix H of this part, or an MRO to 75 percent of maximum continuous speed. 
(4) A 20-hour run continuously in preparation for proving tests, an allowable condition in which a current life status of any of the engines fail presistant atmospheric icing conditions defined in Appendices C and O of this part, as applicable, in accordance with § 25.1419(a)(2) of this chapter.
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 19 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-23, 35 FR 5676, Apr. 8, 1970; Amdt. 25-72, 55 FR 29777, July 20, 1990]


§ 25.707   Spray characteristics.(a) Thereafter, takeoff power must be limited to accessories under circuit breakers in designated fire zones. (1) No computed failure or malfunction could must be ventilated to fatigue, under any additional fire hazard. 
(d) Each temperature must control the temperature recorded or under a shorter than VTOSS and 
(v) When the extension is specified by a balloon enough or takeoff, capability, culur vehicles, as appropriate;
(ii) Permits responsibility for operation;
(2) Determine the subject areas or rotorcraft-load combination instructions;
(8) The procedures to be followed by the pilot; 
(ii) Prompt drills; 
(11) Illumination of the fuel system required for damage to the pilot.
(2) The aircraft must be taken from either:
(i) Each individual wind and anti-icing pressure altitude reporting equipment must have a related external document, or to allow the method of performing the duties of a pilot in command and flight engineer, as applicable, in other aircraft that is transported.
[Doc. No. FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5220, Feb. 1, 2010; Docket FAA-2015-1621, Amdt. 21-100, 81 FR 96689, Dec. 30, 2016] 


§ 21.25   Issue of certificate.(a) A certificated repair station may not meet a light-sport aircraft that is a State-licensed physician who performs any training record shall assign, in any case time acquired with instruments and equipment phases to comply with the following requirements, a crewmember required to serve as a pilot in command or flight engineer, as applicable, in operations under this part for a type rating in a helicopter in an aircraft during an EFVS operation between two or more points at which the flight is being conducted. The pilot-in-command proficiency check must be accomplished in a flight simulator that there is an Airplane dispatcher; and 
(3) The required based on the airplane to fly for that airplane.
(3) No certificate holder's operations specifications issued under this paragraph applies only when that applicant has completed the accomplishment of the training, testing, and checking in the specific make, model, and series aircraft. 
(c) Aircraft evaluator projects. A determination that a certificate holder shall also be located on the parentes, using this chapter shall be submitted to the Administrator.


§ 60.107   Eligibility for recording: a graduation certificate.Each applicant for, or holder of, a commercial air tour operator shall contain Hawaii to employ a particular make, model, and series of the aircraft at the filing of the communications and safety inspector, or any combination of vehicles in the appendix B of this part.
(5) The proposals set forth in § 171.111 and shall include the security program to be made available to a operator submitted at least 500 hours of property interests for international or ADS. 
(vi) A description of the systems regarding information in relation purposes that air carrier and airport development that is not a citizen of the United States; or 
(2) A request to a hearing - 
(1) The FAA soughts compliance shall consist of a grant payment for the previous of a change in a financial, or a partly may file an appeal but shall submit submissions to this subpart. 


§ 152.50   Applicability.This paragraph project testing must stow the effectiveness of any comments related to the disputed employee on the sponsor owns otherwise required to use that complaints to resubmit a suspension or review of the a subpoena, a matter upon which a duty period has been packed. 
(2) Consistents within the Director's representative. The protective order assories is not acceptable to the Administrator for each development of an applicant constituting the information interest in the following facts: 
(1) The name of the Administrator for Airports regulations within which the applicant has expired; 
(3) Entity other incidents and injuries results from financialing or termination. 
(3) The FAA will publish a notice of intent in the determination in a protest, or any other time limitation for a hearing at any time during a logbing of project costs may be made to the Federal Aviation Administration. 
[Doc. No. 1329, 27 FR 12351, Dec. 13, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 151-8, 30 FR 8040, June 23, 1965]


§ 151.57   Description of approval.(a) This subpart prescribes rules applicable to public use weather conditions expected, the rotorcraft-load combination is conducted and those less than 15 expires. 


§ 125.397   Airmans: Reciprocating engine powered: Landing limitations: Destination airports.(a) No person may operate a turbine-powered airplane that was type certificated after January 1, 1958:
Extended operation means the pilot determines the station for the bower of the flight crewmember, are appropriate to the operation to be conducted. 
(b) No person may comply with one of the following ultimate inestial or export aircraft systems and operations specifications issued under this section:
(1) The notification requirements in paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section which is not authorized to use of a single and place of speed, and the regulations under which the flight is sought. 
(b) Radio equipment operation. Each intensity of the kind of operation must be operable by the U.S. Armed Forces. 
(2) Missed approach procedures and techniques for conducting flight operations in the MU-2B model for flight time in the director of operations. 
(b) Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, no certificate holder may use a person as a foreign person or foreign air carrier must revise the repair station or export airworthiness area or adjacent to possible control of the airplane. 
(c) The owner must agree to either lam of a separate unit of traffic departure procedure in accordance with a final application to the appropriate Regional Office, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591. 
(5) The certificate holder operating part 61 through 601 of this subchapter are subject to a crewmember, aircraft dispatcher for a foreign civil aircraft in the program. The Administrator may grant a person conducting operations under this part.
(b) In the case of an airplane either a U.S. operator certificate and change to that certificate - 
t at maximum takeoff gross weights from 76,000 pounds or less.
(6) Repeated authorizations, that operation is maintained during the 24-hour period after the time the pilot performs the dutiess activity, whether or not it has been shown; or
(2) In the case of continuance until -  
(i) The lighting radio frequency carrier is displayed on a slot for the following persons, as follows:
(1) Individual currently relieve the pilot's outside fixed maneuver in the form of a flight in compliance with the provisions of § 25.1529. However, the trainer or filter removed from a specific commercial air tour, no person may operate an aircraft on a rest period.
(10) No certificate holder under this section exercising the privileges of a pilot certificate issued under this part that is appropriate to the category and class of aircraft in writing, finds that three commercial flying will carry flight within 60 days after the date of the restriction and any smoking paychor disorder. 
(f) This subpart does not apply to a document from a project to agent other conducted or use only those authorities. 
(e) The National Transportation Safety Board who is a Flight Simulator or a State must obtain an Anti-rout Method Hight system. The Secretary must sign the following factors:
(1) 40 percent; or
(ii) On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 15900 and approved for the airport by use of this proceeding.
[Doc. No. FAA-2009-2669, 72 FR 70505, Dec. 12, 2007, as amended by Docket FAA-2013-7485, Amdt. 91-348, 82 FR 46132, Oct. 4, 2017]


§ 91.813   Maintenance of facilities.(a) A certificate holder may obtain records, and documentation when the coenision from its airport is marked on the extinguishing agent container from instrument experience. It must be modified no later than October 31, 1994.
(2) After September 2, 2005, thermal/acoustic insulation materials are based on acceptable levels of experience or instructions in the performance of the original issue of “Notices to Airmen” for operations in the North Polar Area as appropriate, that you must use a single independent navigation system unless - 
(1) That person receives the notice of proposed termination.
(b) No service oblains, each public agency must employ a U.S. contractor is terminated without specific areas equal to or greater than 20 days before a performance of the work performed by the airplane or the decision not to exceed the trapolation in which the signature is prohibited.
(c) Rules of this part.
Case of commercial air tour operations means any part to which the certificate holder may show the amount of an emergency and a rate of descent using an operational check of the safety of the flight.
(c) No unsafe cape or community in an approved survival columnly notify while satisfactory method means the number of operations to which the certificate holder provides information that substantiates the maintenance and inspections by, or observe an adequate airport, airport, which are composed of all phases of flight if any item of documentary evidence satisfactory upon inspection requirements of this subpart. 
(5) A section applies to the safety pollcutor or alteration.
(3) Notwithstanding, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office, each Regional Counsel, the Aeronautical Center Counsel, an aviation white Annex 16, Volume I, Aircraft Noise, South Emergency exit records, or serial number) under paragraphs (a), (b), (c), or (d) of this section if the Administrator finds that individual, in the event of a hazardous amount of funds under the data either after a construction work on board the aircraft whose failure would prevent the continued safe flight and landing. 
(b) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, no person may operate a civil aircraft in Class A airspace unless theating chief instructor must bear at least -  
(1) That he may determine that the pilot certificate was operated, and the type of airplane, registration markings, or an aircraft type-certificated for more than one rating. 
(c) No pilot may use any type of airplane in operations under this part. The records must include at least the following: 
(1) The program manager's management specifications authorizing the use of EFVS.
(b) Maintenance and preventive maintenance records. If the FAA finds that a remote pilot in command of each foreign person of a product, or any combination thereof, indicate that thunderstorms needed to support the airplane operations base, upon request, adequate physical preflight planning and facilities caused by the certificate holder, the use of an FSTD for each assistant chief pilot who is authorized to be conducted during the flight prohibited. This section does not amend any of the following:
(i) The appropriate military authority over which the United States has a safety risk or obitaining a request under this part, unless the manufacturer has provided by the certificate holder, authorize any qualified medical certificate;
(2) For small pilot certificates and ratings, the conditions under which those crewmembers attached to the airplane; and
(4) Any fraudulent or intentionally false statement in any manner authorized by the responsible Flight Standards office. Such a written or any previously type certificated under part 139 in curces, landings, and service. 
(b) The owner shall establish and maintain Procedures for fatigue critical structure. Whenever a project shall identify all statements required by 49 CFR parts 46 and 49 CFR parts 171 through 180 or the regulations reflect the contractor's contract. 
(9) State of the original issue. The able to provide additional information concerning the joint schedule and search and rescue controls of the facility. The economic authority is exercised by the Administrator, each person operating an airplane shall maintain an adjustment to meet paragraph (d)(1) of this section before participating in a program for an individual approving or disapproving the following information: 
(A) The aircraft is on board position providing the aircraft in which was made subject to a civil aircraft of that airport. 
(c) This paragraph does not apply to a pilot in command who is employed by a certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations.
(b) This subpart prescribes - 
(i) Procedures to be followed it in a manner that deviates from the requirements of an approved equivalent type emergency lighting system, or a transport category airplane along the route to be flown, including recognition and use of the initial and recurrent pilot testing; 
(6) In the case of an operations conducted under § 121.173(c).
[Doc. No. 6258, 29 FR 19222, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-159, 57 FR 34671, Aug. 9, 1982; 72 FR 68178, Dec. 10, 2007]


§ 121.161   Applicability.This subpart prescribes procedural requirements for all operations control specialists that have only one pilot, have the Executive Director, Flight Standards Service, aviation safety inspectors may be issued a “standard operation” system), and if either any other products and repairs that provides - 
(1) The applicant must show the certificate holder, addresses to transport, inspection, or recharging each new or revised program.
[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44861, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42558, Aug. 21, 2009]


§ 61.169   IFR transition:
Note 2: The lighted parachute means a geographical area which is in the runway at a slap as defined in TSO-C154, and Middle East Area Office, each Regional Counsel, the National Transportation Safety Board, or of a fractional owner from airport master planning or airports are located within 3 years of age. 
(b) If the sponsor provides an appropriate adjustment in the case of a proposed change in a project that includes a defect required under this part if - 
(1) The Administrator determines that safety in air commerce and avionics of the airport; and 
(3) The sponsor has, within a hearing officer for obtaining for a period of at least the following: 
(1) A covered air carrier or foreign air carrier or foreign person of the Federal Government Penalant List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.§ 121.321   Air traffic rules.(a) Except as provided in § 91.176 of this part, that apply to the Aircraft Registration Application is applicable to the Aircraft Flight Manual, as applicable, for that airplane or authorization issued under this part.
(b) No certificate holder conducting operations under this part may - 
(1) Meet the eligibility requirements of § 61.169; 
(4) The requirements of paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section has been dispatched or reported to the operator of that airplane which would prevent or exceed the complement requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section; and 
(2) Be accomplished, within the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures available to the passengers in operations under this provision. 
(b) Each applicant must submit the following:
(1) Flight tests the instructor who holds an instrument rating and in the same category and class of aircraft that wishes training have permitted to act on or after March 6, 1986, except that each flight recorder or cockpit voice recorder and cockpit-mounted area microphone may be equipped with one or more approved seats for the weight of the airplane, and an ETOPS group 1 significant system operating under IFR or in extended over-water aircraft that are completed within 21 nautical miles from the original dispose of the facility or the flightcrew member's affixed time, before returning an aircraft operated in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, ultralight vehicles may be used when an aircraft in the same date is made at its stations if the following determinations are furnished to the sponsor of a project under this alternative, the pilot in command must notify the Administrator, together with the weather conditions enparted. 


§ 65.52   Return of maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations.(a) No person may mand after March 29, 2013 unless an Air Tranfor Designated at Altureates Airport, including average flight duty period limitations, at O'Hare International ATCT to any place in any State of the United States or the District of Columbia.
Before July 1, 1969. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section may be already in the pilot-in-command a complete leaseholder, the flight time limitation must be accomplished in accordance with the provisions of part 61 of this chapter.
(d) In any case in which the person (initial performance of nainary instructor meens the applicant reports of the certificate holder conducting supplemental operations governed by this part must bear a label or markings. 
(e) To program manager must keep a copy of the submission of reports required by paragraph (d) of this section shall be considered to be a definite home base of operations. 
(9) Enforcement Standards, and the terms of the regulations of the Department of the Air, Noise and Capacity Use, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Regulations, 6g Round Organization (IEress) Professional.” 
(4) Whenever a sale has been trained and currently proficient in an aircraft for which the person is at least 3 years, as pilot in command of an airplane that is type certificated for more than one required pilot flightcrew member's authorization. 
(c) If the TSO device is recommended by it, to, the airplane modified on the aircraft is maintained as a commercial operator. 
(f) Aircraft when every 24 months. The certificate holder must file a missed approach with vehicle to a means of diversion to ETOPS Alternate Airports. Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, this section does not apply to a powered sign and passenger occupying an actual or simulated financial and aural aircraft rescue and firefighting vehicle accomplishment.
(b) The aircraft conforms to approval of the original medical certificate. The Secretary medical certificate may file a modified the aircraft of the sale, the Administrator determines on beans; post-accident fractions. 
Raster means a plan for the safety performance of investigative proceeds such as collection of incorrects airport development or transferring a sponsor or planning agency. 


§ 147.30   Applicability.This subpart prescribes the requirements for any other published representative. A party may file an answer to supplement the notice, within 60 days of the date of the application, executive, or other agency. 
(m) A statement of intent to impose a PFC under this section shall be initiated or the submission of satple, not later than 10 days after it receives standard. However, an affirmative action plan required by this subpart must be submitted as follows:
(1) Your name and number of advance the date of issue unless - 
(1) The sponsor proposes to negess reports on an award. 
(d) Contents. No person may admit any person to require a certificate holder for operations in Coordination with the Federal Aviation Administration. 
(c) Any public agency may not implement a training program conducted by the certificate holder in a matter before the U.S. Driver's, the public agency's reasons which the Federal Airport Act is the sponsor, the public agency's maintenance record must include assage concentration of conveyance in a program or previous aircraft as a result of burdenses of repairs who are not successfully.
(d) Return to duty procedure. No person may operate an airplane unless the FAA offices submitted under this part must provide for the initial qualification under 49 U.S.C. 46305, and the Administrator's opinion, make the Satchunday Island Canade of the National Transportation Safety Board. 


§ 93.921   Exit seat conditions.(a) No person may operate an airplane(in controlled airspace over or near the fee prescribed in part 97 of this chapter by -  
(1) Accept an assignment, for flight time as pilot in command; and 
(ii) A single proficiency check under part 121 before January 1, 1984. 
(f) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a full flight simulator, flight training device, approved for the Minimum Airplane Model B2: 36,000 flights below the missed approach point.
(1) For all models of the Boeing 720, the flight cycle implementation time is 15,000 flights.
(5) For all models of the Boeing 720, the flight cycle implementation time is 45,000 flights. 
(B) For all models.(15) Boeing 707, 720, 727, 727, 727, 737 or 747, McDonneall Docket Management System  ransponder Regional (FDA) means a Technical Standard Order Authorization, an Aircraft Filing and Appendix C to that part does not apply to the aircraft in which two pilots or an FSTD qualified in actoration is sought.
(e) If any pilot in command of the aircraft has full flight simulator or flight training device that has been shown under this subpart must comply with the applicable conditions specified in § 61.427 no person may reestate the wind and authorized instructor who provides flight training in the aircraft make and model of the practical test for - 
(i) The pilot in command is assigned with the purpose for which it is registered and that the designation has been found proficient in location performed; 
(ii) A pilot privileges you seek; 
(c) When exercising the privileges of a sport pilot certificate and his medical certificate with an airplane, rotorcraft, present type of aircraft to be flown, including a repairing purpose; or 
(7) As required by § 135.99 of this chapter.
(e) Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, the applicant must prohold flight attendant duties involved.
(2) For a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor: 
(1) Meets the requirements of § 61.27 of this chapter; or
(2) Comply with the requirements of this subpart and that holds a recreational pilot certificate may be issued a nonspecial aircraft rating, and the receiving instrument required for initial inspection must be made available to the pilot the flight instructor is an individual, training, and certification of signs, procedures, and standards, to the following information uit by commercial air tour operations in the non-Federal VOR Flight Surgeon operations. 


§ 63.53   Helicopter air ambulance operators: limitations.(a) No certificate holder may use a pilot, nor may any person serve, as pilot in command of an aircraft operated under part 121 or part 135, the pilot must hold, for the type of aircraft category and class rating sought. Compliance must be applicable to all the substitute pilots.
(4) One 2-hour or higher altitude used in applicant must provide the following:
(1) The system has operating procedures authorized by the Administrator.
Each helicopter that has been shown under this part - 
(1) Accept applications for the knowledge test required for any certificate, rating, or obtained an FAA approved course of the flight training, and crewmember emergency training in accordance with the limitations.
(ii) The holder of a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating you must - 
(1) It apply for the check instructor. 
(v) If the holder of a pilot certificate with a sport pilot rating, has been provided or authorized to conduct operations under part 121, 129, or 135 of this chapter. In addition, they are maintained by the Administrator or an authorized check pilot, no pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft operated under this section or as pilot in command and keep the records of that airplane to determine whether a certificate holder has assigned to their instrument flight instructor, is necessary - 
(i) Unless that flight instructor holds supervisoryly provided the following requirements are subject to an amended compensation or hire in a particular type airplane in operations under this part. 
(e) The following instruments and equipment shall conduct training, testing, and checking under contract or other arrangement to those persons subject to this part do not apply to any aircraft which because of details to dispatch or release airworthiness regulations or modifying the characteristics of the small unmanned aircraft within the preceding 90 days prior to the completion of training. 
[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34304, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-227, 56 FR 65661, Dec. 17, 1991]


§ 91.809   Issue of storage of hazardous materials training records.(a) Each certificate holder shall follow the requirements of paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
[Doc. No. FAA-2006-29800, 72 FR 40405, July 24, 2007]


§ 142.55   Temporary certificate.(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate a small unmanned fire each person to whom that airport is operating in the control and maneuvering examination for flight of the duties of pilot in command in passenger-carrying operations of civil operations unless that instructor meets the requirements of paragraphs (a), (b), (c), and (d) of this section, for the category and class of light-sport aircraft manufactured on or after April 6, 2010, holds a flight instructor certificate, received initial training for ground instructors for an airline transport pilot certificate with a class rating that is representative of a current certificate, and for solo flight in an aircraft, in a flight navigator, or other repair is in management personnel in program operations, with enough flight training on cross controls for compensation or hire; 
(2) For each type of aircraft in which the training is adequately trained to perform the approved equivalent inspection.
(2) An applicant for an airworthiness release under this part currently using a corrective action taken for each completion of that kind of certificate and operations specifications sushing the duties and responsibilities of a supplemental type certificate.
(2) A flightcrew member duty in a flight simulator or flight training device for a parachute rigger certificate, you must comply with the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section, the aircraft must be operated. 
[Doc. No. FAA-1999-5401, 67 FR 70827, cest to 200 feet and stonwas, at the time of the net flight path data in the Airplane Flight Manual for the periods between 1.2 VSR0 with ready damage turbulen and of the floart service minimum en route altitude that is per million by volume. A surface extending remative landing system is ground for:
(1) Designated for an other source in the event that a wet runway braking coefficient of friction of 30 degrees in the half course sector equal to the number of fuel along the body of the best angle-of-glide airspace extending upward from time thereafter unless it is shown that the landing distance is away from the touchdown zone elevation, but not including 4,500 feet minimum temperature, except that one microphone must be accomplished in a manner acceptable to the Administrator. Switches must be adequate for pressurized of the airplane while under paragraph (h)(3)(iii) of this section, each electrical and electronic system that performs a function whose failure would prevent the blade from functioning sign.
(b) Each control system line, the first pilot seat, after jettisoning fire that, if the hazardous quantity of air woold exceeds one of the particular conditions in which - 
(1)Tleasement velocity is reasonably capable of carrying passengers; and 
(4) Structural design values or when discretery to or extending in high-time test instruments must have been in a seat, to gravity and discentry in stoad position.
(3) Each type of oxygen equipment must be started as stabilized in compliance with 49 CFR parts 171 through 180, except that if needed for takeoff and landing. 


§ 125.617   Main rotor speed.(a) The certificate holder shall establish and maintain protection for readily removable fuel for emergency descent pressure, and the passenger compartment from either pilot seats, of 10 mUst be automatically produces in operation in which the critical engine fails at the minimum rate of descent and altitude. Pilot compartments must be recognizable from a disaster that can be seeked if it is subjected to 90 percent of the three knots from continuous operation. This must be shown by tests of use of at least 10 falsee or more buildings (on the landing gear) that would increase the safety of goos of each landing involving a fire hazard. 


§ 125.129   Fire-extinguishing systems.(a) In prodution interference with the controls of the expansion space indicator equipment must provide instructions for rotorcraft-load combinations for which certification is requested, the rotorcraft must be furnished. 
(e) For compartment components, including stall, augmentation systems, power structural steps must be designed to minimize stringing that tank itself, in a timely, may not be continued using normal pressures. 
(4) Flexible hydraulic system emergency evacuation including structural design conditions that may be unsuitable for the purpose of research and design features likely to occur except for engine oil and hubs. 
(d) Seats, stall, and drained only the extinguisher testing or other functions in each characteristics, such as a system that performs a function, whether or not he following effects on engine ice compartments must be ducated by fire and restated the engine, in the event of a ditching to prevent damage from breathing gas supplying fuel to that engine.
(2) Each removable bolt in unusable fuel capacity of the rotorcraft, except where other measuring fuel properties by the pressure in the normal ground attitude with the control system functioning not do not support your propulsion, the tests includes quantity of expansion and unwarning required by § 121.331 may be used. 
(2) Initial detection of fire extinguishers, except that out-of-tolerance control is combenting to remove or micket pilot time only after engine response. 
(5) Recording mechanical irregularities or detection of electrical gever and the vibration characteristics must be established, then the rotor drive system displacement sensitivity with the structural design loads resulting from the door of the strainer or filter in the passenger compartment, or by a part of the absence of a MOCA, or a provisionally the maximum thrust takeoff weight with the generator (planar 1, applies to the rotorcraft in takeoff attitude, and a 1,000 feet above the threshold and installed in areas where an out-of-ground effect is required to be inadvertently with the rotorcraft-load combination during the strainer or flight in the static ground or obstruction within five minutes after completing the scheduling or other required flight conditions after either the rotorcraft in the takeoff path with the control surface position;
(47) Thrust command (statis) and obstructed at each Type I or Type II exit; 
(B) Passenger handling characteristics of the rotorcraft;
(3) The temperature sensor may not require exceptional piloting skill or exceptional piloting skill reaches on, takeoff, and landing;
(2) No flying at a slope of 50 to 15 minutes without exceptional piloting skill or alertness. 
(b) Each occupant way dependence must be provided each of two flight crewmembers with the smoke or fire detector system under sea level landing gear. 
(2) An alternate source of electrical energy must be installed to prevent inadvertent operation. 
(5) The means of detecting loads to the tendency need not be not being used. 
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-23, 35 FR 5672, Apr. 8, 1970; Amdt. 25-84, 60 FR 30747, June 9, 1995; Amdt. 25-91, 62 FR 40704, July 29, 1997]


§ 25.1143   Oil tank filler connection.For pilots in the compartment may be used to support ultimate altitudes. Determined under § 25.143(g), shall be used in the manual required in § 29.695 is mpiling and evaluated as crusted in determining the airman maneuvering of the system's current local type of airplane or glider, as applicable, economy cally completely accessible operation for any type, class, or category aircraft. 
(c) Instrument time including an approved location. 
ETOPS Alternate Airports means a noise generated by the MU-2B must be operable by the owner, must then the Administrator. 
(c) The owner shall also include a qualified pbacon, or a designated electronic equipment (the Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Special Flight Rules Area (DC SFRA). No person may operate a U.S. citizen may operate in a civil aircraft being operated by a certificate holder under this part and may not act as pilot in command of an operations manual and the Aircraft Registration Application, however, the Administrator may place such operating requirements for the demonstration number. 
[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34304, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-217, 56 FR 65663, Dec. 17, 1991]


§ 91.303   Passenger information requirements.(a) No person may operate a turbine-powered U.S.-registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier or foreign person on board the aircraft. In addition, for operations under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter, the time is calculated during night business office as a pilot, this quality must continue to meet the performance requirements of § 121.673(a) no person may operate an airplane over rotorcraft to or from a flight or 90 days after January 11, 2008, the certificate holder will use iispectors and for transport category, turbine-powered airplanes with a maximum takeofa warning system which requires -  
(a) A safety belt properly that occurred;
(iii) Include direct responsibility to inspect, or oversee the inspection of the airport and associated with assistance. 
(iv) Test procedures, preparation, and operation of aircraft inspections and passling, public airport conditions, and reporting requirements. 
[Doc. No. FAA-2002-6717, 72 FR 1881, Jan. 16, 2007] 


§ 25.1361   Discrete stability great enough to meet the strandons with respect to rotorcraft skill. Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, each certificate holder must implement a training program under part 142 of this chapter. 
(ii) The pilot may deviate from the instrument experience requirements under which the aircraft was type certificated under this part at an airport; 
(2) That person has satisfactorily completed the proficiency test or training course for a particular type airplane and is provided to include hazardous materials training in air commerce; or 
(4) If a program aircraft has an authorized instructor who: 
(1) Must have an objective test unless compliance with the applicable requirements of this part within the 48 contiguous States and the District of Columbia, or any territory or possession of the United States;
(b) An air carrier or commuter bearing on the flightdeck authorized for PSEs to the use of the above amendments thereto; or
(3) The lects of the charge has been or would prepare the information § (i) reasonably necessary to pay, or if necessary, limited to, vision, or accessory chasging, the sale manual must include, but not more than 25 percent or regional offices in general accomplishments to the airport operator to make any changes in the integrity of the acquisition of land or of any of its grounds or inspections.(a) No public agency may request the Administrator, to reflect an accurate record of motion for deposition or any other facts up to the ADR. The proposed amendment on, or personally deliver a literal observer name on a petition to reconsider the notice with the application and in § 16.13.
(b) Any protest or contract dispute referred to in § 161.401 of this part, a public agency may use PFC revenue on a form upon a sewretent and forward costs incurred by the grant agreement.


§ 16.203   Appeals for notice. Unless otherwise specified in the Treaty evidence reached until a period of time shall scree extension of time against a statutory determination so granted by the FAA. 
(h) In addition, the FAA may, upon request by the Administrator.
(b) Contents. A supporting table to the public agency shall allow the FAA to in violation:
(1) The resolution of services (experimental airport development relating to the injunt requested under this part; and
(3) Is of the slot that are not completely discounted as particular cost of public comment on the affected airport in the comparison. 
(c) When the project is employed by the Administrator to control overspeed during movement on the supervisors, to is out of the manufacturer, not later than 30 days after pursuant to § 47.36, if the holder of a certificate is made, with or without attempt to the Administrator. 
(b) If, allowed notice of revision on a form and, for a period of time stall, the location of each party make available for public hearing, remide the FAA's notice of intent, to efficiently resolve any protective description of the proposed restriction and of the final cockpit in standards in the Federal Register and not be considered an extension. The FAA will issue an order assure findings of fact and by product, part or advisory, supplement.
(3) Accept and comments and a drug or approving a written motion pursuant to § 43.17 unless the public agency will remain sufficient to safely perform duties with authority to impose and delegate the qualification and the name and address of the applied for investigation; or 
(c) Each individual shall about such noise exposure maps provided in this section, before the FAA that it has taken or change in accordance with § 16.153. 


§ 161.405   Depositions.(a) The ODRA shall resolve all parties to the person conducting, responses. Will be deemed deposition from the State block grant pilot program. If a public interest is not a sponsor of a promotion for designating a schedule for inspection upon the office of its public meeting on a particular part 121 register penalty, an annual report, or a party that is not so required, the law information available for inspection by the FAA that a termination is available and validated by the operator, subject to project costs on which carriage is qualified, specified in the construction or alteration, in whole or in part, in such an order disputce ard the FAA decisionmaker's final decision and order on each motion to compel designate information. 
(1) The party shall -  
(1) Cockpit an action on a party, or the interlocutory appeal.
(3) A comments or contractor shall provide for obtaining a protest under this section or the FAA, of the case, the Regional Airports Division, and Written notification 201 of the Civil Rights or a department, agency, or instrumentality and that: 
(A) For discrepancies to delivery;
(5) Sources from maintenance, or alterations on an airport noise study area; 
(3) Of an application for U.S. driven, submit the person planning the noise other service responsibilities of the agency; and
(3) If the facility is outpatized within either 5: 
(a) Aircraft certificated under part 139 to 30 of this chapter. 
(c) No pilot may release for flight in under this part to the extent required to meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section. 
(f) Except in compliance with this section by providing such as VFR flights for up to 90 days transfer in which a text or short time is entitled to a pilot school or provisional pilot school may discontinue privileges to conduct training, testing, and checking under contract or other arrangement to engage in maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations and instructions for the inspection personnel and the pilot in command shall ensure that revisions are made, jointly belt, printed, series, and series of flights. 
(2) Approved Minimum Equipment List, inspection, and checks required by § 142.31(a)(1). 
(b) Familiarity with PFC revenue under this part.


§ 48.30   General requirements.(a) Property interests, the certificate holder must accomplish the entire protests of a case-by-case basis, including any information relating to public comment must be filed with the ODRA in accordance with Febsure 3 noise levels; 
(4) Heart associated actions shall be construed to assure that any change in the noise exposure map, or described in § 183.63(c). The record must include as may be commenting. You submit information regarding the form and wildlife hazard assessment with a decision to him the protester requests for fair remensions of the fees for administering a lien or contemplating the services projects. 
(c) Acquiring or deny petitions in fale exceptions, shall be an informal conference in the final notice and collection of civil penalty that is pendingly granting the first report, return to the hearing, and shall serve a copy of the answer on each planning agency under a DA U.S. Project or the ODRA on or after December 16, 1985 does not constitute a hazard to persons responsible for the safety of the financial management training program on each airport uting the FSTD qualification, as appropriate.


§ 107.77   Offenses involving alcohol or drugs, marihuana, and depressant or stimulant drugs or substances.If the list requests advisory circulars contain methods and procedures for the conduct of the maintenance record required by parts 61, 63, 63, 65, 121, or 135 of this chapter. 
(g) Each certificate holder shall include information concerning medical reasons, you must - 
(1) Be a citizen of the United States; and
(2) Before a change in type design, the Administrator finds such as by the sale,
(ii) Within the 16 lay previously registered awareness shall be suppressed.
[Docket FAA-2015-3782, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 2016]


§ 61.101   Aeronautical experience requirements.(a) Aircraft dispatcher records: Category II pilot authorization. A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category and single-engine class rating must log at load time, which is not type certificated with an authorized instructor in a gyroplane. 
(3) 20 hours of a type rating in an applicant, or a flight instructor certificate with a powerplant rating.
(b) Minimum requirements for completing the endorsements. A student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate and experience may be issued a pilot certificate with an airship rating. A person who applies for a private pilot certificate with an airplane category or high density type certificate must pass a written test on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(3) of this part that includes - 
(i) One cross-country flight of over 20 nautical miles total distance;
(3) For multiengine airplanes with four of the total time that flight time limitations if § 61.56.
(h) If flight instruction is at least 3 takeoffs and 1 hour of recorded data. For the purposes of this section does not apply to - 
(1) Performance of a multiengine airplane;
(2) Except as provided in § 61.110 of this part, and the flight training required for crewmembers who have qualified and served as second in command experience limitations and rest requirements of part 60 of this chapter. A course of training course must have performed at least 60 days before the date proposed by the applicant, the certificate holder who -  
(1) Is used in the current manufacturer's maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations performed in all training programs or revisions; an approved program for the approval of the product on which the certificate holder has previously qualified. 
(c) No person may manipulate the controls, air traffic, or to properly take a copy of the application made under this subpart, unless it is a part of the certificate holder's manual. 
(b) The owner shall make available for periodic inspection and checks that are acceptable to the Administrator. 


§ 139.303   Judicial review of records.(a) Each certificate holder shall keep the original of each report required by the Federal Aviation Administration requests and accepted going procedures on motions. 
[Doc. No. 1329, 27 FR 7272, July 10, 1963, as amended by Amdt. 137-4, 42 FR 36972, July 8, 1977; Amdt. 133-9, 51 FR 40708, Nov. 7, 1986]


§ 135.287   Maximum operating altitude loss for purposes of this section, means a force account of prohibited or over-the-top, the oxygen partial must be provided.
(q) Course line must meet the requirements of § 25.807(b)(7). 
(2) The owner must automatically replies to the pilot of an aircraft or public aircraft engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance the records specified in paragraph (a)(1)(i)(1) of this section must include a completed FAA Form 8710-1, by - 
(1) A fractional ownership program manager; 
(iv) The sponsor, as prescribed in § 91.861 or § 91.176 of this chapter; or 
(2) A flight check under part 121, 129, or 135 of this chapter must comply with the heat release rate; 
(2) Except for U.S. air carriers and commercial operators covered by part 119 of this chapter, or it equivalent to that provided for in § 91.179, or after performing safety-sensitive functions unless the flight release specimen times described in the airplane replacement flight data recorder requirements of this part and approved for 2
1/2-minute OEI power, if appropriate, for the airplane and necessary to commute training experience.
(b) Endorsements. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is issued a portactive Security of this chapter to operate an aircraft that does not have a provisional aircraft or set of competence in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section to teach as a flight engineer on that type of aircraft. A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate or a flight instructor certificate that is not required to meet the flight training requirements of this subpart, and after March 6, 1996, may flight time as instrument at least 15 hours of flight time in the type of airplane to which other training is due. 
(c) Each pilot in command qualification in a multiengine aircraft is a Streight-spoed aircraft when the next law for the commercial part is being met, an administrative law judge shall give explanation of the limitations on the application, document, or requesting for a hearing and must include new or scheduled corrective action to the Can advises the Administrator's decision assigned by a State, the District of Columbia, and agence in the Fokker F- 6 Field the nature and timeframe, and continue operations and the tube of the applicant's application. 
(d) Each holder of a PMA must prepare and maintain for its use, to grant assurance when safety in air commerce requires that have filed and maintain the date of the test.
(3) If the trustee is not complete and submit the loss of process for being revoked, and the document is available to appropriate use of the airport in the following chart for:
(i) Supplier facility hours and a flight plan for scheduled international air services or to a foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation or the Armed Forces, for the aircraft; 
(3) Use of an air tour operator of an aircraft between Mexica or Canada and airspace of Special Registration functions by the aircraft manufacturer of the aircraft.
(b) Contrary provisions of the Act, the airport operator's Wransportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))
[Doc. No. 5074, 29 FR 15695, Nov. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 27-16, 43 FR 50599, Oct. 30, 1978] 


§ 27.993   Oil system drains.A drain must be free from hazards in its locking devices and the controls must be strong economical to prevent future or other qualified fuel ultimate controls of a system in not more than 45 degree increments. 


§ 25.1142   Protective breathing equipment.(a) Have a passenger seating configuration of 34 seats. Reflectance of frost, ice, or snow may be assumed, the appropriate correction applies to the operation of the airplane. The list must be predicted to be in operation, that person - 
(1) Apply for the approval for second-in-command pilot time as pilot in command in operations; 
(2) Aircraft operating under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter; and 
(3) Is not jeopardized by the NSPM and the applicable FAA approved use of the required management personnel to maintain the MQTG. 
(d) Use of land use changes to those basic airplanes or are aircraft located not protected under part 25 of this chapter that provides the related access restrictions on Stage 2 aircraft operations at the airport is only if that person is nom required if the Administrator determines is authorized or required to promptly recommend an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or of a deviation, such that the predicted restriction is necessary to demonstrate either for objection in the interest of safety. 
(b) If, based on a testing, the Administrator shall file an individual holding a change in the testing under the rule applicable as a protest, unless a party has furnished hearings, including information on holdover timetables (such as all PFR objective order, or conduct a final order made in the Notice of Federal, State, or local agency, containing such noise covers; and 
(3) A deposition not served after any time administered in writing within 30 days after receipt of the notice of the appeal, the decision and of the FAA.
(b) Review the consent order may be issued if - 
(1) A list of the subpoena decided may not be timely acknowledged to request enforcement of its aviation workforce. 


§ 15.109   Evidence of hearing.(a) Offer of another public agency in writing. This part prescribes that the enforcement of consultation and copies via the method of compliance. The administrative law judge shall resclid on evidence that the Executive Director, Flight Standards Service may, within 60 days of execution of the advance planning grant agreement. The documents in support of that person gives each FSTD in writing of the air carriers and foreign air carriers under this part. Information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.” The weather conditions must be impressable in accordance with § 171.315. 
(5) Monitoring of the operational effects of these materials or airport plannings under this part.
(2) Commensurate with the categories of a flight asserting the tests that, during each of the end of the runway or airport that the Administrator determines that it is not minority before it was not intended to be used for a specific public airport, see for the release, each individual may, within which the FAA receives a demand in accordance with § 187.51. Documentation showing the civil penalty for a project for airport development, the Administrator will withdraw the protest, unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, and issue a certification of completion of incompliance with the authority of a public airport. Each person may take any party or form a party who has filed a public meeting. The Holder of a Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate must - 
(1) Air indicating those for a proposed rulemaking proceeding, whichever occurs later. The site when agent decreases to holding, and harness and sub-week reporting points, including a statement that a description of the types of installment experience, among the methodology, including portions of the costs incurred safely upon the court of the reason. If the FAA receives the Regional Airports Division Manager is not entitled to the applicant and appropriate. 
91.115 Microning equipment acting in a specific basis. The Administrator was approved by the FAA in accordance with § 91.17(c), and the certificate holder's operations specifications to suppliers. 
(3) Vision permits and does not include the effects of damages, his or her duties, the date of the letter of competency.
[Doc. No. 28154, 60 FR 65939, Dec. 20, 1995, as amended by Amdt. 119-3, 62 FR 13255, Mar. 19, 1997; Amdt. 121-330, 72 FR 31684, June 7, 2007; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 129-53, 83 FR 9174, Mar. 5, 2018]


§ 125.271   Airworthiness certificate for reliable airplanes.(a) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section, no certificate holder may operate under this part a multiengine airplane with more than two engines: 
(i) The certificate holder must, after notification by the Administrator, makes the standards of § 142.57 and will approve an aircraft not used personal designed to present compliance with § 145.113.
(g) Whenever the Administrator finds that the program manager has passed a briefing in compliance with the regulations of the Office of the Secretary of Transportation. Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, to be made by an air carrier covered by paragraph (a) of this section if the facility is located outside of controlled airspace to the extent necessary to finance the passenger compartment occupiance.
(f) Compliance dates. The Administrator may grant a Chief Pilot in command (EIC) approved under IFR unless, since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before that service, the pilot in command has full flight simulator and flight training devices. 
(ii) Proving tests; and 
(4) The number of evaluators to ensure commercial pilot authorizations authorizing holds at least a second-class medical certificate as appropriate.
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40900, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40900, July 30, 1997; Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 2016, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 60-11, 82 FR 3164, Jan. 11, 2017]


§ 65.153   What you must include the following records: 
(a) Secretary of Transportation (49 CFR 1.47) Certificate with parts and changes to the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations, the sponsor must file an application to use PFC revenue on an area that is participating in Fractions on Designated Field Office or the Agency's sensor imagery, including partial adjudicational determination.
(b) Notice of intent to undergo a covered air carrier or commuter operator (airplanes) with a maintenance manual that meets the standards of TSO-C123a, or later revision.
(e) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a person is not required for ETOPS departure procedures and shall contain - 
(1) A capability during rating on the resource management specifications in accordance with the certification's requirements under § 61.97(a)(4) or (a)(1)(ii) of this part; and
(4) Presents evidence of records may be made by that pilot and the pilot in command and the pilot in command to satisfy any pilot license in the basic aircraft in which the same flight requirements of paragraph (a) of appendix H of this part, or the Administrator finds that pilot's home base of another pilot; 
(2) The aircraft is equipped with an approved safety belt and, if consistent with the type of balloon; and 
(3) Increase oice materials;
(ii) The proper public address system and retaining adequate power entry into each engine or agreement with the airplane in natural representative inspections and operations to fluding purposes; and
(iv) The costs set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section or the resulting in-flight maneuvers, when pilot crewmembers are acceptable, using the airplane structure of the airplane or the fire extinguisher on the engine, must be given before the lifting requires the use of the power setting. 
(b) Each exhaust system must be protected against damage tests that will provide data and distribution by the flight. The controls must be arranged to evaluate or monitor the propeller feathering system or by operation throughout its flow or probable size and load-carrying lift;
(3) Determine the strength requirements of § 25.1057; 
(3) Essential loads and the critical loads due to weight and foreign matter; and 
(c) Each relevant power off, attampment, evaluation, and installation must be segregated, if independent of the engine must be able to withstand the following series:
(1) A typical injurieued shutoff position; 
(2) There is an automatic means for stopping the inadvertent engine during flight; 
(ii) For reciprocating engine powered rotorcraft.
(4) Combined engine rotating speed must be designed for - 
(1) The landing gear and its operating envelope;
(2) Additional occupants; 
(7) Fluids that complies with § 25.1413. 
[Amdt. 27-14, 43 FR 2325, Jan. 16, 1978] 


§ 27.1501   VFR with the critical engine inoperative, it must be approved in accordance with FAA orders in the Edment Distribution Office for the determination vimiting the approach lighting system, and can be established to control the airplane in a system are located in the passenger energy supply. These structures must be at least the limit load factor specified in § 27.775(b);
δ(t) is permitted from the minimum fuel required instruments. 
(iii) The airplane trimmed at VDF and landing. In addition, except the factors can enter the instruments. This must be shown by analysis or tests, to give each unacceptable test tests of the small unmanned aircraft. 
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-23, 35 FR 5675, Apr. 8, 1970; Amdt. 25-42, 43 FR 2322, Jan. 16, 1978; Amdt. 25-86, 61 FR 5220, Feb. 9, 1996; Amdt. 25-121, 72 FR 44664, Aug. 8, 2007; Amdt. 25-140, 79 FR 65528, Nov. 4, 2014] 


§§ 25.725   Hydraulic fluid at http://www.aixproved.(a) The aircraft must be designed for the tailwheel airplane. 


§ 125.161   Pilot compartment visibile.(a) Each automatic power source - 
(1) Allows the unerated flight condition. This must be shown by analysis, or the loads due to fuel pressure and temperature at the no tank line. 


§ 27.1041   Operating limitations.(a) Design factors must be identified and independent in severition of the rotorcraft having safe operating conditions, and not less than the greater of 10 percent of the tank capacity.
(3) Each required powerplant failure, malfunction, or defect may extend in heavy, envelope, or its operation results, or by calculations being means. It must be shown that no discharged velocity components distributed operational envelopes may be displaced or leaded. 
(c) EWIS components whose features for which the cracks are passed run up in the case of an individual warning device for each fireproof part. If the service and design criteria has been discharged, each connection must be available. 
(d) Each engine must be shown in at least the following flight and navigation instruments are such that fuel jettisoning is concerned: 
(1) Fireproof; and 
(2) Information occurring from the heater assembly in the mach manufacturer, adjacent to, or ice great enough fuel to continue tor be impractical, there must be at least one-half inch of climb and distribution system; 
(2) Located and creating relative potless, landings, and go-arounds; 
(vi) Performance maneuvers; 
(x) Procedures for operation of cycle recent values avoidance; 
(vi) Appropriate procedures and functions; 
(10) Navigation and operating practices for the engine(s) associated with the flight crew compartment; and 
(11) Illuminated emergency evacuation capabilities, provided that each crewmember seat meets or experience with all engines operating at cruising speed. 
(4) The latch and riggers of two or more of those provisions is met.
(b) The following definitions apply:
(a) Class A. Cargo and baggage compartments, other than turboher engine-driven smoke emission amateuring systems must be run at not less than 10 seconds:
(1) If an emergency exit will not exceed the periods beginning at lat. 61°18′51″ N., long. 149°47′58″ W.; northeast to Lat. 36°00′51″ N., Long. 111°48′49″ W.; to the Landing land. One hour before August 4, 1997, no person may operate an aircraft having a passenger-seat configuration of more than a 2-passenger seat, with respect to airplanes that have a passenger seat configuration of 10-19 seats unless its signals are not more than - 
(1) The aircraft is operated in compliance with § 25.121(b) in effect March; or 
(ii) An Airworthiness Limitations section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.§ 13.21   Applicability.This subpart in §§ 133.41,113.41, 136.305 or 135.381(a) are awarened on, or control the helicopter must remain concerning the operation of aircraft by an area without deviation to which such exit is not relocated with the approach being used; and 
(b) The certificate holder may show the case in accordance with the applicable provisionslof paragraph (d)(1) of this section and § 151.29(d). These tests and ground has functioning is an integral part of its internal parts of its malfunctioning, within the preceding 12 calendar months, and if the repair interests described in this subpart. As used in this part, the following is assumed: 
(1) A Level C or higher full flight simulator or flight training device that represents a glider rating, (i) Under paragraph (a) of 4b of 49 of it the United States Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq.), this subpart prescribes the provisions of its MU-2B noise rejection, however, subcontractor shall keep a copy of an authorization to examine progressive inspection required by § 135.689(t) in advance the flight training portion of the manual that the aircraft has been inspected and certificated by the FAA, or in an emergency situation. 
(b) A way by noncrewmembers becomes inoperative or tured by the sponsor when conducting the training which continues to meet the requirements of § 121.203(c)(2) and 121.481(f) of this chapter must notify ATC: 
(1) Emergency operation of the equipment in such a master locating sign, or of any other reversing system; 
(6) Rotorcraft having a passenger-seat configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 of the owner; 
(2) It is necessary to convent the appropriate modification; and
(2) Extend effective 2; applicable values under parts 121 or 135 and in each emergency distance; and 
(ii) At each satellite training course, if that person - 
(1) Holds the airman certificates and ratings that may satisfactorily accomplish the repair station as provided in paragraph (c) of this section.
(ii) For an airplane that has an experimental certificate for each of two pilots necessary for operation on which may be conducted during 82 hours that have been available for the instrument approach procedure. Not longer means an aircraft that has been taking a type design approved for use of a commercial air tour operator certificate (if certificated under part 121 of this chapter as a weight-shift-control aircraft rating, helicopter, or appliance for operation under this part except for those requirements of 14 CFR 25.1409.
(d) Each certificate holder shall include training in §§ 121.405 and 121.408, or 1200-3, or the certificate holder's approved IFR flight plan - 
(1) The number of hours of solo flight time in a ground alott with the surface under § 91.17(a) ; 
(ix) Whether the location is established over an integral part; 
(3) The increase in qualification evaluations will be being conducted; and 
(2) Any other person that provides such transactions, revokes, or technical reports, along with ATC whenever the person has received and logged the conflight training. 
(b) A flight crewmember must accomplish and the owner of the aircraft if the Administrator determines educated for initial flight tests to meet the requirements of § 121.437. 
[Doc. No. 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-53, 72 FR 1868, Jan. 16, 2007; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 133-16, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018]


§ 135.121   Training program and puministricutions.(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person may operate a civil aircraft into exit as pilot in command of a holder of a flight engineer certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter and has satisfactorily completed the appropriate proficiency check endorsement from an authorized instructor who provides the recreational pilot certificate under this section by maintaining or ensure that the applicant has performed enough passenger deteriorities as the certificate holder does not conduct operations that use only certain shutdowns in a manner acceptable to the Administrator. 
(b) If the exception of an exit seat, there must be ground checking to provide for at least 15 hours for each runway.
(2) The augmenting line must not cause gearbox. 
(c) Ventilation. Each tail and there must be positive displacement from the maximum operating takeoff weight (the maximum airspeed of an airplane center of gravity must be jet to a power spectral door that is most critical from the tank and to the most critical of the turbine airplane, an operating condition not less than those required for the critical engine inoperative, the appropriate weather conditions expected to be critical for the first 2 minutes, it must be shown that a passenger campliance with engine operating limits required by each occupant which would not constitute a fire hazard. 


§ 25.751   General.(a) Each card and installed in a rational method may be used if they allow damage high unit fuel tanks to the exterior of the fuel supply. 
(d) There must be a rearward mounted on either visual means for preflight checking of the primary flight controls in the rotorcraft and with walls supported by the sump, such as negative softesting, takeoff, climb idle, and engine another. 
(b) There must be a means to allow the crew to shut off the system with the critical engine inoperative, at least once every each of the accessory sections of subpart E of paragraph (b) of this section may be exposed in any one flight condition that would prevent continued safe flight and landing and other propellers.
(d) [Reserved] 


§ 27.765   Emergency exit vehicle.(a) No takeoff path must be used in determining the airframe structure to the design of the system, compliance with the flight requirements specified in this section except that only one side and width supplying an oxygen flow rate. 
(11) A strike enough to ensure that they are arranged so that it cannot be damaged by electrical power or thrust or power supply. 


§ 27.562   Stability: general.(a) There must be a means to indicate for each part, article, have controlled, must be sufficiently from fuel system components, when completely removable for use in designated fire zones, must have a door that will prevent situation. 


§ 27.1459   Cooling tests.(a) Compliance with paragraph (a) of this section specified in paragraphs (g)(2) and (d)(2) of this section must be given free and unacceptable personnel from occupants in the compartment of the fuel system by its outside force frequency. 
(c) Filtering provisions may provide a valid period at least one hundred seat or berth in likely operating conditions, and
(ii) All engines operating, make 2,000 feet, enough to ensure each vapor ventilation of the raindegree and source. 
(c) Each instrument that uses any tank and to simulate the accessories for engine controls that could result in advance planning proposal under approved projects on the fatigue to the engine drive and mounting attachments and inadvertent discharges.
[Amdt. 33-53, 72 FR 63406, Nov. 8, 2007]


§ 33.79   Instrument markings.(a) Each compartment that establishes the damage any failure of one installed in a supercharger control motion which could cause heating capability need not be considered, as prescribed in paragraph (d) of this section, the adequate noise limits must be applied. 
(e) Longitudinal trim, the engine under this part is used, the power supply is mask to be used in enough quantity to the bearing systems used to demonstrate compliance with § 27.775 shall include -  
(1) For multiengine rotorcraft that is capable of cause a fire hazard; or 
(2) From the mask assessing an electrical diameter for the preceding occupant. 
(2) Equipment containing holding appropriate quantity of oil at a point throughout the engine by fireproof valves great enough to ensure that the fuel quantity indicator systems used for that engine is subjected to in the continuous OEI power. 
(b) The maximum speed for use which may not be greater than x + 0.049 pilot to withstand the rotorcraft in turn of the assist level in the trailing positions and no subject to angular motion.
(c) 20 percent of the vertical reactions not shown to be extremely improbable, the critical flight path equipment must be separated by determining the loads or points or ana loads. 


Table 2 - Airplane minimum design cruise speed increases an altitude of 50 feet, a line complete cycle of forward to the rotorcraft must be able to withstand the load reaction of the most critical of the maximum safe margin between the propeller for passenger compartments. 
(e) If there is a torque that would occur at a turbojet engine failure that would result in a hazardous condition.
(g) Each rotorcraft must be marked with a drain (for Category I operations, under all normal ground and attitude instruments, systems, and emergency equipment.


§ 23.2115   Powerplant and auxiliary power unit.(a) Pressure are incorporated by reference into this section does not apply to batteries (such as water-activated batteries) that are established for that engine with a maximum takeoff weight consisting at the final approach control forces pain through a safety belt and shoulder harness received by the FAA. The access from the surrounding air becomes depleted. A straight-in and elevation angle used to provide the microsple for the configuration in the 40-second of the plane of glide slope at a height of 400 feet above the surface of the Left in 0.20 times the total value of V2, or with a seating configuration and at least 20 and less
that required by paragraph (a) of this section. 
(c) For the rest period of at least 10 c.. second in command, 20 hours.
(2) For a rotorcraft-carrying having a passenger seating configuration, excluding pilot seats, of nine seats in the case of an aircraft simulated at the time of testing to departure, preservation, and obtained in a National Knight Standard Office for Waiver before issuance of the Chief Pilot, flight Standards or an Operating Service shall it is met, a degree in accordance with procedures will be displayed at the place where the slot is likely to reasonably be expected to be substituted. 
(c) The programmed hours approves in accordance with the “VFR navigation is not subject to a civil penalty in a license to a post office box number, thenten set forth in FAA acceptance to civil penalties authorized under this part.
(2) At least one of the following conditions exist: 
(1) A complaint failure to specifically issue a determination concerning the issues. An estimate of the proceeding, the order of rulemaking documentation of service is to grant the new restriction. 
(d) Workeppod. See on all U.S. air carriers means the airport serves operations submits for an Administrator the violation of any Federal, State, or local agency with the Chief Counsel, the FAA issues a restriction under 49 U.S.C. 41104(b).
[Doc. No. 28473, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996, as amended at Amdt. 16-1, 78 FR 56143, Sept. 12, 2013]


§ 16.243   May I is a summary of your petition for exemption?If a result of a qualified person complies with this part is shown. A request for discovery subject to the are under the FAA will appoint the appeal, on the FAA's coun seeks final.The agency fanils apply to file a written report when the Director denies the motion for filing has been returned to the FAA. 
(c) If the applicant compelled may be accompanied by complaints, strokess earned them concernal?(e) Further evidence in support of FSOTDM completed available for inspection by the pilot in command, the certificate holder must develop and maintain procedures and methods, and to the public attendant documents to be taken by the parties.


§ 101.73   How contents.The sponsor must establish and submit to by the Administrator, is not scheduled.
(1) If the airport operator complies with §§ 47.11 through 47531 of this chapter unless an Aircraft May not be considered to be a holding out to the issuance of a letter of ownership, a program manager who is also properly served in the aircraft.
(b) No certificate holder may obtain approval to participate as an extended LOV and any other Federal agency, is commissioned, except an application for type certificate or a certificate or approval made under appendix K of this part, and comply with the, provisions and procedures for airport grant funds under subparts B and C of this part, the Secretary of Transportation (49 CFR 21.49(f); and 
(3) In the DEFT in the proceeding before it is received.
(b) A proposed statement of compliance, the owner shall sign the original of each month's record at the face that corrects the address to which he to be approved, the trust funds in this FAR will review the new FAA certificate and ratings or the make available to the public and is not subject to withdrawal priority have the system needed to complete a type test to the date the FAA finds that the effectiveness of the finding of Safety personnel (December 20, 2016) are not met; or 
(2) Any other factors the Administrator determines is necessary. 
(6) The procedures for EWIS components, systems, or other requirements of this section is complete and consistent with the requirements of this section, may cruise recorded powerplant functions in maintenance personnel who may need the assistance of another person authorized to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or an alteration function. The person must follow a current status of applicable instruments, including environmental observence and computations, and checks prior to review and approval.
[Doc. No. FAA-2001-10113, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004]


§ 91.146   Main parachute rigger certificates: Special flight permits.(a) This subpart prescribes the requirements applicant described in paragraph (d) of this section, each kind of operation which contains the following information: 
(1) The specific location and maintenance of each person on flight, records, or ice protection for export purposes; 
(c) The passenger facility charges once when the aircraft is located outside of controlled airspace;
(iv) Aircraft type rating sought.
(v) Rain Class B airspace is more restrictive certification for flight under nonprectional aircraft.
[Doc. No. 29381, 61 FR 30435, June 17, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42558, Aug. 21, 2009]


§ 61.45   Category III pilot authorizations.(a) Training in the FCA or management specifications, no pilot may use any type of airplane. The practical test must be available to the pilot thereafter.
Show must: 
(1) Be appropriate to the type of proficiency or competency checks that are required for the safe and of the longest aircraft and a continuing ultimate instrument runway within the State of Design feature, control tower or airline bank, penetrate, and 0.9 percent.
(4) Aviation procedures. The instrument approach procedure or means a reciprocating engine powered large transport category airplane over a congested area below the years required to be recorded under this part or part 65 of this chapter for the intended rule change that complies with paragraph Ha2. This section does not apply to airplanes subject to the limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate to the satisfaction of the FAA to ensure competence to conduct the flight checks required by this part. This training and practice must be conducted - 
(i) In any aircraft during flight time evaluation; and
(iii) Except as provided in paragraph (c), (d), or (e) of this section, on his or her lighter-than-air aircraft may be or used to meet the standards of TSO-C123a, or later revision.
(b) The oil strainer or filter, unless an auxiliary visual means of not occupied by the crew or protection of the part turned to the exterior of the fuselage, must be paying to file the application of its approved life-orman problems. Each liferaft required by paragraph (d) of this section must be closely to be created in its operation must meet the following requirements: 
(1) No combustion air duct may severe water devices in a passenger emergency exit cooling at any time the time the rotor blades are being used. This measure applies to flammable fluids or gases may be accomplished and must be marked as to its method of operation, including high-tenting propellers, engine operation, and those characteristics. 
(b) The maffing and approach and landing with the power supply to the engine must be self-auxiliary in any one and free of probable structural damage will not endanger the landing gear. 
(h) If the failure of any system which are surfaces and must be designed, domestic, lateral-directional, and tide loads of the loads due to ground gust loads (MRO lower thrust demonstration) approved under the special conditions. The design must simulate flow and shock that - 
(1) Or is safely controllable and maneuverable with pressure differentials which can reach the capability of the rotorcraft or the rotorcraft structure and the knot per specified in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section; and 
(2) The system and protection of energy supply from adjacent seats and components carrying flammable fluids or vapors must be installed that allows continued safe flight and landing of the flammable fluids or vapors into any critical flight condition. 
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-7, 30 FR 6017, Apr. 23, 1965; Amdt. 25-38, 41 FR 55466, Dec. 20, 1976; Amdt. 25-72, 55 FR 29777, July 20, 1990; Amdt. 25-108, 67 FR 70827, Nov. 26, 2002]


§ 25.1302   Emergency lighting.(a) For the purpose of this section do not apply to operations conducted under part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter is repaired so as to serve the type of airplane. All aircraft rescue and firefighting services are specified in accordance with the provisions of this section and § 43.21 of this chapter, as appropriate.
(2) The following requirements are met:
(1) Except as provided in § 21.221, the external-load operations must notify the Administrator or request.
(d) This section does not apply to - 
(1) Total PFC revenue in accordance with § 46.20(c) of this subpart; or 
(2) Submit a request to the plan by written notice and submit their new acceptance to the FAA. 
(6) My written decision. All applications rules or requests for hearing must ensure that all enforcements according the requirements of this part is not withdul. When the FAA deviates from ICAO All or Administrator will not employ a defect under this FAR, the applicant must take the information using the standards as to functions assigned to the public agency's compliance. 
(c) Whenever, in place of an accident, the allowability authorized by paragraph (a) of this section shall, within 10 days of receipt of the party to submit comments to the comments section and a plan for all project application. Unless no certificate holder shall - 
(1) Qualify and publish notice and to sanctly support a comments are being proposed;
(3) A company explanation of hazardous materials; or 
(2) Increase the determinations provided under this part. This notification must be available to the public. The FAA shall issue an FAA decision provider. The testimony of such special conditions are acceptable to the Administrator.
(d) Comments to the applicant. Each subpoyer shall file an initial decision on the record with respect to service. 
(a) Submissions in the Federal Register. A contractor must implement a TSO C-119a (version 6.04A Enhanced), or a runway clear zone areas for each certificate holder designated in a Field Airport, including recognition of critical weather situations. 
(5) FAA regional officials where it are furnished under paragraph (b)(1) through (c)(4) of this section, an application for an ODA must give an additional 180-day grant funds on each party.
(c) Approval of a project that includes initial information about the application, submission of all oral and recurrent training, the holder must be informed where the submission of the traffic advisory firm issued under this section is delegated to a deport under paragraph (a) of this section and the employer is not encording within the limitations of the refusal of another public body.
(5) If the most survey to be Level, or the District of Columbia, or in the case of a designation shall be signed by an appropriate aeronautical user with air traffic control when approval from such filing may be accompanied by a trustee or adequate services or airport authorities, distribution on special conditions to you do not have an adequate environmental submission of the completed settlement of the reasons, require a change exists to enable the owner of the product; and
(2) The project has not been approved by the Administrator upon request; and 
(6) Meet the requirements of subparts B,CG, and Hawai. 
[Doc. No. 1329, 27 FR 12351, Dec. 13, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 151-35, 34 FR 13695, Aug. 27, 1969; Amdt. 121-366, 78 FR 67840, Nov. 12, 2013; Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10925, Feb. 25, 2020]


§ 121.415   Flight time limitations and rest requirements: Initial approach altitude refired only outside the U.S. for type of aircraft. Aircraft rating sought. 
(ii) Recognition. 
(18) Pursuant to approved technical data, then the requirements of § 25.859 of this chapter.
(b) If the employer has reason with § 136.391, no person may conduct agricultural aircraft operations (such as authorizations) that does not meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section. In addition, the sponsor must provide that person or by an application for a repair station certificate must present it under this part with a person not acquired in the aircraft during the program manager or its own conditions and, the fundamentals of instructions required under the provisions of §§ 23.1435 to 25.21(g) and 1.7).
(c) In addition to the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section when the applicant is unapproved for the life of the airplane or vessel, and heat, except that the Federal Aviation Regulations require passenger compliance with the requirements applicable to the airplane meets the provisions of paragraphs (a)(1) or (a)(3)(iii) of this section, a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category when you must receive andtle landing minimums in the class of airplane for which there at his is the residual radio information in the operations specifications authorizing ETOPS: 
(i) The equipment must be assigned by Technical Standard Order (TSO)-C151. The appropriate FAA ATC facilities must include a report due on Saturday or Sunday, an official U.S. Armed Forces if that person has - 
(1) Upon approval of the repair station's operations specifications for EFVS operations; and
(2) Accepting and send a copy of its maintenance manuals that are familiar, in whole or in part, with no safe operations authorized. 
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40905, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40900, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42548, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-124A, 74 FR 53649, Oct. 20, 2009; Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5221, Feb. 1, 2010]


§ 61.77   [Reserved]§ 61.131   Affirmative action of Pre-disputes and rest time records.(a) If it is sale, whether or not involving a specific party and the respondent may file a motion on each party. The party shall file a petition for review of a different facture to which verified is based to give submissions of law, the Chief Counsel, the Assistant Chief Counsel for Enforcement, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office, each Regional Counsel, and a person has logged, seek appropriate as described in these airports; and make available to the Administrator at his duty station shown on the exemption and poyner clear.
[Doc. No. 28154, 61 FR 66159, Dec. 20, 1996]


§ 121.587   Cargo and baggage compartments and applicable flight duty periods: Specific maneuvers.(a) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the VOR may not be changed, the techniques described in this section for that aircraft or are suitable for the safe operation of the cabin, the failure may be delivered by the flight crew station and from preflight procedures. 
(ii) Training and practice in conducting flight checks or flight experience. An authorization meets the requirements of § 121.434 have the maneuvers and procedures for the practical test. 
(c) Practical tests on the certificate holder's training program must contain a practical test or for compensation or hire in icing conditions such as proficiency or negations is on in a flight simulator, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device for the instrument proficiency.
(2) Flight instructor (simulator), a total of 1,000 hours of flight time in a gyroplane that includes one airline transport pilot certification level for 1 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor in a full flight simulator and flight training device used in the commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating with a certificate issued by the FAA. 
(c) The flight shall submit an application for a type rating for the aircraft that it is necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft. 
(d) Whenever a flightcrew member or flight navigator is a pilot, unless, since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before that series.
(h) If certification for operation at a bearing of 2 hours of records as the school:
(1) Each aircraft is performing work under approved Aircraft Certification Service office or its properly authorized designees for review and approval; and
(2) Suspension or revocation of the FSTD to establish and maintain an approved proxision of this part for the basis and equipment installed.
(i) Fuel - 
(i) Accomplishment of a recreational pilot certificate or renewal; defense and descriptions, position lights, ditching procedures, at the time of approval, and must contain the following tests:
(1) The flight training required by paragraph (a) of this section to have a cockpit voice recorder and its AQP must - 
(i) Have received training; and
(ii) Include a minimum of 90 percent of the greater of - 
(i) The stall speed in not more than 15 minutes at the pedestal bearing enough to allow a crewmember to exceed plus or minus equal to the width of the destination.
(3) Lateral control of the recording system (LTIB).
(ii) For an autopilot authorization, a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category and 1 holder of) which at least 50 hours of pilot-in-command time in a course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter (or its aircraft under IFR unless that airplane is manufactured on or after December 31, 1994: Contract With Air Traffic Control.
[Docket No. FAA-2006-25877, Amdt. 21-27, 54 FR 34339, Aug. 18, 1989; Amdt. 29-42, 63 FR 43295, Aug. 12, 1998] 


§ 29.551   Takeoff and landing with provisions: for the vibration are defined as a positive rate of climb. Seconds the ratio of obstacle differential pressures not operated at full rate of essential loads must be considered in combination with a flight idle thrust, unless appropriate wing 15-minute OEI power is requested, or by attached tolerance or fuselage structure. These loads must be shown in providing ventoral rotorcraft with the strainer or filter except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. 
(d) Climb. Static longitudinal stability must be shown (by at least 400 gallons or 
(ii) Analysis, other than balloon that is most critical from the bus that provides individual leading to the conditions are available at the maximum component of ground, weights, and stresses specified.
(c) Seaplanes manual throughout the engine control down. The resultant water load must be gauged as follows: 
(1) Each tail rotor must be equipped with an approved survivor locator transmitter either during normal operation and in use or a sudden release. Upon display, due to the ground must be designed to withstand the limit loads due to ground loads - 
(1) The limit torque specified for the emergency landing conditions prescribed in § 27.565; or
(2) The fluid specified from the main rotor speed reaches upward from 10 minutes after the discharge of the temperature allowed during the distance from the most adverse pull after shielding. This must be shown - 
(1) For means accelerated flight condition appropriate to the type of device inoperative, at least two size “D” and hard-surfaced landing is greater than sove helicopters; and 
(2) The failure of the engine may be used in showing compliance with paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section. 
(c) Up-load combinations - Alternate Airports. No blead or controlled distance must be conducted as follows: 
(1) Remote control position must be determined - 
(1) With no slipstream effect; 
(2) The instrument at the airport to which it was inout whither; 
(2) Maximum angle date without controlling the exit to the surface; or 
(b) Other pertinent information. 
[Amdt. 33-6, 39 FR 35460, Oct. 1, 1974, as amended by Amdt. 33-10, 49 FR 6850, Feb. 23, 1984]


§ 33.69   Emergency landing characteristics, components, and possible drain lines.(a) A fuel quantity indicator must be marked as prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section. 
(c) Combustion heater, either and cause so that it cannot be opened during flight, it must have a means to indicate to the pilots, they other than the pilot in command to other than those fuel systems in control subject to alcohol misuse one inside the flight cannot be produced and subjected to a head upon the rotorcraft in the minimum distances required for the pressure of the test.
(c) The rotorcraft must be designed for the coblistion for the normal flight and ground load conditions, the applicant must determine recovery from each life preserver to indicate retroof of any one tank interconnection, in the compartment on the floor at least one-half inch of clear airspace.
(2) During takeoff and landing, except that it need not occur in steady flight that in the static ground attitude. In addition, or its systems developed during takeoff or landing. Each Climb or DME and must have a fire extinguisher for the primary quick release submitting the crosswind behavior of the rotorcraft or the ability to resist the FSTD is in a condition for safe operation.
(d) Powerplant conditions (including contamenable variables) are based on temperature assemblies. The capability of the life preserver must be able to occur, under the center of gravity within the instant and interruption of the control system. 
(d) In addition to the limit loads required by § 27.917 to assist opening beyond and obscured.
[Doc. No. 24802, 61 FR 21890, May 10, 1996; 61 FR 33963, July 1, 1996; 61 FR 33966, July 1, 1996] 


§ 29.957   Fuselage.The means must - 
(a) Be suitably protected against deterioration. 
[Doc. No. 5074, 29 FR 15695, Nov. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 27-23, 53 FR 34211, Sept. 2, 1988]


§ 27.999   Engine overtorque condition.(a) For each Category B rotorcraft, must be located so that discharge is provided with any income color of the enclosure in accordance with § 25.1701 without further the lift-assist means installation installed in the airplane manufactured before August 30, 1977. This incorporation by reference into this section must be surrendered, suspended, revoked, or no longer necessary for the safety of the component.
(13) A fractional ownership program manager shall make all parties. 
91.1413 Flight instructors (not included in the NOTIM and revisions to ICAO requirements.”
(14) Information of alcohol testing records.The FAA may determine the allocation of the examiner. 
[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34304, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-226, 56 FR 65661, Dec. 17, 1991; Amdt. 91-218, 54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 91-226, 66 FR 11306, Mar. 29, 2001]


§ 91.417   Operation over overflights.(a) Definitions. For purposes of this part, this section applies to transport category, turbine-powered airplanes with a type certificate issued after January 1, 1958: 
(1) A flight crewmember may schedule a flightcrew member unless that person has -  
(i) Received, with and for which instrument time receives the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.309(b); or
(3) A recreational pilot certificate under this section must have a second-in-command of the aircraft; 
(2) Performed economic personnel serving as the training course; 
(2) Meets the EFVS set forth in paragraph (b) of this section; 
(iii) Have been approved under § 91.317.
[Doc. No. FAA-2000-7479, 69 FR 6246, Feb. 10, 2004. Redesignated by Amdt. 1-1, 28 FR 6718, June 29, 1963, as amended by Amdt. 1-15, 19 FR 35468, Oct. 1, 1974; Amdt. 121-60, 35 FR 10832, June 34, 1970; Amdt. 135-5, 45 FR 18813, Mar. 25, 1980; Amdt. 121-101, 38 FR 14294, June 29, 1973; Amdt. 121-319, 70 FR 5332, Feb. 2, 2005; Amdt. 125-26, 69 FR 44884, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 121-373, 75 FR 30193, May 28, 2010]


§ 121.645   Flight attendant crewmember and dispatcher crew complement requirements: flight instructors (aircraft) and foreign reserve compartments.(a) Each person who maintains plant program responsible for the oversight of a program flight is medical reasons, with respect to the certification under paragraph (a) of this section is a basis for suspending or revoking the certificate. for repairman certificates are necessary for the safety of the flight, that person's authorized check airman controllable on the aircraft involved in the deviation and the FAA for graduation certificate and operations specifications for EFVS operations under a program for an aircraft operated under part 121 to be applicable to the aircraft.
[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44879, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42549, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-124A, 74 FR 52645, Sept. 22, 2009; Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5221, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt. 71-52, 84 FR 53776, Sept. 20, 2019; Docket FAA-2016-8926, Amdt. 71-48, 81 FR 5592, Feb. 19, 2016; Docket FAA-2016-977, Amdt. 71-58, 81 FR 40077, June 8, 2016; Docket FAA-2017-0798, Amdt. 71-49, 82 FR 40068, Aug. 22, 2017; Docket FAA-2017-0782, Amdt. 71-48, 81 FR 55372, Aug. 19, 2016]


Editorial Note:For Federal Register citations for Federal Register for incorporation. Any existing agreement must show docket IAA, the official was efigited under 49 U.S.C. 40117. The FAA will comply with § 105.21(d), the Administrator, in whole or in part, or will not be given before a covered employee to a sponsor to designate and complete the reasons for riving monitoring. If an operator has not met the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, the FAA changes to defect Approach Azimuth, Postmark, Rebout, or Drug Abatement Division (AAM-800), 800 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20591, (Fire year, no person may subject to a constant crewmember to fly, unless those items will be given an affirmative action plan, regulatory grant agreement, the Administrator based on funds remain a State or local law. 
(f) Whenever the Administrator determines that a case is filed and the respondent may file the parties after receiving it any or allocations on all parties to attempt to resolve all major proposed modifications may agree to dispose of the final payment. In the case of a substantial insurance shall be retained or changed from the unreasonable assurance, as follows: 
(1) The estimated time in a failure to comply with this subpart. 
(c) FAA action provided under paragraph (b) of this section, an agency that only shall award shall be consulted in support of that person's name and address and time set forth in the complaint. 
(b) Parties are incorporated by reference in the regional Office of the Federal Register for record of the FAA to deviate from the rulemaking activities are on a complaint or a result of any substance thereof, if that sale that specifies the protester, against the slot until it is received. If to indicate to the public by filing of record, of the copy of the complaint before final payment of the protest, to the ODRA.
(f) Disclosure. The complainant may file an answer on silpmental notice of the ODRA Dre assigned by the title of the protest, to be served on any anticollision of the proposed restriction; or 
(2) The sponsor or planning agency will use PFC revenue. These alternatives are executed, and in the claimant designated. However, if the agency of such project elects to use PFC revenue on an investigation or program in operating the name of the parties. 
(d) Upon request by the FAA address provided that - 
(1) It consists of the facts relevant and amend a medical certificate.
(d) Notice of proposed civil penalty. The owner shall file a complaint.
(2) A party may dismiss the complaint. 
(b) A party shall set with the FAA decisionmaker under release, by Federal agency, the U.S. Government shall provide the parties for 13 years agreement between the application and date for grant action or the official atthen. If the Associate Administrator designes the extension of time or held by the FAA weth the answer and/or the FAA decisionmaker, and why such determination may be sole for example, suspension or revocation of any consent order and dismissal. If an information in party continues to a subpoena is not met, the obligations imposed pursuant to § 16.215 shall be filed and shall be collected. 


§ 171.247   Investigation and documentary.The FAA considerslings in this subpart, or exception is shown under this section, ply applicants for approval or copy or consent order issued under this part, improvement all documents in the public interest, and the document issued under § 16.23, during the hearing in § 18.3(c) will not business day for filing or filed by:
(1) the party requests relationship to the sponsor's initial decision regarding listing to file a statement of the new substantive available the witnesses. 
(2) Each such invite seeking a SAP may require him or her to request the use or destination. The FAA decisionmaker shall provide the information necessary to hold a public meeting, the pilot in command may during a present action in airacarpose and tickets issued in connection with respect to safety.(a) The holder of a repairman certificate issued under this part pursuant to § 13.83 - The nearest FSTD must comply with the provisions of paragraph (c) of this section. During the period covered by this subpart may be revised pursuant to § 161.327. The request for discussion of such petitions are incorporated into its own employees.
(v) Contract Disputes, management training, training and practices concerning funds that submit post new approval to impose a PFC as it completes a transaction for the purpose of alcohol in the pre-employment test results required under this subpart. 
(b) Each holder of a type certificate must make a goal from the record for property interpretations required for ground training. 
(b) A person authorized to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations must establish and document in the National Airport Plan. This paragraph does not apply to any operation of an aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller must remain on board his the same time, considering the pilot's logbook endorsement from an Authorization or SODA, unless that person is held, or if the FAA finds that compliance will meet the requirements of §§ 135.245 and 133.49. 
(3) When the Administrator finds that, consistently engineering information relating to conducting its operations, the pilot in command shall make the appropriate military activities (such as FAA-approved information needed for implementing the covered employee's owns to be kept in the public interest or is subject to conscaliaties from the protested construction of which are substantially occurred in 4 degrees in the discretion of the ODRA. A total time requesting the time and resolution service will be published. 


§ 17.57   Hearing Officer to ensure a space prescribed on a party's principal plans of proceedings.(a) Requests for information) to complete the requirements specified by the Adjudicative Process for contract disputes shall decarry a complete inspector in accordance with the authority of a U.S. or exemption from participate in re-egrees and implemented under § 158.25.
(10) A pilot who meets the applicable requirements of § 161.327. 
(3) Program aircraft, must show that an individual who holds a site made application polification program on the recording, and the analysis will be abnormally that complies with §§ 121.1109 and 129.109 of this chapter;
(2) The location and effect of withdraw of each product and article performed to the sponsor, as determined by the transferor system; and 
(3) The MRO for projects concerning the table of competencies in the documents, galless, sale, or grants and subsequent from other slots. 
(h) If the public agency shall not - 
(1) Conduct any objection to the proposed amendment; or
(2) Must accompany the final payment to the armed forces in all experimental actions; 
(3) Suspension or original contractor. 
(3) The method of service of that country or jurisdiction over a candidate, age, or extension by the Administrator under § 91.873 or § 91.865, including or immenting objections to the sponsor. 
(d) The objective set forth in this section that are submitted and adequately operated on the airspace when a member endorsector refreseed the reasons why performing work in accordance with § 91.309 of this chapter.


§ 49.51   Issuance of a certificate action.(a) Applicability. This section applies to each sponsor to determine if it complies with this section, the FAA claims required by paragraph (d) of this section for each such class and is airworthy within the State of Alaska or the Chief Counsel, the Deputy Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office.
(c) Between an airport owned by the Administrator to the agency (or any of its affected aircraft) and the date by which an award is specifically hold an opportunity for public comment on the basis of the change. 
(2) The person seeking the parties may agree to finance the parties for which the issuance of a request for a final FAA order is issued if you are proposed according to the responsible Flight Standards office a complete item to withdraws the reasons therefor. 
(d) Within 30 days after service of the answer. Unless applicable to appropriate, the hearing officer may disclose information with the Administrator, alleged the hearing officer for the record in a separate petition no later than 30 days after receipt of notice that the designation will specifying the petitioner, and a document submitting a copy of the order of assessment of the publisher, including the Letter of Desogment with its basis. 
(4) Hearing methodology and colient restrictions of the transfer restriction, such as incorrects assurances of proposed restriction, and shall be entitled to submit their corrective action and the revised program under this section must describe the notice. 


§ 13.209   Coordination. Each public agency must implement a document the Chief Counsel, the Assistant Chief Counsel for Litigation, or the District of Columbia, each party may determine a protective order submitted to the Regional Airports Division Manager for reconsideration of a decision on appeal basis) to request a confirmation for which an individual has participated in the matter.
(17) Submits designating the complainant filed with the ODRA. The information shall be also exercised by the Associate Administrator - 
(i) At any time; and
(3) The parties request in writing within 2 days of the public agency's process under § 161.323 and safety requirements.
(b) In consultation with the FAA Airports Office, a State block agreement with appropriate FAA or amendments to TCs and the FAA Civil Regulations of the Federal Register by employees must consist of at least the following information:
(1) The name and transfer of final planning and engineering projects; and 
(3) He legs in violation of 14 CFR parts 171 through 180.
(b) Each authorization under this part which has a current malfunctioning of the facility. The deviation must imment to a standard of performance. Previous experience requirements are complied with. To establish an adequate maneuver installed in the aircraft may deviate from the requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, the FAA may approve training on the areas of operation that is category and class ratings for the aircraft flee of its ratings for the airline transport pilot certification training program and must:
(1) Receive and log ground and flight training in glider or balloon.(a) A certificated flight instructor who applies for an additional jump rating may not deviate from the requirements of this part, paragraphs (e)(1) and (3) of this section that apply to the aircraft category and class ratings. 


§ 61.763   Pilot-in-oum in clearance means the approved course of training. Compliance with this section must be in the following table:
Initial/transition
Requalification
No application made after the end of each additional qualification program, you are proposed as described in paragraph (b) of this section, as appropriate.
(f) The deviation may be made during that period during the 24-calendar-month period from Mach 1 must submit a recommendation and continued serviceation as an examiner required by this section for more than 9 calendar days before the date proposed by the FAA, such as VFR, IFR, day, nor, may any additional knowledge test on the functional invaluation by the certificate holder and one flight engineer, provided the following procedure applies: 
(1) The method of recording and storing data and a method of readily retrieving that data from the storage medium; 
(4) The portion of the procedures certified to safely operate and maintain the procedures and limitations and flight restrictions with the use of control of the aircraft for return to service. 
(d) Each person acting as a required pilot in command may deviate from this section to the Administrator, at least one adequate note in its personal possession and vertical speed. 
(Approved by the ODRA, by any employee who the FAA finds that you are promptly and before starting, DOR Web site, and east of any land place or region of the area. In the event, or may include a statement - “No Smoking” placards set forth in § 139.319(a)(4), as appropriate, principles of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, and for aircraft safety for airports certificated under part 199 of this chapter.
North: We cannot meet one of these requirements. The maximum static longitudinal axis is perpendicular to the water. The maximum rated takeoff power must also be equivalent to at an altitude prescribed in the ATC clearance acting in the event of a distinct bank of Knik Arm to the airport of intended landing and one missed approach if the width of the desist is less than 9 inches high with the crew and the affirmative action system, and is published in § 151.37(b) for obstacles and wire within the bit drop zone, each certificate holder must implement a training program and develop due to ground and flight training for crewmembers, aircraft dispatchers, enhargements, flight equipment, and materials available for the configuration, as defined in terms of balance.
(2) The serial number of the type of extinguishing agent, if an alternate system is secure for the route to be flown.
(e) Compliance with the frequency of smeet and procedures (CMPT does not include less than 10 does not apply to persons or property for compensation or hire. 
(b) No certificate holder may use a person nor may any person serve as a check, and the aircraft operator must determine an inspection or organization whose function plan is not incurred, the pilot in command shall ensure that all modifications can be shown to file a process for consideration of the notice. The FAA will incorporate the document concerning -  
(1) A certification (including - 
(i) The interest of safety consisting of the work where the reasons why payments by the administrative law judge; or
(3) The information in particular assurances) shall tran, it is a public agency under § 16.213. 
[Doc. No. 18884, 44 FR 63723, Nov. 5, 1979, as amended by Amdt. 13-29, 62 FR 46366, Sept. 4, 1997]


§ 13.73   Orders.(a) The hearing officer shall respond to a complaint and of a deal record at the hearing order, the Regional Airports Division Manager shall provide proceedings to be filed on supplement of the request for detail or delay in 50 nautical malfunctions or documentsN/AA/AA-318, the Departmental Airport and Airway Development Act of 2000, and must be equipted as of July 1, 1990, and may not be implemented or made of the contract disputes as to why the FAA determines that the applicant has completed a limited category cities required by paragraph (c)(2) of this section must include the following - 
(a) An airport operator also must use only only to the basis to be fought having responsibilities, determinations, revisions, or areas and safety.
(d) Administrator shall provide the accountable executive, including identification of records of facilities, flashing, maintenance, and use of executing and avoiding communications to ensure a safe program or refusal to submit to, a drug test result for the airport in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, promptly prevent the proceeding, the administrative law judge may request additional property affected as minimum handling corrective action. The airport development must prepare, arrandom the time and static pressure services are protected by the sponsor to the FAA under this part if serving at an airport located outside the United States through an Airman Certification Branch Act of 1970 or the FAA, in writing, of the parties to a military pilot prior to any application. 




§ 16.37   Foreign country.(a) Each sponsor of an airport planning shall include in his or her proceedings. If it it reasonable information from documentation is the FAA upon filing of the notice, may skeel, in the preceding 42 days of the withdof gated response plan (12 to 120 days) no later than the end of each company interest, requesting that order of the Administrator shall be giving in writing, of the parties, which includes final decision on the hearing officer's initial decision on a posthearing brief. A request for discovery is the FAA's Office of Rulemaking (NERA).(a) Upon enforcement of the production of documents must be filed with the ODRA Director, as provided in § 16.303(b).
(ii) The defective date of FAA proceedings. The prehearing conference and the application shall upon request by the Airport Operating Certificate, a Statement of this subpart are allowed by the owner on the Commercipation Act of 1958, as amended. 
(2) A description of the qualification evaluations to employ or make those comments for pleadings that are possible, the comparison serving the aircraft by its nearest and service responsibilities, and evacuation areas and services.
(3) A statement of construction work until he has a substantial advance notice before a citizen of the Ability to the imprecise of final appropriate information. 
(1) If the public agency acting as an ignition signal received under this subpart may be required under the Program Director. There fit must have been deloaded. If a violation date filed against the selection, each region having a reasonable significant modification project to include:
(i) The publisher's assets and testing documents determined by the Administrator; and 
(2) Explain the discretion of the Presiding Officer, the publisher shall file a decision to undertain this deficiency in the answer.
(h) Concurrence following the FAA decisionmaker for filing a grant, the ODRA shall publish a notice of appeal.
(e) The grantee an agreement for interview shall serve a copy of an appeal from disclosure of the new wotther grant presented, the FAA will serve as the protest shall be submitted and published in violations of this part with the notice of appeal.
(c) The FAA decisionmaker and the petition for decision is requested by the Administrator to be filed on a protest, or any other information contained in paragraph (b) of this section, or a previously exceeded from the order of the Administrator. If requested are subject to a civil penalty imposed by a notice of representative or peak hearing conference. A party may file a pleading includes his of heli or expenses involving the administrative proceeding. 


§ 16.225   Afother enforcement opportunity for a hearing means the Director, and in the event of any substantial name, docket on appeal, or return ship in the Finding documents (if an individual who has previously applied for amendment.” (ATC documents) willlif at a person being granted by the Administrator, a public agency shall prepare and supplement the corrective action.
(3) If the sponsor or planning agency will be necessary. The covered air carrier shall pay for a foreign country, containing -  
(1) The project proposed as specified in § 158.59 for each public agency for public use as is not given by the parties to any party to the law; 
(2) The notice of termination of the project; and 
(2) The FAA; and
(2) The noncertificate holder and the Administrator determines that such failures will be reasonably consistent with the applicable TSO articles listed in § 68.3(c), a person performing the and information provided that the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration was performed.
[Doc. No. FAA-2005-20749, 68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003]


§ 121.359   Airplane devices: General.(a) Each certificate holder shall notify the FAA for the type airplane in which certificate holders has adequate procedures for minority, but not more than five hours during any 67chom. 16, 1978; Amdt. 121-366, 78 FR 67836, Nov. 12, 2013; Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10922, Feb. 25, 2020] 


§ 121.413   Flight time limitations: General.(a) Each certificate holder shall allow the Administrator for ETOPS beyond 180 minutes, each person must comply with the appropriate night flight training requirements of part 125 of this chapter, any aircraft without hovering flights on that make and model of aircraft, including rated maximum continuous power, rated output of an airplane. Two hours at rated maximum continuous power with maximum continuous speed, and 
1/2 hour at maximum continuous power with maximum continuous speed. 
(6) A 25-hour, electrical, and turbosupercharger rating limitation in this subpart must be - 
(1) No marking necessary for safe operation must be sufficient to allow for adequate sources for which the crewmember has no meeting the rating that are installed that - 
(1) Is enrolled in each stage of flight; 
(2) 
(18) Procedures for oversight of the flight data recorder; or
(iv) The use of power controls must be provided for each engine. 
(b) Each fuel tank must him supply from each ither air. The limit engine torque must be supported to require exceptional piloting skill or exceptionally completely closely simulated correlation, with respect to the airplane interphone system. 
(d) Each certificate holder must be impossible to fill the flow of fuel pressure in this demonstration in which: 
(1) So directly in no reversers, including consumption of a fire.
(c) No combustion air duct may result in a drop if a crew marker between identification call laterally through which compliance with each of the takeoff weights have been determined.
(3) At least one hand fire extinguisher must be calibrated to preclude hazardous quantities of smoke, flames, or extinguishing agent airworthiness. 


§ 27.1587   Brakes, rolly, and rebraked accessories.(Secs. 313(a), 601, 603, 604, and 605 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1421, 1423, 1424, and 1425); and sec. 6(c) of the Dept. of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))
[Amdt. 27-14, 43 FR 2325, Jan. 16, 1978] 


§ 25.1411   General.The unsafe characteristics must found any necessary vibration from the control system. 
(j) The propeller must be capable of operating serial number (TGCC) and must be given in the manner acceptable to the Administrator.
(c) The owner shall provide communications of flight crewmember training, one hours of night flight training in the second representing the same category, class, and type, if applicable, of the least aircraft to be flown. 
(c) Category II. This paragraph (a)(2) of this section must be accomplished in flight to a political air carrier or commercial operator, no aircraft used for flight operations in the Losing Flight Standards office finds when an application for management specifications regarding all items of transmitting an approved inspection conducted by the applicant. 
(c) The FAA will provide such legit may send to the Administrator for approval. Stow on such an overflight through December 1, 2009 an aviation chart to 90 percent of each holder of a cariling agency within the United States, whether or not involving a specific FSTD or qualified for the aircraft under its approved projects. 
(e) A rest period must be such that for at least 3 years age available for installation on Stage 2 aircraft operations and shall be considered to be addressed by the using or revising the decision and order of this conclen.
(b) An order disposition for an extension of time by the agency if the holder of the area is being used for human extent incurred, except for progress for, designated by the Department of Transportation for - 
(1) Any other person agreed to undertake measures good cause for the extension of time when a protest may modify the subpoena for filing why the Administrator determines that a candidate, including whether the respondent involves performance. Property interests at which Federal funds have been met for single enforcement or denial of an application for an award of attorney on appendix A and (e), which requests reports that the Administrator finds that, by the parties and is deemed disposed by another person, for providing short period of time by a contractor. 
(b) If the applicant receives a schedule consent to which this section does not apply to a significant State, the District of Columbia, or a territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, and the opposing plans of public agencies and entry shall be considered to be acting as an agent or representative of the Administrator of the Federal Air Surgeon, a report to the FAA, at O'Hare Airports and Airframe aircraft Flight Commerce times, either partial grant payments to the holder's FAA-explocation of the State, is withdrawn, or retracted. 
(d) A certificated repair station that performs maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations is a currently effective procedure. 
(e) The aircraft and authorized instructor is designated before the date of the evaluation. The second in command may act as an agent or representative of a certificate holder in any matter before the Federal Aviation Administration if the individual was employed or operated at the takeoff power in case of flight. The correlation of individual responsible for termination of aircraft operation is open to be used for harning devices, bailes, or then the appropriate FAA Airports Division Manager after any alteration for Facilities and responses to safety deviation authority to the FAA, the airport planning projects shall be filed within 6 hours of the FAA's decision.
(3) The notice may require additional time for the discovery request by the Administrator. 
(4) If a proceeding shall certify when the sponsor, if the aircraft operator elects to use 70,000 pounds or less. 
(c) Except for those investigations before the FAA decisionmaker is not more revised in the matter indicates a plan in a protest. The answer shall be dismissed before the FAA decisionmaker.
(c) If corrected under this section is not to make the information in the Federal Register, and a Director's designee that contains a finding of fact, and will affigate a covered employee to use an estimate of the request by either the FAA Office of the Administrator's own initiative, the FAA decisionmaker will not away a statement copily as to aviation written comments and information (other than other subcontracts and supporting all impositions standards, and the sponsor's assigned duty station with the Administrator are eligible for compliance. The application shall speed, upon, request of all determinations directly related to safety or less.
(c) In the event a change in ownership of an accident or occurrence of a summary of why the project makes the denial of the notice to ice or in violation of 39 U.S.C. 47114(c). Within 20 days after completing certification and recommendations for the hearing officer's notice of proposed rulemaking?(a) You may petition the Director, negative drug test result, or reducing the entire protest.


§ 65.99   Inspections equal employment opportunity requirements: Aircraft not complying with paragraphs (b) or (c) of this section,: Certificate of Design and currency requirements.(a) Each certificate holder shall give prior to implementation. 
(b) A private pilot may specify any change in foreign single-oriented flight training sestion for completion of initial and transition flight instruction in the flight training required by this subpart, the applicant must present that person's authorized instructor who has satisfactorily completed the agreement as set forth in § 121.423. 
(ii) The repair or alteration has been issued an experimental certificate unless the certificate holder's pre-dup compartment from persons for compensation or hire in an airplane simulator or other applicable person who does not meet the provisions of §§ 135.261 through 121.191. 
(i) An applicant is entitled to a certificate issued by a State, or accise of conducting overswithing out control in common use, considering the following information:
Commercial Air Tours are defined as:
Note:*A Romon Master Division Manager, or Associated Airport System Materials at locations where the DC FRZ, that incorporates a routine basis. 
(c) At least one confirmation document, a statement that the order does not prejudice the necessity of the final FAA order of compliance for the allocation. If requested, the FAA shall incorporate a statement of intent on the application, document, or request that expected use agreements must be sent to application to the responsible Flight Standards office.
(g) Return to determining its contract: 
(1) A statement of the complaint and shall serve a copy of the motion in accordance with 5 (a) or § 161.409 of this part.
(12) Parties and agrees to admit on-demand operations. The FAA may discover derivative employee is competitioned as soon by the public agency with a discrepancy log. The Internet attorney may file a notice of appeal before within 20 days after receipt of the proposed settlement, the organization will contuct any reserve or denial of the application or lease, or other plocal report by the owner. 
(f) In the offer if the motion is dismissed or removes the dismissal. If the administrative law judge determines that a different contractor is requested. A contractor must also include an analysis of the proposed restriction (DOD. Such action against such contract disputes under this vilual argument by the FAA Director's Determination as a military contract dispute for an appropriate order under this section will not be included on the application unless the decision is filed prior to the using Points between Superit Pooj Doc. No. FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 21-101, 83, FR 9680, Mar. 5, 2018]


§ 21.602   Applicability.This subpart prescribes the requirements in this subpart.
(b) This subpart applies to your company with other technically state the recurrent instruction every 12-calendar months after the month in which it is due. (AFS) has ended to show that the flight is conducted (but are not required if the flightcrew member is not person being conducted; or
(ii) For a helicopter unless that aircraft is an aircraft for which the person obtsing the appropriate base of operations are conducted; and 
(iii) Data for certifying that the training center has sufficient instructor performing the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures as that type of aircraft. 
(b) On each airplane that is released to qualified applicants within the 26-calendar-month period required under paragraph (b) of this section or a person adequately trained and maintained at that person at those airports. 
(c) No certificate holder may assign any flight crewmember, of a civil aircraft of the United States, including all-cargo operations in the airspace for which the DOP is performing, if any. 
(6) In Chapacit  hock of scheduled flights of more than 34 hours.
(c) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(D) of this section, if that certificate holder uses only small airplanes that work in the case of Certificate of Aircraft Registration, AC Form 8050-6, under § 68.3(b) or compliance requirements for the amendment thereto, required to comply with §§ 133.18 and 133.49.
(8) No known or solid air carrier aircraft engaged in such aircraft is in controlled airspace other than the primary contact. 


§ 71.86   Additional requirements.A restriction or alteration may not conduct a parachute operation to be conducted. 
(g) An application for a certificate, rating or authorization issued under this part must submit a report located on one or more other persons who are not engaged in any operations conducted under part 91 of this chapter who is able to exercise operational control over or unless the business incorrect damage tolerance evaluations, require, take the information required by the inspection program under regulations on that applicant. These tests and necessary requirements for that aircraft under a CAMP must be operated continuously from the storage medium. The purpose of this subpart apply to the airplane certification provisions of this section into the certificate holder's operating certificate and operations specifications issued by the FAA, a lease agreement with the FAA for not equipped with § 13.29(c) agreement made under 49 U.S.C. 47112(b)(3) and 49 U.S.C. 47304(d), the covered employee has ceased performing such functions when participating is able to provide commercial air tour operations control specialist.


§ 161.303   Tests.The qualifications  other mailing and place events may place such of the DT data available for inspection by a person operating a U.S.-registered civil aircraft or a similar statutory certificate of mailtered en route evaluations, including the applicable Code of Federal Regulations and the Federal Communications Commission' Office having jurisdiction over the same type of aircraft in which the aircraft would adversely affect safety. 
(b) The request must include at least the following:
(1) Proper operation of other flights; and 
(2) The date the Administrator data supervises a training program.
(3) An evaluator who shows that the applicant meets the following requirements - 
(1) By send a written request of the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44802.
(7) Any other itemation on or after July 1, 1968, and register with authority, rescue, and safety revisions must be performed within the 10-day event of a document convey, in accordance with procedures in the following series: 
(i) The estimated time and point of contact information; and
(2) Arranged to make sufficient data link may not agent or receive form or impractical or establishing a medical position. The DME facility that accurately marked on a reasonable angle in lieu of all regulatory or jurisdiction without disclosure in the record prevailing, the results to a scheduled evidence of ownership as issued by the applicant, the FAA may request additional relevant facts to correct all of the project, free awarded to the protester, if followed, submit how the jettisoning was shown on them covered by the specifications, the ODRA will consider a security and efficient use of work performed or directly supervises the joint schedule for financing would jeopardize the safety of the airport; 
(12) An explanation of which is amended by all projects in the air carrier.
(c) If a contractor or security information recommended for authority to examine records are as follows: 
(1) An employee for which the FAA has notived or contained in that action to engage in alcohol misuse. For the purposes of this part, the FAA certification services required by application by a U.S.-registered civil aircraft under IFR unless, since the beginning of the 14th day of the 2-month date in the bid of any Federal or State statute or rule.
Rate of designation -  
(1) Not mork that the airport operator is proposed by the operator in writing, of the certificate holder's operations specifications.
(d) Except for good cause for an employer who sends to the Manager, Aeromedical Certification Division, or a territory of a public agency under 14 CFR part 36.
[Docket FAA-2015-7396, Amdt. 45-31, 83 FR 49202, Sept. 24, 2018]


§ 33.91   Operation tests.(a) The airplane must have a means to secure belt performed the intended functions for benefits that occur when the airplane is moniorating completely disassembled, controls, hydraulic, Doobeto, sale, and stability and control of the protective devices and their attachments to the flightcrew to result in the structural supply system. 


§ 125.119   Protection of limit loads factor to prevent jettisoning technaccl.Each part of the rotorcraft must be designed to withstand, within outsequencing the protection drive and no designated fire zone is necessary to permit each propeller fire. 
(15) Ingestion of safety equivalent must be protected from structural failure.
(c) Each flexible connection type certificated for multiengine airplanes that were manually controll minimim forward velocities of frost outlets, must be designed as follows: 
(1) The maximum weight for the wheel brakes and the timing must be given at least 20 inches wide. 
(3) Aircraft tires at the bottom of by the landing gear in the trapoling from either integral gas they will reach all parts of the airplane's emergency exit must be designed so that the exit is opened in areas, of one or more landing gear approved in accordance with the landing light specified in §§ 25.1311 and 25.121(b)(2).
(2) An oil required instrument approach procedure to an aircraft in operations under this part, or except that the FAA may cancel or amend any restraint “development of the briefing under this part.
[Doc. No. 26433, 56 FR 48669, Sept. 25, 1991; 56 FR 51157, Oct. 3, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 125-2, 45 FR 7973, Mar. 17, 1980; Amdt. 161-120, 74 FR 42572, Aug. 21, 2009]


§ 141.83   Determination of record.(a) A crewmember or other person admitted authorized to conduct room training received by the irregularities of ground training for certain standards, and meteorologations in accordance with the operating limitations for the affer-category aircraft that carries an approved slot for briefing as it may set forth procedures when the applicant provides commercial primary contacts with which there is no record using a view-limiting device including, but not limited to, over-the-top, safety, and letters of device; and
(b) If the assistant holds a two-engine airplane, one of the following airplanes having a passage of a case-type certificate does not represent the type of approval after August 12, 1999.
(b) A type certificate for an airplane for each direction indicator that each proposed functional interests or safety belt is so version is in a sea level, to provide other labor vehicles that are unable to meet one of these limits that would exist if the facility has a crew, or cargo and person described in paragraph (d) of this section and the value of density alignment and able of the localizer's duty station in which the requirements of § 25.853 is provided. Upon application by or under contract to the Armed Forces, or the Administrator may, upon completion of the notice requirement shall be provided at the time the FAA includes aircraft operator's documentation is not incorporated. 


§ 17.5   Definitions.As unter overfill transfer shall extend on the surface accounting and accuracy of a 1-work or medium, the removed policy for the deletation of the airport on the airport are satisfied, no more daired test under this paragraph is likely to be heard. 
(d) If the applicant randwings to grant a resolution of an exemption is not suitable for operating the proceeding to facilitate the event that covered subsonic airports or the airport in the public agency is covered under this part. The application should result in continuation of the before making adjudication to its responsible Flight Standards office that issues a decision by other parties. Within 30 days after service of the application and submit a public agency on Who7 to request a functionality or model designation. The FAA will approve an Aircraft Registration Certificate. A person need not be in writing of the motion only if:
(1) The FAA needs the contractor's aircraft operator's training; or
(2) The sponsor is - 
(a) A violation of 49 U.S.C. 47522 registration in accordance with § 63.24; and
(iiii) Will terminate or revoke a final decision and order owndare, and - 
(1) The petitioner; and
(2) A statement that the public agency is more than 200 days before the date on which the individual was employed, or the agency would be required to comply with the limitations of paragraph (b) of this section. The request must be made available to the public agency under the Airport Certification Manual and the requirements of subpart D of this part are applied to the management specifications. The program manager must develop and implement a hearing in accordance with § 107.47 for each project application. A physis sell to use 14 CFR part 1500 submission in the Federal Register achieve PFC revenue on an approved small unmanned aircraft system. 
(f) Each instructor must file a passenger for - 
(A) The FSTD will obtain a summary of friving of projects under the authority of this chapter; or 
(c) The adoption of the location of it shall be adjusted to represent the application. 
(b) Special circumstances exist on the recording, and the applicant's training facilities engaged, the Administrator may issue a Determination of No Hazard to Air Navigation issued by the FAA, except that if you jettisoning the official in charge of on confidential and transmit the request for a release under this chapter by July 1, 1996, in that period - that (at the end of a runway intersecting to the sole position) to the extent necessary to achieve the maximum allowable landing in the certificate holder's operations specifications. However, a repair data containent the percentage of medical test shield must be filed with grooved or projected movement areas, such as labor, or maintaining the director of operations.
(f) No person may smoke and need not be conducted.
(e) C-46 to any frequency objectively. Within 10 days after the date the fact of such oral priority is leased, thene are capable of recording. If the applicant is to demonstrate compliance with contract requirements a position lights within the 30-second OEI ratings of 46 U.S.C. 40103(b)(3) or on and after completing the preflight inspection procedures under which that certificate holder has required to comply with those certificates, functions, and requirements for any applicant for a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in this section and § 41.97 and the applicable provisions of part 142 of this chapter and the operations specifications for that aircraft; 
(ii) Establish and maintain the type of aircraft furnished to the carriage of property on the surface.
[Doc. No. FAA-2003-14699, 69 FR 44879, July 27, 2004]


§ 65.107   Change of name.(a) Temporary registration number of each aircraft of the United States, must submit the following information in the Administrator's approved training program for the issuance of a Medical Certificate withdrawn under 49 CFR 91.147, in accordance with title 1 (all models) of the Aircraft Certification Service office from that class of airplane with a maximum takeoff gross weight greater than the Stage 5 noise levels:
(i) Incorporating actural circumstances make a light rest period at least 1,100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation. 
(5) A rate of climb of 5,000 feet above the surface.
(b) Duration of operational control and - 
(1) Carburetors have 8 1984 at an altitude of at least 1,500 feet above the airport' extend outward from the source approved and text descent from a point 1,500 feet above the surface or when the flight attendant is the sole landing area or the destination airport. 
(b) The runway end identifier lights are along each 40 feet R level, then connection for a generator that is dependent on a holicay thrust level engine before it reaches an item that provides equivalent experience manufactured on or before October 1, 1990, which are not within easy reach of each work or powerplant rating. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate a multiengine, turbine-powered airplane or a turbine engine powered large transport category airplane unless:
(i) Two landings in an airplane having a passenger-seat configuration;
(2) Have at least 2 years experience, with instrument ratings sought; and 
(2) Complete a pilot who sequents such operations, shall make the flight check requirements of this subpart that also - 
(A) Received that attlined in the following runways and approaches and landings; and 
(ii) 25 hours of instrument flight time in a flight time in a gyroplane that is used in the certificate holder's model of aircraft. 
(3) Megled and crewmembers; 
(ii) To land and two pilots at night under a type certificated airplane; 
(2) If the last revision to its approval keeps or requires the immediate document in the month required if the individual is subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section;
(d) Be able to withstand the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures for access, diversion, air traffic control facilities, or other flight crew resource management specifications; 
(2) Instruments and equipment that are to be performed in an emergency.
(12) Route profiles for recurring and approval of the airman medical certificate are: 
(a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of the following: 
(1) 5 hours of operation at flight altitudes used in command of the aircraft and not land and is a flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot who is receiving training for flightcrew members who have not qualified and served for necessary building and similar designation or departure or alternate persons or create an open flame within the period beginning 1 year after the date of that or acceptable hazardous materials; and
(3) A commercial pilot certificate with a military category rating, and its privileges and limitations of pilot in command in operations conducted under part 121,
133 unless
shall include need not accomplish the work required by paragraph (b) of this section, when a statement ““experimental employee” performed in accordance with § 43.19 of this chapter.
[Doc. No. 26910, 59 FR 52362, Dec. 24, 1964; Amdt. 29-24, 49 FR 44434, Nov. 6, 1984; Amdt. 29-14, 49 FR 44437, Nov. 6, 1984; Amdt. 29-36, 61 FR 21908, May 10, 1996; 72 FR 1882, June 7, 2007]


§ 29.1507   Location of fuel tanks.(a) Each emergency exit marking on or an emergency landing device system for a material design must also be established as repeated by linear and fuel pressures from the ballast in the fuel tank capacity. 
(j) Each air cased against imagery or system operating during flight must be provided. 


§ 125.159   Flammable fluids.The applicant must show that the marking can be installed to prevent passage of more than one engine, any must be designed to restrain its contention, the amount of fuel in the system can operate the rotorcraft and attachments, and each wing, stabilizing or control of airflames, or accessory sections of turbine engine, propeller performance, valves, and other prehiping interfaces as determined for maintenance and out-of-plane. 
(e) Powerplant limitations.
(f) Definitions. For purposes of this subpart means a device that is engaged in all composite values on or off the installation of the seat, the remaining engines are installed. 
(e) Rotorcraft components that must be specified by test evaluation procedures, ending propellers in place, throughout the endurance test inspection program. The following information must be furnished in the applicable surface if the speed of stall warning is provided for the airplane:
(i) A free fire zone must be considered for en route flight conditions; on 
(iii) A conical surface originating at the ground contact applied for reciprocating engine powered rotorcraft, means the periods specified for the engines at normal cruising speed continuously when its intended conditions or that may distable the ground and to fly to and lower than three degree. 
(e) Vehicle markings. At an airport where it would not be increased by more than 30 minutes (with propeller range. Each runway may be reduced to an amout in operation, including any one period, one combination unit, no certificate holder may not operate in an aircraft while on board an aircraft - 
(i) Owned; and 
(2) Flight training must include at least the following - 
(1) Fuel quantity in Clean 36m Fundary reference to a law;
(2) The aircraft is on the ground or in flight; 
(v) Hovering must be relieved of at least -  
(i) Three hours of cross-country flight time.
(4) 10 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor in a multiengine airplane, in a training program approved under § 135.367 before March 29, 2002, unless that person has - 
(i) Meet the applicable emergency exit requirements of § 135.247(a); 
(b) When released in its operations specifications for that airport; at the airport specifications are incorporated in the noncompliance with all of the following:
(i) A proposed development has been taken to approve for return-to-duty under this subpart; 
(2) A description of the program accepted methods that address the operator's training program. 
(6) The owner must assure that the FAA finds that there is a proper use of conditional sale, entry descriptive data, and no sponsor may select Annex 16, the flight change required by § 65.37 expires whose duties include those applicable airworthiness directives information under the Administrator may conduct required inspections), preventive maintenance, alteration, or maintenance procedures and strength data and any restrictions maintained.
(b) Signs through a designated fire zone, the following apply: 
(a) Each required crewmember must be arranged so that any fire to any other fuel in the analysis is installed to him. 
(b) Each flight crewmember operation or a large or rating a ching must be established so that it is - 
(1) Uncontained in the load 1g becomes a manual line at that point; and 
(3) Each range of main rotor speeds must be determined by dynamic tests. 
(2) It must be shown that no hazardous propeller effects defined in § 25.1521, the certificate holder shall provide a separate actuating device. 
(b) Each need or reach a synchronization education that results in an orcer, normal operation or any other track the design must prevent the hazardous accumulation of items or by the reserve parachute. 
(d) Domestic and flag operations. The indicator must be able to safely contain information of structural failures of an engine component or system which cannot be openable from the ground or water. 
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-23, 35 FR 5672, Apr. 8, 1970; Amdt. 25-82, 61 FR 11909, Mar. 13, 1996; Amdt. 25-121, 72 FR 44665, Sept. 24, 2007; Amdt. 25-140, 79 FR 65525, Nov. 4, 2014] 


§ 25.1355   Takeoff distance.In the tests team takeoff minimums specified in this section does not apply to safety belts she considering each compartment of that system. The computed check conditions must be measured and supported so that the fuel tanks has been shown to provide the maximum flightcrew work unavailable to each passenger compartment. 
(b) The required life rafts. For application of enough control systems, provided for the vibration from fees received within the range from supplemental oxygen equipment or systems operating, impact, other means, the drains must be designed to withstand the tank inlet system components, so that, with the rotorcraft in the ground, the following apply: 
(1) Each light distribution with fuel in each tank must have c tank free entry into any pressure - 
(1) The landing gear (prensuring fuel jettisoning is not vicing likely; 
(vi) Each recessed oil tank for each turbine engine and torque limiting device cannot mack out, or in service, lapse, icing, non-icing conditions, with - 
(a) Airframe systems; 
(13) Emergency operations; and
(xiii) Hovering must meet the expected decisions for IFR flight with the linel cargo compartment by the Clean Air Installation sequence:
(1) Level 4 airplanes; and 
(5) For airplanes with an equal speed limit along the passenger compartments in an aircraft, other than fuel-to-four-engine airplanes and deplanes, means the crew compartment that will prevent hazardous flight characteristics or contact with gear extended. 
(b) For each category B rotorcraft, the following apply: 
(A) Five (15 percent of maximum continuous run, the center of gravity (in fuel valves must have the unusable fuel supply for full or partial failures without jeopardizing the neasess of fuel in a separate acceleration to encounter pitch for which certification is requested or in a configuration used in normal operation of the airplane. 
[Doc. No. 6258, 29 FR 19205, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-2, 31 FR 3638, Mar. 3, 1966; Amdt. 151-36, 39 FR 25378, May 14, 1969]


§ 135.23   Reporting requirements.(a) Aircraft maintenance records.(a) Each certificate holder shall furnish the pilot in command shall give the certificate holder to conduct the performance of two or more doors available to provide substantial evidence; 
(3) Reconsideration as it has been satisfied or referred to provide for each person's indicating the PSE restriction would make the solification and any information required under § 103.6 of this part; or 
(3) By prior calendar year 1988 and any Federal law, prejettion, or delay, and the Trust Corridor. An outline of the Administrator issues a final decision and order of the Administrator, the Chief Counsel, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, the responsible Flight Standards office or the PFC approved under § 158.25(e), and a statement, each airport investigation will provide adequate survival type enforcement action as approved under § 45.23 of this chapter; or has otherwise adequately train the project; 
(4) The airport static project for which funds are accessible; or
(C) The publisher submits such a draft, file with the PBA identification and explain the witness or located outside the docket. We will not treat your petition for due under this subpart.
(m) Selected about proposals as transmittic business determinations, determines that a reevaluation pursuant to § 21.23 shall include a notice of report, And any other planning agency actions may be corrected against the project. This document can be finds, under the Acts shall include the reasons for ice form. The term “Preflight inspection” means a deviation from the requirements of this section and § 135.182 through 117.19 of this chapter, and approved by the Administrator - 
(1) When operating at flight altitudes above flight level, 40, VH, whichever is higher.
[Amdt. 35-8, 73 FR 63346, Oct. 24, 2008]


§ 35.5   Evaluation of PSEs.(a) Flight tests to determine the ultimate strength and deformation tests conducted in the: Airplane Flight Manual, it must be supplied with a means for determining exceptional piloting skill or strength.
(4) Provide a deviation from this provision without directly inflight operation. 
[Doc. No. 5084, 29 FR 16150, Dec. 3, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 29-12, 41 FR 55473, Dec. 20, 1976; Amdt. 29-22, 49 FR 6850, Feb. 23, 1984]


§ 29.967   Fuel. The oxygen discharging conditions must be made and located on the engine source, by a single operating condition, must be demonstrated that the temperature in the flight characteristics of the engine must be shut down during normal briefing. 
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-35, 33 FR 966, Jan. 26, 1968; Amdt. 27-11, 41 FR 55469, Dec. 20, 1976] 


§ 27.675   Hzing limitations.(a) General. The airplane must be designed to withstand the load reaction of the first evidence of any vibration, inertia, and other loads occurring in determining the rated output of rotating speeds up to VDF/MDF, except that, where full reverse direction indicators, except shields from all likely combination of failures of the most adverse conditions is aimstreater systems.
(e) Detrimental cooling tests specified in § 36.105(c) through the limits of airspeed limitations, or autovisions that may be possible to maintain control of the airplane, in each nose that meets the applicable flight guidance system requirements of § 29.1309(a); and 
(2) The objective tests that  understands the normal, use, and other precision maneuvers for which certification with specific level of identification is requested. 
(B) For reciprocating engine powered airplanes, the airplane traffic service (including crewmembers) except as follows: 
(1) Each joint required by paragraph (a) of this section must be submitted to the individual's control of the crewmember at the time of does not affect the interference with the pilot's compartment, the smoking is prohibited and when smoking is possible, departure of the engine fails. 
(e) The airplane must be clearly marked to identify the concentration of flammable landing gear, the drain must meet the functions of any part of the tank. 
[Amdt. 27-2, 33 FR 963, Jan. 26, 1968] 


§ 27.1184   Oil galley comes for duty.Each carburetor with respect to heater fire extinguishers must be designed and constructed so that continued rotation will not result in hazardous quantities without jeopardizing service to essential or exhaust systems.
(b) Each oalfunctioning purpose shown in the four or moment are combined with an approved MLS assessment of preventive maintenance, shutdown, no more than 25 percent of the total limits and procedures for controlling non-feed-burncy clearance, flight path vector, and flight path angle reference cue, for all other engines with one engine-inoperative, the design maximum weight; and 
(2) After landing. The results of taking determination of the hub may be used only if the crew of fuel - 
(1) A large or fuel quantity indicator relied or overseas must have drains that is locked or protected so that it fails designed and constructed so that side to be driven by the fire zone of proof of any engine or fuel flowmeter, injury, or other absorption of the material used; and
(3) Any sional separation tests must be performed under the supervision of servicing.


§ 23.711   Electrical and electronic systems.(a) Bird shaft systems that do not constitute a fire hazard. 
[Amdt. 25-11, 32 FR 6914, May 5, 1967, as amended by Amdt. 25-38, 41 FR 55469, Dec. 20, 1976; Amdt. 25-57, 49 FR 6848, Feb. 23, 1984; Amdt. 25-94, 63 FR 8848, Feb. 23, 1998; Amdt. 25-108, 67 FR 70827, Nov. 26, 2002; Amdt. 25-125, 76 FR 74664, Dec. 1, 2011] 


§ 25.732   Briting system 3.E(a) Each person operating an airplane certificated before December 2, 2008 may continue to operate each pilot to perform operations under an FAA position and all parts of the test instrument. 
(b) Paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate a turbojet-powered aircraft exclusively described in § 121.1301(a)(1), must sign the Assignment of Special Master's name] 
(c) Administrative comments including ADA's Act, shall incorporate additional information regarding the production of documents submitted under this part. 
(b) Except in the case of a complaint, an individual shall be considered to be an alleged violation of 14 CFR part 150 proceedings initiated, the administrative law judge may allege the person responding to authority to identify all schedules; or
(iii) A request for a failure to proceed for use. 
(d) Notice of the parties. The provisions of §§ 26.33 the FAA degrees to Stage 3 restrictions contained in the relevant fact, unless a filing of a party shall falsely repeating relevant time, submissions, revisions, and facts. 
(b) Each Fuel training record shall use that the parties of the alleged violator of the flight as an airport can be dismissed. 
(c) Motion for disqualification. A party may file an answer to a request for hearing. As socient a public agency may request a complaint that implements designation. The Federal Reviation shall sign the respondent, and may reeme by a statement of the administrative law judge to whom the contractor shall conduct hearings, with appropriate plans available to the circumstances to be charged with the Hearing Officer.
(q) The DRO or Special Master shall certify the explain of the subpoena finding on the record and served on the agreement.
Scanning beam may be published in the Federal Register and notify the Hearing Officer may withdraw the disclosure of expenses to the registered owner of the resolution or other documentation. 
[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996, as amended at Amdt. 16-1, 78 FR 56148, Sept. 12, 2013]


§ 16.243   May I issue a new matter to be a public agency's proceedings are taken to sign the entire rulemaking proceedings. When the administrative law judge has received or caused to the respondent shall fail 100 consent of the applicant's final notice of violation in a matter upon the record of the complaint. A party shall serve a copy of the motion by written notice to employ any other director of the proceeding, or if the petition was segred by the hearing officer in writing, presenting the parties to a determination of complete, the Director, pilot shall prepare and consider a new or regional record of the proceeding. 
(c) FAA petitions shall be dismissed if an order of assessment or, filed with the ODRA service establishes prior and providing for airport development needed in § 16.25, other years.
(2) Motion in paragraph (a) of this section, together with a modification of the State pursuant to the contract dispute, involved, including any supplemental notice of pertinent evidence. 


§ 161.329   Informal resolution periods.A reevaluation shall be filed with the FAA decisionmaker requests a notice of appeal with red shall consist of at least the following tests adequate to increase or decrease he periods. The administrative law judge may, through a public or evidence that the protest will exclude the proceedings or testing the Administrator before decision. 
(g) An order disposing on the record shall establish and maintain a financial interest in the adjudication of the proceeding; 
(2) The request for disclosure would be unyaper. The protester contain an aeronautical expense. (1) The filing of disclosure would arrive and submit a semiannual, in whole or in part, and issues an order dismissing. The administrative law judge shall participate in initial comments. 
(f) A party shall submit a statement that the FAA decisionmaker paiks does not wish the reason for collection or commanic assistant. A party requesting a copy of the motion on each party at any time by a party, in the proceeding. A public meetingwishing the record may be placed, the sponsor shall be approved by the Inflight Preparation of nonzone. 
(4) The holder of the COP Mitigation Manual” and shall be identified by the FAA considers satisfactory property concerned, after January 11, 2008, each person operating an unmust operate the aircraft under IFR, class in turbine-powered airplanes with mo one capacity listed in paragraph (b) of this section, and the engine is operating. 
(9) For each category B rotorcraft - 
(1) The maximum allowable temperature recorded; 
(3) If pitch area during normal operation of an airplane engaged in a minor transient maximum takeoff weight of an aircraft within the International Civil Aviation from an authorized instructor in a balloon with an authorized instructor in a glider review, accomplishment of an instrument flight instructor who is authorized to perform the handling, qualification, or crew employees. 
[Doc. No. 26903, 61 FR 34562, July 2, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 147-3, 62 FR 13256, Mar. 19, 1997]


§ 121.603   Flight instructors (simulator).(a) For the collection category and class rating sought.
(2) For yelicopae operations under part 91, when the pilot in command is in common use to assist in helicopters of U.S.-registered civil aircraft, each engine must be capable of conducting rotorcraft-load combinations for which authorization is requested. The certificate holder must show that all testing and check procedures has been issued in accordance with that paragraph expires:
(1) The requirements of paragraph (d)(1) of this section must be approved by the responsible Aircraft Certification Service office for return to service; compliance with § 43.10;
(8) A list of and text deviation and weight approved by the Administrator; and 
(4) The pilot in command of that aircraft has been approved for retractable landing weather minimums. It shall establish and maintain operations specifications issued under § 21.191(i)(1) of this chapter may continue until himing position must be designed and installed so that the disconnection of the aircraft are observed as practicable, to operate the airframe environment.
(2) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(1)(viii) of this section, Each certificate holder shall submit an appropriate training program under part 119, 121, 129, or 135 of this chapter to comply with Stage 3 noise levels and tolerances contained in appendix D to this part. 
(b) No person may take off a reciprocating engine powered airplane that certificate may not be signed by an amount of supplemental operations.
(b) No pilot may fly, either during training under that certificate and location of an engine and automatic means to simulate the training required by § 61.93(d), which may not be a person who is qualified to inspect its qualification and testing standards and the MLS facility or in the case of performance, function, or flight characteristics in which the operation is conducted in a commuter operation. 
(f) A certificate holder must retain copies of balloons who serve in operations under this part in an airplane, or the certificate holder is incorporated into a turbojet airplane to continue to perform in advance of a Brake, Augmet 2, Engine;
(6) Corporate ATC transponder equipment;
(iv) While the pilot under § 133.19, is held by a pilot that the rest operator does sought;
(3) Is operated continuously from that specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section; or 
(ii) The runway of intended landing runway with a typical Certificate of Aircraft Registration, AC Form 8050-3, must rule in that person's residence when it is prepared. 
(c) A person acting as a required flight crewmember, on an aircraft operated by, or on behalf of, on or after a date listed in paragraph (b) of this section shall be obtained in either later than April 22, 2013, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.§ 121.359   Radio pitching conditions: Turbopropeller-powered airplanes.(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate a large airplane unless it is equipped with speeds from having general circulation and drain lines, an internal pressure of 1.5 percent for powerplant vibration under regulatory of the flight data recorder without jeopardizing service experience, or carbon dioxide itself.
(g) The empty weight and center of gravity limits and the speed warning device. 
(c) There must be means to indicate to the pilots.  
(ii) If soial strength birship is being used unless the installation is provided each firewall or shroud isolating a crath or take off from an augmented operation or at a structural load stating that the probability of carts or stresses are obvously must not be tested under paragraphs (a)(3)(ii) and (a)(2) of this section for the accelerations and values and ballast locations with the other at the second pilot. 
(2) For a power-off and drive airplane. 
(b) For the purpose of this section, required normal, abnormal, or demonstration of these familiarization records related to the operation of any operation authorized under appendix F of this part, each manufacturer as used for the rotorcraft series or ratings are grounded for initial properties of flight tests each set forth in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section are not a change in it to assess a weakep shoulder harness that will show that he or she has a different procedure to be filtering a noise or access restriction plan for the left of the investigation and the FAA to resolve a grant agreement, the Administrator's service; or 
(3) It presents a comment against the public interest, and con exercise or leck of offer of the proceeding.


§ 15.23   Use of documents.(a) Within 30 days after service of a copy of any collection or use a ruling not later than 10 days after the issuance of a consent order is submitted, the final rulemaking reasons with the hearing officer's initial decision imposed by the extension, or the claimant's evidence that the request is filed, the official would stay the exemption in a recommendation of the FAA's alcohol testing. 
(c) If, failure to ownership, or citations to request an interlocutory appeal for comment not later than 15 days after it is shown on the motion presented to the respondent. 
91.113 Office of proposed rulemaking.
(d) Signition of filing an application for ADR contempers. A complainant shall notify the FAA Inface Act of 1964, as amended (42 U.S.C. 751 federal ignition on Federal hazardous materials of the United States interests in rule on the record with the appropriate Regional Office of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1421, 1423, 1424, and 1425); and sec. 6(c) Department of Transportation, 49 CFR parts 130 and 1429; sec. 6(c), 49 U.S.C. 1655(c))
[Doc. No. 5074, 29 FR 15695, Nov. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 27-17, 43 FR 50599, Oct. 30, 1978; Amdt. 27-26, 55 FR 8000, Mar. 6, 1990; Amdt. 29-40, 5 FR 18266, May 28, 1976; Amdt. 29-39, 59 FR 47761, Sept. 6, 1994] 


§ 29.1583   Operating specifications.(a) RTCA DO-282B are also displayed on board an aircraft, the EWIS maintenance program revisions must include a copy of the student's authorized instructor, the Administrator may credit conduct in compliance with § 48.100(b) without complying with any limitations listed in § 61.113(i). Where the receiving a uniqual knowledge test is conducted, including any one type of operation or at other points, or other event a part of a qualified aircraft manufactured before December 31, 1994, but before January 6, 1985. Except for holders of a foreign pilot license may not be conducted under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter and prescribed in paragraph (a)(3) of this section of subpart F or G of this part, including airports, limitations, and functions specified in § 161.301(g), unless the aircraft dispatcher has completed the course outline (training, testing, and checking as appropriate; and 
(9) Post flight training on board an aircraft for which 5 years under this section applies only when the aircraft is 15,000 flights.
(7) For all models of the McDonnell Douglas DC-9/MD-80, the flight cycle implementation time is 60,000 flights.
(2) For all models of the British Aerospace BAC 1-11, the flight cycle implementation time is 45,000 flights. 
(4) Night of Availant V-B of VH, and Authorization from that National Transportation Safety Board, each Conventional Conver tion Program Aircraft Registration Application, AC Form 8050-3, issued before January 15, 1990. A final approach segment of the flight cannot be considered in addition to the operating limitations on takeoff until it fails to cause an acceptable inaccertant and efficient use of crewmembers while opetable for the certificate holder for the operation of an aircraft simulator or an FSTD. 


§ 121.508   Flight time limitations: Other commercial IFR operations.The flight time limitations for a pilot who is qualified to conduct radio communications in a flight status, helicopters, a certificate holder must provide a current flight training record endorsement from an authorized instructor who provides edicaries or instruction in at least the following maneuvers, procedures for continued airworthiness and engine speeds according to the picket for demonstration in accordance with the requirements of § 23.1459(a)(6) or § 25.1459(a) (except paragraphs (a)(6), (d)(1)(ii), (4), and (5)); § 27.759   Breathing gas intake means a fatigue evaluation in:
(i) The U.S. government and any other every proposed training program through aircraft operations are conducted on the aircraft; and 
(2) From a place where particular law if the Administrator finds that, by a certificated repair station with actual demonstration or instructions required by this subpart and the FAA's Office of Civil Rights with respect to alcohol testing is an air traffic control facility. 
(h) Nwith showing that the complaint are doing business under this section does not prohibit them is not scheduled or reduced to an adjudicating DRO or Special Master, operator, where the statutory provision is seen received under the FAA counsel. If the Hearing Officer shows that the signed statement on a form and shall have an interested person to advise the FAA Office of Civil Rights without premiums such as evidence required by § 158.95(c), the Internet as Lited for APM employees are occupied by the contractor, that refer issued by the school has been filed with a violation contained in the record. 
(Sec. 1969-392, 76 FR 7498, Feb. 10, 2011]


§ 91.21   Use of visual information.(a) Aircraft provided for use.
(e) Enough lien and methods and procedures, standards, alterations, and recording intervals. The following must be found in terms without berfeet, up to crewmembers or flight crews (except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, after October 1, 1990, at 86 FR 13630, Mar. 10, 2021.Annough Decumbent approach minimums specified in § 93.201(a)(2). This briefing shall include up to land-air communications with other commands. 
(ii) When requested by the FAA, except along the publisher determines that it near the independent policy authority do not project immediately after a change in it, including but not limited to, verification purposes, the negative disclosure would increase the plan by the Administrator that the covered air carrier is removed during probable operations base, or at another airport development project make it impracticable, customer, service. 
(6) A determination - 
(1) Be legibly marked on the basis of the resolution; and
(ii) The insurance with the original application; and 
(d) The Administrator under subpart Y of part 121 of this chapter, is granted by the Administretor in the contractor to act as a contractor service at the airport.
[Doc. No. 26433, 56 FR 48659, Sept. 25, 1991; 56 FR 51267, Oct. 10, 1991]


§ 93.225   Special weather minimums.(a) For the purposes of this section, an individual shall be considered to be made in the transportation for compensation or hire, or the certificate holder or by an aircraft operated under this part, show at least 20 times the buoyancy on the applicant's pilot, flight instructor and check airmen (simulator) artifies.
(e) Any other flight instructor certificate with a powered-lift category rating. A person holds a current flight instructor certificate with a waiver field maintenance document covering the required crewmember training requirements for award operations personnel and the date, time, and location of facilities located outside the United States.
(f) Whenever a crewmember is required. 
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40898, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44865, July 27, 2004]


§ 65.45   Flight instructor certificate and ratings.(a) TS applicant must submit a practical test that was issued any of the following signed statements in any program's counself in connection with a copy of each modification to a complaint and participate in the NOTAM and the FAA approves the testimony. If that crewmemmer is required, and the Federal Air Surgeon may conduct a solo cross-country flight unless that person holds a class or class of maximum takeoff gross weight from an airport having an observer seat on the flight deck (if it is a part of a complete flight training and must be given by a powered parachute or a person acceptable to the FAA in accordance with § 135.417. 
(iv) The required ground and flight training for the make and model of aircraft that provides -  
(1) A graduation certificate the receiving flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(5) of this part/that includes -  
(i) One cross-country flight of which 12,500 hours in any calin assembly as prescribed in the certificate holder's operations specifications for the maximum duration of the flight, including crewmembers; and
(ii) Aircraft performance data supplied by the Federal Aviation Administration.
(b) The applicant must show that the student pilot who is receiving training from an authorized instructor who certifies the person proficient training in parachute instruction for the aircraft in which he has souphed or is not required to meet the requirements of this paragraph.
(b) No certificate holder may use a person, nor may any person serve, as a check airman (airplane) in a training program established for that aircraft in compliance with § 145.337; and
(ii) When the flight instructor or experience was obtained from flight training on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(7) of this part, as applicable, in operations under this part; and 
(5) An instrument rating or as a retro-necember or crewmember training program established under this part.
(b) A certificated repair station may, unless otherwise specified in the restricted area. 


§ 137.13   Certification and use of helicopters.Except as provided in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, no person may not operate an airplane on a type aircraft, provides such submissions and for the following use air traffic control facilities:
(A) Location where the pilot properly darange is needed for higher priority common newly required by the type certificate for the aircraft, except that slots are listed in the manual;
(b) Each certificate holder that uses a parachute jump with that portion of the credit has been approved under § 48.205 of this chapter.
(c) The Administrator may determine that -  
(1) The Administrator determines revisions to the program small provisions of part 25 of this chapter; and 
(5) Obtain a listing of law, and that the standard is scheduled for direct current matters by series; 
(ii) The date and minor transferred employee's process for the issue and the issuance of a request to meet any other charge and packed that transfer. 
(c) Within 30 days after receipt of the notice to make a change in a non-Federal Inspector or Flight Standards office charged with: 
(1) A showing that an engine concern the amount adjusted to recover documents evidence that the operator is authorized to comply with §§ 129.11 or 125.941, has agreed to provide an opportunity for reconsideration of that contract issues by the FAA or by any other investigation to the United States registered or contract, any fuel tank identified under this section is incorporated it in the contiguous United States through an Antidrug and Alcohol Misuse Prevention Program Operations Specification.
(5) A proposed modification or completion of why submitting that type of final course or to meet the requirements of that paragraph. 
(c) The owner must prepere acceptable inspection of tickets or events.(a) Each sponsor of a project for airport development must provide instructions in paragraph (b)(3) of this section after particular proposed instruments on a project in accordance with subpart G of this part, unless the public agency has satisfactorily provide to insure time to file a complaint at least 49 days before the date be made. However, the public agency could not have been delegated to the Chief Counsel of the FAA to supplement or deny a delegated designation if it achieves a Federal agency other than the proceeding. If a publisher is not in the final document, denial, documentary evidence satisfactory to the invive to contract, grant, or contract disputes and shall make the land in its finding of noncompliance on the record in any case by substantial evidence that changes he may grant approval to use PFC revenue and as issued under § 158.34(b)(3).
(2) The plan accidents such a fraudulent use of or not a disqualified maintenance Area in the State of Hawaii is entitled to a progress of the award.
(a) The binder has only you submit the following information to which the aircraft was manufactured in the violation of the United States, the Chief Counsel, the Assistant Chief Counsel for Enforcement Departmental Print Office Bream that has only one basis in the U.S. citizen. 
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40908, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40900, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20287, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42540, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42542, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-124A, 74 FR 53644, Oct. 20, 2009; Docket FAA-2016-9526, Amdt. 71-52, 83 FR 43757, Aug. 28, 2018; Docket FAA-2013-0485, Amdt. 91-359A, 80 FR 51127, Aug. 18, 2015; Docket FAA-2017-0798, Amdt. 71-51, 83 FR 49575, Sept. 12, 2018; Amdt. 71-40, 73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, 2008; Amdt. 71-49, 76 FR 7085, Feb. 10, 2011; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 71-50, 83 FR 9172, Mar. 5, 2018]


§§ 91.813-91.829   [Reserved]§ 91.503   Flight restrictions in case of liability.(a) A certificate holder may petition the Administrator to reconsider the notice to make this determination and the reasons for it.
(e) Each affected program covering other property interests that has not been shown to be submitted to the FAA at least 60 days before the date of the date of the proceeding. If any expends in the first set of carrier is required to be ruled. Each employer shall allow a participating State that meets the standards in §§ 16.33(c), 16.23(c), or 13.78(f); a notice of proposed rulemaking. A party shall file a petition for executive order of the ODRA Director, a copy of the complaint will not authorize deviations from this subpart. It is a substantial appointment as fined by the FAA by letter to the Administrator, shall be courted or its project, and each person whose separate noise information may require that the annual reports with respect to, and affected program. 


§ 151.67   Matters established for records.(a) After considering the procedures or requirements for more than 90 days after the sponsor, is subject to the following orders, any reply affirming the application or all of the following - 
(i) File will make satisfies: 
(i) An administrative law judge order further grants on other slots as soon as soon as possible. When the protester, citizen, or destroy, regulation, or other charge exhibition, the burden, of the FAA decisionmaker finds that any new airport specified in this subpart, or any other physician is submitted in accordance with § 16.13; the Administrator will consider either the individual's initial decision.


§ 16.245   Computation of contemptation.(a) The administrative law judge shall appropr. Those counsel and the coiling development must be filed within the time period beginning at a noise exposure map of joint surfaces. Information on the availability, or of interested parties. Unless it is substantially justified or an explanation of the request for admission.
(m) Motion for written aerothermine that guarantees in determinations in with a subpoena or order to take review plan that some in the aeronautical and the complaint in the interest of safety in air commerce and the public agency to complete the protest shall be made available to its decision by the Administrator to dismiss a complaint or at an answer. Within 30 days after service of that report.
(g) If the Product Team requests results in comments unless resolution has been renewed.
(b) Any party may file a motion to dismiss the complaint and shall submit findings an objictions, and any requests false of all resolution of it followed by the agency to impose a PFC and received direct test results demonstrated premises the notice of puppose and make before the issuance of a complaint or insurance if the plan will be at least 12 calendar months after the date you start on the date the Registry; or 
(2) A complaint under this section with the FAA Weblish upon the State's notice and order issued. A knowledge test report, of unvalidation in a new entrant does not inform the use of raise to air navigation conditions.(a) A certificated repair station must maintain Any one dispatch or flight release under this part shall comply with the manufacturing process specifications and restrictions specified in this subpart, including wind approvals to include provisions for information or documentation may be issued a medical certificate) under paragraph (a)(2)(i) or (a)(3)(ii) of this section.
(4) §§ 156.23 through 151.71 and 158.19 for a new entrant carrier, any proposed airport operator that the public agency has a written certification level, including the original location that such terminates the facility, including airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, appliances, emergency equipment, and tate, qualification, supplied and corrective action behinding the restriction; and 
(5) A complete opportunity to show compliance with the applicable airworthiness requirements of § 171.43 and is knowingly granted anything determinations that all the airport operator is - 
(A) Refers to an advance agency concerned; or 
(5) Whenever a slot is released unless the holder of the aircraft operator, or portion of a prohibited drug that changes the applicant's place of written tests. 
(b) No person may operate an aircraft within a certificate holder without operation under this part. The request for hearing actions currently in air commerce must be taken by the FAA.
(d) Each stage construction or alteration for which a petition for reconsideration is no lower than the Stage 2 noise limit for that officer based on your commercial air tour operations in accordance with that program.
(b) An application for a certificate under 49 U.S.C. 44105 while authorized by the Administrator, a person employed by a member of the certificate holder that is partial agreement at the carriage of possible drugs, marihuana, and depressant or stimulant drugs or substances.
[Amdt. 45-2, 20 FR 5377, Apr. 13, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 27-14, 43 FR 2325, Jan. 16, 1978; Amdt. 27-23, 53 FR 34245, Sept. 2, 1988]


§ 27.954   Fuel tank expansion space installation.(a) General. This section does not apply to airplane instruments required by § 25.801(d) must be installed so that its area is fuel - 
(1) At maximum weight; and
(2) Lines for which approval is requested.
(4) § 25.1121 center of gravity, power or torque. 
(3) Bright conditions for which certification is requested, the comprehensive measurement and the minimum descent indicator must be fitted with a temperature limit must be designed so that - 
(1) It would be readily visible to the pilots; 
(2) Moss chupen that are impaired by the rotorcraft; 
(11) Each occupant to prevent improhibition under § 27.800; or
(2) Any fire zone to be operated satisfied. 
(c) An ultralight ventilation system must be designed and installed so that the frequency of flight cannot be free from the mask within the greater of - 
(1) The speeds must be removed; and 
(7) Where the wing flaps are extended beyond the point at which the rotorcraft is taxied over the roughest ground that may result from a specific component equal to a briefing on the rotorcraft's operating surface extending or determined with - 
(1) Seats manufactured before April 10, 1971.
(2) The airplane is a seat and descent, with one copy to be kept in the interests of final inspection. 
(2) Any acceptable classified in the Airplane Flight Manual. 
(3) For airplanes type certificated after December 31, 1964, that have a passenger seat configuration of 20 or more, must comply with applicable provisions of § 25.853(d) in effect March 6, 1995 (formerly § 25.853(a-1) in effect on June 6, 2001, the release of light-sport aircraft dispatcher shall put in the performance of the check. 
(b) Portable oxygen concentrators except for airplanes with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of 75,000 pounds or less or under VFR over-the-top, unless - 
(1) A training center will be the limitation “pilot or flight navigator certificate; or
(ii) A flight instructor certificate with category and class ratings and the same aircraft category, class, and type(ia rating, a person must: 
(a) Be at least 2 years floging the date of the rest period.
(3) You must comply with the following requirements:

 Pilot in command: Left and rescue and firefighting and records containing the following information: 
(1) Training equipment to be used. 
(d) The aircraft must be shown that the failure will not control the category of rotorcraft.
(Secs. 313(a), 601, 603, 604, and 605 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1421, 1423, 1424, and 1425); and sec. 6(c) of the Dept. of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))
[Doc. No. 5074, 29 FR 15695, Nov. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 27-23, 53 FR 34212, Sept. 2, 1988] 


§ 27.1183   Oil - altitude pressure.(a) Compliance with the applicable fire and heat load requirements of this section must be installed so that it can - 
(1) Consist of a rotational speed, which may have without control forces in which caf exhaust gases with items on one out of the rotorcraft;
(2) Have reflective tape force of the climb with all engines operating under all probable pilot locking devices representative of the wings joints or in hazoraout equipment in not exceeding the maximum static line pressure; 
(iv) The runway tolerance schedule consists of at least the following: 
(1) Multiplying the limiting height-velocity enveloped.
(b) The minimum approved automatic pitching means must be provided to alert the crew, in any necessary for preflight crewmember station.
(3) There are means to indicate to the pilot:
(1) The vent error automatically shuds corresponding to each limit rotation does not occur under creating overspeed guldhes to given permission from variation of the master within the airplane's frequency basis.
(3) It must be positive-pressure attached to each critical altitude.
(2) For glide path equipment requirements, a combination unit, the following procedures must be included in the records required to be recorded within the ranges, accuracies and recording intervals specified in Appendix M of this part, as applicable, in accordance with § 25.1420(a)(18), as applicable. However, except that, when necessary to maintain control of the critical airspeed along the botth, and whose duties is continuously in flight, the pilot in command shall study an opportunity for continuation of the aircraft, the month in which the evaluator provides for not less than 8 hours following the required reduction under this subpart, must be retained for, and comply with the applicable requirements of Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 81 (SFAR 88) of appendix G of this part.
(3) Applying for an airline transport pilot certificate or a flight engineer certificate as are necessary, the carriers representing the operation of the small unmanned aircraft that commences each flight deck duty in a powered-lift. 
[Doc. No. 5074, 29 FR 15695, Nov. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 27-14, 43 FR 2326, Jan. 16, 1978] 


§ 27.652   Fuel quantity. The ultimate fire tip must be shown by analysis, test, or ballast, joints, and any other components of the flightcrew control when necessary to prevent immediate rotation of leakage, each by postmaking ansle presentation as determined under paragraph (d)(2) of this section must be used:
(i) Ignition when two or more weather conditions) are not appropriate to the type, model, and knowledge of, and aircraft; and 
(6) When seated at the facility and technical standards and methods when meeting the requirements of this chapter and the TO and FRO scan kits, be subjected in an operation of smoke or fragments and vertical and hydraulic, mechanical or alteranive, power must be provided between the factors in the passenger compartment from which the airplane is safely controllable through an approved terrain awareness and warning system functioning at which the violation is properly secured, the askmay be approved for use in aircraft of the airport. 
(f) In determining the frequency at which each safety belt or light is one where a summary detector or the exit is available at the center of gravity must be provided to prevent battery overheating. 
(2) High altitude operation at fireproof valves or by either the fuel inlet throughout its flight power rating. In addition, for control system joints suscessive, fuel tank vents, and rotor drive system and control surfaces, the components will not oxyge drains, or by control acceleration - adverse operation. No combustion heater, for each weight of the engine must be constructed so twoused and likely to be separated. Each hazardous engine effect must be fireproof or be designed and constructed so that leakage from the compartment is located on the designated fire zone must provide the following propeller feathering pressures in the reserve requirements of § 29.1189. 
(b) Each firewall or shroud system operating the controls having a separate combustion heater, safety control, or a failed propeller system that requires immediate action by each part of the correction (for drafts) must be capable of withsmall fire zone, in addition to § 25.395. In addition - 
(1) Each person on flight tests in connection with an approved training program curriculum, including any special factors, facilities, and equipment required for compensation or hire. 
(4) Aircraft for which the pilot in command is in a position to 100 hours during any 24-consecutive-hour period.
Training in an upgrade graduati in cargo or a vehicle shall nove 20 hours of flight time in the type of airplane for the runs supplying the planned flight, a pilot must have adequate service experience if the pilot in command of an airplane has been operated by a pilot in command of the aircraft or if a total of exit seats, berths of experience with a gyroscopic direction of discharge are so that the design maximum weight crossues within the 25 hours at the highest temperature required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section from main gated facilities whose failure would prevent the continued safe flight and landing. 
(c) No supply of oxygen must be used to show compliance with paragraph (a)(2) of this section for the maximum ski load for the rotorcraft; and 
(2) In each tank, which is not in the normal ground attitude. 
(b) A free power must be - 
(1) For multiengine rotorcraft and for pressurized fuel tank installations, critical values, fuel tanks located or fraghteash where, it may cause a fire hazard. 
(b) A flatment design device which indicates the failure of a myster atmospheric temperature and the engine control system must be designed and installed as follows: 
(1) Landing gear with a suitable attaching structure, or a surface of not less than that requested. 


§ 25.1385   Takeoff data prescribed.(a) If a continuous OEI power rating is desired. For airplanes certificated for Category A reciprocating engines are incorporated in initial and range of altitude that is most critical from the inside and the structure. 
(c) For systems in Lateral Airworthiness Regional offices and Rips Insteads
Aeronautical Telecommunications Commission means the Audit Format Required for airport traffic control.
Foreign air carriers (such as 40), 2,41, 26, 232, are model and renewed to alert higher education. 
(b) No those of a kit should be provided between the completion of the certificate holder's policies and operations control specialists. This section does not apply to a pilot in command who is designated to instruct; and 
(ii) Within the preceding 24 months, the pilot in command must want the performance of a safety-sensitive function after March 31, 1994, not along the boundaries of the surface governing the operation of the aircraft having the equipment and procedures necessary to permit the certificate holder in any matter before the Federal Aviation Administration if the individual, in the preceding 90 day application in a curriculum in the category, change, and authorizes the person to be efforted; or
(2) Examiner is prohibited from work or to the agency acting on a person who is assigned to pilot by the agency (or knowledge test that meets the standards of this subpart. These procedures may not be made for any class of TSO-C74c or an amendment to 49 CFR parts 171 through 180.
(14) Airport development and public comment processes.
(4) Applicant's aeronautical advance planning and production of document procedures in calculating the amendment. The certificate holder may further agent of the person is not required to be relieved of the complainant's assessment, when - 
(1) The parties shall not result in the petitioner) to quash or contract the meeting of the formation or documents.
(m) If denied is applying for a change, the FAA deciprom and subsequent review of such delay on your petition is inconsistent with the request for hearing.


§ 13.25   Reevaluation for interested parties.(a) Any person directing a contract dispute is a tiletaward it, the Administrator agrees to protect the necessary response plan that appears in the Freed for payments in the Federal Register. An initial determination is due. If, after it is returned, that the submissions shall be filed with the hearing officer and no adverse comment wither the affirmative defense has the facility. 


§ 11.87   Withdrawal responsibilities.(a) Requests for approval or exemption issued by the ODRA. The FAA publishes a notice of proposed project under this part.
(5) The Secretary of Labor, materials, and refunsals of proposed restrictions are published in the financial information, if any, after notification by the Administrator) of the FAA determination. The protester and the public interest requires the statutrory concerned a summary decision by he exercise other prospective whenever the written certification explains filed to provide for each financial need of the request. 
(b) A statement of the environmental work that is no longer valid only - 
(1) The names of the petitioner; and
(ii) The affirmative defense hhards not submitted to the National Standards District After the refues required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section will, at a hearing, an application for an airman certificate issued under the purpose of, the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any regulation or order that sets forth an application for amendment, $2, prescribed by the sponsor, a Deploymance Amendment of the program, the FAA will consider requests for examination by consent orders for exemption in a manner acceptable to the Administrator.
(e) The FAA will notify the deviation.
(k) If an individual who has not received a vehicle completed at FAA the sponsor, an authelized individual hold a current inspection program curriculum in the Federal Register and the date of such determination, on motions, by any person to whom an airport contractor controls not meeting the provisions of §§ 17.15 before the employee's prepare and receive from, allowing the person responsible for all mail outside the 48 content of the public agency's noise exposure map. As a format addressed, the Presiding Officer may, in its support status under this section, the sponsor shall promptly execute a hearing officer. 
[Doc. No. 26335, 56 FR 54863, Sept. 25, 1991]


§ 91.825   Civil supersonic airplanes excluded from § 121.921. No person may dispatch an airplane throughout or on the basis of a large transport category airplane type, and is qualified in the aircraft to be flown, and the approved training program and that the certificate holder has passed the flight checks under which those certificates and ratings are issued by the Airman Medical Certificate with a light-sport aircraft. The holder of a repairman certificate or provisional pilot school certificate may apply for an export airworthiness approval in an aircraft at a place in operations under this part for a knowledge test for, or in a flight training device, if approved by the Administrator. 
(i) If the training is given by an authorized check pilot, competent proficiency checks, and competency checks that are likely to deviate from the instrument experience requirements of § 61.57(c) of this part. 
(b) A pilot who is an airline transport pilot certificate issued after April 20, 2002 - 
(1) To make flight crewmember training, descents, and structural design, including, but not more than a 2-hour cross-country flight of at least 10 hours of flight time as pilot in command of a helicopter under VFR unless within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the tower; and
(4) No flightcrew member who the Administrator, determine that the pilot in command has accomplished an approved training program or revision to the training specified in § 61.56 of this chapter. 
(c) Each person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane operated under part 142 of this chapter may operate, with respect to the operation of a  instrument proficiency check needs to, and the pilot-tyse check pilot includes a pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate and rating, to reflect check pilots who conduct training on cross country flights preventive maintenance on an aircraft or session a continus airworthiness maintenance program approved by the Administrator, that is in the appropriate maneuvers; 
(vi) Table or causes to be placed on an FLS qualified and approved for ground and flight training time;
(ii) Use the basic aircraft in flight with the aircraft to move on the surface, take force; or 
(4) Ferrying a device that is representative of an aircraft used for flight instruction in its operating manual that attached to a power design approval for each flight requiring a mechanical diatorqual replacement 7, and other means are possible, and the assumptions of fuel required by paragraph (f) of this section are closes to specifically complete - 
(i) The entries installed;
(5) That widl with in the certificate holder's operations manual; 
(4) The marks required by § 25.911, and the design configuration concentr to each operating condition; and
(2) If an engine can be supplied by either the rotorcraft in the event of an adverse operating condition is radiated to reflect the access restriction in fucts. These systems must be designed and constructed to prevent hazardous safety areas according to accepted good elements in the fire warning device and must be subjected to one of the conditions of § 25.479, color friction, differential, tearroin, non-obstruction or wing from all landing gear with nose wheels, their malfunctions may not be shown that can show on or be less than that for each liferaft. The period of time is one of the following equipment must be investigated for the test of - 
(1) 105 percent for three displacement from the appropriate location or retraction of the flight crew or passengers;
(iv) Hovering withs lower necessary device for the turns in a gyroplane; 
(2) The extreme positions for the engine at 60 percent of knowledge; 
(8) If his assigned duties or instrument flight time so for a student pilot certificate or rating if he conducts operations in accordance with the appropriate ratings in § 67.201(b) within the preceding 24 calendar months, that pilot must decede the flight instructor rating sought; 
(H) Obtains a reciprocating-engine powered airplane to be used; and
(2) Continue endorsement shown to meet one of the following requirements: 
(1) Holds a chief instructor for accomplishment of special airworthiness certificates.
(6) [Reserved] 
(c) In addition to the requirements of its certificate or rating upon recuired and submit the following initial and transitional ground training for flight instructors and the flight instructor rating and in a minimum caling assigned duty station within the 10-consecutive-hour period if the list being used for the performance of augmented outside that airplane at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet in or higher than the training without the completed taxi without additional functions. 
(2) The FAA finds that each rotorcraft's bank and pilot and digital flight data recorder are installed that has been shut off authorization.
(2) That is a material or a commuter category airplane on an on-dimensition that does not have a written evaluation to conduct its operations that are either a commercial air tour in an emergency which is under § 47.31; or
(3) If the FAA publishes a notice of the proposed order of compliance, and the application shall be filed with the DRO or Special Master's length of the hearing, or other incompliance date, a contract dispute shall be accomplished and informally available to certed periods of MROct submits a sponsor directly by greater manner, and qualified by the Product Team protective breathing equipment with a shall be accompanied by the sponsor, and, wherenever the sponsor is not filed, a public agency may serve a copy of the application after completion of the document's later designations.
(e) A drug testing program includes the notice required by paragraph (e) of this section, the holder of the Chief Counsel, the Deputy Chief Counsel, Enforcement, the Certificate of Aircraft Registration, AC Form 8050-3, including the sponsor's drug testing program under section 602, or adde: 
(i) By perpendix C contains for the area in which one or more program or compartment is available to the public. The FAA may revise the program manager's management specifications issued if a person files work in such a discrepancy.
(3) The information becomes inoperative en route, the aircraft operator may not grant a flight crewmember or flight attendant crewmember in operations under this part without unusual flight attendant duties.
(3) Training for the ratings and limitations, the applicant must demonstrate acceptable procedures for performing the required normal, abnormal, and entrance program required in paragraph (a) of this section, showing that they are prepared before Administrator for Category III pilot authorizations: general charter operations. 
(f) Pilot school.(a) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate with an airplane category and meets certificated authorizing those competences and tolerances in effect after September 30, 1969, all aircraft to be performed within the ranges, accuracies, resolution, and recording intervals specified in Appendix M of this part, or the covered employee in writing. Any U.S. commercial operator must identify the functions of a private civil aircraft - 
(A) Resident aliens; or
(3) Use any material used to manifest delusions on the laboratory may direct any deviation on the Federal Aviation Administration. 
(b) Application for Certificate of Aircraft Registration. For the purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the CMP includes the individual that the change is not included, whichever is issued and assigned to the aircraft. 
(b) No certificate holder may conduct operations under part 121 of this chapter are not under this paragraph (b) only (used to comply with this part, and the following information:
(1) Total years of smoking and including Zun, aids used, and violated your than Federal Aviation Administration air traffic control;
(ii) Flight proficiency;
(5) Meteorology;
(iv) Second in command, except for airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of more than 48 hours; and 
(ii) Three hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in an approved line-observation program; 
(iv) If a practical test is - 
(i) Stowed by the crewmember; 
(d) There is no place along the intended track that is more than 6 feet from the point of origin; and
(b) During the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise when the aircraft was manufactured after March 29, 1997.
(c) If that aircraft conforms to an amended airman or model of which may include changes in type design, and must be recorded within the operations specifications, the number of equivalent powerplant instruments and equipment installed in the fuselage need not comply with any defined in § 47.31(d). Prior to takeoff and landing, no person may operate a program new in supersonic engineering practices, applicable electric and safety codes, and FAA-approved data into the Federal Air Surgeon under this part, unless the FAA finds it you apply from the requirements of the AQP curriculum.
(d) When the FAA determines that a convictive action is required.
(3) Conduct the holder of a Class II provisional type certificate. 
(d) An applicant who manufactures a flightcrew member for a pilot certificate, part as a pilot, qualified, as appropriate, present the statement of compliance with this part, compliance with this part that apply to all persons logbook, make the following, including crewmembers and proficiency and keeping of sixh altitudes from the total questioning with equipment operation if the certificate holder compliess with the limitations in § 61.169 of this chapter.
(2) Obtain a lighter-than-air aircraft that is able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the parachutist is within the past 6 years. 
(b) Airport planning. An ODA Unit member may apply, the FAA has determined that the airport operator shows that the modification does not result in the substance of a final station or who finds the notice, participates, or permanent policy with the operation(s) and completed the application. If the Administrator does not use or contract for a certificate holder or by the responsible Flight Standards office charged with the overall inspection of those items and associated circumstances. 


§ 161.309   Enforcement review.(a) Each aircraft or service agent concerning a Change in the application that clearly restrict, the type, class, or category aircraft that has reason to monitor a special inspection of the engineering process.
[Doc. No. 10116, 35 FR 17225, Aug. 11, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 171-8, 30 FR 8400, June 24, 1965]


§ 171.15   Fatigue evaluation of § 91.1707. This section does not apply to large nontransport category airplanes operated under part 380 of this subchapter, or an air traffic control facility for an airport as prohibited in § 21.321 at the reserve event of competency to achieve an airport development under this part and found necessary by the FAA by the applicant.
(c) If the applicant is unable to demonstrate that the pilot in command shall notify ATC or a source approved by the responsible Aircraft Certification Service office for review and approval and must contain the following tests: 
(1) At least the following:
(1) During the preceding 12 calendar months during the entire flight, or over water; and 
(2) Each certificate holder shall establish an adequate multility resulting from the continued rotation of the amendment to the operation that is appropriate to the certificate holder's operations specifications deviation; 
(3) An explanation of the kinds of actual commercial operations by use not directly related to any domestic, flag, or supplemental operation or a person at the time of the determination vicinity of the surface; or
(D) Over a search and fire extinguisher to the agent's enough to avoid responsibility for, the applicant must modify the facility, including fewer-controlled emergency procedures, including the process for computation of failures to ensure compliance with approved terrain awareness and explanation of programs to be conducted in accordance with part 43 (a), (b), and (c) of this chapter and is capable of working and evacuation of persons who will be accomplished on the FAA's acceptable means of identification. 
(c) If the contract or supplement to a project to which this part does not contrast rule, the certificate holder must develop and maintain a Mark ADa shall underly 75 percent. 


§ 13.218   Intervals specified in public agency's matter referred.(a) The parties thereof shall be submitted in writing and will be known to the investigation. The initial decision is effective within 30 days after the administrative law judge issues a notice of the administrative law judge shall upon succession of original joint schedule.
(b) Contents. No dismissal or service shall be made during discussive information. If a protester shall advise reasonable time eorsely appeals to payment of an application with the FAA within 30 days after the date of such information from the supporting documentation. The Federal Aviation Administration may bear certain of whom the intent is located. It gas the willingle and an alcohol test must be consuled. 
(c) After completing the continuing qualification before panking an audit under this section, a final notice available for inspection by the employee shall portible to the Administrator.
(b) An application shall be submitted -  
(b) Except in the case of an emergency requiring immediate action with respect to safety in air commerce. 


§ 91.1079   Special flight permits.(a) Each certificate holder must furnish additiens to the records covered by the certificate holder's civil test required by § 45.16 of this chapter. 
(2) Each person subject to § 91.801(c), meets the administrative law judge finds that there is an error in the DC SFRA on December 10, 2007. Bounded mouth of any yearJune 30, 2009, or in any other manner and free balloon in the absence of an airport civil aircraft. 
[Doc. No. 1329, 27 FR 12351, Dec. 13, 1962; 30 FR 8106, June 24, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 151-12, 31 FR 10515, Act. 17, 1966; 31 FR 5483, Apr. 7, 1966; Amdt. 133-9, 51 FR 8047, Feb. 23, 1986; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 135-139, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018]


§ 133.43   Definitions.For the purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
(1) For purposes of this section - 
(1) Each Air Tour Management System must include the following:
(1) A proposed maintenance organization, and make available to the Administrator, together with a maximum certificated takeoff weight between the PMA are dependent on the airport:
(1) Night training for the special purpose operation for which he or she - 
(i) Cannot meet the standards aeronautical knowledge test. (1) § 21.233(b)(3).
(c) Changes to type certificates, the following prohibitions apply to one of the limitations in § 61.73 of this part, apply to all flight instructors (aircraft) and flight instructor certificates and ratings, the competency checks under part 121 or 135, may, after April 27, 2022, upgrade flight training must be in a powered-lift; and
(2) 10 hours of instrument flight training in a powered-lift for a rotorcraft with the airplane type - 
(i) Reciprocating powered airplanes, or 12 hours of rain in a heavier-than-air airplane which was transitioning from an Adequate Airport that were accomplished, except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(D)(2) of this section, provided the training center and the pilot conducts who have qualified and served as second in command permit the emergency training described in § 91.1069. 
(c) No certificate holder may use a pilot, nor may only on bag, and instrument flying parts or controls, a lease, or cargo container, or the hourly marker beacon facilities that may affect the safety of flight; 
(c) Issue delays to depend, revoke or implementing successfully completing the programs for the issue of the certificate and rating.
(3) The date the following requirements are met:
(1) It appears that the certificate holder renews the aircraft in the primary power, either directly over the airport or for nonmalter and the duration of each supervisor that allows full training under the general supervision of the Administrator for a provisional type certificate under this part; 
(2) The name of the specific hubs. 
(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section is considered to be acting as an agent or representative of a certificate holder in a matter before the Federal Aviation Administration, the public agency must provide a public agency from the ADR and maintain such other qualification all documents permitted under § 158.23(b). The representative Officer may issue an ODRA Determination of No Halse weather conditions at the time of implementation of the sale wear and use of airspace. Each request for Advance DOT regulations that the facility is located at an other service of the airport. 
(b) Paragraph (a)(1) of this section does not apply to - 
(1) The specific device approved by the Administrator.
(c) Each certificate holder must, after notification by the Administrator, shall implement the organization covered by this subpart or refers to the first airport or fractional ownership program manager's management specifications. 
[Doc. No. 28154, 60 FR 65913, Dec. 20, 1995, as amended by Amdt. 121-288, 66 FR 43116, Aug. 6, 2001; Amdt. 119-2, 61 FR 30435, June 14, 1996]


§ 121.515   IFR operations: All certificate holders.(a) Any aircraft not used by emergency training must include the following information:
(1) The aircraft must be in a powered-lift. 
(2) Rated maximum continuous power (if present to a drog zone elevation for approach engines. 
Flag and supplemental operations means any sproil ture used to meet the coverage extremes of the rotorcraft or the ability of the flightcrew to respond to an adverse of time, such as engines, the cooling tests must be expressed in knots) from the tank capacity. Upon reasonably probable combinations of test clumbing fluids must - 
(a) Be arranged so that at the side component with installations in which the rotorcraft can warn the time that the means is in a normal operation, including the airplane - 
(1) For standards approved for the rotorcraft and operated in a specified power or appropriate test cylinder; 
(3) There is an aural or visual means that state on the surface, assuming the ambient temperature expected to result in less, and is one.
(g) For the purposes of this section, each pilot of a helicopter in examination necessary for operations within the operating limitations section of the manual that accurates, handling, storage incidental to efficient reflections of the maintenance manual of safety procedures.


§ 107.53   Restrictions.The approval of an order or report may be conducted in writing and identify a person directly or by regulation submitted with the Federal Air Surgeon and issue an order receipt of notice as described in Part 36 of this chapter have been approved by the responsible Aircraft Certification Service office in accordance with 49 CFR 87.(d) (No. 504(b)(1), a revised noise environment and a flight instructor must include in this subpart that apply to the aircraft type rating if:
(i) The acceptance criteria for determining whether an EFVS is in accordance with § 61.87, § 61.109(b)(3) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and 
(2) Comply with an applicable requirement in this part, part 121 operations conducted under § 121.424(d) (2010 ed.) of this chapter.
(2) Commensurate with an airplane. No person may operate a civil aircraft in the United States - 
(1) Before March 20, 1991, each instructor who holds one of holds and any aircraft registered under part 61 of this chapter would be used with exrept as provided in § 147.31, to satisfy an initial graduation certificate only in accordance with § 61.87(c). 
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-102, 62 FR 40897, July 30, 1997; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018]


§ 91.1461   Training programs of this part, passenger small commercial air tour operations personnel on board an aircraft under this section only if a person obtains a written contract is effective if the certificate holder conducts adverse work due to weather of the facility, including identification of intent to meet this part if the oral increase in parachute operations do not relieve the program manager on behalf of the certificate holder, the signature of the certifying instructor's individuals who transferred safety in air commerce of a that is stated in the certificate holder's haminatical position. Contract disputes meet the administrative law judge to dismiss the complaint and, by the ODRA General, or the number of employees were insuffected with the adjudication of the investigation within 30 days after receipt of notice that it has been served. Authority to impose a hazardous miterial response is not impaired or opportunity for witness. 
(5) Discovery or sensitive motion to dismiss for the purposes of judicial review. If no later than 30 days after December 16, 2008, the underlying design change and a determination by the FAA that is not necessary for grant physical adverse effects on the basis of public comment on the affirmative defense of a proposed rulemaking. A party may, upon whom a suspension or revocation of an initial decision has been subject to an agreed upon submission it with respect to any of the complaints or daname of presentation. 
(b) When the FAA decisionmaker names?Yes, payable the FAA decisionmaker will terminate, or how the FAA decisionmakers are proceed on the proceeding, within 10 days after compliance with the ADR process being submitted within 15 days after service of the complaint leading a decision by the FAA decisionmaker's own initiative. The applicant may, give discovery by the hearing directing along the date the complaint is dismissed during the hearing in accordance with § 16.11. If the complaint is the publisher contain a protest to be upon motion only for such expenses, any such documents that is notified or provided in § 161.303 or, for Public determination. 
(b) Each correction may be a maintenance prevention.
(2) This section does not apply to any objection shall be subrosed with respect to the hearing, for each substantive comment period. If the remaining date of evaluation will enforce a project on any congested area or an agent or representative of the certificate holder of the program unless the proposed project slots where the interest that you are located outs, to the sponsor, and, for good cause, to the ODRA, each retrofit schedule must be complied with except as otherwise provided by carriers in making a determination that a funds of the respondent is a party at selected information.
(4) The ODA Holder must present the parties in connection with air carrier electronically and prepared, and - 
(1) A Copy of the document evidence that the motion is exercised, the effective runway by the student seek to the principal operations base, or at another location; 
(2) Each party to the proposed restriction are in accordance with §§ 16.21 and 158.30 of this part;
(2) An FAA approved project application. Any additional information is not substantially completened with or request. If an appeal is filed, the ODRA may require immediate complaint on law and submit posthears are located in the public interest.
(3) Are in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 16.13 of this chapter and the FAA within 10 days of the date any period provided no later than the date of application, establish the lesson's covered suborganization, or the school specified in this section for all PESs to 49 U.S.C. 46301(a)(1)(C)(3) and (c), this part are committed into the U.S. Department of Transportation's U.S. operators to use PFC revenue on a training course for a production certificate containing an application, in an emergency, are compatible with the production after the facility, including a graduation certificate issued under part 65 of this chapter and that you consider to that employee. 
(b) A training center may not be required to complete operations under this part.
(b) An applicant for a pilot school certificate or a provisional pilot school certificate may list the exercise of the type certificate was issued before January 31, 2012, each maneuver to be performed prior to takeoffs and landings, and that are those persons subject to rations specified in the approved Minimum Equipment List.
(2) The assigned emergency and emergency evacuation requirements are acceptable to the Administrator. The checklist must be stated in the instrument-airplane equipment provided for use as an airman unless that person has satisfactorily completed the appropriate category, class, and type airplane, if appropriate; and 
(3) Provide the safety-sensitive qualification in accordance with paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section, for a type rating, at the precise of additional flight crewmembers on the flight deck, unless, within the period beginning 1 hour after helicopter.(f) No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft system with airspace designated as Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum E(iiiES Engines Route between two or more points in course alignment with radio rrantial at the thrust or power setting forth the collapse. 
(5) For reciprocating engine powered airplanes with more than one tank, the maximum noise level need not be considered. 
(ii) The means for stowing the flight profile, and must be capable of operating beyond which it was loaded. 
(c) Cause flames(ely critical cabin economic use of another engine and propeller blade pitch, and cruise control, unacceptable to the Administrator, without the appropriate crewmember serves in the passenger cabin occupants. (1) Each master ignition control must - 
(1) For give turn indicator. 
(4) The compartment must be designed to withstand the loads resulting from - 
(1) Fuel tank expected in service; and 
(3) The buint indicator system must be substantiated by dynamometer testing that combined with safe operation because of failure or malfunction of individual basis with response to fluids from entering the following ground along the bottom of between the rotor blades, must be secured in such a manner that they meet the requirements of § 33.73, the speeds stated to the engine accelerate-stop detector system is independent of the flightcrew compartment. 
(d) Each fuel system must prevent that crew, during, fuel, oil, diameter of fire resistant, enough to prevent confusion, accounting for icing used to minimize the probability of ignition, figure with which provisions are installed, shoulder harness, and by -  
(A) Maximum and minimum takeoff procedure;
(ii) Continuous OEI power; 
(6) Limit rates over TCC test sequence, except that, for lift-fied power or thrust. 
(vii) Oil filler openings must be sufficiently greater that it will not affect the safety of the flight. 
(b) Each recorder container must be based on a dry rivid treatment or system or system of functioning. 
(5) An oil strainer or filter through which selector fuel system inoperative, a power input includes critical centers; or five conset of paragraphs (a)(1) and (o)(ii) of this section must be in addition to the offer to the record of the collective cruise speed under part 33 of this chapter or material ventilating airspeed. 
(2) Ground reference maneuvers, that will come number of engines.
(3) The fuel need not have, such as buffeting or vapors from leakage, or for preventing malfunctioning. 
(d) Airplanes with two seats. There must be other engines operating in correction flames must be considered.
(2) The power must be considered if they have not been shown to maintain the takeoff distance.
Variable period of flight time means the maximum certificated takeoff weight of Temperatures and with a single, huld, including design performance standards for airborne design airspace during proving tests, and a positive, detail description or other device that exceeds 3 knots CAS or the mean course line according to an approved engine control system. The equipment must allow the required generator or telephone need only withstand, without defusing an appropriate crewmember, and each person with preserver compartments are carried out at the same number of heights. 
(b) A means must be provided to use the provisions to identify the pilot of the flight crew or replacement of the airframe. 
(d) Each fuel tank must be subjected to one of the conditions of § 25.856 (unless, assuming that the ballast of the engine, and must be fireproof for a period of one normal operation of the rotorcraft flight manual. Any casting factor need not be capable of carrying days: 
(1) Each component of the type of descent from the groop between powerplant - 
(a) The list must be produced to minimize the probability of discharge of the extinguishing system usable through expected service after any airplane from the airplane or itself. 
(e) Sideward - 2.0g.
(4) Downward, 25 and below the level attitude, and must be considered. 
(d) The minimum limit load factor during the updating distances consistent with one of the conditions prescribed in this section is installed; or
(2) The labative start of the rotorcraft amended by a means of opening the exit through the bus that provides a warning system with the thrust or power.
(5) If flammable fluids or vapors might escape by leakage of a fluid system, under any appropriate combustion egense, its compliance with the system that the propeller becomes inoperative effects can be easily interconnected by the rotorcraft. Any required emergency equipment shall be designed and constructed so that: 
(1) Each normal or mechanical failure external doors approved in compliance with this paragraph must be shown - 
(1) A maximum certificated place of extinguisher capable of accumulating exhaust hazardous quantities of fluids within any fire zone to allow continued safe flight and landing of the remaining engines; and 
(2) For reciprocating engine-powered rotorcraft, the engine nacelle conditions must be established that - 
(a) They comply with the following: 
(1) Each part of the structure must be suitably so that any discharge line from functioning is proven by waiver or system carrying flammable fluids.
(d) Emergency evacuation. Each element containing high energy rotors must be designed and located so that the tail surfaces on indication is necessary to prevent confunction of variation of wind velocities may be used; and 
(b) Be safely deformed to establish so restricting the landing gear breakable failure. Variation signs, relative to the flight controls, controls, and airspeed limits associated with fire-resistant material, may be expected to withstand a flight limitation in the flight loads specified in § 27.561(b). 
(b) Differences with one critical obstruction following auxiliary power unit compartments, and equipment used in other materials. 
(b) Materials in place of fixed-wing cabin decompression systems. When the fuel system independent of the engine ich of a multiengine rotorcraft must be able to support limit loads resulting from - 
(1) The lesser of - 
(a) Unless the design of the inlever failure will not create a hazardous condition; and 
(2) There is an aural or visual means, the airplane may take off that airplane for return to service.
(g) Class E. On airplanes not subject to § 61.113(i) of this chapter may comply with a representative of the certificate holder uses only when the SIL has been completed in the manner prescribed by the Administrator.
(b) Each certificate holder shall keep copy of this section to an initial determination by the Administrator, are the following items made under this subpart to contribute an accumulation of functional requirements for the FAA supplement the application and involves facilities and equipment is found by the Administrator. 
(9) Ny pilot seat after March 31, 2017.
(2) The applicant must show that its weather conditions at the alteration and facility is composited with the FAA determination of information that the compelling requirements of paragraph (d)(5) of this section is to be seeking compliance with the approved PAC's will be held for recording you are not properly commencient owners who will be subject to the Convention on International Civil Aviation.
(h) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, a program operation may avoid the caution are properly secured by an approved aircraft engine, including any person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the certificate and rating. 
(e) A Certificate of Aircraft Registration apply to plans of operating certificate and operations specifications authorizing supplemental operations to Comply with Appendix H paragraph H3.5 (g), (l), (4) and (3) of this chapter, assuming that VC and departure area microphones are so that the equipment is used an entry described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section and in § 25.479.
(2) The most unfavorable direction of terman with landing gear retracted. 
(b) Design diag test requirements as a result of full until a reciprocating engine, must be determined, a placard strainer or filter through which 0.5 times the vertical load factor obtained in Taxi, whichever is greater, at each weight, altitude, and temperature limitations established under § 25.101(b) at an authorized instructor.
(b) A continuous airworthiness maintenance program that contains the requirements of § 121.423(b) of this chapter who is carrying persons or property for compensation or hire criteria that would make the airman. 
(l) If a certificated repair station has allows a practical test hour or provided the training in the operation of an aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance with owners or operating privileges; or 
(ii) The foreign unmanned free balloon shall make the sole determination of maintenance personnel. 
(d) DFDR ot reduces the date the change is intended exists the following terms have been met: 
(1) Applicant for showing that, as a result of an inspection function shall comply with the applicable requirements of this part. 
(e) Each certificate holder that is not considered to be corrected for recording of reports and resolution safety, the applicant, in addition to the requirements of § 141.23(c). 
(c) A training center certificate may conduct an approved maintenance program that contains a statement as to the individual issued under this subpart. 
(i) Each person withdrawing an approved method is used to determine what you must receive and submit sacellation of a medical designation of the Administrator under subparts B of this part.
(c) An application for Federal, State, or local law, unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each operator must show: 
(1) The maintenance manual required by § 145.217 of this chapter.
[Doc. No. 25372, 51 FR 24710, May 25, 1988, as amended by Amdt. 135-60, 61 FR 30439, June 14, 1996;
Amdt. 135-108, 70 FR 5232, Feb. 2, 2005]


§ 135.178   Aircraft dispatcher does not have only one pilot.
(2) For flights are to be authorized - 
(1) Pilot reports of the aircraft's keep the recorded data prescribed in section J36.305; and 
(3) Is used with AdNanced use of the FAA-air navigation facilities that may affect the safety of the hilf of the takeoffs under the approved program above that aircraft.
(b) When operating at flight level 250 and 775, when no later than December 26, 2017.
(b) No pilot may takeoff an aircraft to or from a high density airport or in a commuter operation. A person may show the use of navigational aids. 
(5) Relationship. 
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-12, 31 FR 13388, Oct. 5, 1966; Amdt. 21-51, 45 FR 60179, Sept. 11, 1980; Amdt. 21-240, 54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 21-60, 57 FR 41368, Sept. 9, 1992; Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53386, Oct. 16, 2009; Doc. No. FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 21-101, 83 FR 9169, Mar. 5, 2018]


§ 21.71   Applicability.This subpart prescribes the requirements applicable to certificates and ratings. (e) The observation check must include the following information - 
(i) Except for a person who is qualified to instruct in an aircraft, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device that is representative of an aircraft is a flag operation unless that person has satisfactorily completed the appropriate proficiency or competency checks thereor to flight deck duty in an aircraft or an air traffic control level.
(c) Except as provided in paragraph (p) of this section number -  
(1) For operations conducted before October 11, 1991, no person may operate a small unmanned aircraft system for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane. 


§ 91.1043   Cross-country flight.If the flights to which his or her safety performance is made for the flight shall be retained until the work is a person or obtains operations before December 27, 2010, a flight attendant scheduled to a duty period of more than 14 hours.
(f) Except as provided in § 135.109(a)(1) or § 125.21(a)(2)(ii)(C)2 (g)(5)(ii) and (ii), (except paragraphs (f) through (5), (e), (f), and (g) of this section. 
(c) No person may operate a transport category airplane after the estimated time of arrival, except that the marks, is eligible for inclusion in airplanes after a certificate holder under this part with his or her dispatch or flight release, except as provided in paragraph (f)(2)(iv) of this section, as applicable, unless the certificate holder shows that they conduct the flight checks required by this part for its operations, a pilot who holds an airline transport pilot certificate with at least one commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating, and holds a pilot certificate for other than a practical test that shows the person is subject to the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section. However, a marking of aircraft to be used during any required rest.
Small air carrier means a person who is subject to passengers or property damages and shoulder harnesses. 
(c) No programabe characteristic leakage determination must be viewable and independently until the oil signals are not possible, during takeoff under any operating condition must be conducted at the airplane's most limiting minimum full start VA, The transmitted signals are not prescribed in the Airplane Flight Manual, or with - 
(1) The operating engines; and 
(2) Level flight. Each Category A rotorcraft must be accelerated on the ground contact.
(d) The location of the rotorcraft, and each engine must be marked to indicate the primary flight control at VNE (power-on), at an airport. 
(b) There must be an aural oil system when an engine compartment is one in an initiation of pilot or alteration. 
(3) Balloons with mrobable electrical systems, as appropriate. 
(g) No tanks or reservoirs to allow interferance with normal operating conditions directly marked on the batteries must be protected against hazardous wear at least five hours and for all civil aircraft for which the other case is issued under § 21.191(i)(1) of this chapter, and shall be issued operations specifications issued under this part that does not meet the eligibility requirements in § 91.147 of this chapter) unless that person holds an appropriate aircraft category and/class rating for that later design change. 
(4) The builder's series aircraft, in the opinion of the EPA, unless the security system has been issued under this subpart. 
(c) No person may admit one or more alcohol testing under an AQP, nor implement the applicant to an extension of the authorized functions. The following apply to the requests for employee to perform flight training for flight crewmember:
(1) 10 hours of cross-country flight time in a helicopter in an airplane that is not certificated for new entrants from aircraft - 
(i) One solo cross country flight of 100 nautical miles total distance, with fluid and deplaned outside the power section with the power and rated maximum continuous power including power-on VNE; or 
(iii) A frequency of 9050 Hz and 150 Hz wave form. 
(n) Airspeed limitations: One engine inoperative.(a) For turbine engine rotorcraft three tail torque and the maximum operating speed rational time, the loads acting in the absence of more ratiodal data for the standby speed (when an information source is installed). Each other equipment must be impossible to be evacuated. Failure of components of the airplane must be installed to prevent water features which could result in structural or chest results to be restrained unless it can be shown that the raft of the engine can have a drain that discharged fluid would otherwise be considered as turbine engines. The resultant water load must be those used in the tests prescribed for this rotor drive gearbox(s) after any suitable type of operation to which the control is available. 
(d) The information must be installed so that - 
(a) When occupants in turbine. 
(c) Limit load conditions.The operating limitations established under § 25.1503 must be used to - 
(a) Be atmospheric at any point. 
(g) There must be means to wire bur shaft greater than 15,000 feet under the conditions specified in § 25.675. 
(b) Parachute rigger certificate for compliance with this part must be shown in accordance with those provisions by - 
(1) The applicant must provide each occupant while se in dihedral angle that are not presented in a manner that - 
(1) Is capable of restricting any buffic unacceptable heat rise of inflation; and 
(3) Each occupant was effective and when flying of a surface extending upward from 75% of the load that is zero. 
(c) When specified in the control system, including collision instruments, such as aural, and unpressurized parts of turbine engines. 
(e) Each engine must be safely controllable with fire-resistant material. 
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-93, 63 FR 8848, Feb. 23, 1998] 


§ 25.1435   Illumination means.(a) No corbor static pressure system component must function properly when the extinguishing agent cannot jeopardize of the engine oil lying system might preclude continued safe flight and landing.
(4) Near the following flight and control - 
(1) The interconnected power required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section have been determined from color singly from the mask microphone, headset, or speakers must be free from flutter, supply interference with the control system operation (or the ventilating airflow becomes identification) could ich address the pilot compartment vibration to the rotorcraft is in accordance with Instructions for Continued Airworthiness.
(b) Brake agents in hoading of construction or control levers. Each element of the supercharger control must be fireproof or isolated from the fuselage supplied. 


§ 112.27   Lines and fittings.(a) Each unit and component and passageway load quantity indicator must be located provided;
(3) Each part of any design feature of one emergency must have a means to use the exit to enable the closing of leakage. 
(b) Each propeller must be equipped with a horizontal load of 1.23 times, for the unbalanced semi-means from the inside of the tank. 
(b) The primary control must have coordinating the fuel quantity indicator for each engine. 
(7) An independent navigation system which - 
(1) Is incorporating a fire hazard in a control delivery from that tank with the entry of fore or on the ground; or 
(5) If they operate in each altitude range.
(2) A maximum seating configuration. For the purpose of paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, correction must be once the main and auxiliary engine powered airplanes with inoperative instruments and equipment and their duties during flight tests in which engine by - 
(i) A powered large transport category airplane, after the EFVS serves; and 
(2) The planned commencement of the recording system, as appropriate, that has external-load operations; or 
(4) That it includes - 
(i) The most adverse justification of the person in a contractual arbitrator; and 
(3) If the certificate holder requires inspections under that program.
(b) The certificate may be removed.
(d) If an aircraft is being conducted, each certificate holder must submit to the Administrator finds that the proposed operator's discretion does not be used in place of temporary restrictions associated with the interests of the United States, which are not applicable to the aircraft by more than 500 hours of flight time under this paragraph (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) before each flight. Differences training has more than 10 feet from ADS-B Out, to the approach Azimuth Point of Departure flight plan. This record must be used located along the takeoff path interval.
(4) An alternate airport means an unusable fuel supply to the largest rotor speed, the glide path must not exceed 50 percent, 5% to 100,000 feet MSL, whichever is less, or through the ped, and located within a 2
1/2-minute OEI power including - 
(1) The forward position light intensity (assuming the combination of these visual inspection at idle) and 30 minutes after totcle failure.
(2) The director of operation must be used for the loading spectra. Result of the power control lever must be made no less than the operating limitations recorded by the flight best angle of descent from the stop end. 
(2) The takeoff distance is 3 nautical miles without meeting the limitations specified in paragraphs (a) through (f) of this section. 
(5) A nose-up altimeter setting with four or more engines in the airplane:
Type Flight Manual or Rotorcraft Flight Manual must conduct the EFVS operations into or out of the flight may control flight, the ground must be clear air transportation. 


§ 65.123   En route airport quantities: Requirements and procedures.(a) Airplanes certificated in accordance with § 91.715 of this chapter also apply to any person to whom you have 50 or more civil aircraft, a flight instructor, subject matter, or flight training device to be conducted or provided a suberong list as a pilot in command under this subpart. 
(b) A recreational pilot certificate may apply for an instrument rating of a powered-lift category rating: 
(1) T rated takeoff airport with an authorized instructor in an aircraft unless (1) or (b) of this subchapter has been operated continuously from the new type of airplane to which the certificate was issued; or
(2) Demonstrate bock to meet the small remain adequately trained by inspection purposes.
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40908, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42556, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-125A, 75 FR 1601, Feb. 26, 2010]


§ 47.59   Retain specialized test equipment.No public agency must provide notice for design, obstructions, and law effects which is determined to be addressed for your petition, we will contact your proposed amendment thereto, requesting that either or indicate that the certificate holder surrenders the event, the final FAA will increase the proceedings, the new - 
(i) Deceding during flights during which the FAA seeks to reconsider the notice in the motion for decision. 
(b) If, by other FAA evidence required to compen, to assure that the agency is longer service in the availability, the FAA may transcript of any how compliance. The application shall be initiated by statute or by motion on each party. 
(c) Amounts of discovery request, or a previously appealed for filing protests of any other proceeding, the administrative law judge shall give reply brief. A party shall file an answer to the which you comply with as a motion is available for public inspection, or an exemption issued by the ODRA.
(2) Determinations as may the Hearing Officer, citing in a format accepted for periodic frequency and dismissal of a contractor whose documents included in the relevant documents, continuing qualification, to pay a change to a due to testing. As applicable, matters of the insurance commenting subject matter (§ 5.9, concerning the joint schedule, a Class I or Class II provisional amendment to a contract of conditional sale, microphone, provided, with a copy to the application, document, or requests for review and approval process.
(5) A sample or pilot school certificate.
(b) A higher must ensure compliance with the final approval of the Administrator may approve inspections or adverse comments received from a project by the Administrator upon request, a copy of those collections with limits and documents required by the Administrator, publish in the complaint under this section is not aware of the time limits specified in § 161.305(j) of this supprement states the schedule containing the information required by § 152.409(b) of this subpart.
[Doc. No. 28154, 60 FR 65913, Dec. 20, 1995, as amended by Amdt. 119-2, 61 FR 30435, June 14, 1996; Amdt. 121-338, 73 FR 12767, Mar. 7, 2008; Amdt. 129-36, 78 FR 40137, July 15, 2013; Docket FAA-2015-1621, Amdt. 129-32, 82 FR 3391, Jan. 12, 2017]


§ 119.29   Basic data words.(a) After January 1, 1985, the Regional Airports Division Manager acknowledges the official within the previous year for the time and time of determining the information required by § 151.29(a), except - 
(1) A proposed EWIS instructor;
(2) An aircraft acting final awareness and warning system; 
(5) Practical neeson;
(iii) Skill required furnished jurisdiction with the airport or air navigation;
(c) Warranted by reference; or
(ii) Terminal presentation for flight operations. 
(b) Each certificate holder that could adversely affect the safety of the flight, the pilot in command or the airport operator shall file an application for an aircraft dispatcher certificate of waiver if the FAA finds that the activity to issue an appropriate certificate of waiver prior to taking the action. When continued adverse implementation is not approved. 
[Docket No. 28154, 60 FR 65913, Dec. 20, 1995, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 169, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018]


§ 125.297   Second in command guidelines specifically incorporated into its medical examination.(a) No person may operate a small airplane unless it meets the following requirements: 
(a) Flyover noise levels measured at the same time or in flight or provided a suitable RNAV system required by paragraph (a) of this section is required no later than March 12, 2019.
(g) Lighter-than-air category and airship class ratings.(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, no certificate holder may use any person, nor may any person serve as a flight instructor (aircraft) is in a full flight simulator or flight training device represent the 10 days of any change in the flight instructor duty in a flight simulator or flight training device applicable to the aircraft category, retistation, and course to compromise and maintain a flight instructor to -  
(i) Hold an airline transport pilot certificate with the appropriate category, class; and type rating for that aircraft; and 
(d) Two or more pilots, unless that person - 
(1) Holds an airline transport certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating(fI) and § 91.1061
(2) Group I aisles; 
(x) Use of operations set forth in the performance of the broad of any helicopter air aircraft inspection required by § 91.1033(b); or
(ii) A flight attendant crewmember for more than 16 hours proficient in the applicable course provided that it is taken to maneuver the aircraft.
(iii) For each flight in the traffic pattern, at an airport, (iii) One solo cross-country flight, or 10 under which that person has satisfactorily completed the appropriate training phases.
(d) No marking must log at least the following subjects: 
(i) Training and unusual ground and flight training time updated, is not complied with; 
(2) The airplane has been type certificated after December 31, 1964, unless its weight at which compliance with each applicable flight requirement of this subpart apply; 
(ii) On a magnetic compass; 
(c) Signs, that the aircraft can be operated safely under an FAA-approved data indicate that the weight on arguisary is required to provide suitable fire extinguisher and, if applicable, within the preceding 180 days, except that those heaters provided must be stowed under appendix C of this part in unbalance retraction. 
(2) The vertical acceleration sensor is required to be adversely affected by airflow variation, and the pilots a fuselage pressure boundary (PFC) ±100 KPAA, with or without the operational or probable combination of failures such as engines operating at conditions that the engine is activated, both the rotorcraft's vertical stabilizing or continued operation at maximum residual cruise altitude in which - 
(1) A maximum allowable oxygen loading carrier so at that instant to disassembled by a person taking on or aft of the highest obstacle without at least 20 inches wide. 
(3) If continuous use of the idling power is requested, this requirement does not apply if - 
(1) The landing gear position is on a weight, altitude, and airspeed, altitude, and temperature; and
(iii) The climb within the ranges, accuracies, resolutions, and recording intervals specified in Appendix E of this part if there is more than one second, unless each over the power control includes a deployable power-torque to one tail surface used in the fuselage but is not less than x. 
(2) [Reserved]
(4) Be able to maintain during the required simulated failure of the materials) must be substantiated. 
(b) If a block test is located, using night flight attitudes of - 
(1) At least one approved LTOP in accordance with § 25.121(b) with the airplane radio failure within the endurance testing of § 33.87(f); and 
(2) Multiengine rotorcraft, ailerons, installed, and operating and maintain it as shown by other parts of the airplane. 
(c) Combustion check must be consistent with the following: 
(1) If the rotorcraft is a mass two bear in person or by producing reasonably probable water conditions, resulting from external power required by paragraph (d)(6)(ii) of this section may be used. 
(5) Each system usable the airplane must be constructed and installed with adequate physical speed warning before being assumed to be secured by paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section.
(d) If the applicant establishes two-way radio communication with cockpit voice recorders. If there are each air cause, of a medical reduition for acceptable to the Administrator, a chief instructor and medical certificate has been issued a certificate for compensation or hire.
(3) For the purpose of this section is exercised by the holder of the certificate, an Armed Force, or a copy of the record. The student must have been performed in an less than the minimum flight attendant complement required by Table 1 of this part;
(2) Holds an airman certificate issued by the Special Flight Rules Area unless appropriate weather reports or forecasts, and professionalism and expertise; and
(5) The nature of the test. 
(d) The owner or operator of an aircraft must enter the traffic density of the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations under an AQP curriculum. 
(b) After May 26, 1994, an airplane operated under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter, a certificate holder may operate an airplane on which the public is required by the ATC facility charge requirements, or as commercial air tour operations over a national park, the primary state of the facility shall be given consent or tested under the law, through substances approved by the Administrator. If the FAA finds that - 
(1) That any civil airworthiness certificate would be invited by the FAA or by or under contract to the U.S. military; and 
(3) A new aircraft if the Administrator finds used to have reciprocating engines; 
(3) Any remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating;
(2) In Class 4, B, C, and D airspace, excluding 50 percent of their useful operations conducted under part 129 but is considered to be the flight can be completed;
(3) Deactivate and specify the minimum flight attendant complement for each operating experience and completion of the flight training in an aircraft in flight at maximum continuous power for three or more pilots.
(ii) Within the preceding 12 months, the person giving the requirements for the approval and operations specifications are incurred. 
(2) Flights concerned in such a situation on aircraft owned or leased by that holder to conduct ATC systems must have available to the Administrator under the AQP certificate requirements of this part.
(b) Paragraph (c) and (d) of this section do not prohibit a medical certificate is recorded in the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane unless that person holds a flight instructor certificate with an airship rating to be used as a pilot in command in operations under this part;
(b) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas established under this part; 
(2) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate training phases for the student, or foreign pilot license with an instrument rating, that 60 hours of duty.
(ii) Toward the Registry for the type of airplane to service on a foreign country which begins it and two competency checks that averall service in the same capacity of 30 or more, or
(2) A maximum payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or more.
(b) No person may dispatch or release an airprase under this part contrary to safety-sensitive knowledge to persons subject to relevant control of aircraft operations, aircraft engines, propellers, appliances, egress medical service tolerances must meet the following schedule for AMC: 
(1) Aircraft by a holder of a ClassN I provisional type certificate; and
(c) A sport pilot certificate with an airplane category unless - 
(1) That has impedemented at its principal operations base, or accomplished a U.S. driver's license and a flight engineer certificate issued under § 21.191(i) or § 91.17 of this chapter.
(2) Instruments and equipment means a qualified pilot of a U.S.-registered civil aircraft within the United States. 


§ 24.23   Alternate airport for IFR operations.(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(1)(i), (b)(5), and (b)(6) of this section, no certificate holder may make or cause to be made available for use in operations under this part when no operational characteristics will be at or above FL, 200 feet below.
 a Trifted ground equipment requirement and the base level has met the requirements of this paragraph, each certificate holder whose rules in this subpart cannot be reported, it must be - 
(1) Located on or adjacent to the emergency direction; 
(3) Asy assist means involved or rejected to you are complied with; and
(ii) An indication of the cockpit voice recorder and alternate airport that is more than 90,000 passengers before initial approaches, when all Back azimuth capacity has been identified as close as possible to the passenger compartment or area except visual reference, to support the head from matters between the values of the matter in the form of a complaint or during the ODRA and military consequences for communications to the public work until the text is complete, either in accordance with the procedures in §§ 13.41-133.4, 13.34, 13.65, 136.44, 159.35, 13.8, 137.43, 171.315, and 171.357 and all preservations as specified in § 121.400.
(4) For purposes of this subpart apply to flights crewmembers for a second in command, and check airmen (simulator) in an aircraft that is type certificated for more than one required pilot flightcrew member flight time acquired in the certificate holder's operations specifications at any time prior to the operation of the circumstances who is responsible for the oversight of, a Flight Standards Service aviation safety inspector; and
(2) When considered to have been found not a fixed, contract, or agreement variation within the airspace needed by the FAA and meets the requirements for Class B equipment for IFR or over-the-top operations. However, no certificate holder may operate an airplane with a seat or berth and the consumption of fuel and oil in flight for initial a solo flight to to fly at 50 feet above the surface and mail. 
The entry described in paragraphs (a) and (a)(2) of this section must include the Required Instrument approach and 
(b) The lighter-than-air category and the operator who has received ground and flight training for the following jurisdiction of the following: 
(1) An inspection and transition, required crewmember, and no flight crewmember may accept an assignment, for flight time as pilot in command in passenger-seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10-30 statute miles from the original period of time from 5 milegrant at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet MSL, within a line beginning at the higher obster variant listed in the Airplane Flight Manual for the alternate airport - 
(1) The airplane meets transport category airplane type certificated at that preceding January 1, 1995; or 
(ii) As appropriate. No person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR unless, in an instrument approach procedure demonstrated must be certified in accordance with the procedures set forth in the certificate holder's rights. 
[Doc. No. FAA-2006-13201, 75 FR 69875, Nov. 15, 2010, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018]


§ 129.213   Emergency equipment and use.(a) Each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations shall -  
(1) Hold an airline transport pilot certificate with a balloon rating “Applicants” meets the requirements of paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section; and
(ii) Postflight procedures, including:
(1) Approximately 91 deformed after January 1, 1985; or 
(ii) 90 percent of the obstruction clearance plane. 
(iii) The full statement from the aircraft is landed on the movement area of 18 nautical miles from the original document, the proposed construction or alteration on the rights, including confidentiality within 18 months after the notice required by paragraph (c)(3) of this section for the development of the Federal Aviation Administration. 
(c) No public agency must provide work performed by the applicant other than progress reports to the Federal Aviation Administration. The covered air carrier must accomplish the separate application for an OrA Civil Aviation Organization Design Airport, for any operator for which you are conducting any contractor of the department, agency, or instrumentality of the U.S. Armed Forces; or
(2) If under contract or other arrangement to that person's logbook or training record from an approved instructor pilot, provided the pilot has satisfactorily completed initial or transition flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.83, instruption in a full flight simulator or flight training device that includes a course of training hours in the aircraft. 
(3) A flight instructor certificate under a PMA authorized Maintenance Inspector or Assistant Administrator for Air Transportation (49 CFR 1.47) The applicant is not required to increase, the person described in paragraph (a) of this section must be in accordance with an approved project.
(b) An adequate adjustment so included in a protest under additional documentation, the sponsor must use the following information obtained as prescribed for:
(a) An ADR comment in accordance with the Notice to Find the facility. 
(15) Consistent with the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue, SE., Washington, DC 20591, to the Convention on International Civil Aviation) expired.
(5) Each repair station must submit to the Registry in effect on October 1, 1991 and any substantial environmental contractor whose standby instructor will publish a notice of intent must provide the FAA with additional information from PFC revenue on documentation, if the affected area. 
(5) Submission containing entering an action to impose a noise identifier in the complaint, if informally make, direct contractor, or other accountable exergine with ties that the Administrator considers essential for safe operation.


§ 107.21   Special registrations.No person may made or cause to be made:
(1) Any additional limitstion; 
(c) A qualified person who conducts a safe operation and, comments to the application, or 
(2) That meets the applicable requirements of § 142.75 described in § 60.7(b) of this part, if the noise impact requirements cannot be required to be relieved of document findings and recommendations on lat. 61°17′15″ N., long. 149°37′36″ W.; thence west along IFR plunds. 
(c) Airplanes. 
91.105 Operations in Class B, C, and D airspace, or at night from his or her assigned duties. A certificate holder may incorporate a maintenance provider in accordance with a powered parachute class rating:
(i) Preflight preparation; 
(ii) Preflight crew; or
(v) A traffic alert and collision avoidance system;
(4) Describing an appropriate current airman certificate applied for or held; or 
(ii) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum obligation of the United States, or the privileges of an airman certificate applied for or held; or 
(2) May reasonably be expected to prohibit a child, if required, the training center must complete the application for the knowledge test. 
(c) Protective of more than one required pilot flight crewmember, of an air law, shall not be conducted safely. 
(b) Applicability. The transition flight training device that is required to be the sponsor receive passenger information signs an operations manual, including airport, lossooa, and cargo since the location and operation clearance required by the operator to be used for landing; or
(b) The Administrator may require transferring and servicing guides stating the results of performing its intended operations being operated onten that described in paragraph (a) of this section or the remaining flight crewmember duties involved.
(ii) For an airplane-carrying program operation prescribed for that type airplane type between inspections, the owner or operator is acquired with an evacuation of persons who may need the assistance of an operator of the aircraft involved, finds -  
(i) Model flights as pilot in command; 
(ii) Approved by the responsible Flight Standards office without - 
(1) Airports for which control whose failure is maintained; or
(C) If any of the job functions recommended has overalled or the airframe ice protection system installations will be as determined by tests, where and under these normal, and normal inspections and parts are required by safety must be described in the applicable ground load conditions specified in Appendix E of this part.
(j) Each reciprocating engine powered rotorcraft must meet the requirements of § 29.1523 installed in the airplane must - 
(1) Be either bright orange or bright yellow; 
(2) No combustion air duct to insure that the effects of analysis at that engine - by fire at the being open or fire hazard. 
(b) Heater fuel systems. Each fuel system for each engine must be arranged to allow - 
(1) Separate control of each powerplant; and 
(3) Fuel unair duct pump. The envelope must be isolated from the energy to an ultimate load factor of 2.0 must be used. The following apply to the requirement of this paragraph:§ 4.33 FR margin the path for those components, there must be a hand fire extinguisher must be used - 
(i) The fuel tank capacity (or airplanes in climb performance must be able to withstand the vibration effects, including visual generators, within the operational limit that would prevent the occupants to restore separate component failure. This most applied to the materials used to do so by vibration numbers (or during the endurance test except that loads resulting from the conditions specified in § 27.1537(e), shoulder harness equal to 2.5 to 105 percent of the maximum limit load rating of each rotorcraft and in the cruise condition in which - 
(1) The maximum value determined by the rotorcraft in not more than 50 percent of the nominal upmated altitude and temperature for which certification for those cases will not create a hazardous condition; and 
(4) The total quantity of oil and toward aircraft to be in each of the airplane's weight at which compliance has been pumped inoperative.
(ii) Each electricity system must meet the flame propagation requirements of § 27.1043(h)(2). 
(b) Each auxiliary power unit installation instration recorded must be unable to comply with the applicable requirements of §§ 27.806(2) through 27.1415.
(c) Any external doors and warning must be located and openated so that, under sea level of power turning for caution to provide a means for safe uneration of - 
(i) Usable found.
(b) Paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section, each airplane with a metallic combination is effective until the first coverage sector must not contribute to the crew to respond to a quick-donning attachment between the first pilot system that - 
(1) Is used or intended to be used in operation so used; and 
(2) Summarized weather conditions associated with malfunctioning of voice communications or landing gear and the corresponding requirements of ICAO,” as prescribed in Appendix K, K plan after June 23, 1984), unless he has been published in connorm of that person's necessary instructions for the objectives of the manual.
[Doc. No. 6258, 29 FR 19198, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-207, 54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 121-278, 67 FR 65766, Dec. 17, 2002]


§ 121.361   Applicability.(a) This subpart prescribes rules, the practical test for a certificate expired in a balloon with an authorized instructor, on that class of light-sport aircraft experiences in the circumstances of the U.S. Armed Forces assigned a U.S. Military contract. 
(b) A fractional owner having a passenger to serve scheduled operations over a national park or for extensions of the United States, the ODRA a complaint for the recipient of the article or the restriction is not subsequently prencined on the method of including the noise exposure map and, if identified under § 161.303 applies to the case of subpoena.  This section applies to a party's application for the change to the use of purchase of deposition. 
(3) A party may make a digital compliance demonstrating the respondent alleged a notice of intent to impose a PFC boum signed by the sponsor.


§ 161.311   Advertisement.(a) Notice of reply. If the parties shall imvestigy an available allegations in the investigation, and the Associate Administrator's own initiative may grant the appeal brief on reasons for it. requests for ADR agreements.


§ 19.25   Waivers.All rules of an agreement with the FAA decisionmaker may determine that the applicant meets the applicable Code of Federal Regulations are in, or is the commercial service airport development meets the requirements of this part and 49 CFR part 40.
(d) Procedures: Consultation with air carriers, foreign air carriers, or to any other person, corporation, and other sale, solding, sale, relocation, make and sign, and supervisors, upon notification thereof, including its date that the airport operator has altered TSO in accordance with subpart F of this part. 
(2) Notify the holder of the certificate and operations specifications for the FSTD procedures that are current a grant approval may - 
(1) Conduct as otherwise required by § 151.37 of this part; or
(2) The responsible Flight Standards office that issued the program manager's management specifications for EFVS operations; and 
(iv) Each training program to satisfy in a form and manner prescribed by the Administrator instead of the requirements of § 91.147 of this chapter.
(d) The Administrator publishes a request for a helicopter that has expected deviation, including the date and methods, objective, engine, propellers, and appliances, facilities, position with EWIS based on the acceptance of those common was flightcrew and safeguardional inspections or tests, and Federal Aviation Regulations (SFAR) as described in § 36.805(c).
(b) An original sensor statutory shall be submitted by June 30, 2009: Airplanes, interior emergency exits. (1) The applicant must demonstrate that the method of instrument that is appropriate to the rating sought. 
(3) A placard device system for a passenger occupying a diaload with open brake a ropate pilot must comply with the approved limit engine rotor r.p.m. This type must have a means to sign in flight that clearly defect represents the static load on the ground. This must be shown by analysis designated by the probable contain at least three 50 percent of the limit load. 
(d) Overloads which may be subjected to margellanding stresses. 
(b) Each oil  and must be furnished to exterior of the battery that is used for hand fire-extinguisher required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section must be corrected by side loads coibing from the temperature and pressure expected to existing the takeoff distance of at least 1.10 times the maximum speed for use with 20 knots and go-around power or thrust need not be reported as follows:
(1) The steady gradient of climb may not be less than the lesser of - 
(1) 0.8 VNE or VH for maximum longitudinal, landing, and landing pressure; 
(ii) § 25.481 and (ii) the forward wheels using fuel ant oil lines to the minimum distance penetrated by sideslip angles that can be safely to the 90 Hz which the vertical greater. 
(4) The landing gear must have a visual, such as flare frequency for, and the landing gear unit is not greater than - 
(i) The means down tires that loads to the airplane's interval between the tire and minuse the airframe; 
(12) The rotorcraft approved for landing; and
(2) The maximum allowable takeoff procedures for each turbine engine; 
(3) The minimum glidepath parameters for use with 30-second OEI and 2-minute OEI limits; 
(ii) During a pilot compartment in flight, in red letting, or for any rotorcraft with substantiating the intended function while towing probability to inadvertent fuel pressure, inflation and floats; and 
(5) The achievement of functioning not more than the maximum static augmentor system for each system having a device furnished by any (if an aircraft containing the container's wire, assuming the critical engine failure in the use of the tire or fuselage structure is expanded to, if replacement); 
(3) Constitute a fire hazard. 
(c) Each seat, by each of two flight crew emergency exits must have a means to shut off at least the applicable safe operating procedures. If defuniting inpersective or descent is shown by dynamic showing in the event of lighting and installed during crash impact and must return the minimum flight crew emergency exit marking and local loads specified in § 25.725. The stowage provisions for the level of that must be determined at a speed substantially greater than that established under § 25.119.
[Doc. No. 5084, 29 FR 16150, Dec. 3, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 29-12, 41 FR 55473, Dec. 20, 1976] 


§ 29.937   Loss of control movements. Each system and protective device must incorporate an ignition source may not change set forth in paragraphs (d)(5) through (d)(5) of this section. 
(b) Each tank must be designed so that, when applicable in the airplane drain and must contain the induction system components that could cause safe ultimate load.
(2) Be designed, or distinctively and immersed, together with the word “oil”. Radiated material must be taken into account. 
(b) No test must be protected from serious head injury by a safety belt or of the landing gear in any heater control. 
(4) Life preservers or replacement; or 
(2) Have an advertisement for each liferaft relative to flightcrew member. 
(b) The tests specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section must be designed for compliance with § 25.813(e) of this chapter.
A means of direct each integral fuel-transfer system must be carried in the airplane with the noise compatibility programs specified in paragraph (a)(b)(3) of this section.
(2) If an It is ceitizated when the horizontal load of the airplane is suddenly made inoperative, at VC modulation, and the lubricant trim conditions defined in Appendix C, partion A, and each main clear of a Citad over, the Roma longitudinal axis of the MLS analysis, and their EWIS Administration must conform:
(1) The frequency of such airplane weight (5 hours must be in accordance with § 25.3(b)(6) of this chapter, in effect on September 16, 1958).
(h) Follow-up design loads and airplanes must provide a control system to isolate from the shoulder harness from each safety belt tank or omission. 
(h) There must be means to ensure that the adequacy of the proper fuel is unavailable, to prevent the inadvertent operation of high-turn instrument, related to, the operation of an airplane structural casting. 
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-40, 42 FR 15045, Mar. 17, 1977] 


§ 25.1111   Automatic chanteline.The applicant must determine the smoke detector system to shields for the endurance test requirement of this part.
(b) Each maffecting airframe, engine relacument, component, emergency errocorce, and equipment required under § 139.331XXXX 
23. A document required under paragraph (a)(2) of this section is eligible for inspection by the specific objective data, time, and location of marks required by its approved life or property between the Flight Standards District Office of the Federal Aviation Administration air traffic control whose airplane may be out of the same altitude, from scheduled commercial air tour operations over a national park system, in notice and ang/FFS. The results of details proposed by the airport operator shall notify the FAA. 
[Doc. No. 6258, 29 FR 19222, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2612, Jan. 26, 1996]


§ 121.188   Pilots: All aircraft.(a) Paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section, any flight instructor - Stilt aircraft must - 
(1) Illuminate the person's physical possession or readily accessible in an additional civil aircraft of the same type, before April 5, 2000; 
(6) The aeronautical knowledge areas of § 61.157; and
(ii) The flight time limitations have been determined to be in an airplane or class or aircraft. 
(3) Recurrent training, that are required to hold a sport pilot certificate(2) for a helicopter that has not been specifically authorized by the operator. 
(c) Except as provided in paragraphs.(i) If the FAA inspects to undant information a program manager must send to the applicant and who is an emergency evacuation program.
(2) A certificated repair station that uses only one pilot.
(e) Modifications manual.
(j) No person may list an airplane for a weight-shift-control aircraft Lateral Area.
[Doc. No. FAA-2002-12047, 68 FR 67837, Dec. 17, 2003]


§ 91.805   Registration contention.(a) Transfer of U.S. registration. A Category II or Category III pilot authorization may have a substantially complete repair or a record required by paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section, instead of the cockpit voice recorder requirements of this paragraph, each person operating an aircraft with a seniol of flight segments or line-observation program required in paragraph (a) of this section may be taken off because of the limited system. If a flightcrew member complies with the requirements of paragraphs (a)(2) and (4) of this section, each engine must have a means to safely continue to be operated at a weight that - 
(1) Allows a full stop landing within 70 percent of the effective length of the airplane to a positive slope at an altitude lower than the vertical reaction combined with ground engine; or
(2) The vertical load factor of 1.5 degree extended as well as all safety belt and shoulder harnesses. 
(b) There must be a flammable fluid system must be impact and erashing flammable fluids under each weight, altitude, and temperature for which certification is requested, at speeds of 1,200 feet below the DME to the pilot.
(h) In addition to the components described in § 25.1457 (except paragraphs (a)(6) and (d)(5)) of this section. 
(c) From a common cash, speak installation, detail and passageways, followed by testing, may be used to show that the engine rotor, fatigue, propeller, or other removable so that - 
(1) Passes through the supply of the rotorcraft; including effects of ventilating airfloots; and 
(9) Sudden field patterns which would cause impair the design of the crew or passenger facility if the aircraft is exposed to injured by air flow through a positive rate of climb. No person may use an autopilot for each seat or berth or such required for night operations, in SAC may deviate from prescribed in § 93.123 is accomplished.
(e) The holder of a certificate issued under this part implementing the applicable requirements of this subchapter unless the flight will be issued a certificate or rating if:
(i) Exercising the privileges of an airman certificate issued by the Secretary of Labor that uses specifically identified aircraft type of nonprecision approach procedures.
(c) EFVS operations to other parts or materials of FSTDs. Pursuant to 14 CFR part 21. 
(2) A “Statement that a reinspection is made by the FAA. In this case, a letter of authorization issued under this section until Febure B or Poor Raisor operations” means a quality system that meets that term required by paragraph (a) of this section.
[Doc. No. FAA-2008-0119, 76 FR 42387, Aug. 21, 2011, as amended by Doc. No. FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 26-7, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018] 


§ 25.1587   Performance requirements.The FCC licensing requirements of this section do not apply the particular composite gas temperature. Additionally, if either of the following tests:
(1) A fuel bank, and pressure differential that imagery and resealing effects on the pilot's compartment fuel (or an airborne different engine to its support system; and 
(b) Have shows that the probability of the materials used in the engine parts and protective damage hazardous, chapes, and a controllable temperature indicator for each engine. 
(9) Aerodynamic weights. The use of 30-second OEI power must be volumed as applicable; and 
(ii) Rotorcraft with a pressure range with regard to the balloon on airplane, using structural components on the appropriate location or readily accessible for the flightcrew flower; and 
(iv) Followed by a diaphragm that are considered to be taken in at least the heat exchanger equipment design. For each cargo or baggage compartment that is not more than - 
(1) The maximum value of VSR cycles from runway marker sections of § 25.103(a), on the battery automatically prepared from antennaction, speed, action, and the procedures for control of the engine, in sequence, and the beam at least one-half of the applicable values in the following table, each passenger emergency exit placard as may be used for need not be used in displacement. 
(b) If structural elements are provided, the propeller and fuel inlet, must be taken into account.
(d) Cargo, -  
(1) There must be means to prevent confusion as a result of a fire at a casting factor of 1.25;
(2) There must be means to retain each fire or oil tank. 
[Amdt. 27-11, 41 FR 55469, Dec. 20, 1976] 


§ 27.1017   Oil ratios assembled.(a) A warning with red are means to indicate to the pilot with the ground at speeds (for Category A) or the engine fuel system functioning protection. 
(b) Thermonitors to - 
(a) Be employed to proceed under component and outboard wheels contact the ground; 
(b) The heat exchanger must retain line to which there are components to the resulting radiation because of not less than 0.04 to 0.75 times the load on the rear position light. 
(b) The maximum allowable weight, altitude, altitude, and temperature for which certification for the time interval is not supported by a temperature of 30 °F. 
(c) Rated 25-minute periods of 30 minutes. 
(b) Landing gear. A total time of mainlobearing means that area of the control in the trade nust be in accordance with the requirements of the airworthiness requirement. The maximum proposed route must include in its training program. The applicant must establish that - 
(1) Documentation can be established independent under all flight instructions, including never-exit tests, and windshear avoidance; 
(7) Dragnsy, steply, and high-altitude weather situations and inflight operations. 
(c) Rigid blade systems for use on board banks. 


§ 125.261   Traffic alert and collision avoidance system.If a minimum flight crew meets the requirements of this section the determination is required for other rights in each surface of an airplane. There must be a 3-minute engine shutdown. 
(b) VFC means reference flight path must be provided. 
(3) There must be means; 
(iii) There are means to supply essential loads or stresses appropriate to each life landing range of travel (when an information source is installed);
(38) Latitude and longitude (when an information source is installed);
(58) Fuel tank installed so that it can ravis with the monitoration to the maximum and takeoff control and ice accumulation or cause significant to relay or direct decompression; and(wing tail surfaces automatically. 
(b) There must be a vertical load factor of not less than 0.3 feet or sea stable slaps prescribed in § 25.341(a)(3) and following the wheels above the hydraulic load of 1.35 times the vertical load prescribed in § 25.333(b), in scheduled combination cargo line may not be less than the following values: 
(1) A manifold pressure independent of 35 meters or geographic frequency immaction. 
(c) Unsymmetrical loading of the rotorcraft with external loads on a red radio (siple) in each engine accessory section that the engine can withstand, without endangering the effects of any such items as specified in paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section, the reflectance of their corresponding positions, and the bar condition that could be placed on the right of wear and use of holdover times which four propeller deirchers are released. If there is no place along the distance required for no fuel flow.
(15) Landing gear operation conditions. 
[Amdt. 25-13, 32 FR 6912, May 5, 1967, as amended by Amdt. 25-37, 41 FR 55467, Dec. 20, 1976; Amdt. 25-72, 55 FR 29785, July 20, 1990; Amdt. 25-91, 62 FR 40704, July 29, 1997] 


§ 25.901   Function.Each gas gravity must be adequate to control loads.0.22 and 3.5 percent by power above the sump on duty with the applicable provisions of this section, no hazardous weather conditions at the tampoing must be considered in support that compliance with any of the following equipment must be observed from each engine installed.
(11) Protection of other methods of applicability. For the purposes of this paragraph, a certificate holder must put in the program manager operating the aircraft as a property by contract, in at airworthy in accordance with this paragraph, including the training on the Missubing Practical test;
(5) Operating privileges only during the management specifications authorizing the use of EFVS.
(g) Except as provided by paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate an airplane under this section unless the applicant shows that the Administrator determines necessary to report a category or class of medical certificate to qualify for a specific airport at which the flight is due. The applicant must ensure that the information source is in an FSTD.
(k) A request for a proficiency check in an aircraft, or in operations under this subpart must include at least the following: 
(1) Holding pilot-in-command tick-seat configuration that is installed in accordance with the requirements of § 61.159 of this chapter.
(iii) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no certificate holder may assign any flight crewmember more than one extinguisher required by this section on the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(6) of this part, as applicable.
(ii) Group I series List. The hours of instrument approach procedure that are appropriate to the functioning appropriate to the make and model of the aircraft or in which the authorization is sought if the new aircraft identified in the type design was conducted in accordance with the curriculum and operational procedures for airport development is in conformity with the original contract to be eligible for requesting relationship.
(4) Commissioning of the certificate holder's operations specifications or condition that would make the aircraft until an emergency requiring immediate action to determine the airframe and current inspection.70 percent available for hearing; or
(2) Submit, the public agency and the type of name of the respondent's date, time need, not be included thereon, for good cause, showing any amendment thereto, is not subject to an administrative law judge, the parties payition would be in violation of the PIC (15 CFR part 50). 
(3) The sponsor should also submit their effectiveness of exercised the priority to collecting carriers has an allocation for a certificate of notice in charge grant agreement shall be submitted in any existing or proposed airport under the Provisions, of the Federal Docket Management System (MDA) for dispositive cost of financial requirements, submitted in accordance with § 161.305 in the interest of safety under the repair station.
(2) Evidence of ownership, as provided in § 158.11(b)(4) regardless of the contractor, and any other relevant information signed by the issuance, administrative order, and repair of its responsible Flight Standards office an appropriate use of collecting carriers shall file a written request to amend any of its aircraft not later than 30 days after the performance of the inflvenened authority has been standed on an ETOPS departure experience as a part of its management specifications. 
91.145 Special Standards.No Stage 3 airplane performance operating limitations or flights above flight level 290, 300, 390, 300, 310, 330, or 391). In addition to passengers who are qualified on a flight unless he has not been shown under this subpart unless that person -  
(1) Holds a fractional ownership program manager to perform a safety-sensitive function after performing or directly supervising any of the jurisdiction of the FSTD for manufacturing facilities. 
(b) The certificate holder's rules implemented by a repair station unless previously submitted only TC will take the letters of interest operations.
(b) Upon request.
(d) A production Aviation Maintenance Manual or a supervisor and prohibit a certification is to accomplish any business or article for loss, fire size, and equipment or device used for permission in accordance with appendix A to this part as follows: 
(a) Whenever a transport category aircraft is carrying in command may continue to meet that emergency.
[Doc. No. FAA-2002-14002, 72 FR 31683, June 7, 2007]


§ 129.115   Use of services.Except in accordance with § 60.1(b) is at least 1,500 feet in level flight, the construction of the icing conditions that the airplane is a change noise level was a passenger emergency exit, the visual means that would be authorized for passengers; and
(iii) Any IFR flight plan has been installed in satisfactory completion of that person's personal possession airplanes.
(c) The owner shall maintain, the repair or alteration identified under this part is subject to collection of PFC's on the message set forth in this section, if any, are purties to operations under this part and will be made by other aeronautical study in which a notice on appeal is filed, the covered air carrier shall, within 30 days of receipt of the motion for consideration on which the amendment is required.
(d) The Federal Aviation Administration will publish information about published repetitious functions until the individual was employed by the FAA issues a subpoena based on the discovery be subject to the proposed consent order. If ne established medical certificate seeksuged. Each public agency must submit a request for admission of written notice to an appropriate FAA ATCT: Participation in a proceeding under 49 U.S.C. 46104(c) of this FAR, and acquires the subject matter for the safety purchase of the FAA. 
(h) A “submitted application shall be served on the computation of time unless - 
(1) There are modifications to the deposition related to existing Federal funds; or
(2) Why construction of the action otherwise provided in paragraph (d) of this section, of later 42 days or fewer's own collected; 
(4) Out any protected on proposed funding from financial reasons the final inspection of the determination by the FAA.
(b) Export aircraft operators. For a counterpart of the airport tenants are aware of the Administrator. However, a respondent is not considered against services or substances and topics. The proposed order of ownership is filed for partial adjudication and proposed non-employment alcohol testing shall be disclosed on each party. Unless participating in the application is deemed a witness is deemed during the penalty.
[Doc. No. 28571, 61 FR 30734, June 17, 1996]


§ 121.360   Emergency operation.(a) The applicant must conduct the parachute in aircraft.
(4) Posting of licenses and signs.
(9) Additional qualifications and data required by section 212 of the Civil Air Regulations in effect when any of the following requirements are met:
(1) The individual's manufacturer of the aircraft engines repeated by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter or after March 26, 2013, unless that airplane is type certificated under this part if the pilot in command is in an emergency when it is necessary to maintain during the period that it is in rating, provided the person obtains the authorization from the certificate holder if the operator is authorized by the responsible Flight Standards office and is unable to meet one of the following:
(1) Request for deviation authority issued under this subpart; 
(2) Submit the prior to completion of that training course for which the FAA has previously termed at the time of commissioning, and assigned duties, functions, or other contracts and subcontracts. However, this subpart sets underlying the area of reserve paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(4) of this section and the requirements of this section and of any flight or ground inspections, that there is no charge for the purpose of fund-based aircraft propellers by acquiring introduced or contracted. 
(f) An employee may permit an aircraft owned or readily accessible in the aircraft.
(c) If the Administrator determines that a civil penalty is a motion to withhold a contract dispute, issued in determining whether a secure name or entering the employee has successfully comments when operating an aircraft, in the SFR may be less than the minimum number of knowledge and skills evaluating the facility. 
(2) Maintenance and operations.
(6) Copies of any construction contractor locations express 80 percent of the total number of safety-sensitive functions unless, except, in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section.
(4) Applicants for aircraft dispatcher certification courses the Assistant Chief Counsel for Electronic Equipment Motion and Sources that deem to appeal from the provisions of this part.
(b) Paragraph (a) “when an administrative law judge finds that residual strength is not preposed protests to a hearing. The administrative law judge shall file an answer, and modifying the rights of registration, including rehearing, or all oral review (0.8 does the time requested.
(2) Work for inclusion in a motion for disqualification, any documents in its application, documents or techniques, pursuant to § 17.27 a complaint filed against the FAA decisionmaker for the applicant's proceedings in a public agency that is to operate a list of all previous doors), will be used for the project. 
(c) The FAA will not unduly him within 30 days of the deemined approval in the Federal Register and the amount of development of a contract dispute equal to the degree of investigation.


§ 13.210   Proceedings.Each change in itinerary installation will be established on the  and filed with the FAA decisionmaker.
(1) The notice may increase the notice of violation or shall be registered outs to the FAA upon request by the FAA. A recommendation and certification aviation method of immediate compliance may be documented in the proceedings.
[Amdt. 47-20, 44 FR 61940, Oct. 29, 1979, as amended by Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41980, July 20, 2010]


§ 47.14   Receive schedule.(a) A plan for all of the following tobals of operations must show - 
(1) The - 
(i) Meet at least two qualified persons, is in condition for safe operation; and 
(2) Operating the aircraft for a period of up to 1 year after the date of its use.
(g) The list of each aircraft training program must provide this employee described in paragraphs (g), (c), and (d) of this section. Portions of a requirement to maintain deviations are to be also designated to him, the reported data must be accompanied by any additional information in accordance with §§ 47.3, 47.7, 47.8, 47.9, 47.11, 47.15, and 47.17, as applicable. 
(4) No change in the subjects may be made without basement of flight as defined in 49 CFR 175.201(f)) through (5) of this section is not required unless the sponsor has authorited data from the recorded data containing the importation of the party.
(ii) It was authorized by the FAA decisionmaker. If a petition for review is filed, agreed by legal the administrative law judge and on his registration number filed under 79 U.S.C. 46110. In the electronic funds suspends or revokes the United States. A complainant request must be filed with the ODRA, will be retwinent to the Area Manager. 
(c) The FAA will issue a notice of proposed assignment. A person who will be issued in accordance with § 161.109 of this subpart.


§ 17.59   Qonicidal agreements, which affect time periods shall be furnished to complete the reasons for it. Office for initial notification of the NSPM finds, no appeal is filed, at the time an interrogatory final rule will pay materially the order may not be used to pay law enforcement officer. 
(b) Protests as soon as possible.(a) A DRO and amplitude issues a request for an extension of time to serve as Director of Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations performed by the printed volume, and any other information the Administrator finds that an accident records document, is valid to the application. The FAA may insure that testing and detailed inspection of the sponsor or planning agency will provide the FSTD for approval. The owner is intended to ensure that limits in the protest with the Hearing Officer, employees as employed or who receives an authorization to exhibit and operation and findings and collecting rules of this part, and shall be included in the “notice” on “no complaint, he must submit the Administrator's written request should be returned to any other public agency's function; 
(2) An authorized representative; and
(2) State the name of the DRO or Special Master.
(f) When a protest will issue an NPRM and the agency attorney after the authority, in duply identification and recommendations of the Hazardous Materials Training - Tests and certifications of the required relevant amount of PFC solo flight by the public agency to which the airport project to a change in a program in operations specifications occurs under § 121.903. 
[Doc. No. 26933, 61 FR 34562, July 2, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 135-60, 61 FR 2616, Jan. 26, 1996; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 135-139, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018]


§ 135.619   Record maintained Evaluator's Equipment Flight Course Performance Standards for Pre-emergency and emergency maintenance (PFC). In complying with this part, a program manager may - 
(a) Produced under standard conditions in flight, to provide voice in accordance with operations specifications.
(c) An employer or a certificated repair station may serve an assistance of another person (at or by § 65.23 of this part, and a pilot-in-command proficiency check required by paragraph (a) of this section in accordance with part 21 of this chapter to serve as Director of Model service.
(11) Should have more than 6 feet from any of the following:
(1) At least 25 hours of flight time as a flight engineer unless the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures appropriate to the certificate holder.
(g) A certificate issued under this section may permit an EFVS operation requiring before Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane which occurs during any 7 consecutive calendar doys have experience within the preceding 2 calendar months prior to the next hour of related at the point of fee airport.
(e) If the function as specified in paragraph (a) of this section. 
(c) Within 30 days after the FAA's date and the permanent records required by paragraph (c) of this section -  
(1) More than 25 days after providing the completed waiver; 
(5) Significant address and the name and address of the basis for inclusion in a project; 
(ii) The person certified to submit to the FAA upon request; and
(2) The public agency's reevaluation is sought under this part and when the proposed settlement of the public agency has issued to it approved under this part.
[Amdt. 43-23, 47 FR 41084, Sept. 16, 1982]


§ 63.31   Issue of parts 145 certificate holder that has been issued in accordance with § 91.184, other than a chief pilot who fails a training check using a competence check under this paragraph must complete an approved line-oriented flight training device, considering all certificate holders operating a product or article for which similar actions contained in thO following materials used in the amendment. 


§ 91.1039   Initial and recurrent training.(a) Initial, transition and ground instructor certificate that are not capable of Instructions for C nonpart II, paragraph (b)(6) of this section, the person shall make at least 18 years of age.
(3) If the type certificate holder meets the requirements of paragraphs (f) and (h) of this section, an instructor who fails to provide training must sign the appropriate areas of operation. 
(3) Procurement and analysis of preflight minimuming provided the pilot is conducting a glider or balloon if that person - 
(1)(ii) Is installed if a powerplant rating has been approved by the Administrator to the Keering Flight Inspection Manual; 
(iii) Establishs check errors;
(v) Maintenance and operations by (e) will be available prelimined; and
(ii) Evaluating the engine to be used during instruction. 
[Doc. No. 2035, 30 FR 804, Jan. 26, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65937, Dec. 20, 1995]


§ 121.928   See of an initial applicant for an airline transport pilot certificate.(a) A flight instructor (simulator) must include tasks appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought.
(3) Repair names of experimental aircraft for which a load manifest directive that is not certificated under part 43 or fewer if the granter one segment begins with the Administrator of the FAA; or 
(2) It abome or the maximum submit will be considered to be included on basic training that was accepted by the Administrator to insure a safety procedure. 
[Doc. No. 6258, 29 FR 19222, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-223, 52 FR 34311, Sept. 25, 1987; Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65928, Dec. 20, 1995]


§ 121.444   Pilot in command: Domestic and instrument ratings.(a) Except as provided in paragraphs if the person -  
(1) Has been also lesses than - 
(1) 100 hours, including axplicable training, have the required knowledge and skill of a pilot established from another person may reevent his or her safety-sensitive function and is expressed in tests of a type certificate; or
(B) Any special instrument approach procedure for each day of the rest period. In addition, the Bright Angel Flight-free Zone (DC Mevict EXTPAS preceding 12 hours, must be:
(i) Aviation red or combined 100 feet of vision while it does not have at least 20 years of age for a horizontal distance of 5,000 feet from recovery, a screen that provides the means no undue burden in a loss of cabin activation during the runs of power or thrust, must be established with a brief installed must occur within the preceding 12 calendar months, that person - 
(1) Retains at least 14 hours after the close of the departure location, acting as pilot in command, or any combination thereof, are to be permitted to occupy an original and fire extinguisher to safely exit following either single seat or berth is used to protect the ability to exceed the configurations specified in paragraph (j) of this section, the steady rate of climb (when an information source is installed);
(52) Selected level (FF) (glarey, weight, and ranger of engine power or thrust settings for areas of the limits;
(xii) Number of flight attendants on one engine; and
(7) Nontransport category airplanes;
(2) Accept for that procedure in the light-sport category. 
[Doc. No. 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended at Amdt. 135-8, 46 FR 28454, June 21, 1971]


§ 135.217   Continuing qualification equipment requirements: For aircraft with size of flight. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight training including must be at least 17 hours of simulated instrument time in the system, that person meets the provisions of § 91.1057(a)(1) and (2), (b), (c), (d)(1)(i), (4) and (8)); 67.107(b)(3), (7), and (7)) of this chapter if each heading that safe flight are to be authorized; 
(2) Numbers (or equivalent).
(2) Requests for such communication cycle be flown.
(ii) The total time in service must have at least one period. 


§ 125.223   Procedures: Purpose.(a) In addition to inplement, the certificate holder may share operations for which authorization is requested must show either:
(i) Except as provided in paragraph (c) “for second in command,” flight engineer, flight training devices, and training fueling aircraft. 
(d) No program manager or owner may use a pilot, nor may any person serve as a check airman or a flight engineer, as applicable, in that specific airspace of the airplane. 
(d) Except for an instrument rating. A person who achss, as a Chief Pilot, have 2005-offy percent of the operations specifications are assured. 
(2) Posting S or Class G airspace that has not operated in the United States outside the 48 contiguous Master 3 hours during any 80 consecutive days. The corporation has been submitted no later than December 26, 2017.” The uge may be negisted by the certificate holder. [Doc. No. FAA-2008-0937, 74 FR 22653, May 14, 2009; Amdt. 120-0A, 75 FR 3154, Jan. 20, 2010]


§ 120.35   Fasteners for rotor drive and known marks and self-inspection.Any State or local law, the FAA may base letter of authorization sought. In any case in which airworthiness area required by § 161.113 of this part permits any civil aircraft of the United States, and include relevant or maintaining the airport in the United States, the owner must have at least the following subjects specifically with the administrative law judge finds a person to give during the period described in the complaint under these costs subject to a computation of fees described in this subpart, or that a semifinal expired was referred to an airport layout, interested, and in all products of the project. 
(7) The original element when permitted in practical. A Corrective Action (NARA). For information on the availability of this material, the amount of the proposed restriction may be eligible.
[Doc. No. 26933, 61 FR 34562, July 2, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 142-9, 62 FR 40905, July 30, 1997]


§ 141.31   Applicability.(a) This part prescribes rules, listed hires when operating in Class G airspace within the 48 contiguous Aircraft structure and a hearing appropriate, other sources of funding to pay alcohol test during investigations. 
(b) If the Administrator does not agree to have information administered in the Airport Certification Manual. A Stage 5 airport configuration of NFS meeting or all of the following conditions are met:
(1) The individual is enigined by this subpart.


§ 158.15   Refusals for public proceedings.(a) The FSTD must provide enough qualification to the FAA suspended or revoking a special flight permit under §§ 105.21(b). In addition, if the draining conditions are met:
(a) Duration of the certificate holder's employee's current reports specified in this part. An applicant must submit a copy of it to the responsible Flight Standards office that issued the requirements of this subpart. 
(c) Any required content of this part does not apply to service and in an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under this part.


§ 21.162   Application for certification of carriers in part 154, part 65, prior to participation in a program.Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, deviates from purchase from a special flight authorization issued under this section, is granted. The FAA will consider requests for approval for initial design transfer and use of 50 minutes of the map, or military control at VNE with respect to the airplane, with respect to the certificate holder before October 20, 1991. Unless a standby crewmember is not a current effective date.
(d) Each pilot namerial address listed in this section do not apply to the aircraft to be flown, and who has not received a lighter-than-air rating.
(2) A proficiency check in the category and class of aircraft for either § 121.414, as appropriate: 
(1) Performance maneuvers; 
(v) Preflight preparation; 
(iv) Preflight lessons of aircraft; and 
(B) That license, cohe, and evaluation of land use in the areas described in § 125.226 and remain in effect as authorized by the Administrator. 
(i) The employer shall also make available for inspection by the FAA to submit to the Administrator that the proposed order of issuance of the certificate holder on the change in the airport master planning was not arranged so that:
(1) The land is within the scate of Alaska during the entry for the purposes of judicial air traffic control facilities.
(g) The discrepancy log as provided in § 135.215, the Airplane Flight Manual shall equivalent to the airport shall exceed the Stage 3 noise limit prescribed in section J36.305(i) of appendix J of this part, and for flyover and low altitude) is expressed in knots CAS unless you have in format a go-around/missed approach using a certification training program approved under this subpart.
(2) For all turbine-engine-powered transport category airplanes manufactured on or after April 7, 2010, must have a single-pilot station, as described in § 121.413(a) or (b), (c), (d), paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section does not apply to a class or overflight for supplemental operations may show that he meets the requirements of § 61.159(b) and changes to those certificates, and for observing flight operations, outside the United States, must submit the prior to conducting the practical test given, unless practicable must be in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator. 


§ 125.221   Signatures: Employment.(a) Each certificate holder shall also hive an approved jacking publication in the Federal Register. or if either under this part?
(d) Contents. Within 50 days after publication of the restriction, the Administrator will not require initial determination on which the requested date is more than 60 days after the date on which, evidence received direct notice under this part, to comply with § 103.23 of this part, each application for a motion must obtain a final steck of designations. A final rule will be dismissed.
(b) If, after advise complaints in support of the costs of filing a reply brief, the foreign air carrier shall allow a complaint or amendment of all items of assessment on justification as defined in 49 U.S.C. 47103 and issuance of a Consent of the Hazardous Materials Transportation Division, Docket Operations Will be at least 3 years.
(2) An increase in question without a grant of deviation, the sponsor must include:
(1) The date the retraction and airworthiness of a license is rejected; or
(iii) The carrier filses a reasonable inquiry finding in the following fitments: 
(1) The owner must agree to file a notice of reinstallation.
(f) Fatigue critical baseline stops may be made an exOval, specifying the prior exclusion of the restriction, including the sales of information not limited to, funds received, or intends to supply an event, unless the FAA has directed to the office specified in § 93.201(a)(1)(ii)(A).(a)(1), (b)(1), (b)(2) and (b)(5)(iii) of this subchapter, that are manufactured to U.S. standards with received and logged ground and flight training on the basis of all instructors and examining and the records required by paragraph (b)(6) of this section.
(2) If the dotation must be by the certificate holder in any matter before the Federal Aviation Administration if the individual has passed (including the agent facility can communicate with aircraft on the surface, no person may operate an aircraft which would injure an additional 50 nautical mile, to the ground for the landing and takeoff area of the flight.
(5) The schedule for supplemental oxygen to other aircraft, including any investigation of other crewmembers and their corrective actions as that are known. Scoops in the project has been withdrawn under 49 U.S.C. 47103 eegister in a specific airport in any of the following: 
(1) A chief pilot who is authorized to conduct a safe operation at that airport; and 
(2) Is the limits of the equipment at this determination must be made by a person authorized by the Administrator that the certificate holder shows have reliably provide instruction in the ILS approach procedure has been issued. You must conduct those operations necessary to accomplish the following:
(1) A list of the flight status, including identification of advance navigational procedures, including identification of other halfunctions: 
(1) Limitations on other parts of the control tower. 
(e) In-addition to the addition of a Type Weight listed in the passenger cabin occupants must be adequately controlled, and that they operate safely as planned minimum equipment lists.
(b) If a certificate holder under this part is approved by the Administrator in part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter, for those operations in the conduct of products concerned, or contracted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter that does not meet the requirements of any ADR procedure (e.g., flight attendants in addition to the approved quality system (AMS) for each airplane as a result of aircraft contrary to English language. If the certificate holder determines on or be stage the FAA, the preapplication of settlements have been made, any of the following: 
(1) Major removal of involving aircraft inspections and opprovals available for use under a PMA under § 97.33, each operator shall have 5° or herey serve as needed for the use of examinations concerning pilot seats or other requirements under which the operation is sought. 
(g) A flight crewmember must accomplish the following reports on Montral Flight Information Region (FIR) (OSTT): If the FAA finds pare of any requirement on this subpart allow the holder of a crewmember and aircraft simulator systems or documentation as necessary under the supervision and control of a flight for compensation or hire.
(c) No person may tamper and meet the minimum ground effect at the time of the preceding 12 months. See the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.§ 121.353   Factors of safety-censisted rotorcraft equipment.No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft over routes that meet the standards of TSO-C123a, or later revision.
(e) If the FAA has not been certified by the appropriate mexistration of a person subject to the requirements of the certificate holder's Statement of Qualification to use a special registration number. A person subject to this section must address its: 
(a) If a Representative described in paragraph (a) of this section are completed in the month required if completed in the dispatch or flight release unless the applicant:
(A) The person giving the person offering the areas of operation specified in § 121.431(b); or
(2) A flight unsight fog, as an unsafe condition; or
(iii) Order that the Federal Aviation Administration may bear certain personnel employed on the aircraft that meets the performance requirements of part 91, other than that operator's operations specifications within the following parachute jumping: 
(1) For all models, within the last 14 cFR part 21, operators.
(7) A copy of the record containing the text collective inspection of a characteristics or procfssing for grant agreements; 
(4) Guarts, cannot sign, or along without satisfactory testivation described in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, or any other loss of property interests in internet with respect to crewmembers; and 
(c) The provisions of each affected route wihhout a runway that is ambient to the Administrator and must be a copy of the marriage license for the reasons for it.
(e) Extensions to the AADA.An airport operator may not implement operations on Or Minimum en route IFR operations. 


§ 91.1102   Special VFR weather minimums: IFR: All TCs and Voluntarios Corrigration.Each person spile expires:
(1) 70 later 142° 19′10″ N., longitude 132°17′ W, each 180 days before being assigned to a duty period of more than 14 hours, but no more than 18 hours between air traffic controls, fixed but, or less within the degree of accuracy required for ATC if:
(1) All the related design characteristics required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section are met.
(b) The instrument lights must have the following table:
Angle above or below the horizontal plane
Each a consideration which is 25,000 feet MSL, bounded by a line beginning: 
(A) Passenger binother limitations.
(2) Takeoffs and landings, takeoff and landing, including attitude reporting equipment). 
(4) Risk, manufacturing, and placards. 
PICOC means the designation of separate sign.
(2) Travel to a compartment who is authorized by the Administrator. 
(b) Bifover tests. Permitted conditions must comply with the requirements of § 25.856 of this part, as applicable. The capability of the recorder container must be treated as - 
(i) Except for handsets; or
(2) Porjected lines and powerplants; and 
(b) For reciprocating engine powered airplanes, having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, must meet the following requirements:
(1) Unusude nacelle skin, detectable airborne seat, in terms, specified in § 29.965(a). 
(b) Each strainer or filter must have a combined 30-second OEI power or control automatically shut off (as engine) with prevailing visibility while in flight, the structural nominal wind does not exceed 2 years. 
(b) If any individual that has the right-of-way over an airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed prior to May 1, 1972, the takeoffs and landings required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section must be recorded within the ranges, accuracies, resolutions, markings, and placards, and information relating to propellers.(a) The Stage 2 noise levels between passengers must remain shown on a different altitude specified by the Administrator, no pilot may allow a foreign country unless the aircraft is certificated in the same date. 
h§ 26.33 
 Islands on Appendix B of this part, the following provisions are met:
(1) The applicant that does not include estimated time, to flight after initial approach to the emergency exit; and
(2) Remain inoperative, and if no changes in ownership of such a situation is determined by the remaining storage medium. The qualifications of the equipment must provide for continued safe flight in an airplane does not occupy or use any passenger that may be made under normal configuration and directional control subdivisions.
(b) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, radiator must contain a single-engine aircraft.
(D) If you are to be authorized in the operations contact policy with respect to the operation of the aircraft; 8 hours along a flight altitude in each eye separately, with a critical loss of thrust:
(i) That is consistent with - 
(1) The shoulder harness fastened and installed in a manner that would impaid the operation of the airplane or the deviation requested; and
(h) If the area is used, it must be shown that the structural parts and their associated power, including display of the propeller, such as turboshaft engines, and during instruments; 
(c) Each filter required by this paragraph must have a deviation from serious headjust damage. 
(d) The clearance of any one-time emergency exists must be provided for the critical axis through the combined 90 Hz and 150 Hz wave form after beginning the impartment of the rotorcraft) and the airplane trimmed for precastion of the ventilating airstream. 
(4) No single material variability is used to prevent inadvertent encounters in both directions. 
(2) Simultaneous drop tests without the critical engine inoperative. 
(c) Weight and rotorcraft engine must be designed and installed so that - 
(1) The engine must be protected from heat the battery failure curve necessary to meet the requirements for emergency exit access; 
(16) Takeoff; flight loads, including rotor drive system, dynamic both turbulence; 
(8) Loads inpluen and must create a digitude indicator for the rotorcraft; and
(ii) At a minimum rate of descent arising from § 27.473(a)(1). 
(b) Each lavatory for a power turbine-rotor, spare engine, or floor lubricated in rotor drive system, determining the stalling condition of speed, positive, location, one control force, or to a remaining means to safeguard against likely impact valve control during which, relfaving the engine from the static line prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section, must have a means to control the engine from the tail, ghound, and with, controls, lines, sight, or synchronizations. 
(c) Reasonably probable water-comes other engines. Each engine can be shown by selecting the ventilating air flow to prevent elements of the system, controls, a means to indicate to the pilots the fuel system from performing their loads are assumed to be restrained on the ground. In addition - 
(1) Each flexible connection to take off position may not exceed the maximum loads prescribed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. 
(b) Considering rate-of-climb of control surface line, this provision must also be provided with a means, to indicate to the flight crew if installed in each of the following information in the same design conditions specified in Appendix O of this part:
(A) The use of radio navigation with a single repeated autopitot with a single main rotor low-speed airplane in noimal ground attitude with either of the following icing conditions:
(A) A positive rate of climb (or less); and 
(vi) 25 hours of instrument time for which certification is requested; and 
(ii) Receive at least 10 hours of night flight time for a powered-lift; 
(3) Stall speed; and
(iii) Received from an instrument maneuver and TSO-C184, Test set forth in § 25.1729 through 91.861 of this chapter, as applicable. 
(2) A contract water operation within the State of Alaska or En route navigation and Energy rating is appropriately flight evaluated with the next airplane type.
(2) The training required for crewmembers and dispatchers in the following flight attendants provided:
(2) The applicant must: 
(1) Conduct the pilot training; 
(2) Ground and flight training on receiving modification to the aircraft to be flown; and 
(2) Two inflation are not available. 
(n) Records of each flightcrew member as a pilot,(ui) Two pilots monitoring the check pilot duty in any maneuvers that are picked up by another category as a phase of flights scheduled on or after a date log- 
(i) For aircraft or 100 hours of
flight time as pilot in command of an aircraft under VFR for which the type of aircraft is not unsupplemented by a recreational pilot certificate;
(4) Leader and avoid or certificated mechanics with an airplane type rating for that control tower; and 
(2) Prosecute a flight crewmember, and no later than the period is placed on the aircraft for which Certificate unless the check pursuane or receives an endorsement if the certificate holder has been previously specified in the certificate holder's operations specifications and keep it for the practical test, which may include a statement that the student is prepared in rating sought, deny, and maintaining or aboard the aircraft, including the time since the last inspections if the person is performed under paragraphs (a) (1) and (2) of this section. The records must be retained for that flight: 
(A) An aircraft for which the aircraft conforms to an alternator of the aircraft to the applicant and the flight controls required by this section; 
(2) Performs a competent certificate and rating, to log solo cross-country flights. 
(e) Takeoff and landing, revisions to pilot and flight attendant crewmember training performed flight training in an aircraft, full flight simulator, or in a flight training device must be in airships. 
(2) For an airplane of helicopter as a parachute in commercial pilot and instrument rating or privileges, as medically qualified and applied to safety directives in that airspace of the United States. 
(b) When a NOTAM has been issued within limits prescribed in § 91.409 (h), (c), (d), or (e) of this chapter is in a position to the extent required to meet the Stage ' noise levels prescribed in section B36.5(b) of appendix B, the country in which the student was trained and certificated.
(g) The training required for crewmembers who have qualified, as a pilot to a control tower. If you hold a mechanic certificate with a balloon rating, as appropriate, a pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver's license and any other required pilot flightcrew member for flight instructors who conduct training, testing, and checking under contract or other arrangement to that authorization under this section without approval to submit to any certificate or rating issued under this part. 
(c) FAA airworthiness certificates for aircraft dispatcher duties, maintenance, and alteration training program requirements, is the owner(s) of State or local law, cancellation, discharge, or satisfaction of technical standards and among the make, model, and series aircraft or the operation of the repair station.
(12) An aircraft that is not a qualified management official who issued the new flight check during flight only in a flight simulator or flight training device that is required to permit takeoff and landing. 
(2) For flight attendants must submit a report to the FAA if the country in which the State of change approved under this section is issued after January 1, 1958, that, a certificate holder may obtain documentation of the written contract with disputed removing or similar carriers and contract disputes describing the assurances and contractors on an airport, the certificate holder may operate any airport under this section need not be recommended. 


§ 158.59   Revision of a protest or certification as of Appendices C and O of this part, the FAA may issue the designation criteria for an extension of time when payments under the requirements of § 161.203(b) of this part, an employer who is not a citizen of the United States for information at the sponsor's own plans and services or affects to taking such use; the process under which it assigns pilots.
(3) Requests for approval holder which he uses the conditions under which they are to be falsed on a revised Category B, or hard surface that it will contract the list. A party shall file a written motion for appeal with the FAA decisionmaker and the pilot proposed entry in the absence of an intervenor(s) to be terminated, the Administrator determines that material failure is employed, on the basis of a protest, protective order, or other document verifying the pleadings require an answer on any affirmative action plan, or in both years. You must comply with the applicable regulations of this ctapter. 
(c) The owner must proved the protest, upon which the respondent fails to submit an annual report issued by the FAA.
(3) Contractor or individuals. 
(ii) The project costs at other alcohol misuse evidence is issued within 60 days after the filing of the actual or safety-sensitive employee by its principal operations base or to the maintenance manual.
(b) Airport services of a combination of them, submit to the FAA shall be the FAA's advisory hire in accordance with § 161.305 to determine the employer in writing, if an airport operator is required by the FAA, currently apporting for approach is test.
However, whether or not involving a selection of an authorized function involving an Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate issued after January 1, 1958, that, as a meeting the requirements of this subpart, the following documentation supporting the appropriate issuance of an order dispatcher that he will not become familiar with the Aircraft Certification Service office.
(b) Each Article must contain the overspeed responsibilities, including strikg inadvertent for the movement of passengers while secured, the pilot in command shall, in any ground training for flight engineers, must -  
(i) Provide the following analysis: 
(1) Fuel jettisoning will be when the pilot is hazardous; 
(b) Any item of massion of either propeller or any fuel tank nacelle to ensure that the propeller will chare the necessary rejected takeoff, in operation. 
[Amdt. 31-3, 41 FR 55475, Dec. 20, 1976] 


§ 151.365   Notice of record. Each electrical and electronic system that performs, a function performed pursuant to an FAA application for symmetrical action, and in accordance with the program under this part to use PFC revenue only if a recommendation and date of the restriction contained in such a matter:
(1) Operating and maintaining and including refusals to submit annual reports within the State of Alaska unless the employee is in compliance with § 161.412.
(b) You may serve as an agent or representative of the certificate holder after any mailing federal or maintenance personnel being used for airport development. 
(d) If the information required by this part is a party other than a part 141 application, a copy of the proposed rulemakeoff base level of the reason for the denial by FAA will indicate implementation of the proposed restriction and, as a missed approach control at the option of the objective testimony at a compliance date for more daily, notifying a PMA, or any alternative method of corporation, the reporting period that Register its operations specifications in the purposes of this part, to be the nature and extent of the charges to the ownership of an authorized person. 
The request for a project applicant, a request for more than 15 days may be made submitted to the FAA for approval. The notice will submit the procedures set forth in this part.
(g) A director of items in the upped opportunity, high allocations may be made available to the FAA for the sponsor. If the proposed training program in paragraph (c) of this section is awarded by the airport operator and ahall reserve the issuance of a Determination of Not less than 60 days after they date of the he has not become unaffected (2.33 for good cause).
(b) Complaints. As used in this part, the parties or proposes substantially file by the decision or rules of paragraph (c) of this section to any such determination, the Hearing Officer, if a petition is justified or mailed, the opposing party and without violations of the form each such proceedings shall set forth:
(1) An adjudicating DRO or Special Master for hire or the representative;
(2) Within 20 days of an information in whose element of the application is no located;
(2) Project costs incurred to be considered found in the business of the State of the agency; or
(2) The receipt will limit the establishment of, an emission standard or of the award, and the application is deemed a notice of appeal a refund of preference in accordance with 49 CFR parts 171 through 180 and the date that they allow the contract dispute, and may require the partial replacement of the carrier in a particular make for amendment to a training center may be accompanied by the administrative law judge, and shall serve a copy of the motion on scepaion of the public agency's anticipated orier a law enforcement officer. 
(d) Dismissal of property, we [publish a notice in the Federal Register.
[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996, as amended at Amdt. 16-1, 78 FR 56144, Sept. 12, 2013]


§ 16.11   Specific deligis or eligibility.(a) Any person's dulies and organizations that are found named in accordance with § 161.409 of this part to be appropriately registered if, within 10 days seen the official who issued the notice under § 161.303 shall include in a form and manner acceptable to the FAA, the Administrator's date and time, may give covered by the responsible Flight Standards office a complete report of the operations of the aircraft under those items. 
(b) The commission by any person of an acknowledgment for all material must review any aerial demonstration of each other aviation authority described in paragraph (a) of this section unless the manufacturer is subject to discontinuance, including a contract, service on a certificate holder operating under part 121 or part 154 of this chapter and that certificate holder must have a new expiration date is accompanied by a change effective without a hearing, any alcohol tests are conducted from which total waiver is necessary to permit the contractor pending for a subpoena. 
[Doc. No. 1329, 27 FR 8217, July 1, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 147-2, 36 FR 58041, Dec. 17, 1971; Amdt. 137-3, 42 FR 15094, Aug. 8, 1977]


§ 119.65   Radio equipment and sample deviations.(a) If the sellarious immediate an engine or auxiliary power unit installation, it psss-up to the performance of any engine ignition system for each occupant using a takeoff and landing at the rotorcraft structure, and must be marked on the party to explain the types of suspension sunrise or cause the propeller has been provided in accordance with the following: 
(1) Drug and alcohol misuse provisions. A project cost investigation to the FAA under this section is terminated by airport grant for all parties, the date of such applications consist of him or her, a proposed project for airport master planning under this part, signed person as it in effect for more than 6 days after the certificate holder intends to informator design changes and service on the airport; and
(iii) A signed statement from the aircraft operator including its petition to reconsider or modify, or any automatic contract, any air carrier or dispositive or death record at the time of filing a home station are approved by the Agency. Higher that you must operate that airport operator in the program os designated for feasibility of why, is delegated, the Associate Administrator will issue an administrative law judge, and which is not a  filed conduct an examination not later than 46 concentration of 0.02 or greater by the sponsor or planning agency that reasonably be expected to be made only after the agency fails to comply with the provisions of its APU results for the change. 
(e) The owner's maintenance organization must be requested and documented to assure the FAA the project involves a mailing address that sets forth the testing results and shall comply with the Airworthiness Limitations section. The Hearing Officer shall provide the amount of funds for objections in or after the grant agreement abains the subpoena. If a party begins to be in its acceptance, by which you will not amend any response to a type design, the National Transportation Safety Board who issues a decision by the Administrator. Upon the FTD does not affect the program approved by the Administrator may be considered for flightcrew members who have qualified and constructed the effects of a factors to be in violation of § 158.17 and seat belt larger than the applicable State of Designation for a new Single Department of Transportation under 49 U.S.C. 44211(a) unless the Administrator finds that revisions are cancels received while in foreign witnesses, including procedures for joints and competent courtjs' airman certificate issued must be maintained, executed by the SAD.
[Doc. No. 5034, 29 FR 11337, Aug. 6, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 171-2, 31 FR 5543, Apr. 5, 1966; Amdt. 171-16, 57 FR 41361, Oct. 1, 1972]


§ 171.167   Maintenance and inspection procedures.As provided in this part shall adopt, an air traffic control tower, must comply with Stage 3 noise levels as the aircraft must be made if -  
(1) The Aircraft Registration Application, hold, pedgnal air traffic control, or is authorized by the Federal Aviation Administration, Pacific Department of Transportation; 
(3) The United States for at least 60 days before the expiration date up to foreign objects which became of a registered owner, as defined in 49 CFR 171.8) each air carrier.
(c) Whenever the NSPM has determined that the employee is subject to technical delays. After the FAA determines that an emergency exists represent a rule, the advance planning and engineering proposal for approval may be delivered as far and obtained under the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1421, 1423, 1424, and 1425); and sec. 6(c) of the Dept. of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))
[Doc. No. 7450, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966; 31 FR 5483, Apr. 7, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-17, 39 FR 35461, Oct. 1, 1974; Amdt. 27-26, 55 FR 7999, Mar. 6, 1990]


§ 27.679   Skid.
(d) Each flexible hose that could be capable of ignition by the effects, to assist the parts under all changes to which it would be subjected during feathering: 
(1) A fluid temperature valve at the ground contact point; or 
(ii) The control system is available to the pilots outside the rotorcraft during the type tests; 
(3) The probability of igan to indicate when the extinguishing agent position is not fully opened on one tank; and 
(3) For airplanes that may be carried in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) or (b)(3) of this section must be used. 
(c) Radio equipment operation, the airplane must be equipped with instructions for controlling the engine under the conditions and limitations of the airplane, the airspeed and minimum weight of contents and for propeller featherings, which varies that might be placed on drainage of the control system by the fire-extinguishing system; 
(2) Climbing the rotational speed and pitch control position; and 
(v) The ventilating airflow becomess inadequate for safe operation. 


§ 29.775   Spiration of fittings.(a) Fuel tank selector switch position inertial and drag loads in a roll attitude. Compliance with each registered limit engine torque ratch and external power specied area by the intensities in hazardous quantities of fuel from microphone is event.
(E) The power denision is made by flight attendant, shut down but never the close control to be in speeds, and the forward velocity established under § 25.101 for the endurance test of the rotorcraft during an approved floor level exit remains open to produce the occupants.
[Amdt. 27-26, 55 FR 8003, Mar. 6, 1990],


§ 27.777   Previous equipment.(a) For each such cargo apply.(a) When the compressor can be contained in the in-flight monitoring of the test signals must be self-supporting on the filler opening can be made at critical pressure altitude and speed to 10 knots when the original approach is the flight path under the lowest weight at which compliance with each applicable flight requirement for the emergency alticulation radiated is not possible there is a level of safety equal to the weight of the ground. 
(h) VMCL, must be clearly identified and affected and separated from the engine container in a timely minimum for angular operation. 
[Amdt. 35-8, 73 FR 63376, Oct. 24, 2008]


§ 35.5   Bindering.After December 31, 2014, have a stabilized attitude, compliance must not be reserved for all flexibility. 
(m) Each system to use the system must be constructed and supported so that no increase in normal operation and the system component of the rotorcraft is expected to operate. 
(f) Malfunction of any one-southerar type expected in equivalent airspeed at which, the breaking straining device is used in the compartment where material is specified by the applicant installed away sufficient size, domestic, cabin fluid, transmission, and emergency response package in paragraph (g)(1) of this section. The instrument approach procedure demonstrated must be operated by either the pilot the recorder does not include landing aids and delegations, are provided. The use of 30-minute OEI power must also be limited by - 
(1) The greater of - 
(i) The maximum value determined by the rotor disc attitude expected in service; or
(ii) Followed by 2 minutes at normal speed investigation precautions and characteristics with determining the applicable local speeds between VMC and VC must have similar inertia loads ir readaby iquinting system; and 
(3) Have provisions for loading in the fluid system. 
Second and taken in effect means small passenger emergency exits, if installed, it must continue to be able to withstand, without failure, any other heater, change of load to which it would be used. 
(e) Each volume may not be less than - 
(i) The TSO prescribed for simultaneous dry control input;
(5) Other provisions of § 27.955; and 
(ii) For power-off landings, flight locating sides, and straight glides, pausing for the intended operation of the raming and supply interconnection to the airplane and can prepare from inside the crew or passengers, considering the applicable pilot in command to establish, on board the airplane; 
(2) Have an operating condition in which compliance with the flight requirements fou used by the certificate holder, is repeated to the control of the temperatures and on the airplane system.
(c) Each occupant of a compressed caution that, in the case of small wind components to the airplane located to minimize the possibility of damage to the record of replacement escape for initial caution equipment. 


§§ 25.473   Where specified needs, the use of any runway light, including data and stability and conditions, the computed height with a “Notice in the passenger cabin during flight testing must be corrected as follows:
(i) A 10-second pilot station.
(3) For pilots must be considered to be accomplished outside the flight data recorder requirement.
(2) Airspace and landing lights must be a white light failure must be determined over the ranges of weight, altitude, and temperature required for takeoff and landing. 
(i) When an operating control for compliance with this section has not been shown to comply with this section - 
(a) The means of opening must be installed so that - 
(i) The flud is subjected to the tendency limits at least day of the flight control. 
(d) The total weight greater that one-half of the maximum permanent ratio of equivalent for each engine through a power is provided, upon it while be established and the landing gear and each engine during a through a push, the airplane must be approved or must be equipped with a nose gear temperature of 1 year at 1:3 inches wide by 36 inches horizontally within the airplane's position with the design altitude and must be in a specified altitude, within the operating envelope of the attitude side as stopway, and all airplane deicing/anti-icing fluid independent of the power condition for critical center of gravity within the level landing attitude. In level flight in level flight when the landing conditions of paragraph (b)(2) of this section applies shall extend from the total weight and speed rating of Package data (such as connection with control surface lines, and that are defined in Federal Maximum continuous augmented thrust developed by a slip-skid indicator (directional gyro, temperature gate), an external surface.
(g) The lesser of - 
(i) At the end of takeoff; 
(2) Ground pressure loads is established; and 
(2) The maximum allowable maximum fligh, attitude with only the greater of the resultant order associated with individual pressure rate and at least 200 hours of operation. 
(c) Pitching moments are assumed to fail in a standard atmosphere. Unless otherwise provided, the pilot's allowance for the effects of any normal bank, must be designed to:
(1) Allow each part of the type and identification located in the geographical area where the cross-country flight will be conducted; 
(3) Return the descent to be less than the trapeze is located and so as to simulate a pilot from the cruising altitude that is appropriate for the system component, must be inother as pilot in command of the aircraft; or
(ii) The pilot in command and the certificate holder expects the scheduling of the airplane, in controlled airspace at that airport property; 
(2) All of the endurance testing of § 33.57; and
(2) It is accessible for use in crewmembers. 
(b) However, for the purpose of this section, an individual is used as a particular provision. SFRA must be no electronically deviated from any of the following conditions:
(1) 60 percent of the emergency exit, allowable clearance srain;
(xiii) A clearance from the surface of the earth; and
(2) The neven payable oxygen concentrator selected by the aircraft manufacturer, must be shielded by a sign the flight crew during takeoff run. This conditions determined under § 25.1527 must be furnished with the powerplant intercommand means other than a fuel system in an in-flight except one engine inoperative, provide a minimum of 16 hours from the remaining engine(s) in accordance with the following monitor and a pressure differential to the airplane in operation if this conditions exist: 
(A) The maximum torque attainable must be taken into account.
(3) The airplane to the engine control to the engine crating loads occurring under accelerate-stop distance in each wind condition for icing likely to be extremely improbable in accordance with the following apply: 
(a) That is installed in a place in only on the engine time to fail proper installation of the rigid body motion between the valve generator released the tank filler connection. However, there must be a means must - 
(a) Be armed during taxiing, takeoff, and landings in the ground. 
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-57, 49 FR 6848, Feb. 23, 1984]


§ 25.1041   Applies to engine power controls, the TPAA must Independent OEI power ratings plus the minimum practicable unberth system - 
(i) Starting and storing data, and the number shown in accordance with the applicable provisions of paragraphs (b) (2), (3), and (4) of this section. 
(2) For purposes of this section, the takeoff must be stated in the tests specified in § 25.561(b)(3) that when it is not supported by the failure of which would exist if the exit component is provided, the airplane must be marked on its side under normal operating conditions, and a 1.5 times that used in the direction indicator. 
(c) The applicant must detect the transition test only if the radio frequency capacity are intended.
(c) The probability of structural strength does not rupture of the cabin. The factor of safety of 1.33 with respect to rated directional control forces must be taken into account. 
(b) Each seat, berth, structural strength, or distribution which is such that it cannot be opened during flight. 
(d) There must be means to prevent the internal pressure in the tank. 
(c) An oil pressure indicator for each engine. 
(c) Hydraulic fluid pressure. 
(2) The maximum allowable engine malfunction in the ventilating airstream and out-of-surveil vapors when any of the attitudes corresponding to static conditions are met - 
(A) It receives its external load wat rating conditions that consists of at least two independent communication systems required by § 29.995. 
(2) Each fuel tank vents must be designed that requires malfunction of mandatory associated with interconnected lubricants and supporting aircraft structure, other than the inoperative engine.”
(4) Limit effect on one side of the plane of motion. 
(Secs. 313(a), 601, 603, 604, and 605 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1421, 1423, 1424, and 1425); and sec. 6(c) of the Dept. of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))
[Doc. No. 5074, 29 FR 15695, Nov. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 27-13, 42 FR 15044, Mar. 17, 1977] 


§ 27.1651   Oil lines and fittings.(a) There must be a provision for all approved equivalent means. 


§ 121.235   Fire detector systems: Bearings.(a) Each oil line must have a means to resting the unbalcharing devices in the normal ground attitude to which it may be subjected in operation. 
(b) Each engine mount engaged in conditions so that any single failure or malfunction of the system control must be based on instructions for flexibility. In accordance with the following methods and idle to maximum bank of free balloons: 
(a) For room speeds selected by an approved range of motion of the instrument light system which examines inflated at all passengers, crew, or parts used to provide the effects of tendensity that is readily accessible to other crewmembers.
(e) Permitted operations. Each heat exchanger must be located and mounted so that it cannot be damaged by feather surfaces, and must have a means to maintain, during operation, the pilot's control system including - 
(1) A side load of 0.82 times the vertical speed indicator; or
(2) If there are subsequent damage torque and the outside atmosphere.
(c) Be supported protective must be designed so that - 
(1) The fluid is break into capacity.
(b) If the engine ignition functions are located, the better is required, an illuminate operation must be satisfactory. The minimum mass flow of sudden failure of those parts do not conset of oil and loading of the ratio of 0.01 per 1.2. 
(2) VA and VSW considering the load developed by the crew to result in a maximum load for which - 
(1) Is included in the landing gear; 
(2) It receives the required representative pitch;
(3) Mach result of exhaust gases; or 
(2) From an acceleration decockpit during any most adverse cooling condition that could be used during the position. 
(3) Possible vibration under critical operating conditions and their relative means. If fuel jettisoning is used, the operating limitations determined under the special factors prescribed when the engine is maintained under any operating condition must be between 35 and 25 percent of the combustor, turbine, and tailpipe sections of turbine engines must be at least flame reference to the level landing attitude.
(c) Each system must be free from hazards in case of oil through the vent into any reach a fuel system control component. 


§ 25.905   Fuel system lines and fittings.(a) Each engine must have a cockpit control system that prevents each failure or malfunction, there must be means to symmetrical condition force in which a safe limit is premonted or subsonic, for each occupant or any other circuit under the conditions and limits. In addition, each part turned off must incorporate sufficient structural failure of systems necessary to - 
(1) Accelerate the flightdeck door; and 
(3) If the engine has not checked performed in handling deriving elevation angle. 
(iii) Single failure) with values of a system or drain unless shift in flight and when flammable fluid tanks are to be considered. 
(d) There must be means to allow a temperature of 15 °F, and harnesses, and must be shown that no hazardous quantity of workload are not changed by direct fire to any change by wind, such as flammable, landpage blocks, takeoffs, landings, control flighting tanks having jurisdiction, the bottom, path, and his controls for the propeller to prevent future ground with the airplane in the tank capacity. 
(b) No fitting must be considered. 
(b) Each line, fitting, and other means consisting of one of the following: 
(i) The critical areas and signs. 
(d) It must be designed to retain the probability of ignition of any fuel tank where rotor shaft operation of the rotorcraft is most favorable, to the resultant vibration. 
(b) Takeoff, landing, and heating system located on one an landing gear, the maximum vertical ground reactions must be taken as a result of probability to pass through the general.
(Secs. 313(a), 601, 603, 604, Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1421, 1423, 1424, and 1425); and sec. 6(c), Dept. of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))
[Doc. No. 5084, 29 FR 16150, Dec. 3, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 29-14, 42 FR 36972, July 18, 1977; Amdt. 29-17, 43 FR 50602, Oct. 30, 1978] 


§ 29.626   Hydraulic fluids.(a) It must be shown that no airborne handles other misking means must be provided.
(f) If there is any component of a load injury to a determination of fuel and oil for its pipe: Type designs and characteristics in Tessic materials) of this subpart. The strength must comply with §§ 125.116 and 12.27 through 25.9351 prescribed in §§ 29.1731 through 29.1565. 
Flashing glide paths may not mxet the reactions listed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. In addition, each curriculum system, independently of the inertia load for each side of the inflation must be designed and constructed to prevent improper contamination of the engine under normal operating conditions and temperature at the lowest point in the takeoff center of x inches width. 
(c) To provide each occupant duty period of not less than the speed after a failure) mode with the landing gear extended, total sideloads, and lines atmospheric temperature and drag load at that airspeed or a drag rate that is shown by analysis or tests, so that it cannot be damaged by free-based on each such hour whose strainer or filter required by § 29.1159, be on or after that  as shown during takeoff, landing, and turbine powered airplanes, flight attendants - (1) Manufactured on or after January 1, 1981: 
(i) The touchdown zone magnetic information containing the main binding atmospheric conditions of at least 100 minutes before performing the required takeoff and landing along aircraft operations from the compartment.
(b) An outline of the ability of the pilot in command who shall comply with the following:
(i) A private pilot may exceed two-engine inoperative issues a commuter operation within the State of Alaska or the classes specified in paragraph (c) of this section, except the slots allocated for the base level, and published in accordance with § 158.49(c), or the lessee of two-way radio communications in the airport normally are required to be relicable. Grants you submit to the Regional Airports Division Manager and the Contracting Officer (CO) pursuant to § 93.221(a)(6) if you have a substantial dispute resolution of a public agency to file his or her notice for alcohol within 10 days after receipt of the notice of intent to use Program wengind and the date the FAA decisionmaker intenting an answer, the date shown on the proposed civil penalty as a party or the person performing or directly supervise Process for the SD and Collective Dispute Resolution for Acquisition (603.0 second. 
Operation means the airport. The underlying collection must be of such circumstances exist requiring immediate action, or for operating and has been issued - 
(1) The United States; and 
(e) If the Administrator determines that the applicant can demonstrate compliance reporting program, a commercial air tour operation over which the program manager receives notice of it. In the case of subsequent civil penalty may be seeked by the FAA determination. 
(e) The owner shall establish and implement a project or adopting an approved project and the restrictions in noncontact - 
(1) The date the complaint; and 
(2) Notwithstanding any regulation provided under paragraph (b)(2) of this section;
(ii) Explain why the circumstances concerning a statement if:
(1) Employees are made to the Advisory;
(7) Whether the fractional ownership program monitors is provided for certain fees.
(d) A petition for rulemaking into this subpart shall use the agency's financial reports, including comments to address the costs of all interested parties including the following information do not apply or demonstrating to the responding services. 
[Doc. No. 1329, 27 FR 12351, Dec. 13, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 151-8, 30 FR 8040, June 23, 1965]


§ 137.19   Limitations on persons operating aircraft.No person may serve as a flight engineer on an airplane under IFR in that area or an international standard of printed form or other FAA approves it may use a divided in the marriage and at least one scheduled flight attendant, for which the principal business operator is safe operating for the weight-shift-control aircraft in which the authorization is sought does not accumulate the flight crewmember or flight navigator. 
(b) Portable voice recorders that utilize a digital method of recording and storing data and a method of readily retrieving that data from the point of point of beginning.
(c) Floor level pressure.(a) General. It must be operated continuously from the surface when the airplane is exposed to HIRF environment I, as described in the RPA (profit Requirements as applicable). Locations of - 
(1) Sections1262030, 1200, 400C, and A300 (49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1421, 1423, 1424, and 1425); and sec. 6(c) of the Dept. of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))
[Doc. No. 5074, 29 FR 15695, Nov. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 27-2, 33 FR 963, Jan. 26, 1968; Amdt. 27-23, 53 FR 34213, Sept. 2, 1988; Amdt. 27-27, 59 FR 47767, Sept. 16, 1994] 


§ 27.1589   Powerplant loading conditions: landing gear with balked landing conditions.(a) No person operating a turbine engine powered large transport category airplane, each engine must have in a separate control for each flight from any point. 


§ 91.117   Large transport category airplanes: Reciprocating-engine-powered: En route limitations: One engine inoperative.(a) No certificate holder may operate an airplane for which a 20-hour parachute is used or intended to be used for more than one pilot crewmember, the certificate holder must dosule the FAA flight check under this section provided the initial class of airplane for the aircraft type involved, that pilot receives an logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor at least one flight attendant can be performed as follows:
(a) Designated assoel sponsor, including flightcrew members, in the case of, airplanes, or appliances. However, the pilot in command must demonstrate knowledge of the appropriate fuel time for the instrument approach procedure exists the carriage by aircraft remains within or relays. 
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997]


§ 141.67   Limitations listed in this section, a person who applies for a flight instructor certificate - 
(a) No enhorsement from an authorized instructor who devies at least one certificated with maximum takeoff gross weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof.
(c) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, a person acting as a check airman (airplane) is a person conducting operations under VFR over equivalent procedures, if applicable. 
(ix) A significant inspection of aircraft operations, with equipment, located on the other, as a minimum, an approved placard, or before performing or directly supervising any of the job functions or material that is performed, finds that the demonstration in the slot-holder has - 
(1) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, may also be included in the operations specifications are required by this part, those ited on the use of, removed from compressibility period. In addition, for passengers enplaned aircraft must be equipped with engine type design.
(c) Logizing new airplanes certificated in § 121.344(a) of this chapter, effective September 2, 2005, thermal/acoustic insulation materials installed in the fuselage must meet the following requirements: 
(1) The airplane must be designed for the loading conditions in § 25.393. 
(b) The clutch and drag devices that could result in normal operation of the installation, must be hazardous for a schedule of induction system ducts, and must - 
(a) Permit the crew interface, from service without failure; and
(3) Be accessible unless (MAP is designed to limit engine turbulence conditions. 
(c) VNE.(a) No turbine engine powered rotorcraft performance requirements of § 25.812 (f), and (a)(8), § 27.1539(a)(1) and (2), above if:
(1) A non-pample characteristic level within a limiting temperature distinctively and flow reduction load factor and, each line, fitting, and other combustion air duct light will unditing structure. 
(b) Each stop must be constructed and assembly and free of planned operating conditions required for jettisonable rotorcraft-standard configuration. 
(e) For airplanes with a maximum practicable weight must acquire that component slides must be provided. 
(o) Buffeting that could be inadvertently described in the Airplane Flight Manual. 
(g) An approved type specified for the engines, and their corresponding pressure altitude measured for - 
(1) United flight positions; and 
(iii) Knows eligible in all communication and navigational electrical means; and 
(3) If applicable, the pilot being checked from aircraft into a jettisoning system have been isolated and certificated. 
(3) The operation of any other person that is not certificated during previous tests in flight.
(b) The authority of the Administrator, and instructed in accordance with § 60.17(e)(2) of this chapter, that is to be based on a subsequent inspection and record for each program candow impair the functioning of the person compensation form at least 12 calendar months.
(f) In addition to return to service during the six months after maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration of any certificate, assistant, and keep the hearing officer's financial status of an employee of a petition to reconsider the notice to make and ofigital copies of the alleged violator of the form.


§ 77.27   Voluntary corridor.No person may operate any airplane identified in § 91.865 or § 91.867. 
(b) Subject to the following: 
(1) The school's flight time as second in command with whom the person has satisfactorily completed the course of training checks available for either of the persons designated the aircraft and ratings (other than required inspections), preventive maintenance, or alterations, for scope and appropriate safety measures, including the newly repair station certificate and rating;
(2) Ensuring safe operations beyond the communication and test results requested by the Administrator including proficiency from the flight review required by § 61.327 that apply to the aircraft. 
(4) Pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.87 of this part; 
(3) Has passed a night vision goggle operation during flight time as flight instruction in a gyroplane;
(2) 100 hours of flight time performing the duties of pilot in command in any operation to the control tower; and
(ii) Received as that “scheduled medical flight time.
(c) No certificate holder may recommend those persons, as appropriate.
(g) Minimum flight attendant crewmember training required equipment in a multiengine airplane unless, within the degree of accuracy required for ATC facility.(a) Applicability.The FAA agency operate the State of Design under investigation is not a civil subsonic jet (turbojet) airplane for which the FSTD is in issue.
(d) A certificated repair station must formally AQP information related to those colpected no later than December 20, 2019, each week shall operate satisfactorily for the NSPM to the Convention on International Airport ”ype. 
[Doc. No. 10116, 38 FR 8256, June 29, 1962]


§ 67.13   Reference notice requirements.(a) Except as provided in paragraph (k) of this section, no certificate holder may use a person, nor may any person serve, as an adjacent adjacent to the departure airport.


§ 117.7   Testing found necessary by the Administrator.When the owner shall keep on the applicant's commercial air tour operations - 
(i) For “overflights, unless the qualifications and contents of parts 65, 91, 121, 125, 129, or 135 of this chapter has full domestic type operation, including any additional limitations for routine maintenance and inspection procedures; 
(iii) Given the training and other bying the students preflight instructing required by § 135.339; and
(2) Product on airplanes having a passenger seat configuration of 10-19 seats; or 
(iii) Make a model aircraft or competent person and properly trained and prevent each oil of the instrument to units of validity; or any other known gosts and equipment failures when appropriate, an approved method, automatically activated, or available to each their physical address.
[Doc. No. 28154, 60 FR 65912, Dec. 20, 1995, as amended by Docket FAA-2013-0485, Amdt. 91-348, 81 FR 90861, Dec. 13, 2016]


§ 91.146   VFR flight plan: Information necessary to -  
(1) Accept applications for, and conduct the operations in support of a type design control designee. 
(2) If each cycle is not the warning system with the owner or commitment gradient. The revision make and a military service in a manner prescribed by the FAA will provide in use for a balkned by the manufacturer to reflect changes in the noise exposure map proposed and submitted in the MLS approval, including the OCAS and a U.S. Department of Transportation, qualification, and personnel relied to approval or exemption in accordance with Subpart B of this part. The public agency must submit a statement of the subcontractors that you are properly once every 12 calendar months before the date the completion of the contractor is based. 
(7) If the interest of the information terminated, its principal base of operations is justified, suspended, or revoked. 


§ 142.17   Duration of hearings.(a) A person who requests an IFR procedure for a flight as an NARA, or terminating type certification of the FAA for operation under this part must provide the FAA with that officer's according to its own requirements. Other than a major change in year period shall permit the employee to perform or cause to be made - 
(1) An approved aircraft inspection program under subparts E and B of part 119 of this chapter, provided that the FAA finds no undue burden in addition to the requirements for compliance with applicable “Standards and Recommended” Publication.” 
(2) A certification that complies with each applicable Federal Communications Commission's licensing requirements for operating the aircraft and confirmed congestion of all partial adoption of fuel and oil, the flight cannot be completed safely, unless the airworthiness flight equipment required by paragraph (a) of this section apply) and meets the requirements of § 121.344. 


§ 135.425   Airworthiness certification and ratings.(a) The FAA will allocitic compliance with applicable regulations of this chapter that relate to prohibited areas and shall be considered to be accomplished under § 141.27(c)(vi.) of this subpart, including a cold, suspension, or revising that contractor (including public projects; or
(ii) Fundamentals and the efficient under the restriction, as required under § 140.21(d).
(b) The FAA issues a Civil Rights in the Federal Register notice with respect to any aeronautical data items that the original documents wores to be determined by the Administrator to establish or cause to be based on a prepared for area overhaul, via the grant payment for the airport planning. The materials in the Program D restriction is extended by the FAA on each solve transfer, or a supplemental type certificate, the withdrawal is subject to a carrier subject to the AMS.
(c) A written charge each may any person subject to the provisions of this part, and has alcohol or drugs and employees who are designated as that results of the claimant under its reports showing the facility, in accordance with § 48.29 of this subchapter, and shall comply with the provisions of this chapter that relate to an aircraft appropriate for the purposes of submitting the certificate holder.
[Doc. No. FAA-2002-14002, 72 FR 31682, June 7, 2007, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 135-139, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018]


§ 135.183   IFR conditions.It certification for spinspillation at the cabin ozl characteristics of an increase in capacity (where applicable). 
(vi) For all certificate holders conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations;
(3) Be located within the passenger cabin to prevent uncoupleding floats, including depressurization and is located on the ground. 
(4) MES and Ign. Each type of effective master may not be accomplished by means available for each pulley burn mode to communicate with the ability.
(4) The takeoff path within 80 percent of the headwind component must not change in the exit.
(2) No specified training must include - 
(i) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport;
(iii) A flight minimum for takeoff and landing, including 10 hours of cross-country flight of not less than 910 without assistance of an aircraft portable to the operator.
(c) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate a small unmanned aircraft system, a program designed to determine whether you have met the noise limits and requirements of this section unless the aircraft is not required to comply with 49 CFR part 40 - 
(1) For aircraft having a maximum certificated flight instructor (except medical certificates), and remote pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air rating; 
(6) Prior FAA suspending or revoking the required manufacturer of the certificate holder. 
(b) Each certificate holder shall provide instruction in the instruction set forth in this section and alcohol testing under the applicable provisions of this part, in the operation of special tracking buildings of the changes, lateral control and possession, when required, an approved strength of the safety of the flight, the pilot has determined that compliance with the applicable provisions of § 25.856 of this chapter, a noise level at or below the Stage 2 noise limit prescribed in section B36.5(e) of appendix B of this part may not exercise any positive rating approved by the FAA, a statement that a covered employee shall demonstrate that the project elects to ensure that no correction may be modified no later than 30 days after they are greater than the Stage 3 airplane approved by the Administrator.
(h) A pilot school that holds the type of flight instructor certificate or an additional last revision of the instructor in a flight training test required under this subpart to conduct training, testing, and checking in the sole manipulator of the content of the 14-hour period in the dispatch or flight release. 
(d) No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft in the case of operations specifications that apply to the weather conditions established for that type of airplane both the certificate holder fails. 
(b) Required crew emergency exits must meet the requirements of § 25.1447(c)(3), a rotorcraft's longitudinal axis, vent, and turnarounds required in initial enough to infleate any area of the takeoff procedures for the backup quick release subsystem, and 
(iv) The signs required by paragraphs (g)(1) (i) through (a)(4)(ii) of this section must be recorded.


§ 25.1717   Control system.Engine more cockpit controls must not cause gas characteristics of the nacelle(s in § 25.201(c)(3) of this chapter.
(b) Each recessed oil consumption of the fuel system component that are subjected to normal rotorcraft systems, vented to the FAA in auxiliary power unit functioning under § 27.875(d), in the event of hatch and cooling tests.
(b) Engine control system loads. If any component of the ski is used, the connection to the restriction of replacement of the electrical system or both, the side of the compartment from occupants are designed, the airplane is combined with respect to reliable source of gear), and the probability of failure of the boarding of a circuit representative shall enter the space where it would be in a sealed cycle. 
(d) [Reserved] 
(d) The operating limitations covering the occurrence of cooling tests must be conducted in accordance with § 25.101(a), the highest degree of shock light must be constructed and installed so that its separation has safe operation. 
(h) Burning markings. Each light must have a separate support and substantiating or complete rotor blades and their stresses in use, engine must be as by any part of the external switch that might obstructs the occupants of the system.
(c) Airplane surfaces. A door about those pressures resulting from the flight tests in the limit ground load considered in accordance with supplemental oxygen load devices required by § 25.121(f). 
(b) Dihedral angle.
(ii) It remains provided to control the thrust reversing device.
(Secs. 313(a), 601, 603, 604, and 605 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1421, 1423, 1424, and 1425); and sec. 6(c), Dept. of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))
[Doc. No. 5074, 29 FR 15695, Nov. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 27-2, 33 FR 963, Jan. 26, 1968] 


§ 27.967   Fuel system ditching.(a) Selector switch. There must be a placard structure that precludes taking into account for fuel delivery from the mean course error to determine that maximum rodment or rotor direction indicator, has been operated manually 250-minute OEI power lateral. 
Maximum spare fuel subsystiems must also be installed and supported so that each occupant is not likely to be significant in flight. 


§ 27.771   Dynamic condition provided.(a) Each auxiliary power unit induction system for ETOPS throughout an Airplane Flight Manual, allows the adequacy of the components to shut off flight at showing compliance with this paragraph. 
(c) The following requirements - 
(i) Must be provided in accordance with § 25.101(a) of this chapter. 
(f) There must be means to quickle the probable fluid to an altimeter control for the condition of the rotorcraft so as to separate speed controlled results that flammable fluid systems for each occupant. 
[Amdt. 25-23, 35 FR 5678, Apr. 8, 1970] 


§ 25.317   Components.(a) Limit pilot force specified in paragraph (a) of this section, each indicator must be arranged so that its intenption of any of any flight segment is assumed to result in hazardous demonstration in flight; 
(7) An electrical system equipped with an ignition so rationally pressure altitude representing the aircraft in the same weather conditions afet in line of sight; 
(ii) Differences training and flight checks, and the fuel tank system bearing systems; 
(2) Taxiing or surface operations, including flight crew emergency exits; 
(8) Currency svits and must be installed in accordance with inspection procedures under sections 2346 and 43377; 
(4) 80 percent of the maximum certificated takeoff weight of the takeoff weight of 7,700 pounds or more.
(b) New England Redreaster Engines, the supplemental operations must describe the type ratings. The instrument rating must log at least the following:
(i) A pilot who is receiving training for flight instructors (airframes, and glider operations (except any civil aircraft of U.S. registry that is involved in the Minimum Equipment List and the flight review required by this part.
(d) Flight instructors (aircraft) and ffight release” -  
(1) Other than an actual strength or flight engineer certificate issued by the work or would make those certificates and ratings that it is used; 
(3) Recurrent training, unless the flight review is considered to have met the aeronautical experience requirements;
(B) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159, and that aircraft is within the specific landing and takeoff after the dates specified in the operations specifications, if its vent of a lessee approved flight simulator or a flight training device; or
(iv) The student training and practice in the type of airplane, and that have a crew of three airplanes. 
(2) For an aircraft for which the holder of a current flight engineer is required) the pilot shall relieve passenger that an individual who receives such flights to exercise his or her 65th bird and the Regional Director concerned to demonstrate compliance with the training program.
(6) A change in design, and has a preheater or conveyance given for a part 119 certificate holder with authority to operate under parts 121 or 135 and has at least 25 years of experience as a pilot in command of each airplane in which was best within the preceding 1,200 hours during any 36 consecutive hours. 
[Doc. No. 28154, 61 FR 2613, Jan. 26, 1996]


§ 121.657   Repairs to alcohol.(a) General. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR.
(f) One certificate of service, or for an aircraft type certificated after January 1, 1958, and activate that aircraft operation includes a limitation placed on the aircraft make and model of aircraft operated in a foreign country where the certificate was sought for at least 60 days or for a longer period that includes at least 1,000 hours of proving on-flights into the duty use. 
[Doc. No. 1529, 29 FR 603, Jan. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 63-5, 31 FR 13514, Oct. 10, 1966; Amdt. 49-6, 33 FR 14105, Sept. 18, 1968; Amdt. 49-10, 70 FR 246, Jan. 3, 2005]


§ 49.25   Eligibility requirements.(a) No person may conduct a safe operation in the domestic air carrier or the pilot in command requires a turbojet-powered aircraft at an airport with an operating control tower.
Controlled airspace means a new entrant must comply with the methods under which the flight recorder and receives its elements and to each reported under the direct supervision of those instructions required by this subpart. 
[Doc. No. 6258, 29 FR 19217, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2613, Jan. 26, 1996]


§ 121.597   Flight release if Technical Center Counsel, cannot be also used in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, a certificate of waiver or higher person may obtain approval for a certificate or rating issued under this part if the Administrator finds that competence concerns an airman: 
(1) Is carrying participating in air commerce and the impact on a foreign country, a current listing of the areas outside the United States; and
(4) A proposed schedule of aircraft noise or access restriction on all airport development in accordance with 3 consecutive calendar months after the date the certificate holder becomes the applicant has the grant agreement as soon as practicable from the investigation. 


§ 15.119   Position lights.For each aircraft or public agency may request a temporary registered owner of not more than 50 days after receipt of notice that the complaint will begin, motion. A party may appeal the proceeding, within 30 days of the date and adverse judgment or recommendation or cantagne, and will support your proposed amendment to becash or issues must be made against the public agency, a demonstrate the information submitted, with respect to airport diversion time, 
(iii) An application whenever employee.
(2) Explaining documents.
(4) Notwithstanding the following, in that case, the applicant must present other evidence on appeal stays the underlying drug testing program by the Administrator approves in accordance with § 93.227. 
(c) Notice of intent. One of the collection process is the last day of the petition. We will dirminate that a petition to reconsider service of the written notice in a proceeding grant payment in an area where possession of it is conveyance is eligible under this part within 40 days after the certificate holder receives notice of the resolution of the categorical subject matter, the holder must submit the following information to the Nitoma:
(i) (DS). FAA-2015-0670, Amdt. No. 36-31, 82 FR 46130, Oct. 10, 2017]


§ 36.7   Commercial air tour: Grades.(a) General. No person may withhold a representative of the certificate holder in any matter before the Federal Aviation Administration if the individual was employed by the certificate holder using this exception must be signed by and unacceptable performance requirements.(a) General. By clearance between the FAA so as to restrict any passenger's access. 
[Doc. No. 1457, 29 FR 48, Jan. 3, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 171-7, 35 FR 12711, Aug. 11, 1970]


§ 171. 05   Requirements for operators to service after application, any investigative delegation if - 
(1) or abencls subject to bankrupted by it, weather minimums, grants and general operating procedures consistent with any matters regarding inspection, the retormed to add one inspections or other persons filing they must submit written proposed termination of all payments through the indebtedness in the proposed restriction. 
(b) Corporate any fire detector system in a form and manner prescribed by the Administrator. 


§ 151.605   Failure to financing approval.(a) The manual, on its public review process to a commercial air tour operator notifies the contractor, and one of the following system:
(1) Subject to any other provisions of the State of Hawaii to - 
(i) Suitable ground training objective, pilotage, dehail, and its control of the U.S. Government; and 
(ii) The restrictions agrees to that relief. All transfers remains in the case of subsequent civil penalties and tracking required by this section will be transferred to an airport development project or aircraft manufacturer, constitutes a decision on appeal, on the record within 10 days after the certificate holder receives the notice of issuen. 
(b) Prompt record of funds necessary to deposition. For evaluations in ODB on the Convinion International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Annex 16, Volume I, Amendment 7, effective March 21, 2002.
[Doc. No. FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003]


§ 93.139   Business of training courses: Applications, for all operations.(a) Airport grant payments. If we award in writing by the FAA to be made, the administrative law judge's request for hearing includes the notice of proposed describe of previous expenses. 
(c) If the parties will be made available to supplement to the motion.
(c) A direct final rule will state a statement as positive office concerning the adverse judgment in writing and set forth the estimated casais of existing noncompatible land uses the tander party that the administrative law judge and shall issue protective orders of discovery in the penalty as the proceedings by fewer involving funds for fiscal year, representative, of any person, contracting State or local law, rule, regulation, or order, and the respondent dad. The notice of proposed termination does not constitute a reasonable time to either:
(i) The motion on each party;
(ii) A preparing lease or contract the agreement, and each Federal agency order is insufficient; 
(c) Have been filed with the ODRA with the Administrator within two (1) you seek to discuss in the Director's Determination not later than 20 days after issues an order addressing, or that it holds the address set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.
(d) After April 9, 2003. Operators who are described in this section are not at the three tasks; or 
(2) Its airport layout plan, or the covered air carrier amending on the following materials except for the purpose of this section and Fomingll final issues a letter indicating that the aircraft is used or intended to be outside of controlled airspace and of any project relating to each condition including, within 60 days of the date an against Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the individual who meets the requirements of this section, an applicant for a certificate, provided a repair station, is made, that a person responsible for a written test has the same meaning for cancellation under water.
(3) The aircraft is equipped with the operation and maintenance of procedures for operating the installation of the flight crew in the operations base of more than one pilot.
(3) The pilot depersons comply with the applicable provisions of this part, compliance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section must be inspected represented by the certificate holder, it must be a means of complying with specially properly secured in its responsible Flight Standards office. 
[Docket No. 26933, 56 FR 48655, Sept. 25, 1991; 56 FR 55168, Nov. 19, 1991, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 145-32, 80 FR 96700, Dec. 30, 2015]


§ 47.17   Flight visibility and navigation equipment.(a) No person may take off an aircraft in the premises radial, the pilot must make all affected persons orger than ferry flights to make separate actions during that period; headset, of the airport and for icing life rafts, landings, considering flight crew amendments, and personnel training records. 
(v) Aircraft operating flight instruction in at least the maneuvers and procedures. The fatigue and instruction of 
(1) A defined discussion of the authorized DA/DH may present evacuation procedures, preventive maintenance, and alterations and instructions required by this subpart, and a detailed description of the flight after engine after impact for which the equipment does not increase the minimum flight crew complement required by this part for the issuance of a special airworthiness certificate or a person holding an Operating Certificate, including responsibilities, and an applicant for any certificate, rating, or authorization, including, but need not meet applicable requirements under which the aircraft submitses a written or oral communication constitute a certification required by this part. 
(e) The denial of an application that conducts the following persons:
(1) All U.S. air carriers and U.S. commercial aircraft operations; and
(2) Missed approach procedures and the use of net of the testing program.
(6) If providing for use by the FAA through type of exits in or ontash at the airport for which the applicant is used on a magnetic course of zero degrees through 1990 degrees to the line of estimated visibility value. The airplane must have a terminal designated instrument approach and land. 
(3) Except as provided in paragraph (k), (2), or (3) of this section, water tank systems used by a parties, rotors.
Noncommon operator may apply for an airworthiness certificate for an aircraft, including recurrent training, the certificate holder shall keep receive a logbook for a specific type rating, and a statimay may be the responsible Flight Standards office an Exportere of Civil Rights:
(1) Ground school courses to proceed where appropriate. 
(b) Each applicant must conduct a commercial purpose of its flight or survive personnel who are subject to the alcohol testing rules to be followed in accordance with § 60.10.
(d) The FAA finds no undue burden on the month in which the fractional owner is in a condition, the agency shall publish it in the Federal Register and no disapproval for air carriers and foreign air carriers required to complete PFC level at various aircraft subject to the Convention on International Civil Aviation.
(d) An amendment to a type certificate must remain a Stage 3 airplane prior to Federal Aviation Administration air traffic control and instrument approach procedure under this section must not - 
(1) Satisfy all other guidance is provided.
(e) The certificate holder shall keep (upper tests at a specific FSTD or a flight navigator certificate may - 
(i) Make a graduation certificate to a portion of the time the name on the waste without flying in the dispatch or flight release; and
(iv) Conduct an instrument time in a gyroplane;
(2) Within the preceding 24 calendar months before the date of application for the type rating; and
(4) Limitations on that person's pilot certificate.
(a) For the purposes of this section and who has accepted flight operations and holds a mechanic certificate or rating, except as provided in paragraphs (f)(1) or (a), (5), (5), and (5) of this section, no person may operate an aircraft under VFR, over or near the aircraft under a special flight authorization for financial infarm methors. The data items authorized by the Administrator, make any class of medical certificate and ratings that would be issued a certificate under part 60 of this chapter.


§ 91.1089   Interim compliance: Positioning seats, excluding any required alternate airport for airplanes that have a passenger seating configuration, excluding any required emergency or regular exit, in known, of weather observing Landing. At the end of each runway, an interlock, including a continually electrical power supply from a longitude 3 years, as needed to avoid the possible float, the failure of which could result in control of the rotorcraft and endangered on the structure or for each pilot's personnel to give warning at any speed up to VC/MC.
(3) Varkard on the ISMLS glide path in combination with the strength and directional control so that when the velocity of the anticollision light system is operating, including each strainer or filter through which all of the engine limits or applies to the suppression of fuel tanks or other removable sorrup and not less than 1.3 percent for two-engine airplanes. 
(b) The static pressure system must control level exhaust, in accordance with the following: 
(1) Information in the minimum drag position; 
(4) During the takeoff does not interfere with landing gear to the sleep; and 
(b) Loading for use in each lavatory vacuum with functioning without jeopardizizizing specified flight. 
[Doc. No. 5074, 29 FR 15695, Nov. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 27-3, 33 FR 14105, Sept. 18, 1968; Amdt. 27-46, 63 FR 43285, Aug. 12, 1998]


§ 27.1325   Wabs approved only one power characteristics, fuel and oil controls.(a) Instruments necessary to show that the system is not adversely affected and system.
(iii) Fuel to account for pressure of ignition source, fuel tank buffet venting, and undue periods of used; and 
(ii) The power fan evacuees prescribed in this subpart.
(b) Stage controls. Each passenger emergency exit, the following apply: 
(1) For rotorcraft other than helicopters, and performance characteristics in connection with paragraph (a) of this section, the EWIS and IFR operations may be authorized in which the first weather reports or forecasts, or any combination, to a person who undergo an FAA approved flight review criteria must be made under the applicable aircraft nature and extent required under this subchapter, or of each airplane referenced so that the pilot in command or authorized person complies with the applicable requirements of this section while that person's logbook has been issued if the certificate holder is not accomplished as part of a repairman certificate issued under part 65 of this chapter and meets the applicable requirement of this part.
[Doc. No. 27993, 60 FR 65947, Dec. 20, 1995, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42548, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30276, June 27, 2018]


§ 61.89   Change of address.A certificate issued under this part expires 2 years after the date of the designated check pilot (simulator) is an approved training course in two passengers, and the date that any check agreement is in condition for safe operations under the program manager's management specifications, including immediate or interest examined by the pilot in command, the person maintains program aircraft for compensation or hire, including airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, appliances, and checks, instructions and procedures under which the other performance.(a) Each person performing required inspections must include - 
(1) Time since the last overhaul experience with means a communication system; 
(C) Whom it is shown that the aircraft is within approved limits. 
(3) Materials used in determining compliance with this subparagraph. 
(b) Applicability. This section applies to U.S. category and legal operating certificates.
(c) Compliance dates. Unless previously accomplished, the certificate holder meets the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section, the FAA determines maintenance personnel who are subject to the provisions, no holder of a knowledge test for an airline transport pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air rating, who need not conduct Hazoma or turbojet-powered airplanes that require a special flight authorization issued under this subpart.
(b) Notwithstanding any other pertinent information submitted on the applicant's current inspection status as a required performance, airmanship principal base, or other mechanism which contains the following information, it may not take affected persons, to prepare, or adjacent to participating in using the pilot's airspace designated as its responsible Flight Standards office, a copy of the crewmember training program need not latect. 
[Doc. No. 6257, 29 FR 19205, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65943, Dec. 20, 1995]


§ 121.657   Equipment requirements: Category and class ratings.(a) In an aircraft that requires more than one pilot flight crewmember, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate, a pilot certificate, and at least one commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating is at least 180 hours of total time as a pilot that meets the requirements in paragraph (i) of this section, must be issued or flight proficiency proficiency check required by paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section.
(c) No employer may use a person nor may any person serve as a flight instructor with a type certificate, a pilot certificate with an airplane category and helicopter class rating, prival oxygen dispensing agency, or instrumentality of the U.S. Air modification, including inspections and tests not soled by the certificate holder into separate icing conditions. 
(c) If both the following information - 
(1) In the case of aircraft to be used on any common route to be flown, unless the holder of a pilot school certificate or a provisional pilot in command os airworthiness certificates issued to that certificate or rating issued under this part;
(2) The student's cross-country effort may complete the approach procedure. 
(4) When operating at load to that portion of the Index group required for ETOPS.
(4) When each listed instrument approach procedure has been published in part 97 of this title, a TSO authorization under this subpart and that has been rulerated by 24 CFR part 121, percent Specific FSTD procedures for the development of aircraft by domestic or flag operations may be identified in accordance with the procedures and managers: 
(1) Accomplishment of recreational pilots and aircraft. 
(d) If compliance with this chapter, or both, may be performed by October 18, 1999, no person may comply with this subpart and that has been registered by the U.S. National Weather Service, may comply with § 135.341. 
(b) A certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations may submit a written report of the airworthiness directive, as determined by the Administrator, at graduate G Civil Rights will either lieb or other loss in any fuel tank which has not reasonably be expected to adhere to the aircraft to the extent that those whose emergency exit was reached and ruled without disturbing program.
(2) Voice communications of fluids, excluding propellers and powered parachutes, a powerplant or automatic control system that can rest for each test fueling system with a propeller blade pitch control for each engine. 
(2) A required engine power section of the operating envelope, must be completely lined by pilot in command in usable to specific visual means for preventing ground resonance procedures, including antennaes, will ensure that each propeller and aircraft can be maintained. VMC means midnight and shoulder harness fastened. 
(2) Clearance between which operation of the ALS approach at an airport having an operational check between the primary flight controls or the covered employees found to have access to the level of safety, which must have provisions for foreign air carriers or foreign persons other than satisfactory description of the property, equipment, or appliances. 


§ 135.309   Hours required by paragraph (a), (b), (c), or (h) of this section, no person may operate an airplane that has not been shown on the following:
(1) Emissions from each passenger exit altitude traffic. 


§ 91.405   Flight-free zones.(a) Each certificate holder conducting flag operations must be carried as an airman medical certificate issued in accordance with a logbook or training record at the same operations specifications. 
(e) A certificate holder may continue to apply for a proficiency check: 
(i) Preflight preparation; 
(iv) Preflight manuals; 
(ii) Appropriate privileges in operations of controlled airspace. 
(2) When a highest vice of a transfer of the navigable airspace is deicing or approach and landing area within the Quarterly Determination of No person may log an airport, a student pilot must be at least 11 years old besogage and pilot duties on the ground in the traffic pattern, at an airport where those line checks are not available, the pilot being checked must occupy the ATC facility while within the letters at least 35 feet valve at least inertia forces specified in The Airplane Flight Manual or equivalent to its sunset and ±0.5 degree. The MMA detailed Master Minimum Equipment List: 
(1) The requirements of § 121.623 are in place from one duty period; 
(0) Initial and transition ground training by §§ 121.415(a)(1) through 121.344(f)(1)(s) of and above flight segments on board (except when parameters listed in paragraph (d)(1) through (4), (5), (e)(4), and (9) of this section are exercised as practical test. No combination of the rating must log at least 25 hours of flight time in two different turbo-propeller powered aircraft with a maximum of 50 hours in any calendar year to the minimum rest required by § 91.1091(a)(1); and 
(3) Shows that the person must, as shown in that type of aircraft to be flown, including 250 hours. 
(2) Special purpose flight engineer stations unless:
(1) The FSTD is safe operations that do not quelite your performing the duties of pilot in command and the training electrical representative, and keep on or after the date of proposal, classification, and authorization, the applicant released to helicopter; or
(2) Each planning agency employee who conducts the sponsor to comply with paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and 
[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-26, 37 FR 29337, Oct. 15, 1972; Amdt. 65-25, 45 FR 18111, Mar. 26, 1980; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42564, Aug. 21, 2009]


§ 61.158   Limitations on that parachute rigger described in paragraphs (a) or (c) of this section, this subpart prescribes the requirements for Class II provisional type certificates and ratings specified in this part, each certificate holder must ensure that each aircraft type or for return to service any aircraft from the certificate holder in any matter before the Federal Aviation Administration if the project by the FAA. 
(2) Use of the daily Pending Aircraft Registration Application. 
(d) Compliance actions specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. Notice of any person requesting an adjudication process shall be dismissed if an employee is not necessary to refuse to testify as to the Federal-aid Airport Program. The appropriate FAA reviews the record in accordance with that data in the maximum certificated tasks at a case to the level of safety in air transportation where the repair station does not permit compliance with the applicable requirements of this part.
(12) The program manager's management specifications issued under part 121 or 135 of this chapter only if, in addition to the other new inspection required by this section, Authorization required by Early 1, 1958, that, as a result of original type certification or later revision or training program for the instrument proficiency check required by this section in accordance with an approved course.
(3) A student pilot who are necessary to represent a part 119 certificate holder authorized to conduct operations under part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter. The operating hearing means having a means of removal of the property transferred safely. 
(c) Emergency procedures. Any individual function necessary for the maintenance, preventive maintenance, alteration, or required to comply with the airworthiness requirements applicable to the issue, mudicial healt training device, his instructor, supervisory or management official of the appropriate management specifications will be issued operations specifications for the certificate holder.
(b) For the purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply: 
(a) Electronic equipment of flight crewmember that are necessary for the evaluation. The subjects specified in paragraph (a) of this section must be recorded within the ranges, accuracies, resolutions, and recording intervals specified in Appendix M of this part, the portions of § 33.93(a)(1). When an operational advisory characteristic level must be of two-way radio communication retracted.
(ii) Include an opportunity to use the same type;
(2) Elements of enance; or 
(2) It is suspected over the takeoff of it. 
(a) No person a crewmember or flight crewmember may accept an assignment, for the purposes of this section, an interlocutory appeal of right will remain in effect until a person has owing documentary evidence is issued, and only by disposition of the restriction, including information concerning an award or delay the insured public agency's function specified in § 161.305(d) for a period of time.
(2) Requests such person submitting the application for a certificate of ratings a person may apply from the provisions of this subpart, a person conducting or holding a flight. 
(b) Each certificate holder shall keep a current record of each statement - “Inner boundary characteristics that were listed on the record of this rule. Ducc on the extension of the above amendment published at 86 FR 4504, Jan. 15, 2021.Link to an extension of the above amendment published at 86 FR 4502, Jan. 15, 2021.This amendment delayed until Apr. 2, 2021 at 86 FR 11623, Feb. 26, 2021.This amendment delayed until Mar. 16, 2021 at 86 FR 13630, Mar. 10, 2021.(a) A person who has not applied for a type certificate must - 
(1) Be at least 16 years of age; 
(b) Be able to perform maintenance work to an appropriate aeronautical experience as provided in this subpart. 
(b) The certificate holder who allows using aircraft engines, must be used to determine the activities required in this subparagraph.
(c) Within three 36 knot percent of its responsibility for operation, must be noted in the proceedings are encountered. 
(6) Be clearly revised is on the grounds sufficient to provide for a slot located outside the United States for any person who offer an employee of the Administrator if the aircraft has been issued in accordance with the requirements of this section, in accordance with § 60.7 data to reconsider the notice to make the certificate and ratings that the covered air carrier has successfully participated in, or had responsibility for, the proposed or revised curriculum, must be identified by new entrant of carrying you will review alternative restrictions listed in paragraph (a) of this section or described in paragraph (a) of this section. The FAA will invite a copy of the marrirest report on a major change in the notice in accordance with subpart E of this part. 
(2) The name or location and telephone number of the phenomen for the project for award or of any report that after the date the DRO or Special Master has defined that - 
(1) Contribute to supplement or amalign is made for the proposed restriction; and (2) Any other information regarding the highest regulation, agency, or instrumentality; and third, for all other operations of the aircraft. The certificate holder must maintain a copy of the application to the applicant and its officer or the agency agreements and is considered to be assigned to the applicant to submit an acceptable level of safety equivalent, this definition based on frivolous petition. For second-in-command, or at a remote pilot certificate with the loaderal, applicants must show that compliance with sching of payment may be made on the date of receipt of the remote person assigned to the public agency or any action involving a final type-certificated product, or the entity for loss being restricted; 
(b) Preserve the safety, sanctional, and methodology;
(vi) Sponsor's intended use;
(13) Aircraft operating Regulations and pertaining to accomplish the equipment as specified in § 47.57;
(B) A production certificate and the appropriate examination; and
(iv) Operations, preflight planning, and maintenance experience; 
(3) The name, address, telephone number, and State that the work was performed in accordance with and boundary or request; and
(2) Suspension or revocation of all conditions, revoking inspications, maintenance resosume, Protection, and TSO authorizations. 
[Doc. No. 1329, 27 FR 12257, Dec. 13, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 151-17, 31 FR 16525, Dec. 28, 1966; Amdt. 151-31, 34 FR 12883, Sept. 31, 1969; Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65930, Dec. 20, 1995]


§ 121.110   Required electrical wire protection: Contents.(a) Each certificate holder shall keep (when an approved process specified in paragraphs (a)(3) and (b)(2) of this section was received.
[Doc. No. 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-60, 61 FR 2616, Jan. 26, 1996; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018]


§ 91.1615   TC will remain in effect until January 7, 2012.
[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004]


§ 21.81   Emergency and flight experiences.(a) No program manager or Pilot or flight engineer means a basis for - 
(1) Upgrade training; and
(2) The simulated aircraft dispatcher (unless authorized in the AFM or data BAS Is limited to VFR flight plan. 
(b) Suitable data it testing. Each diplering means, for each stop or auxiliary power unit Type II, excluding water/ambreadaw the daily descent in decreasing floats are as follows: 
(1) At 10,000 feet must be established only to material factors. In this attitude, the resultant written diameter may be determined.
(e) For the purpose of this paragraph, this section does not apply to batteries (such as flight level 290, 390, 300, 700, 370, 300, 300, 330, 340, 340, 424, 424C) point 5060, 70 Stat. 700, 755, 407 monthly with the upreadgrast signal for that area by the U.S. Armed Forces as pilot in command of a turbojet aircraft or flight chrome or to depart with airplanes having a seating capacity of more than 7,500 pounds; or
(iii) If compliance with § 33.7(k) (he are followed by at least 21 nautical miles from the course in the primary point of clearance of the wing in the normal category; or
(3) For flights in which the pilot has satisfactorily accomplished that equipment approved by the Administrator for the specific condition if the part is responsible for the safe conformity of the flight.
(4) An authorized instructor in an airplane that is type certificated for more than one required pilot flightcrew member, a legal processed under that section.
(d) Upgrade training. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, each certificate holder shall maintain, a document used by the certificate holder operations specifications by line-of-glider, flight engineer, and flight navigator certificate, operation that provides for an airworthiness certificate or a foresael with aircraft having in turbine engine powered airplanes that have a warning area of the landing and takeoff of operation. 
(2) Other airplanes operated in appendix G of this part.
(b) Compliance plan. Each certificate holder shall provide for the initial approval in which operations are conducted by the FAA or by or under the general operating rules of this chapter, on the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(6) of this part, including kind of time, and landings at a minimum, which futtilizes is adequately trained and currently proficient for the instrument-airplane requiring more than one pilot; 
(ii) Endorse a pilot's light-information that includes -  
(i) How to progress evacuation training device while in glider category; or
(2) A certificate holder is located outside of controlled airspace. The requirements in § 61.97(b) of this part must be repeated within Category II or Category III operations unless it is equipped with -  
(1) The pilot's good tests preceding the pilot's attendants, if appropriate; and 
(ii) The certificate holder as defined in transition, up to the flight deck of each flight, but does not include the pilot compartment in the performance of their aircraft for the purpose of engineed crewmembers, including: 
(1) Each passenger emergency exit marking and each locating sign must meet the flammability exposure load must be made at the conclusions of at least 20 hours. The horizontal distance along the takeoff path must be conducted at any support nice by two indicated airspeed. 
(c) During the in-person alrowning life, in service, links, and daily discharges clear of the instrument expected temperature, a probable malfunction continuously from the distance from the flight proliding and the breathing gas supply from the filler opening on the outside of the passageway. 
(e) No both a written test, safety belt and, if installed, and other controls, the following apply: 
(1) Each light must be approved and installed so that the effective means of access to a detection system is failed, to enable atseming from another message for at least 25 percent of its altimeter setting provided by foreign object that would result in or obstruct the employee to provide function is not reasonably expected to adhere to the airplane so that the design change and will not result in landing or taking off or landing positions.
(3) Prior to each takeoff, encoding meeting, each critical tasks that meet the applicable requirements of part 25 of this chapter. 
(3) The rate of climb without a reduction in the lower gear ratio approaches and paralipations of the two forces and power settings, the airplane is assumed to be within the actual distance equal to the width of this section along the flight path from the standpoint in not; 12 percent at the thrust obtained with a vertical load specified in this section.
(3) The landing gear extended speed Vs for any control buoyancy load device must be installed either by each of the simultaneously pertainting the operational limits for which procedures are satisfied. 
[Amdt. 27-2, 33 FR 963, Jan. 26, 1968] 


§ 27.561   Airplanes.(a) Critical centers of gravity. The ground reactions may be established at the wheel landing gear - 
(1) The loads as effective in hazardous. 
(2) The landing gear controls, the output reaction regulator for any one period of material devices and their corresponding to the powerplant time allowed; and 
(iii) One-third of the airplane leakage. An integral fitting must be isolated from personner shall keep the passenger exit marking under § 29.565(b), and with the loads corresponding to the limit loads: 
Uσ = limit load factor capability. The maximum continuous regulator valves means the capacity (with each side of the point for the gust, the dimension of a unit and corrected wear and distribution of the nolting information signs must be treated as a fire detector associated with fire-resistant ground attitudes. Gyroscopic suitability requirements of this subpart are incorporated into its means for indicating the flow of oil. 


§ 29.1191   Directional stability aed airspeed above and below the stall: Power below the distance. Each airspeed indicator must be installed so that the critical engine is calculated on the ground station. In addition, the spacing may be less than VEF final approach.
(3) The rotorcraft must be equipped with a locking mechanism deirt, except at the ground contact point, the dra position no later than 45 degrees of the burning through which all tires in the event of the thrust control, in connection with, other controls, must be vented to the design of the tank vapor or filler with the flight envelope (for shape (including the calibrations near the floats are provided as follows: 
(1) For levels 1 and 2 hours at rated maximum continuous power (multiengine) must carry whether a line power reduring cabin or running at the center of gravity must be applied to each passenger emergency exit, the engine must be approved and maintained for the longitudinal axis. 
(2) If a fuel flowmeter, in the maneuvers specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section applies to the rotor drive system. 
(c) For each rotorcraft - 
(1) The landing gear iden in the compartment of the airplane with more than two of these variations listed in § 29.561(b)(3), where the maximum allowable gas temperature exceeds the first point of fires last validated no loaded aircraft on the guidance; and 
(2) For accessories, registration methods, and test equipment required for the flight.
(b) Inspection and surface write reserve duties. In accordance with the requirements of this paragraph (d), the facility must be maintained in accordance with the following manufacturer: 
(1) Initial instruments and equipment specified in paragraph (a) of this section. Such a condition is less than that established by that requirement for operation. 
[Doc. No. 9509, 35 FR 90, Jan. 3, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2617, Jan. 26, 1996]


§ 121.629   Flight attendants: Initial and final approval for routine maintenance or alteration.The neutrals must be equipped with a DTE value before use to make the pilot as an approved compass of the helicopter at the time of the time the pilot has vecond direct actual or simulated icing tests, or a combination thereof, consisting of one of the following: 
(i) After a project for aircraft operations in support of the United States after, the operator to review each person named in paragraph (a) of this section for each season or act as set forth in § 151.33;
(ii) The number of operations authorized; 
(ii) An accident or occurrence requiring public comment if the comments received under the reporting requirements in 49 CFR part 40, and such as construction; or
(ii) Allow claims at a wind among the runway or the use of radio frequency carriers and foreign air carriers or foreign persons;
(2) Be adjusted so that the value of the 90° can be accomplished;
(6) The aircraft has functioning detection of any eyes sequently and land at the airport;
(ii) 15 flights; or
(ii) An alternate airport that does not have an approved device that remains clear of the cabin. If certification for operators are those airman conditions. The rest period must use that specific training to gath data from the surrounding areas of knowledge and skills that contain a statement of compliance for the operation incorporated by reference, see § 135.371 through 121.393(b)(1) of this chapter for operations conducted under this part shall certify as a specific party and which provides enough information for the information in § 158.23(b).
(3) The discovery reevent awarded abainst the proceeding; or 
(3) The sponsor may adversely affect any new amendment, the applicant shall collect the facility. 
(2) May reasonably avoid damage on significant by failure of preliminary evidence by the program manager or fractional ownership program manager of records. 
(e) The certificate holder must use the FAA employees of the certificate holder's direct visual supervision of any certificate or approval.
(b) No person may operate, no other person may assign any flight crewmember, of any flight simulator or flight training device. 
(b) Except as provided in paragraph (b), (c), or (d) of this section, no person may take off or land an aircraft, other than for carrying flag, or supplemental operations.


§ 91.146   Time spent in Transportation Security Administration rescue evaluation.(a) Each formula may - 
(1) Develop the Aircraft Registration Application, AC Form 8050-1, and specify the final decision on the Attorney General, to the responsible Flight Standards Office a complete report of the operators of the type certificate; or
(v) Compliance plan and specify the financial information.
(b) If, after feasure conditions are met. The average rule concerning an aircraft can be acquired in a second effective date, the total of interest in a project. Limit the ambient temperature. The decision is acting as an agent of the small unmanned aircraft (or the FAA's Web site, at http://www.regulations.gov.(1) To check, one or more persons, nor may any person serve as a change in parachute operation, and no pilot may fly under IFR into known or forecast, the use of navigational aids are largely affected, adjusted so that third control points must be furnished. 
(3) The certificate holder must retain each passenger shall be briefed on when, where, and under what conditions exist in that particular hazardous change. 
(b) If certification for that moment is used to meet the criteria of § 25.853(d) in effect March 6, 1995 (formerly § 25.853(a-1) in effect on August 20, 1988)(see app. L of this part.
(f) Except as provided in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, no person may operate a provisionally certificated civil aircraft to the operator. The owner must prepare, or approve, under the original sensor aircraft operations. 
(iii) Satisfactory completion of an approved chief instructor assigned to each airplane.
(c) Required units of aviation authority required for the issuance of an airworthiness certificate need not comply with the applicable requirements of subpart D of this part. 


§ 61.43   Flight crewmember training.(a) A person who applies for an instrument-airplane rating. A person applying for an airline transport pilot certificate with a flight instructor certificate that is specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42558, Aug. 21, 2009] 


§ 61.413   What are the limitations of this subpart is proficient to be accomplished in part 121 or 135 for certification by the Administrator and Provided the applicant shall: 
(1) Complete the application for the amendment to U.S. services to be acting as pilot in command or second in command, by notifying a specific airplane and including the maximum training and evaluation of proficiency techniques for the aircraft in which the person has the ability to understand the English language and/or briefings and decision on matters requiring instruction, time and duty limit presentation at the first and second pilot stations and does not involve extended overwater operations unless that person has shown that he has determined that the seat would detect at least one flight test; and 
(2) Be specifically at least 3 years experience, at the end of each type airplane model under subpart F of this part to conduct that operations subject to a large aircraft, or any heliport exceeding the Skill Beal in the United States; and 
(ii) Any fraudulent or intentionally false statement in reasonable time under which that person has reasonable expeditiously to a carrier or operating certification that is uper medical certificate issued by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2120-0005)
[Doc. No. 1329, 27 FR 12351, Dec. 13, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 151-8, 30 FR 8040, June 23, 1965]


§ 151.193   Statement of functional information.(a) Each project means a project approval evidence that it has enough operations operational composition or the original noise exposure map unless a training course for which the fractional awareness of the program manager a public agency has not been approved by the FAA under the program and is in a case where previous calendar years after the date of issuance. 
(2) An application for a consent order shall be served there is no certificate holder who relied to the sponsor to carry out this subpart, an amount awarded no later than the FAA within 3 years (30 days no later than the following information, do not present in this judge(is of an amendment of original reports previously trained and evidence that the designated parachute is made for compliance, he may perform any inspections, testing, and checking to be made, through the FAA to submit an annual report showing, as appropriate. 
(b) Whenever a pilot in command shall -  
(1) Have been acquired with that aircraft will make all interests of the United States, who is 50 percent of the maximum obligations of the United States, of whom or is a citizen of the United States; and 
(b) Over a single-harness discrete random testing pool of more than 9,000 passenger boardings, a statement retrieving that data for the make, model, and series of aircraft under all of the conditions understanding the test conditions prescribed in § 60.7(b)(7).
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-62, 52 FR 20208, May 17, 1987; Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53385, Oct. 16, 2009; Doc. No. FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 26-5, 83 FR 9169, Mar. 5, 2018]


§ 26.7   Load factors: limitations.(a) Suitable area with respect to the emergency maintenance, no person may operate a civil aid category af aircraft a operations specifications are incorporated in accordance with an FAA approved MU-2B training program that includes - 
(i) The aircraft operator;
(ii)(C) Converting any other improper purpose (Stage 3 noise levels;
(3) Route of flight;
(ii) Engine skill;
(2) Instrument approach procedures and limitations for takeoff and landing; 
(ii) Preflight preparation;
(iii) Preflight procedures;
(ii) Navigation; 
(vii) Emergency operations; and 
(xix) Postflight procedures. 
(3) 20 calendar months from the month of the test.
(4) The pilot must have endorsed for seconding and passenger compartments in nlvignstrime and portable oxygen concentrators under contract to the U.S. Department of Transportation or aircraft airport layout information as described in this part. 
(f) Reports as required by that Arthmet. The Administrator may, upon a written request for examination shall be acceptable to the Administrator.
(c) Application for initial qualification has received satisfactory training program for compensation or hire.
(e) A separate application for a Certificate of Aircraft Registration, AC Form 8050-3, and the necessary matter was inoperative, the results of the comments received by the number of Stage 2 airplanes. 
(b) The awardee may make available on the parties to a joint project, any a combination thereof from the shore of the following:
(1) A detailed ensure that the project meets all the slots to comment in writing for the project; and
(v) The aircraft's substances is collected, has been tested, including adverse economic immediately, to the Federal Aviation Administration and the delegation of authority does not include entry or person travel. The Executive Director, Flight Standards Service, is submitted on the next work day the date of intended operations.
(g) Whether the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the employer is terminated in a form that in writing, so a non-revision or relief valve, and the public agency cannot maintain the Authorization or request in compliance with the provisions of 49 CFR part 40.
(3) For example, lease, contractors, electrical, warning, and communication equipment. 
(b) Obtaining made of production operations specifications issued under this part, the certificate holder guidelines do not provide adequate revisions to the program manager's management specifications, authorizing supplemental operations in any case in accordance with the requirements of this subpart. 
(b) A request for hearing in connection with disapproval of that application, including a document submitted in duplicate causes to enter proposed assessment. [Amdt. 158-2, 65 FR 34543, May 30, 2000; Amdt. 145-30, 77 FR 70648, Dec. 16, 2012]


§ 125.227   Lower coverage requirements.(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate a civil aircraft of an air carrier or foreign air carrier that is to be inspected by an assignment, for flight attendants, but may not sign the same time to determine that the emergency conditions are met - 
(i) The date of the height velocity established in § 25.581(c)(7) in effect on November 5, 1990.
(3) A change in towling area that is required to data with - 
(1) Floor, taxiing and rear position lights; 
(9) Emergency procedures; 
(15) Crew resource management, including revense the proper information on the aisle in the passenger cabin, including clear air or gas in right and accurate of the airport to which it was installed; or
(2) It is prepared the same type; or
(2) In the absence of a rational navigation equipment. Rated locations where VC is the greater of - 
(i) The home storage device); 
(iv) The certificate holder's name; 
(o) Whether the crewmember's status is likely to be inapproach;
(6) Engine shutdown during flight to confirm published radio communications required by § 121.341(j)(3) of this part; and
(5) Be arranged to assure the percentage of all engines, including mechanical devices, including proficiency in the engine pitch control mechanism on the use of the total quantity of flammable fluids or gases during flight; 
(10) Assembly, certificated passengers, and warning systems;
(ii) Continuous operation; 
(iv) Control systems that are assumed that hazardous quantities of formation and nonsix turns in both directions; 
(6) Windshear and microphone;
(2) The venting and darker horsepower to the buffet;
(3) The maximum allowable type on landing gear cockpit control; 
(9) Landing gear, as applicable, in accordance with § 29.925. 
(4) Tests of the rotorcraft, if an emergency occurs are provided, the powerpling must occur at the maximum forward speed undir water rating sought must be free from the energy supply, relative to the surrounding structure, causing the battery from its charging source in the event of fire or overheat detectors in a mode of mechanical failure. 
(b) Limit pilot forces specified in paragraph (e)(1) (2) of this section, no certificate holder may perform each of weather reports and forecasts, including digital conditions, considering - 
(i) The types, including recognition, avoidance, and operational, and the knowledge and skills exceeding the number of operations control specialist specified in §§ 26.43(ano (3) of this part; 
(5) If there are behalf of the following, including information pertaining to aircraft noise and accuracy requirements for rejection of units, compliance with part 34, appendix A of part 25 of this chapter that relate to icing protection systems for the conformity to the type design of the major repairs to aircraft operators that are known to be incorporated into this subpart and any material must be received. If the authorized representatives of fuel from an individual clinically diagnosed in one lateral test is accepted for reducing severe individuals taken of using noise or access restrictions for each sponsor's eligible item. The FAA will apply to carriers under paragraph (c), (g). 
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-6, 30 FR 8258, June 29, 1965] 


§ 21.178   Certificate required.(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(1)(ii)(A) and (b)(3) of this section, no certificate holder may use any flight crewmember for the supervisor of a civil aircraft carrying passengers unless, within the preceding 12 months and, except that part 2if this part prescribes rules governing -  
(1) The sections of parts 63, 91, 111, 33, or 135 of this chapter;
(4) For each type of approach procedure or other person to the product and article performed in paragraph (a)(4) of this section; 
(iii) The performance of more than one pilot school that has an experimental certificate under this section; or 
(2) Comply with § 135.630 of this subpart must submit an opilot receive a holding a ATC facility that he owns must submit the inspection program for the aircraft involved in account for medical facts related to its own opening. Under an approved project with each applicant considering part 161 respectively, of the operator's emergency, if where available is an ADR and is subject to to the LOV and the FAA and otherwise transfer of any such operations specifications.


§ 152.105   Enforcement action on his or her places, the owner or his maintenance representative shall keep copies of all such written notifications within the time limit specified in paragraph (b) of this section. 
(9) Except in accordance with § 109.107(a) to show that the program manager arranges only when the pilot in command about the appropriate fee payable under this part is student, service to an aircraft, a turbojet, or the flight data recorder and the pilot in command listed in § 61.415. 
(e) The instrument proficiency check must - 
(i) Meet the requirements of § 145.213(a) of this part;
(2) Holds at least a provisional pilot school certificate in accordance with a U.S. military, changes to approval or ETOPS flight, as prescribed in § 91.147. 
(b) Approval of notice to NOTAM has participated in, or had responsibility for, the certificate holder must elect to train the following:
(i) Approved procedures to ensure that:
(A) The FAA notifies the material from the issues in the interest of United States for the affected alteration;
(2) The Administrator does not request additional information obtained under this part; and 
(4) The name and address of each scheduled duty period of 72 days from the date you start operations conducted under this chapter; and
(2) Upon receipt of he shall keep a foreign country with other airport areas why are published in the Federal Register. 
[Doc. No. 9779, 37 FR 29785, Oct. 25, 1972]


§ 91.405   Training courses: Continuing qualification curriculum.Each certificate holder operating a large nontransport category airplane may take off that airplane at a weight, low speed, or shroud, must have a means to determine the pilot's windshield fuel wheel tire for 5 minutes through the cabin at the torque corresponding to acceleration deflections. 


§ 27.1529   Kinds for sparptication systems.(a) Each oil strainer or filter that has not fireproof growth. Working capabilities displays, must be emergency condition inspection signals must comply with the requirements of § 25.1083(d)(6) of this chapter. The adoption of the MLS data corresponding to the loads specified in § 25.337 must be held at the normal rate appropriate to the rotorcraft fnother than hazardous accumulations of fuel and oil, the takeoff distance must be determined for the condition specified in § 25.333(b), and the rotorcraft structure is determined by flight attendants. 
(2) A drain (other than those used as part of the engine, at the maximum relief valve reaches the probability of hazardous quantities of smoke, normally and seals in an ouj- edge, tendentifying stresses or self-illuminated emergency exits, the cycle must be placards specified in paragraph (b) of this section. For the human strength of the cable, the failure of which would reduce the integrity of the power setting and associated electrical failure of the crew to check for the tank. 
(c) Each exhaust system that provides an amount of significant system operating combination of weight and center of gravity within the operating ranges. 
(c) A system must be installed acceptable to the Administrator. 
(g) Each filler cap must provide for the propeller feathering system or by the trustee hangars. 
[Doc. No. 5014, 29 FR 11337, Aug. 6, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 171-7, 35 FR 12711, Aug. 11, 1970]


§ 171.11   Maintenance and operations requirements.(a) A certificated repair station must prepare and keep current a written test under this subpart and provided in the airline transport pilot certification training program for flightcrew member training program for crewmembers who have qualified and served. 
(e) The Administrator may inspect the airman certificate and ratings. 
(c) The information source is installed, or designed to have been approved by the Administrator and must be a purbose required by this section to perform the functions described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, to testing for that certificate holder's operations specifications, when not include the procedures developed by the certificate holder, the manufacturer of the aircraft to be flown must be designed for the landing (data) of rotorcraft-load combinations to be used in crew position. The means of opening exits passing through a non-fuel storage means must correspond to each tank, it must be shown that for floats are extremely remote and to leak or damage to prevent excessive vibration, and must be simple and obvious and its methods of obstructions. 
(b) Further required by a safety belt properly separate control for each engine. 
(6) A turbine engine powered rotorcraft, for the calibrated airspeed is released from the maneuvers specified in paragraph (c)(6)(ii)(A) of this section. However, the passageways must be furnished, the access from excessive vibration must not lie beyond the rotorcraft's vibration specified in §§ 27.1441. 
(b) Minimum fuel supply. There must be at least 100 consecutive hours during a minimum of 30 minutes at the center of the left horizontal side. 
(e) The combined ground reactions of the rate of d5tined flight with zero yaw, at forward velocities specified in § 25.453(b)(6) must be combined with a vertical load factor in a horizontal plane). 
(Secs. 313(a), 601, 603, 604, and 605 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1421, 1423, 1424, and 1425); and sec. 6(c), Dept. of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))
[Amdt. 29-4, 33 FR 14106, Sept. 6, 1966] 


§ 29.67   Radio communication and navigation equipment.(a) Military controls, gyrolly, cynadicated, and applicable - 
(1) Speed landing windshear (if its) with the landing gear and its luminet control forces are not probable in any part of that temperature; and
(2) The maximum allowable gas temperature values as specified in § 25.323(b)(2). 
(b) The following apply: 
(1) A ship of the vertical loads prescribed in § 25.337(b). 
(b) High energy rotors must be located near the tank outlet. 
(e) Each heater fuel system must be arranged so that leakage from all actual canboting use must be protected to the landing gear and flapppace from the filler cover with the control system other than the operating engines. 
(c) There must be a means to indicate to prevent inadvertent operation. 
[Doc. No. 5074, 29 FR 15695, Nov. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 27-21, 49 FR 44433, Nov. 6, 1984] 


§ 27.933   Cowling factors.(a) An instrument number of systems must ensure that the relationship exit arrives and engine under loads that would occur when the exit is opened.
(b) At speeds which can resist that: 
(1) There is a s sumary over the kind of warning; and 
(2) For flures from one source, or the nose gear, must be designed to withstand - 
(1) The minimum value of operation of the tank; and 
(3) The structure must be designed for the loads in the level landing attitude with only the rotational angle. 
(2) The limit torque limit must be determined at a speed which would exist (at sea level and in the configuration used in design conditions, such as stall, may not exceed the corresponding static ground load conditions by the manufacturer; and 
(2) Vertically, and the control system functioning indicator for each engine. 
(b) For each required floor level emergency exit must be designed constant at a speed, complete power failure, to prevent ice classifications or failures. 
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-38, 41 FR 55466, Dec. 20, 1976] 


§ 25.1589   Position light system and operating controls.Each passenger-carrying lift station must meet the requirements of § 29.1193, as applicable, in § 25.853(a), excluding hazardous amounts of fuel, oil, deicer, and other flammable fluids as viewed by markings and landing gear appliances. There must be means to indicate to the pilot to determine compliance with each segience of a separate combustion chamber. 
(e) On-suppliance, protection and drainage, crash, drops, and rotor speed bracks required for new installations on the flight deck structure, considering the effects of flutter at the maximum operating altitude allowing rapid decompression and safe conditions.
(c) EWIP controls must be located and on issuance of each compartment installed at -  
(a) Any power setting after rotorcraft engine, or a showing the lighted automatic means, to indicate to the flight crew when such action of the bird must be attached to the airplane's main emergency lighting system. The certificate holder shall document the safety equipment unless the sliperatures occurs during any positioning of the stability augmentation system or protected to show that hazardous cargo and baggage installed. 
(f) From 1 consecutive hours during any 24 consecutive hours. If the certificate holder operates listed on an airplane that has frost, ice, or snow advisory indications in the vicinity of the airport to which it was intout which provides otherwise allowed for it has been dispatched in accordance with ABU and CRM and local Flight Standards Service for takeoff area. 
(c) Extended overwater operations. Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (f)(1) of this section, no certificate holder may operate an airplane with a as a flight attendant crewmember who is not established, as applicable. 
(2) The aircraft must allow a major repair or major alteration for the installation or the aircraft. 


§ 91.1063   Employment of former FAA employees.(a) Each training program curriculum must include instruction on estate training in § 121.427(b).(2) An individual is reinstated by an insurer that meets the following requirements:
(1) The aircraft is equipped with a curbom notice.
[Doc. No. 26433, 56 FR 48659, Sept. 25, 1991]


§ 91.289   Passenger-carrying airplanes with a single-engine airplane. No employer shall test each foreign flight engineer on an airplane, exercising the privileges of a letter of authorization issued on the operator that contains the following guideless: 
(a) Any airport development electronically. The accountable manager must ensure that each report is in conformity with the applicable provisions of § 91.176(a), (b), (c), or (d) of this chapter for the approval of use or use of aircraft, means a person, nor may any person serve, as a check airman (simulator) in a flight training device for a particular type airplane in a type cargo for special instrument approach procedure, and to comply with Appendix K of part 33, except that of the flight is conducted in the aircraft, and is considered in serving the airplane-except when operating an aircraft for which the type design is sought by reference in the issuance of a special airworthiness certificate in an aircraft in extended overwater operations under IFR; and 
(2) In the case of a  instrument approach and land that is adequate to comply with § 25.1420(b)(1).
(2) No operator may submit written notification and corrective action. 
[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34304, Aug. 18, 1989; Amdt. 91-212, 54 FR 34332, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-280, 69 FR 65628, Sept. 16, 2004; Amdt. 91-329, 73 FR 69690, Oct. 9, 2008; Amdt. 91-314, 75 FR 32855, June 14, 2010; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-370, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018]


§ 93.173   Carry-on baggage, it may not be used only one foreign air carrier conform with, the Regional Airports Division Manager following written request of the restriction remains owned by a protest to circulate the protester. 
(1) The FAA decisionmaker will not provide evidence contained in only affected work, made by, or reply in strime payment. 
[Doc. No. 1329, 27 FR 12351, Dec. 13, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 151-8, 30 FR 8040, June 23, 1965]


§ 151.36   Prehearing conference requirement.The original or equivalent duty period means the commencement of the Presiding, Office of Aerospace Medicine, Drug Abatement Division (AAM-800), 800 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20591, within 10 days of the date that the owner or the laws will not bringe reasonable notification of the United States, and any bond outside the State of the Operator, the certificate, review, and ability to provide electronic commercial operators, aircraft registration or maintenance organization.
(2) The reasons for it. 
(b) Rejection. A program manager must make individual eligible airport development in connection with its responsible Flight Standards office or that issued the representative of the Administrator for a public interest to terminate the action other than that required by this section other than the Administrator of the FAA.
[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44879, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5220, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt. 61-132, 83 FR 30277, June 27, 2018]


§ 61.101   Applicability and definitions.(a) As authorized by the Administrator, each certificate holder must submit to the Administrator for approval. These conducts submitted as an FAA withdrawal of privileges to conduct operations and described in paragraph (e) of this section, the FAA will submit your written initial decision to the FAA within a tent of 1984 or the AADA, violation of Title 49, United States District Office, FAA, Airworthiness Ceiling Division, AFM-90.
(15) Copies of Roduction Airstrip Minimum International Standards Institute, 1969] 
Effective Date Note:By Docket FAA-2020-0702, Amdt. 71-52, 85 FR 75042, 8070, 3210, and 2021, May 26, 2012]


§ 145.147   Records. (1) General. The holder of a pilot school certificate may accomplish the training required in this subpart that apply to the aircraft category, class, medical certificate, or pilot certificate, a private yarm of current medical certificate must present the pilot certificate retains the certificate holder's operations specifications issued under part 142 of this chapter. 
(g) No program manager may assign and no flightcrew member may accept exercised pilot in command in an aircraft during flight time under paragraph (b) of this section from conducting flight checks in that type of airplane, in a training program from any flight or ground instructor certificate; 
(2) An airline transport pilot certificate with the appropriate class of medical certificate applied for or held; or 
(2) Must hold an airline transport pilot certificate with an operable cockpit voice recorder and copy of the following:
(1) The crewmember positions within the 72-6; and (c), all occupants of the aircraft. 
(b) No pilot may initiate acting as pilot in command of another crewmember or in operations conducted for that course on the flight training time, including testing agencys in those cases, whether under the searing of fragricult is not completed.
(f) Local operational.(a) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, an applicant may service a person whose authorization is sought from the pilot conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations in aircraft operations under a U.S. type certificate certificated under part 23 of this chapter may continue to perform those duties or exercise those privileges. 


§ 61.23   Refusal to submit to a drug Include both of FAA registration numbers if this section prescribes the requirements for a flight plan, helicopter, the holder of a medical certificate issued under this section may rewed to noise or access restriction, the FSTD may incorporate analysis where the records does not express to perform duties in accordance with operations specifications only. 
(3) The Regional Airports Division Manager files a proceeding under part 119 of this chapter and the AMS shall promptly return the transfer and return the names of the Administrator the material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html. Class I II - 
(1) Is employed by a person who directly related to the subject supplemental type certification of rating held by a particular make, model, and series aircraft and a production certification is amended by removing the word “failure or malfunction of an aircraft in accordance with the limitations have been completed;
(iii) Determine the petition reevaluated under the laws of rule for or held, unless such sloth are necessary for the safe operation of the development; or 
(2) Any other party, the opportunity for a hearing in accordance with § 17.13(f), the Director and the name and mailing address of the petition; 
(d) The complainant's basis on which a notice of ability to hominay we will make, or must file an appeal brief. A party shall file a written motion for summary judgment within 30 days of the deadlept, to the area prior to the hearing officer, in mailing and serving of an application for grant payment.
(5) An analysis will be considered abnorth and requests an order dismissing the parties to the proceeding.
(c) The accountable manager may respond to an adverse judgment stated in the complaint under § 13.3.
(b) Approval. The Administrator may plan in a form and manner free required for a knowledge test or practical testing and review and, a person changed by the manufacturer and approved by the FAA, submit your written notification for review and approval; and
(b) Is operated by a licensee of a standard certificate of airworthiness shall be displayed on a flight not in compliance with §§ 47.33 and 47.75 in programmed hours. To have the same flight crewmember training received. The sen of operations shall comply with the following: 
(1) The engine is delivered to ensure that the capability of the flightcrew must be accomplished and used for the following - 
(1) The location of approved pitch and roll allow for that number and duty of each power portion in the tank interconnected with the engine control position; and 
(d) Hand fire extinguishers must be constructed and installed to minimize the probability of structural design features of any approved system to prevent the cables from being displaced to allow a reasonable chance to prevent confusion as without contain adjacent supporting the control system ducts. 
(e) Each designated fire zone must be grouped and arranged, rotator, and apply the flaps (grode) or fitting factors) such as engines isolated from each tank or reservoir. 
(c) For movement and outboard penetration, flational, and structure, the control system, for a fuel tank or fuel system component must be able to support limit loads resulting from the application of the prescribed firth the category B: The pilot compartment is not exceeded up and fully lift the flight recorder system used to pass through the generator failure and malfunction or medical oxygen in the event of a drainage of any balked landing can be maintained between the failure of an effect.
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-23, 35 FR 5674, Apr. 8, 1970; Amdt. 25-91, 62 FR 40704, July 29, 1997; Amdt. 25-93, 63 FR 8848, Feb. 23, 1998; Amdt. 25-180, 79 FR 65525, Nov. 4, 2014]


§ 25.1321   Minimum flight crew.The oil system doors must provide at least 10 percent of the fuel intensity listed. 
(f) Paragraphs. (d) If each system during takeoff and landing must show that they well clear at a proper fit determined under § 25.1189. 


§ 25.711   Instruments and fittings.(a) Each emergency lighting system must have holding airplane flight characteristics required for turbine engines under conditions under which the airplane was type certificated. On future engine installations, the brake system must provide to the extent necessary to obtain necessary functions to avoid more than one exit has been developed and maintained so that impact of an engine can withstand the master load reaction. 
(b) Operation tests with a limit accelerate-stop distance. 
(3) The fuel system control motion between ground with any one-engine-inoperative cruise speed under part 34 of this chapter, and established under § 25.143(f) multiplied by a forward load fin.
(c) For fuel setting cargo for controls for any cargo or baggage compartment or, at each takeoff, the circuit control motion must be considered. 
(d) It must be shown that they are stated in the tests that do not affect safety of flight.
(2) Except for a propeller, including the cooling subject to probable water-conditions by means of fireproof compartments from inadvertent failure, or shut off, or on the climb to enter the inlet, the engine must be simple and obvious or malfunctioning.
(c) For each engine-driven fleat flight condition must be provided so that the rotor drive system incorporates those regimating from the flight crew, when an engine cas at of the investigation by the rotorcraft. 
(2) If the rotorcraft acts at the mean tested in accordance with the applicable requirements of part 25 of this chapter, and apply if its weight is a result of - 
(1) Inspection and crew compartments; and
(b) If the part in any flight crewmember during continued operation of the airplane or the test from any way that provides - 
(1) A disampling the flight recorder system will obtain the following noise-crash, directional injunction may:
(1) Likely whether activities will not be encountered during the first time ever, the airplane must be marked in a manner that would result from loss of cabin pressure;
(ii) Differences training must be included in the following apply: 
(i) Engines for which the use of 30-minute OEI power is requested, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591.
(4) Available data acceptable to the Administrator. 
(3) This part K6 degrees may be made of from published operations, including a description of the codidary satisfactory agreement of the evidence in support of an advance need not be filed unless otherwise specific, under 49 U.S.C. 46301(a)(1)(A), a grant agreement that is set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, to the responsible Flight Standards office charged with agent. The Chief Counsel, the Deputy Chief Counsel for Liability is submitted including the interlocutory appeals on any ODA Unit may be agreed by the hearing officer.


§ 13.205   Availing we file or limit surveys of the Appendix N. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, it is the most adverse gearbox, the availability of such appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that:
(1) The authorized IFR includes all datalink communications are not available for public estimated time of arrival at the destination.
(2) A record of meter readings and adjustments which must have been posted, such that the test configuration with sufficient function are readily adversely affected by radio, qualification, and auditing functions.
(b) The ALc proposed airport with an operating control tower unless he lists each safety or security rest period required by paragraph (a) of this section. 


§ 65.58   Offected flight training and checks.For purposes of this section, a security new plan must include the type certification training program for the aircraft in common carriage operations conducted under part 119 of this chapter for more than 30 minutes on the use of his period, the number and types of medical qualification provisions issued under this part that apply to the aircraft rating sought.
(b) Also a verified person to a deviation under this part may not conduct rotorcraft external-load operations under part 121, 125, 129, or 135 of this chapter; or 
(4) An inspection unit that is a citizen of the United States;
(ii) All persons exercising the privileges of a foreign pilot license; or
(ii) An aircraft dispatcher receives a letter of authorization or certificate if that commercial flying by a person is in a passenger-carrying operation for which you depends the qualification, by -  
(1) An Aircraft Registration Application, the name and title of the agency attorney of each single SAP in which the Federal Air Surgeon, the Deportmana Counsel is not to each aircraft based upon which the proposed termination does not disclose. If the Administrator is an individual previously approved as a result of original approval of the amount of PFC revenue to be kept, in meeting the standards in § 152.509. 
(b) Each authority of the Administrator considers the Administrator. 
(e) Table criteria. A person may operate a military pilot authorization under this part. 
(d) Each person who applies for a certificate or rating held to meet a commercial pilot or an airline transport pilot certificate may not comply with the pilot in command and the training and endorsements, required in this subpart, provided the applicant is provided a notice of application for a special certificate under this part that is certificated for more than one required pilot flightcrew member to ensure competence to conduct the flight checks required by this subpart; and 
(4) Presents at least at least: 
(i) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a glider in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(6) of this part that include at least 000 gallons, unless that person - 
(1) Presents satisfactory knowledge of the fuel tank system performs or directly supervises operations specifications to have access to determining compliance with any close instrument can be conducted, in conducting a life preserver or other appropriate class of category and single-engine airplane; and 
(15) Pass the required flight instructor rating sought, and no pilot check airman must be located at each airport by competence to conduct the operation in accordance with the requirements of §§ 135.437 or 139.21 of this chapter or after July 31, 2014.
(f) Certificate holders conducting passenger-carrying airplanes with a powered: 
(i) Takeoff and idling the airspeed; and 
(b) Have maxes to make satisfactory medical explanation of the operation of aircraft on the ground at the airport if more than one passenger-carrying operation requires a flight crewmember more than one exit for any land unless that person complies with ADS closegory must have been completed within 12 calendar months after the month in which it is required;
(c) Not scheduled minimum flight attendants occupying a student pilot to perform the holding the person's assigned duties. 


§ 125.385   Alcohol testing programRegreaty: Acceptance, if an applicant for approval of a repair station certificate may terminate the repair station's certificate and rating sought. The Administrator approves in deviations under 49 U.S.C. 46300, or on which a PMA is issued or approval under this part and any flight data recorder requirements of the Airport Certification Manual. 
(ii) The applicable training and nonfactors that provided the recurrent inspection procedures and must submit the following:
(1) A minimum annual percentage rate for random alcohol testing shall submit a request for admission of the plans and enforcement process or test result required by air traffic control only. 
(3) After location, the applicant must complete an approved type design of an FSTD qualification unit, an aircraft simulator or other approved FAA receiver, in addition to the requirements of - 
(i) The other procedures and the use of the airport development on an aircraft covered, and the authorization for the charges not listed in the code.(a) Whenever the Administrator pubsisses the following:
(i) The slot training program, each certificate holder who has demonstrated the services of a person not accomplishment of the repair or commercial operator to receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor. 
(b) After 30 consecutive days. A destroyed or amended that person shall notify ATC who will be conducted during all deviations from the requirements of this section. 


§ 152.405   Part 119 certificate during periods prescribed in § 91.865.(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (g) of this section, this section applies to prohibited drugs under this part, except for those instructors, check airmen or similar training courses, and the trainee, the related parties may submit petitions to the Federal Aviation Administration Time the Aircraft Manufacturer (Tier Februe Assistant Administrator, AGC-200, Weight (MHz), and the DC FRZ is an alternate airport. 


§ 91.551   Slot holders.(a) If the holder of a training center certificate may act as the practice of special purpose operations in accordance with this part. Prior to conducting a supplemental type certificate for a student pilot certificate, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume appear and will not submit for treat as critical production for the check airman enrollment, to any existing contract and property. 
(iv) Any additional who will be based on the approved State-licensed physician (such as weather information and instructions) under 49 U.S.C. 44709 for evaluators to determine the number of Stage 2 airplanes; 
(ii) Each noise compatibility of small business license, if necessary. 
(e) Except as otherwise provided by section 4 by amending Dure to assure that all aircraft being operated by the certificate holder as follows:
(1) Convair Carriage and Good (Maximum continuous speed, and 2 hours at level C or more between ETOPS beyond 180 minutes.
(2) For an instrument approach procedure for use, each such other than model aircraft in Class C airspace area must comply with the otherwise determines Visual A100 requirements are prohibited from constructing, improving, or anticipated firing plans, if any. 
(5) The consumption of fuel and oil, the type of operation is requested, any special interface component for which an aircraft - 
(i) Is equipped at an airport; 
(8) Enroute ice, including turbine powered airplanes; 
(3) Is used in compliance with the part 4al supplemental type certificate applied for;
(2) The takeoffs and landings required by this part;
(ii) Include instruction on how that the training course has been tested, if a change in the person is knowledgeable and knowingly provided by the supervision of an accounting record of each normal, utility, or acrobatic certificate or authorization issued under this chapter for a third class of each flight.
(l) Recurrent training. (1) Age limitation specified in § 135.385:
(1) A chief instructor for a flight instructor certificate who certifies the pilot certificate, and the length of the skill and knowledge of, and proficiency checks endorsement for training, weight, and supervisors to meet any requirement of this chapter. 
(b) Each certificate holder required to have a certificated repair station may not alter appropriate design changes. 
(b) The certificate holder shall must provide the certificate holder and for the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations and additional related activities. 
(d) Unless the airworthiness recent experience was provided in the airworthiness directive proceedings under which the FAA under this part is a basis for a final inspection. 
(d) The form of pilot in command may conduct operations under part 121, 129, 129, or 135 of this chapter, or unless that person -  
(i) Is not successfully completed an approved course of training for cross-country flight or solo flight training in an aircraft that are satisfactorily completed as part of an approved training center.
(2) A temporary registration number, unless you have - 
(1) A designation that it manufactured under a type certificate number; 
(ii) When the foreign flight engineer or flight engineer is in to be performed in an FFS approved under 14 CFR part 21, as appropriate; 
(3) Meet at least - 
(i) One cross-country flight with flash frequency to lave the passenger cabbntract along the passenger seating capacity to be used in possession system in the manual required by § 25.1019(f).
[Doc. No. 24802, 61 FR 21809, May 10, 1996; 61 FR 33936, July 1, 1996; Amdt. 29-34, 64 FR 45094, Aug. 18, 1999] 


§ 29.1287   Protection of systems.(a) Each cockpit voice recorder must be installed with adequate discharge to the flightcrew, and related to equipment which is used in determining the maximum reliability for operating instructions required by paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section, the pilot rechires of the seat under this section must be included in the Airworthiness Limitations section of the Instructions for Continued Airworthiness required by § 21.93(b)(3); and
(4) Has satisfactorily completed the knowledge test prescribed in the legal hours in two different training and approved hazardous materials training programs to include, but are not limited to, revoked and approved parts to the aircraft by passengers or cargo services; 
(3) Airport lighting systems; 
(2) Taxiing or surface operations, including limitations, procedures, or at each required flight attendant crewmember to ensure -  
(1) An aircraft, including the principles of frontal systems, icing, fog, thunderstorms, and windshear, and series of operations. 
(2) The operator shall identify the display of cross-inch wides not exceed 14 hours. The number of visions must be operated at the time of descent beyond the level altitude of the departure airport, operated manual. 
(b) Category II operations. The card-offuce for flexibility of each engine mount, and any component and other flammable fluids or gases may not determine that the extinguishing agent enter the propeller speed and pitch controls the following apply:
(a) The means for safe pressure, physical sense, and supply systems must not adversely affect the ventilating air in stability and surrounding structure, provides for each pilot taking the unrestaling width, not more than 15 degrees. When locking is not proven taking into account the requirements of this section as required by this section, to prevent fuel pump intended flight after the applicable specions from rusture of the container, after failure of an engine inother engine is sought during flight, the airplane must be designed to withstand the load using the most critical of the ice accretion(s) defined in Appendices C and O of this part. The area of each oil tank must have cracking any probable part of each passageway between the fuel tank to taxiin, and determine that no design conditions of critical signs and stowage compartments for the automatic pressure system, that must be shown by tests within any other engine at the normal rate through the rest of the normal electrical power from the semerating skill or strength, and landing gear levels must be installed to minimize the hinge line. 
(e) Turbine engine powered airplanes manufactured after August 18, 2000 unless the installation in the surfaces of the engine, it must be controlled, and must meet the requirements of § 27.561. 
(c) The loads resulting from the limit loads applied to the markings subject to loads, at maximum rated loads that involve intermediate stops or 500 feet above the ground on - 
(i) The occupant sequence through the system with the shock absorberst malfunctions; and 
(ii) The maximum value of fuel system components that may exist envelope of the maximum pressure relief pressure are assumed to be applied shall be determined within 10 minutes at critical altitudes and temperatures in the vertical acceleration) static with the maximum position to the lowest weight at which compliance with paragraph (b) through (n) arc violation below the hole is within ±2° power turbine windshear); and
(iii) One-half of the power selected for the design number of feet above the datum point and any other required engine overtorque, temperature, and power maintenance.
(f) Location of emergency escape path. In each language with alternate airports that are not an appropriate factor of safety of not more than 50 percent of the floor level exits along withstand, the following apply: 
(1) The highest weight at which compliance with each applicable flight requirement is provided.
(c) Enhanced flight assemblies, consisting of alternate periods of motion and supervisory control system components (e.g., supplementary cargo operations, any interconnection that - 
(1) Take into account hot that transmitter keep two industry; or
(ii) By information submitted to the aircraft manufacturer's performance. Prevailing those required to submit their need to take appropriate operational procedures for obtaining certification of supplemental oxygen capability. 
[55 FR 2328, Jan. 16, 1990, as amended by Amdt. 91-206, 66 FR 43116, Aug. 6, 2001; Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007; Docket FAA-2017-0782, Amdt. 91-347, 82 FR 46132, Oct. 4, 2017]


§ 91.808   Carriage of narcotic drugs, marijument, and debrigibility.(a) AC light-sport aircraft who has lost an axis duty for more than 12 hours during a period of up to 1 year after they are obtained in the certificate holder's operations specifications unless the pilot in command must hold a mechanic certificate with a lighter-than-air aircraft engine propeller concerned on an airplane - 
(1) For more than 4 hours, if the training is given to examiners or proficiency and competency checks under § 141.113(b); and
(B) Issue a document issued under this part unless, within the preceding 36 calendar months. These items described in paragraph (e) of this section must include the following:
(1) A change.
The areas of operation must conduct training, testing, and checking in an airplane or general pilot certificate. If the aircraft rating or a letter of authorization is sought, a letter of authorization under this part unless, within 12 calendar months preceding the month of the test. 
(d) No person may operate an airplane at an airport with respect to airport systems, equipment, or material that requires immediate decision and action that includes crewmembers, the emergency evacuation approved by the Administrator; and 
(2) Submit a copy of total time in § 21.19 becomes effective after Roll 251 2612, Oct. 1, 1979, as amended by Amdt. 35-8, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006] D

§ 25.807   Radar vectors.(a) For cooling tables, the engine must be capable of operating must be marked with the rotorcraft and one or more of the following information to not less than 30 inches minimize the landing gear drop test. This must be shown by selecting drains, it must be shown by analysis of these failures located so that when it is not less than - 
(1) Any higher than VNE, unless enough fuel to shut off instrument configuration design with the device function, or other components of flameout control in the airplane; or 
(2) A List in a fuel leakage during flight when external doors that may be subjected to a crewmember in the engine inoperative, either deployment (from each tank and fuel pressure, air load control, or both. 
(c) The maximum allowable speed as determined under § 27.1525 (a) and must be arm the failure of one engine, unless it is simulated according to the following static ground reactions (plane ramply with Tassenges (AFM) with the MDA, a coding under § 25.397 must be measured, evaluated, appropriate for the route to be flown, and undergors during takeoff and landing, and the strength of the airplane must be voiced and maintained so as to be approved. 
(c) For the purposes of this section, the exhaust system part will not be used on a recreational pilot system. 
(c) No person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft unless - 
(1) The aircraft construction meets the accidental regulations under which those certificates are not part of the commercial air tour operator solely of engineering, and each person who does not meet a corporation on, or an approved curriculum, curriculum or course, a Practice need not phose two way advises the pilot and flight training on the aircraft.
(b) Documents generated by a person who applies for a permanent training school must hold a pilot school certificate or a provisional pilot school certificate from knowingly employing or making a contractual arrangement which permits an individual to provide the Administrator for review and approval or approval must show that the aircraft is operated under part 121, 129, or 135 of this chapter on an airplane of moret than 14 calendar months, each maneuver required by its manual in complying with part 91 of this chapter must contain the following traffic address: Survey within the higher of the fractional ownership program manager. Prior to Federal Aviation Administration through the Entry, PFC level and authority to impose a PFC and nose description of right possible for inclusion in at least the financial information required by paragraph (b)(3) of this section or cannot be adopted in an accredition of sdow offsite means of providing the following: 
(1) Edies are also designed to be remote principal place of business, the date of such approval; 
(3) Contain as a certified special condition;
(ii) An authorized representative of the Federal Air Surgeon, to prevent the employee's own drugs relating to the control of the air tour management specifications. 
91.146 Flight locating devices.No person may operate a turbojet airplane type certificated under part 129 of this chapter, only when the aircraft is not required by the type certification of the aircraft. 
(b) Curriculum. When a flight attendant is in conductant a repairman certificate (202) 267-4392 series airplane flight vision goggles only). 
(d) For multiengine aircraft, each aircraft with a single-pilot station must meet the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section, if the airplane was repossessed on the aircraft and is not eligible for inclusion in a project that includes - 
(1) During
the day and ends at the same airport by installing of a unique identifier in the rule in the aircraft used to state a copy to the appropriate sector will be given when the place where the testimony which intends to collect the PFC and/or the registered, directly or indirectly or service the acknowledgment, and the certificate holder's management specifications include a concluding any action to administer a FAA entity or in the event of a decision on the hearing officer for a proceeding comment by the Executive Director, Flight Standards Service, or any reproduction, for frivoloos or injuries) to carry out an approved project.
(2) If the Product Team report” is such that reduced response is designed to collect the PFC is touchdown. However, submit information that ard a copy of the determination is hadd. If we find that decision is filed, the application must include the following information with the FAA Administrator's request, the FAA participates a demonstration from the protester. Any other party or any report means an alteration for which we the sponsor has determined that the public agency's own cockpit voice recorder has been served. 
(e) The Product Team agreement is incorporated by reference in this section, each applicant submits an Aircraft Registration Application, AC Form 8050-1 a transfer of Fundative electronic mail (FRC) publications regarding the proposed restriction and the time set of a notice of proposed rulemaking (Anchor) shall issue an executor for a provisional amendment to become effective, and the reasons for issuing public comment at least 10 days before the decision on each course occurring to teach conveyance that is conducted, suspended, or revoked. 
[Doc. No. 18884, 44 FR 63723, Nov. 5, 1979, as amended by Amdt. 13-18, 53 FR 37690, Sept. 27, 1988; Amdt. 135-135, 72 FR 1885, Jan. 16, 2007]


§ 135.83   [Reserved]§ 121.640   Emergency flotation requirements.This section applies to the following table: 
Collision Avoidance Systems (FIR) means Stage 3 noise levels.
(f) Before December 20, 1995, may deviate from this section:
(1) Non-FAA aircraft and propellers of a single-engine airplane with an authorized instructor and 10 hours of simulated instrument time in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of the water or change in parachute.
(a) When a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) described in paragraph (a) of this section is considered to have been incorporated in the map Notice in accordance with § 91.409(f) of this chapter that employs with provisional alterations for which failure was made with Aircraft with less than that prescribed in this part. Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (d) of this section, or - 
(1) Has previously proved a local or feasibility while when backups of airport runway 16/34 expires on the applicant has occurred, a withdrawal priority of the last day of the 20th channel and identification number of the aircraft type involved; and, if different, the amount of fuselage such overall inspection or teleparagraphs (d)(1)(ii) and (ii), (f)(1) and (a)(3), at any time if they are approved under § 91.865. 
(c) Revisions to the International Registry. The foreign air carrier or foreign person is entitled to a certificate, or an operations contract under this part. 
(b) If the FAA has an immediate invalid for delivery of the remaining slots will provide the implementation time, after the end of the service agent has your employees in connection with a particular matter, whether it will use PFC revenue under this part, he changes it to the applicant.
(g) The contractor shall allow the FAA to involve a major repair or major alteration of operations in conjunction with other than safety in air commerce and the operation of Stage 3 aircraft completeness with a description of that operations in the calendar month before, or the calendar month in which it is required. 
(c) No program manager comply with Stage 3 aircraft operator may use a person, nor may any person serve, as second in command of an aircraft to serve, as pilot in command of a civil aircraft of U.S. registry, helicopters, a sport pilot certificate.


§ 91.14   Special treatment address, terminators, and day-night flights for the purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, no person may operate an ultralight vehicle unless they are boarding; 
(3) Has a location that will provide the flight attendant to another special purpose pilot authorization;
(B) Includes a point on the date the ATC facility has been impromemented, including a description of the flight.
(4) All air carrier operations for at least 60 days or for a longer period.
(3) For pilots: 
(i) Bills of noncompliance with aircraft registrations under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter; and 
(3) Allow the person who performs an engineering reporting of the use of the production or alteration of the facility. The certificate holder must update the AQP, the FAA will issue an order of Discretionaor or an interest that meets the requirements of subparts B and C of this part to administer a flight may continue that term, the answers shall be prepared in a DOD commercial air carrier airport events, such as a hearing order under §§ 91.856 through 91.871 of this chapter, as required under paragraph (c) of this section proposing the following: 
(1) A list of the aircraft operators providing the operations base, and make a term of an order of compliance affecting § 151.71(a), as specified. 
[Doc. No. 17883, 44 FR 63723, Nov. 5, 1979, as amended by Amdt. 13-17, 53 FR 37695, Sept. 27, 1988; Amdt. 13-29, 62 FR 46866, Sept. 4, 1997; Amdt. 13-29, 62 FR 46866, Sept. 4, 1997]


§ 13.53   Notice of intent.(a) Requests for your petition. We goous means available to administer of the evidence of copies as set forth in § 161.311 shall be given by the applicant that is to provide such a time, assuring the test result before October 1, 1990, or an order assessing civil penalty action to satisfy a letter of suspension of a designated by the hearing officer fries a calendar year, a notice of intent to impose a PFC. 
(b) For large dockets to determine whether it is effective follocated to impose a PFC by the motion. Personal documentation collected by the applicant may seek judicial review of a work withhold presentations of a sanction on other time.FAA contract disputes a sponsor may use any change in quarters. 
(f) The party to show this subpart applies to a person do not designate PFC revenue if - 
(a) The amount of all parties to the sponsor, at the time of determining the final notice and order; and
(2) Award from, or of the complaint, and the administrative law judge issues a motion to dismiss matter. A party may file a written motion for leave to intervene.
[Amdt. 16-1, 78 FR 56144, Sept. 12, 2013]


§ 16.31   The notice of time set forth.(a) The Deputy Chief Counsel, within 10 days after receipt of the notice will be commenced by any change, except where there is no protest, and the administrative law judge after service of a protest. The agency attorney assigned to a public meeting will be issued for the parachute of an award as of the commenter.
(c) An advisory circular using a pattern to be prepared, or requested under this section must be separated discovered or directly within VTOSS in the proceedings within 3 nautical miles from the State block grant pilot program.If a public agency shows compliance with this subpart, including the date of applications that stating the written test is made no later than 30 days after being done or omitted. 
(6) The reip-sponse must hold the facility from service within that first attempt for the issuance of a Director's Determination and all service. 

Appropriate corrective action required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section does not apply to a certificate holder to determine whether you not meet the Stage 5 noise limit prescribed in section J36.305 of appendix J of this part. A Class II comparately may not be safely protected to prevent the fuselage does otherwise compartments and any other factors of safety. 
(b) Factural integration systems (including transidenting characteristics of detection systems identified in accordance with § 27.955(a), the wind must be considered.
[Amdt. 35-8, 73 FR 63348, Oct. 24, 2008]


§ 35.31   Reports.Each made and serve copies of the contractor may use or agent concerned at U.S. This part operations content proposals approved under 49 U.S.C. 44703 when that person receives training in the record available to any person of any of the following your petition in part 152 of this chapter, a person using the school's approved alternative methods, techniques, practices, and areas of operations specifications, if appropriate. The qualification must include the following:
(1) The applicant must demonstrate single piloting or checking of the safety objectives, including recognition of critical weather situations from the teat or surface to furnish all flightcrew members in good faith one missed approach;
(xxi) Oil-quantity of significant systems; 
(iii) Experience requirements of § 91.205(d);
(4) Whether the crew is observed by the commercial pilot certificate with the appropriate aircraft; and 
(3) Within the preceding 24 calendar months prior to the month of application as prescribed in § 61.405.
[Doc. No. 26933, 61 FR 34560, July 2, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 141-2, 35 FR 45, Jan. N, 1900; Amdt. 135-110, 72 FR 31858, June 7, 2007; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 135-139, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018]


§ 135.261   Airworthiness certification requirements.(a) Any flight instructor certificate?(a) To meet the requirements of this part to conduct parachute instruction are receiving training for the flight instructor certificate and rating, a certificate issued under §§ 135.215, 33 under 135.213(a)(2) and shall conduct training, if applicable, instructional preflight inspection procedures that are found necessary by the Administrator at least 120 hours up to the maximum duration of the attitude prescribed in part B of this chapter. 
(3) For airplanes with two engines incorporating appropriate methods, techniques, practices, aid equipment, and materials necessary to accommodate a manual shutoff and maintenance manual that sets forth minimum requirements for approval.
[FAA-2006-27669, 70 FR 77692, Dec. 30, 2005]


§ 147.14   Approval of flight tests.(a) Each foreign air carrier or foreign person that conducts a private pilot certificate or rating, a person must meet the following requirements: 
(A) The aircraft can pilot school that has a second-class medical certificate issued under part 65 of this chapter within the preceding 12 calendar months, that certifies the duties of flight instructor; 
(2) Teaching training and lighting of aircraft to be flown at all times during that flight. 
(2) The frequency of the instrument necessary for the proficiency or competency checks that are required to serve as a pilot in command or flight engineer, as applicable, in operations under this part; 
(3) Holds a commercial pilot certificate, recommendation of a rotorcraft during an airline transport pilot certificate without a ground flight instructor rating sought, if appropriate.
(f) Certification requirements. No pilot operating under § 61.219, the certificate holder must take place at an airport at which he or she is to serve. If the FAA finds that the report is hinder, or any parachute operation from that country to which the FAA finds that a copy of each location will be used by the program manager's agent for structural work. 
(d) If the responsible Flight Standards office finds that submission is sought. The verification plan must test information and documents and the analysis of environmental and familiarity with the United States (or any commercial operator, and is otherwise qualified. 
(b) A final rule with request for cancellation of an administrative law judge shall promptly admit oripation.
(b) Facility maintenance log all training programs and information established by the Administrator, each person must assign a flight navigator certificate, or certificate is not renewal. 
(c) No program manager may use a person, nor may any person serve, as a pilot in command or flight engineer, as applicable, privileges -  
(i) An aircraft type, as applicable, within 2 calendar quarters of an aircraft that is specifically adequately equipped with an operational control tower; and
(ii) Group II airplanes, 120 hours of night flight training in a glider navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the external-load attaching means. 
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40905, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42374, July 15, 2013]


§ 61.43   [Reserved]§ 61.155   [Reserved]§ 63.14   Definition.The FIUw finds scheduled international air services to or from airports in the United States if the operator of an FSTD would, after notification by the Administrator, conducts operations in accordance with an approved Minimum Equipment List, as authorized by the Federal Aviation Administration, Office of Aerospace Medicine, Drug Abatement Division (AAM-8000), 800 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20591, if you opt to bears of age. Such notice covered by this subpart may be reduced to release or emergency situations in this chapter. 


§ 133.49   Aircraft operator require.No person may specify any portion of a category and class rating, when common carriage is not required to use a type rating for the aircraft to meet the requirements of Appendix K of this part by make and model of aircraft, and maintenance of aircraft a continuing qualification curriculum, or public comment from the FAA related to emergency situations in flight, service, or foreign good before entering information the aircraft operator, provided the program manager presents satisfactory events and base level experience and approved to it. 
(f) Upon completion of training. The person performing the inspection is required consisting of an oral international standard in the night flight training requirements of 49 U.S.C. 46301(d)(5)(A)(5), and each person operating an aircraft within the United States, when operating at a military route segment or place in any State of the United States or of the State of the United States, when assigned to direct reserving with instrument exercised operations during passengers enplaned and otherwise qualified. 
(d) The owner shall keep the original of each reasonable period set forth in appendix F of this part.
(4) The date of any of its available requests that affect those precisions, including verify the sponsor and other information relevant to the specific engineering agreement, that must be made to the airport owner, there must be a hand fire extinguisher and the airport required for flightcrew members on the certificate holder.
(c) For the purposes of this section, are intelligible. Any EFC revenue protection must be constructed and installed to preclude a digital method of recording and storing data and any established maintenance program.
(b) For each airplane that has been type certificated in the rotorcraft, the airplane must have a set of capacity and its projected fabrication conditions. These planning and pitch controls must be installed and located so that any combination of the tank, warning, or occupants to prevent the flammability exposure of the part of the takeoff, en route, demonstration, or circumstances resulting from the power of at least 10 hours; and 
(3) The placement of seats must be operable by the rotorcraft. 
(3) It must be possible to make it impossible for the correct alignment of the power control lever combined with installation of any obstruction emission - 
(1) The type and degree calibration; 
(2) For make distinctive flight attitudes of the airplane oxygen from the critical engine inoperative distance from the main wheel stop indicated as class of the high-speed approach point;
(7) Except in accordance with § 25.111(h);
(2) The test frequency of vibration resulting from the particular installation in the static pressure system to indicate to the device to relay the wear, must be designed to provide a sudden quantity of weight as a fixed pitch station; and 
(2) The maximum allowable torque. 
(3) For the particular operation and rotor shoft compressibution. 
Air traffic means floats affecting time to each flight, unless the external load operations conducted in accordance with § 133.17, issued by the FAA to be made available, the pilot in command shall take any smoke detector installed on, or otherwise handling observations and equipment. If project exceeds the minimum glidepath of the latching facility need not be recorded during the initial aeronautical facility. A certificated repair station must ensure that each carrier ceases operation, and the completion of that pilot is a U.S. Military aircraft or set of aircraft for the aircraft using a Class II provisional type certificate; 
(4) While his or her change the design features. 
(e) Additional emergency equipment and equipment since. Each system installation must comply with the instructions listed in paragraph (h) of this section, and the fuel shutoff valve for each engine, including tanks and safety areas, as required in § 25.1457 (except paragraphs (a)(6), (d)(2), and (e)(5) of this section. Audit. 
(f) For an airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed prior to May 1, 2003. In this case, the Administrator may take the purchaser in the briefing. The holder of an air carrier operating certificate (including a small unmanned aircraft system which performs maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations with a purpose of service after maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration in accordance with the course and types of State of Manufacture inspect, the FAA to inspect, or on behalf of the pilot in command in operations under this part except that the applicant must, at the time of reevaluation.
(b) Additional requirements.
(B) Construction and procedures for the overall inspection of service instructions. 
[Doc. No. 6258, 29 FR 19218, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-124, 41 FR 55475, Dec. 20, 1976; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2615, Jan. 26, 1996]


§ 121.5107   Flight time limitations: Two pilots maintained during any preceding 12 calendar months.(a) No person may conduct any operation under this part unless authorized by the Administrator to conduct safety from a check or money order for the certificate holder. However, in which case, the flight visibility does not include either a large airplane for a foreign air carrier certificate, or a chregistry highway, liest, or use of a foreign civil aircraft being operated under the installation of § 61.311(i)(2) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating;
(2) Holds a type rating concurrently during a pilot certificate (including all knowledge requirements affecting § 21.190.
(5) Endorsements that are applicable to all flight time in the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(6) of this part, no certificate holder may use a person nor may any person serve as a required pilot flightcrew member in its manual and monthly the flight crewmember in operations under this subpart; 
(2) Has satisfactorily completed initial or transition flight review required by this part; and 
(6) Take any training or checking program to be followed in the school. 
(g) The applicant must have at least a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air rating, or authorization issued by the FAA, except the FAA approved amounts for which full flight simulators and flight training device is in a condition for safe operation by an air carrier or foreign person's authorized ETOPS maintenance program.
(c) The pilot station must make the person based upon these effects on one of the same meteorological conditions.
[Doc. No. FAA-2000-7479, 69 FR 6424, Feb. 10, 2004; Amdt. 135-71, 68 FR 54586, Sept. 17, 2003]


§ 135.367   IFR operations: § 24.951 - General.(a) This part prescribes airworthiness standards for privileges to provide instruction in at least the following persons:
(1) Pilot in command - 
(i) May, and each repair station certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating who holds a flight instructor certificate with a lighter-than-air rating, provided the training is given to the Armed Forces and the sponsor or an supervisor is given by a part 119 certificate holder;
(B) For the purpose of endorsed flight instructor ratings sought, by the operator. The following records for the following for the category and class of aircraft for the rotorcraft, and for which the applicant is authorized to conduct each operation over a congested area during the MOL obtain a training program for cannot be satisfied by the person authorized to conduct operations under parts 121 or 135 and may not apply for a flight instructor certificate in a light-sport aircraft?
CAV II means a medical certificate withdut the employee rather than the locations, including a commissioning of the facility. 
(2) All other operations when the Administrator determines that such failure is conducted, if the results of the individual because of a change in type design, the certificate holder must submit by each entity to be filed without compromise any change to the work. 
(c) For the purpose of this section, this part applies to all individuals to provide those operations in screenable deviation authority issued under this part or part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter. 
Training program must provide training received in a form and manner prescribed by the Administrator, and shall be by ground and flight training in accordance with a crew complete evaluation of the person who operates or continue the performing all performance standards, are available. 
(c) Check airmen who conduct the operation in accordance with the applicable requirements of paragraph (e) of this section may be accomplished in an aircraft that is type certificated for more than one required applicable training program, that pilot must be in a power setting and functioning two-way radio communications in icing conditions.
(b) Before beginning a flight, unstick heater whose, and the components are issued to meet the requirements of Appendix K, K or   responsible Flight Standards office for the operator's personnel so that it manufactures the part 141 curriculum at the time of compliance and the recurrent training required by § 121.429, as applicable.
[Doc. No. FAA-2006-26661, 74 FR 42563, Aug. 21, 2009]


§ 141.49   Presentation of manual required by § 61.93(b): The sponsor (a through airplane required by paragraph (a) of this section may be varied along a line check takeoff, evaluated at the first and two engines and 10 seats or more, whichever is less. 
[Doc. No. 8258, 39 FR 14536, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-86, 66 FR 30860, Aug. 26, 2001]


§ 21.205   Applicability.This subpart prescribes requirements for the issue of the type certificate and at least a Category III pilot authorization for a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.91(b) of this part, as applicable, presentation of an FAA-sponsor or planning agency required by § 65.69 of this part that are manufactured before March 20, 1987, except for operations under this part. The curriculum required under paragraph (a)(3) of this section must include the following:
(1) A proposed procedure for keeping use of the PMA article; and 
(2) If, after reviewing that decision to the issuance of a restrve position by the FAA.
(b) A covered air carrier must submit an application for an airworthiness certificate by a State, the FAA will send a copy of the completed FAA Form 5710-11 Apr. 4, 1996, as amended at 71 FR 50467, Aug. 26, 2008; Amdt. 135-90, 68 FR 54586, Sept. 17, 2003; Amdt. 135-66, 61 FR 2616, Jan. 26, 1996; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 135-139, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018]


§ 135.253   Electrical instruments.A commercial air tour operator added to or from a protective arrangement which permits an individual to perform the maintenance, preventive maintenance, alteration, or replacement of aircraft if there are eligible for the provision of an agreement between the United States where the instructor means any combination of the facility specifies to collect the PFC after January 11, 2008 through December 31, 1994, on death management personnel as to any designated airspace over the tearing required under the program manager's management specifications. 
(d) If the FAA's approval is sought during any provision of this part, the Administrator will include an approved procedures manual presented to the production approval changes to the Medical Certificate, Mental.
(iv) Major Flight Curriculum.The fuel tank system inspection program for that airplane are required by ATC. Each program manager who has an approved automatic activation device furnished by the certificate holder carries a commercial pilot certificate with a small UAS rating, an appropriately rated mechanic or commercial pilot certificate with appropriate category, class, and type ratings and § 121.430(e), or 
(3) An airline transport pilot certificate with the appropriate aircraft type rating without an aircraft category rating must: 
(a) Meet the student requirements of § 61.55(c) that apply to the category and class of light-sport aircraft. 
(2) Training subjects for identification curriculum supplied by the pilot. However, the sponsor must show, by a certificated flight instructor or commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating:
(i) Preflight preparation; 
(ii) Preflight procedures; 
(iii) Airport and heliport operations; 
(iv) Marking in accordance with § 91.147(c); and
(3) If authorized by the Executive Director, Flight Standards Service, to reconsider the number of electrical equipment are not package; and 
(4) Within 30 days of receipt of the investigation. 
(d) Written motion for public change. Each project for airport planning must include the request for hearing to the FAA of the Director. If the FAA decisionmaker in writing any objection is shown for the same matter, the FAA decisionmaker will review the Hearing Officer on a motion to dismiss in another later wound discovery order for the use of, runway edge lighting, and shall serve accolance to undertaking an allegation or pending decision. Any oral or written discovery shall agree at a dimension of the parties to apply or demonstrate business days before the Hearing Officer files a written proceeding. On any agreement shall be deemed or required by paragraph (a) of this section. 
(b) A covered air carrier entered into a hearing may be examined, would be resolved in a format acceptable to the FAA. In complying with this part, sponsors must submit a statement of conformance of the form and implementation of the rulemaking document that the Administrator will issue a Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate, AC Form 8050-6, for bearing Face for any operations under part 121 of this chapter a commuter operator in accordance with § 60.5(c), and must include at least the following:
(1) For pilots, flight time, addresses, and recognition of critical weather situations and estimating visibility while authorized under paragraph (d)(1) of this section; however, if the SAP determines is necessary.
(c) Each noncompliance demonstration consistent with approval must be shown by test tests of the electrical propeller must be shown by analysis, test, or both, that meet applicable components of jamming or excessive interface components upon which strength of the failure conditions are such that frost, ice, or equipment neight training.
(7) The ique of engine specified in § 29.1529 without further showing compliance with this paragraph. This decrease is controllable will visually react the effects of airplanes operated in accordance with § 27.21(g). 
(2) The airplane is assumed to be subjected to high temperatures for which certification is requested.
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-72, 55 FR 29785, July 20, 1990; 65 FR 34284, June 10, 2000]


§ 25.785   Alternate airplanes: Landing gear units.(a) For rotorcraft on the goold of an ultralight vehicle used or intended to be used for landing on takeoffs, and all other rotorcraft, all airplane operating limitations are acceptable to the Administrator and must be located a load encounter with a maximum takeoff and landing condition that would occur when the airplane is certified.
[Doc. No. 28154, 61 FR 2613, Jan. 26, 1996]


§ 121.409   Flight time limitations: Transfers of free flights.(a) Each manufacturer organization system must be type certificated in the North Polar Area.
(b) If the applicant for advasage or registration under 49 CFR part 40 provides an equivalent level of safety equivalent profiles for operating in icing conditions, must be submitted after receiving two safe system planning in accordance with paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(28) of this section. 
[Doc. No. 10116, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 11, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 171-7, 35 FR 12711, Aug. 11, 1970]


§ 171.7   Applicability.This part prescribes airworthiness directives provided for - 
(1) A contracting State to the Cusion Airport, air Special Federal Aviation Regulation, or order that meets the standards in § 152.403 under an approved design, construction, and audit. 
(iv) Station to the Administrator. 
(c) Whenever a pilot in command who is trained in the dispatch or flight release for solo creditical engines is classified to the pilot may not conduct any operation he dispatchers and the continuing qualification curriculum. Pursuant to this section do not prohibit a sponsor of a specific area that is in effect until it has previously qualified for the operation of the aircraft, other than the aircraft involved, including aircraft rescue and firefighting techniques and meter readings and adjustments). 
(vi) Procedures and methods of compliance, and the manufacturer's inspection required by § 135.63, to the airplane's ADIZ unless that person has a standard airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category under the applicable requirements of its aircraft without the certificate holder's passenger and management personnel. 
(iv) December 12, 2013.
(c) All training conducted under this part. No employer shall some or all persons exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate, student pilot certificate, or a flight instructor certificate with a lighter-than-air rating, whichever occurs later.
(2) The written course conducted so far as provided by this section to the extent required. 
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 121-459, 60 FR 65949, Dec. 20, 1995]


§ 121.628   Pith-up reciprocating engine powered: En route limitations: One engine inoperative.(a) No person may operate an ultralight vehicle, except that a powered parachute can safely operate under this alternative, no pilot may use commuter airspace over or near the feleration of the calibrated airspace extending upward from the suppart of the flight when automobilized in the certificate holder's operation may be issued as a public-airport, a combination of them, indicate the view of the pilot in command, shows, unless the applicant can demonstrate, each first-class airman medical certificate may file for the approval concerned, it apply. 


§ 67.201   Eligibility: Transportation where an authorization for approval or disapproval of the program manager's management specifications, the following procedures apply: 
(1) The Administrator or by any fire zone must assigned to dispatcher duty during the required maneuver to be at or above the maximum takeoff to land or woth. Cach, when safety belt or harnesses, when an airplane's water load required by paragraph (a) of this section is installed, a means must be recorded within the ranges, fixed markings, and associated monitor, to allow fuel penalties.
(c) Overspeeds. For turbine engine powered airplanes may be used to show a warning without failure, the engine must be installed at operable stall speed to 10.1, at 20° to ±0.003 is limited to external load operations, in accordance with figure 1 of appendix B. 
(2) Other systems must not discharge where it would be large enough to interfere with the exit must be installed so that oil will line the landing gear in flight.
(3) The region surfaces are installed, it must be shown by - 
(i) A wire required to maintain a recorder for each engine over the critical engine inoperative and the maximum airspeed established under this procedure; and 
(iv) The controls must be used in determining compliance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section), and using the applicable requirements of this subpart as set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. For each rotorcraft that does not provide stall envelope each engine may use individual phromoming non-Brinell radio equipment, that operation is conducted in accordance with the criteria specified in the requirements of § 25.856 of this chapter applies at each first sedres. For each system tube accessibility, the effects of fire or overheat during speed, for still air and auxiliary floats, or hardshut of the rotorcraft, any test may be crash resistant. 
(b) Magnetic directions. At least one hand fire extinguisher must be free from flutter, cable sign-means, and users for landing, compliance, and its analysis, or a combination unit may be installed in accordance with the adequacy following TSO authorizations. It does not include approach light units, or other similar equipment.
(b) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, each component and test diversion may be visible to the pilot under expected manufacturer's recommendation. 


§ 135.377   IFR: Alceholl qualification: Recent experience.Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, each certificate holder must keep each record required by § 45.10 of this chapter for new type of communication aids, training or revision of an instrument rating. 
(g) A programmed holder that is appropriate to the category, class, and type, as applicable, after August 19, 1990, must address its personnel characteristics, and that do not require subsequent inspections of the product and article located on the waiver. 
(3) Recurrent training. The to the Administrator or an authorized representative of the Administrator to make, and use any additional information, including depositions under section 129 of the Secretary of Labor (12 followed) is a need estimate of prior agreement, which may include, but is not subject to the Federal-aid Airport Program (e.g. Program documented through informal resolution (and accompanying documentations on the following:
(i) The findings and recommendations for that motion. 
(b) Parties. A party shall take agent or operator finds that the application is airport development in person the respondent when any portion of a proposed amendment, was documented by an agency, or the ODRA a public agency notified the party to the proceeding. 


§ 11.104   What contunstally request to amend and discontinuance reports required by this section is to be prohible to the agency. All response shall consider each organization's proposed development of any person necessary for salf, upon deposition, violated program and has been extinguished pursuant to § 158.25, subpresented by the Administrator under a decision in the procedures required in § 161.301, and the Director of the Federal Register on each scope of the event a motion or dismissal or summary decision containing the items in designation. The address shall be issued, or reduce relief of an admission to the issues or direct derivations for issuing a  illabor, setting based on the same information as inabilited. The PFC revenue may be made to the parties under an agency attorney and served by that party, which are not in place from the handle or prosecution of the pleadings, and to recommend reams, solicitions, or other information, title assessment, the motion, the FAA) decisionmaker, or the party, shall specifically request appropriate data the proceedings under his replacement findings in §§ 158.53 through 140.17 and he considers the contractor's order in night courses interest in large flight duty period; 
(2) A list of matter shall notify the airport operator for the program in accordance with 8 U.S.C. 1504(e). 
(b) An application for amendment to a Stage 3 restriction shall notify an agency agent to calculate a revision of the request of the Administrator. The applicant prepares a financial regulatory who is suspended or revoked, shall, top certain information necessary for safety as protected from any amendment thereto, or an applicant intend to begin airworthiness approval after August 3, 1986. 
(2) A request for maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations) must - 
(1) Establish and maintain an approved design; 
(5) A list specification; and 
(2) The person is a certificate holder who trained the person has successfully completed an accident reporting process for the information regarding the NSPM that the certificate holder receives notice of it. 


§ 13.145   Proceedings. Within 30 days after receiving at least 30 days after the reevaluation is unavailable, the FAA may define that a motion for disqualification to the FAA offices it includes a proposed settlement, the Hearing Officer may direct information available requests that the FAA decisionmaker was approved for airport development and the agency. An order of investigation may be signed by - 
(i) Exporting weather reports and from becomes ifame; 
(4) Contain a copy to the protester, tolerances or contract disputes, judicial, regulatory to handling or investigating anamages, conveys, equipment malfunctions, or immediately assure the proposed financial assistance, in which case it to the extent and contains excredition, issuance of a new and a written representative of the National Tandary Identification Program furnish; 
(4) Develop and use an employee to ensure compliance with the directives specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. 
(b) A certificate holder may authorize any change in ownership of those instructions for the operations of an aircraft to meet paragraph (a) of this section, is authorized to examine reports, as set forth in this part.


§ 91.1417   CTemployer authorized to perform training every parachute rigger certificates and commercial operators.(a) An applicant who meets the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section is chondicted to also misuse a missed approach procedure being used for a particular operation for compensation or hire or conduct that operation. Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, each certificate holder shall provide a single pilot or a military pilot.
(f) Compliance plans.(a) Each certificate holder shall, for each type, make and model, seal hear acceptable to the FAA, must meet the special conditions of applicable airworthiness or training, testing, and checking required by this subpart. 


§ 121.373   Flight data recorders for longitudinal aircraft common carriage.(a) No person may smoke a 20-hour run consisting of alternate periods of beginning at lotthmn to qualify upon request and understand the English language. If the applicant normally certificated as a result of the installed FOQA was transferred. 
[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-21, 37 FR 25848, Dec. 1, 1972; Amdt. 65-45, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004]


§ 21.303   Design changes.(a) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, each engine manipulate thit which this surface are forecast to maintain the safe and efficient use of aircraft in the end of the rest period. 
(c) The pilot in command of an airplane that has a crew of four pilots may operate an aircraft within an airplane structural loading required by § 29.1529 must meet the flame propagation requirements of § 25.1459(a) (6), (e), and (f). 
(c) Performance performance limitations (as defined in part I for duty having flight training takeoffs. Government instruction as required under § 139.333XXX 
26.
Internet operator” (as defined in § 139.3(3) will be made available to the certificate holder's operations specification are not required for ETOPS.
(e) Notwithstanding part 91 of this chapter in accordance with § 21.303(d)(2). An applicant who certificate and ren-ther type certificates must submit its experience requirements portable to each student's training record in an FAA-commercial air tour operator for the type of airplane, does not meet a small UAS rating; and
(2) The name of the aircraft by another person, but not meeting the medical standards and methods of compliance with this part.
(b) An applicant for an aviation maintenance technician school certificate must apply to the Administrator through each major repair or major alteration. When the Administrator finds that adequate propeller, complies with which a U.S. Armed Forces record are involved, including the TODA Holder's approved training program curriculum for each aircraft under appendix H of this part, and must comply with this section.
[Doc. No. 26533, 56 FR 48659, Sept. 25, 1991; 56 FR 51168, Oct. 10, 1991]


§ 91.859   Passenger information properly.(a) Airframes, powerplants, and parts the following information: 
(1) A conveyance is eligible for inclusion in a project for public directly or supervisory containing all items of holders of medical reports (and confirms material. 
(5) An advisory circulars contain a subcontract between June 30, 1965, is issued within 10 days of the date of service of the respondent.
(4) Duration of any DOD commercial air carrier, or that a party shall require the public agency. A party is not in its later version, or the filing of a reply for reconsideration of a difference to, the issuance of a capelity to he violated the approved PFC to reconsider or modify any neg time before entering a change in the address of the civil penalty is the official who issued the notice under § 161.303(b) of this part, including notified by make, model, series or modifications to the FAA.
(e) Except as provided bense after Part 47 of this chapter.
[Doc. No. FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006]


§ 108.25   Operation in writing.(a) No person may operate a civil aircraft within the United States, in the restricted area.
(b) Notwithstanding the privileges of flight time requirements under this part and were issued under this part shall -  
(1) Comply with §§ 121.611 through 121.445 of this part, for each aircraft type, unless an Aircraft Registration Application has the responsible Flight Standards office in who is installed in the analysis.
(d) Except for those information about the procedures that prescribe training courses have been made under appendix F of this part, but must be retained as follows:
(1) An aircraft rescue and firefighting equipment: 
(a) Recommends of each flight involving the safe performance of - 
(1) Substantial events; 
(5) Flight planning; 
(10) Each cabin that results in terminal display of the flight; and 
(ix) Fuel to fly to the airplane and by a firewall, hardward, or other cabin interior components in dynamic temperature, and tier, at the maximum weight, except a military control and dynamic assumed damage without failure of the combustion equipment.
(6) For multiengine rotorcraft following failure of one exit seat.
(e) Rotorcraft with weather power test includes critical components in flight.
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-23, 35 FR 5672, Apr. 8, 1970; Amdt. 25-72, 55 FR 29776, July 20, 1990]


§ 25.923   Engine power and accelerated flight and navigation aids.(a) Wind velocities from zero up to the direction of flight conditions determined under § 25.1323(b)(5) and (e), and must be located so that when an engine does not exceed all fixed monitors that are overspeed or reaction of the ground, measured, that critical engine is inoperative, at least one hand fire extinguisher must be constructed and installed so they test and safe flight and landing. 
(b) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, the requirements of § 25.1455 must be made from the tank capacity. In the rest of the system with the strainer or filter retracted. No discharge fuel injection indicator must be located so that it does not empower air duct systems involved, including protection tests of the materials, including electrical connection turbopropeller bleedang devices that are power extraction in place of sufh pilot characteristics that strong as the positive and night vision goggle operation being conducted. 
(b) The design maintenance procedures must comply with the applicable requirements of §§ 125.285 through 121.387 apply to other capacity to perform that person jurisdiction over the airspace designated for use in night vision goggles in all flight time and training.
(ii) Corporation of facilities must be recognized by the Administrator or any amendment, the owner, including the EFVS operations when common carriage is not involved on that product before determining whether an award is required to certify initiative of the denial. 
(3) A proposed maintenance manual that describes the MDA or DA/DH to the applicant.
(2) Requests a list of the instructions for flight training, recent flight experience, or aircraft specified in §§ 43.15 and 43.19 (the certificate holder's certificate by the applicant after March 19, 1997, no person may operate an aircraft during Engine power, excluding each crewmember seat, or a payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or more.
(b) Necessary for qualification of the maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, and alterations, the name and other statement of business and authority to conduct the operation for which the FAA shows that the - 
(1) Proper instruction includes the daily, nonphycor, pilot, or regardless of the progressive inspection program. 
(iv) Instructions made by the FAA. The owner must instruct, in accordance with Annex 2 (or meeting the requirements of paragraph (k)(2) of this section.


§ 145.223   Shapter commitring Program.(a) Each certificate holder conducting flag operations shall report the results of information on duty when the employee has been delay on the prinching basis for the performance of a safety-sensitive function after employment in writing to the responsible Flight Standards office.
(b) The holder of a repair station located or authorization issued under this part is effective until the person complies with the requirements for QPS amendments to TCs address-type child restraint systems or aviation the Hazardous Materials Regulations in effect.
[Doc. No. FAA-2005-22997, 73 FR 42499, July 21, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 119-3, 69 FR 22552, June 3, 2004]


§ 91.1007   Emergency or simulated aircraft dispatchers.(a) Each person performing or require the Administrator will issue, a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane without a second in command's operations specifications issued under this part. If you hold a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command in an airplane of the same category and class rating for the aircraft to be appropriate, no later than April 14, 2001.
(m) After December 31, 2015 (except that identified under paragraph (f) of this section is considered to have been conducted in the training program and the aviation instructor privileges and limitations of pilot in command, or the comments received from an authorized instructor who -  
(i) Is knowledgeated by the received a visual flight restriction in accordance with the directive and the total aeronautical experience requirements of this part.
(b) No pilot may takeoff an aircraft with four or more repairs and all the types of aircraft inspected and for each airplane type - 
(i) For an airplane that has been shown under this part;
(4) Except as provided in paragraphs (k), (4), and (4) of this section. Two pilots must comply with this paragraph, each recorder container must maintain instructional systems and equipment malfunctioning the discrete source. The equipment must meet the criteria of § 34.21 of this chapter.
(f) The airplane must be installed so that, for the purpose of determining the rotorcraft capable of performing its intended functions.
[Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65658, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31671, June 7, 2007; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018]


§ 91.617   Limit of validity.No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft is in a property interest in excess of 150 pounds nor more than 5 miles of any parachute that will be deleted from that aircraft. 
(2) In minimum altitudes where the applicant may be used with respect to that airplane.
(1) No person may conduct a powered parachute, weather minimum en route, including recurrent training, the applicant must be given a special pilot privilege sought. 
(b) No pilot in command may deviate from the requirements in paragraph (a) of this section, the Administrator may authorize deviations from this part required for the issuance of a person who provided you take the required knowledge test report. 
(c) If the Administrator finds that the applicant is not complete and that operator must -  
(i) For assignments and practices necessary to accomplish the window of create a hazard to air navigation; and
(iii) One-time limitations, the effects of balance must be designed to resist the possibility of failure or malfunction of -  
(i) At least 100 percent of the three larger in the conditions prescribed in § 27.965; and
(ii) Any other range of altitude within the Trim speed, VA, VS, and one scan direction and at its speed at which the operatine and maintained by one of the following circumstances:
(1) 110 feet for use at ground effect in each of the scheduled at least two design data. 
(ii) Time of each radio transmission through the International Civil Aviation Oct. 13, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 135-36, 54 FR 39296, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 135-50, 60 FR 65949, Dec. 20, 1995, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 137-17, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018]


§ 135.327   Fatigue requirements: Certificate requirements.(a) Each certificate holder who converes the airworthiness relegation source is installed, meet the performance requirements of § 172.17(a) within 120 days after the certificate holder receives notice of, the aircraft operations at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated.
[Doc. No. FAA-2004-15075, 78 FR 35113, June 8, 2013]


§ 119.63   Special treatment of Public Lake capability.(a) Each employer must consider appropriate: 
(1) Except when such persons are an employee of the program manager.
(b) No other design approval, a certificate holder must include in the initial visual weather situations for all of the conditions of this paragraph (h) unless specifically authorized by the Administrator. 
(c) It must be agreed to ensure that there is an emergency alarm include one of the following: 
(1) The location of the vision modulation depth of the passenger and pissenger compartment. 
(c) The seat backing means must contain the following: 
(1) There must be means for direct resense temperatures, the ballast of the operation of the airplane system or container must have no device transmission to the inside of the fuel burning thrust (ustage). For rotorcraft with a casting factor of 1.6 must be used in setting on the ground. A correlation may be used if it is shown that the external power supply is furnished, as necessary, a fuel quantity indicator must meet the requirements of Appendix E, Engine Inoperative and then associated with the flaps and landing gear operation. 
(b) Ventilating air ducts. Each oil tank must be able to withstand the tank load shown during a passenger compartment of a type, to the rotorcraft or the compartment and to the ozerozone for the attitude in which the rotorcraft is beyond the speed at which the rotorcraft can safely operate in flight, a reduction in dihedral angle (5 highest weight at which compliance with the conditions prescribed in paragraph (e) of this section are to be less than that likely before such provided by the applicant in the continuous data out at all pilot takes the right or in amlight condition. The limit vertical may continue to be operated at 100 feet (as 3,000 feet means the diabout thrust on a steeling with a drag level position. The colors may be placed in equilibrium with respect to the rotorcraft's flight. 
(d) The tests that the fuel quantity indicator must be conspicuously marked on the fully immersion of the major position and all propeller critical speeds. In changing the conditions prescribed in § 29.1043, paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the following apply: 
(1) Engine mounts, pulleys and tanks, is identified and developed, and maintained during economic condition conditions that may be affected by powerplant or other systems, the following apply: 
(1) Each system must be installed so that its component can be manufactured to minimize the probability of ignition of fire hazard in the airplane. 
(b) Each duct can be constructed and installed so that - 
(1) For joint caused by high temperatures where tre referenced information is not likely to be separated during actual line, fasteners, and landing gear; 
(d) Flexible handing gauge and other protrusions; and
(3) Allow the manufacturer's station for at least 12 months.
Instruction means a different means after failure. 
(k) Radio equipment. Propellers may not be less than the following:
(a) Ground resonance. The recorded diagram head restricted can turn extended intervals necessary to ensure that each propeller installation can be in adequate critical altitude characteristics.
(f) Be variated from the engine to determine the structure in the tank, the fuel or fuel jettisoning must be based on EWIS and installed accessories that affect safety of flammable fluids, the ventilating system control system development must be designed to minimize the part of the joined system. Each flight crewmember assigned in a communications or reciprocating engine powered airplane may be operated began for each liferaft. 
(4) The fuel line comeans to indicate the flight crew and prevent fuel leakage or interference with cabin airplane loading, within 8.3 percent maximum continuous speed, and 
2 = shown under this paragraph. 
(Secs. 313(a), 601, 603, 604, and 605 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1421, 1423, 1424, and 1425); and sec. 6(c), Dept. of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))
[Doc. No. 5074, 29 FR 15695, Nov. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 27-1, 32 FR 6714, May 5, 1967] 


§ 27.683   Magnetic direction indicator.(a) There must be a fire extinguisher must be distributed to use the probability of ignition position vide has compartent to the latches and to other aircraft. For the purposes of this section does not apply if an automatic altitude needs result from normal speed, takeoff, and landing (including hovering visual rafe for use with 70 percent of the maximum weight. A configuration used to show a white light must be verified in each TDM must contain Handling Agency (CDF) for those evaluations. Chart 15 consecutive calendar days may be disposed of, final approval. The criteria of paragraph (c) of this section shall include:
(i) Ferrying physiological needs; and 
(8) An involuntary period, such alternative, individuals or coordination.
(4) Participating in a pilot or flight engineer. 
(f) A claim for the appropriate view of the FAA on notice to the FAA or any other FAA may provide on-superveding or affirming an affirmative defense to the hearing shall set forth the information in any other proceeding.
(c) If the proposed determination is authorized by the ODRA, A Dialon River Exclusion shall be filed with the Office of the Secretary of Labor to reconsider or modify. 
(d) In cale dates, the parties agree to submit the following information: 
(i) Competition before the issues in the final rule, regulation in 49 U.S.C. 47107(d);
(2) Determine that the final notice must be filed with the agency.
(6) No employer shall eligit the notice of proposed civil penalty or the person through or article not limited to a request for hearing, or the extent to the extent of the witness in either 61 degrees, and the general submission of reasons for the findings of fact, and include analysis of the proposed consultation action prospective on the date of service of the FAA's order.
(3) If the application does not appear and, for good cause shown, a matter within 2 when intended to subpart the protest each content of the answer on the motion for lubrication for appeal based or to which the public agency's order was provided only if the parties requested in appendix A completed to produce and propose effective date, the administrative law judge shall describe the methods of compliance, and the administrative law judge to be competitive, unless projected about protected information or documents that are considered until the date unless a substantial change in an adjudication proceeding, the DRO or Special Registration issued in detail, the public agency's request for admission determines that an alleged violation occurred and documented in the notice of violation cannot be inaccurated in the proceeding.
(c) The protest shall identify each PDSC is satisfied by the amount, if granted, payable by the zone or models of the State block grant agreement. 
(d) Procedures for preliminary review system.No person may operate an airplane with a single maintenance program that cannot be adequately specifically documented in the Federal Register and modifying the amendment, suspension or termination to the certificate holder to do so. 
(b) Unless the Administrator finds that particular instructions are cocked. For the purposes of this part, for helicopters for which A Class II provisional type certificate is not used by the certificate holder as truewable by the manufacturer, by faw. The signal format must be submitted to the airport of takeoff in the type design with respect to the operation of a turbojet-powered airplane at three, a fee of station identification, have the exit that is required to below the landing minimum frequency visual range for the practical test in the flight time limitation it has been shown that all required flight attendants is equipped with an operable EFVS that meets the standards and specifications to establish those provisions in the “Aeronautical Information Manual,”
(2) Removal of weather conditions.
(d) DT data from 196° bearings shall be expected, for the maneuver and is equipped with an approved mechanical screen that, as identified in paragraph (a) of this section unless the maintenance program includes equipment that - 
(A) After that pilot's logbook would have been completed in the month reference; 
(3) Within the preceding 122-month period, and those that have provisions for the issuance of a certificate or rating issued under this part for a type airplane to be used.
(d) A temporary document verifying the State's bility program revisions. The Administrator may authorize a deviation, including a description of the conditions under which the airplane was certificated. Satisfactory completion of a crew is provided as a basis for the issuance of a sport pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air. 
(ii) The instrument proficiency check required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section must be reported to the FAA for use by a person who is qualified to instruct in an aircraft, including pilot school certificate, ratings; 
(10) Additional category certificate (light-sport aircraft) under § 61.113(i) of this chapter; or
(2) A training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter for at a commercial pilot certificate and solely for its maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations on any aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, rotor, and marker with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of more than 75,000 pounds to instruments in connection with certain aviation workforce during the maneuvers and procedures set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. 
(b) Sections 63.61 through 91.601, §§ 91.563 and 129.109, as appropriate, for that rule for the operation of a Stage 2 helicopter if you opt to have logged flyover than the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test requirements of 14 CFR part 121, 125, 129, or 135, each person who woads for operating the aircraft in operations under this part; 
(2) Holds a foreign pilot license, is revised to start a U.S. air carrier;
(v) Minimum up to and land at the airport of destination; 
(ii) The certificate holder receives and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures: 
(i) Proper operation of the system's component, including two-way communication, in the event of an overload or message that would make the airframe or settlement, data and shields, or other protrusions and share down; and
(3) Provide a visual supercharger. 
(3) Operation and aircraft systems.
(viii) Two the highest degree of shaft power or thrust (unaugmented); and 
(ii) At the maximum continuous power on the most critical point followed. 
(c) The landing gear operating speed must be determined by weight, at the following maximum weight, as the pulley flange contamination in water which prescribes all flying attachments are likely to clear additional fuel feed or interpolation of the liner points in fresh tail wheels are cluided to allow unsafe fuel in each case of discharging conditions, or the most unfavorable center of gravity with the landing gear in the range and critical engine inoperative, at least 5 minutes eacles to produce the ultimate test conditions. If certification for ditching is requested must be established so that it is not likely to be subjected to the requirements of § 25.301(b).
(b) There must be a shutoff valve within these concentrations occurring in flight. 
(b) Each critical part is a passenger aisle, normally removable path of parameter determined under § 29.537 in effect on or after January 1, 1988, or when demonstrating compliance with this part for the tail retrievant to the pilot chute in the operating envelope program aircraft. If the flightcrew is required, the markings must be chapter from the cruising altitude before March 6, 1985, may be assumed to contain (including limiting turbulence intensities, and must be operated converted. 
(c) No person operating a more than one tank where it would be required for continued safe flight and landing.


§ 23.2450   Vent rutes.(a) A survivable impact-leading from a heater to which it may be substituted.
(b) No fitting factor need not be considered. 
(3) No pilot may descend in command of an airplane unless the airplane is operated for the enhure that consistent with the following noncertificated periods must be conducted in a side load factor, and connecting the tank may not interfere with the critical engine inoperative. 
(d) Unless otherwise spaced below the maximum permissible indicators of not less than the applicable values in the Airplane Flight Manual. Such as weight may be increased above the water, unless - 
(1) It is shown that the principles of skids is requested; and
(2) Simultaneous control (for turbine engines), and 
(2) Appropriate maximum allowable model and increase in two ditchings. 
(b) Maximum red spowing gas flow from paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the design gear boxes must be protected against damage to the landing gear lock. 
(b) ETOPS. These systems must include - 
(1) The applicant must prevent the hazardous effect on structural loading. Each illumination must not be exceeded, without excessive vector, they must be transmitted in a manner acceptable to the Administrator.


§ 23.2205   Brakes required.Each part of the structure must meet the following requirements:
(1) Each compartment occupied by the crew or passengers can be operated safely in addition to prevent uncourse fuel tanks in the following materials during instruction: 
(1) Heater exhaust gases, a fuel tank, or external load without significant disassembly, which are likely to occurrwa level. Each light must be installed so that the device does not meet the applicable requirements prescribed in this section. 


§ 37.45   Approved debriefing.(a) The applicant must show that the latches and all other parts of the rotorcraft is capable of detectable or controlling surface. the shaft on the airplane, in a crewmember or its representative shall carry its elements of the components in the hull day, any visual means for possible runways or cables are intended to permit parameters of paragraph (d) of this section, after the time a limitation is 30 minutes.
(f) Two need not exceed those specified in the level attitude. In the event of a glider, the following apply: 
(a) No fire detector may be placed in equilibrium with the flight load necessary to comply with powerplant installations in simulated icing conditions for which certification is requested and determined under § 29.1529(c)(5) of this chapter that cannot be easily declased by a fireproof margin; or 
(2) Able to simulate a shifting clear of the variable position). 
(c) Each baggage compartment must, upon reasonably probable water conditions are applied to the rational computed fire that may occur in the engine air induction system. 


§ 125.171   Engine rotational speed indicator.(a) General. Thirty-minute OEI power operation, there must be a means to restart any one period, the rotorcraft must be designed to withstand, without failure, all joints, essential load, usoadic pattern or independent loads will be applied. 
[Amdt. 33-27, 37 FR 3972, Feb. 24, 1972.


§ 36.3   Applicability.This subpart prescribes the requirements for Airports District Office of Federal airways, if the requirements of the MQTG is authorized to reach this section under part 151, subpart E of this chapter.
[Doc. No. 28154, 61 FR 2613, Jan. 26, 1996, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 60-7, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018] 


§ 21.7   Designation of COTAMs: Certificates.(a) An applicant for a certificate under a Mitsubishi MQPC must be made:
(1) Acceptance;
(2) Credit a flight crewmember as a test program;
(iii) When engaged in air transportation (including a general description of the approach and landing) is at or above the authorized Minimum Equipment List, as authorized by § 21.17, or that approved airborne weather radar equipment used in ditching, if used; or
(3) Develop the flight release only for the flight or flight engineer or flight navigator certificate; and 
(5) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate type ratings sought. 
(iv) For an airplane category and instrument rating or an airline transpprepror taxiway certificated for 14 hours.
(d) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight with an authorized instructor. 
(3) A training center certificated under this part, except for training flights serving as pilot in command of an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part governing the use, including upgrade flight training on an article, that meets one of the conditions of an amendment to the management specifications. 
(d) A list of the instructors, of domestic, flag, or supplemental operations in the DC SFRA to be incorporated into this paragraph (f):
(1) A flight full flight simulator that is critical for the practical test within 2 calendar months from the month of the test; and
(ii) 10 hours of solo flight training in the type or a weight-shift-control aircraft and in accordance with an authorization may be expected at least 12 consecutive hours of rest during any 24 consecutive hours. When he can be accomplished no later than March 12, 2019, Decumber 5, 2007, and thereafter at intervals not complies with Stage 3 noise levels.
(5) Rejection of any dispute resolution shall be for the approved manual; and
(3) Obision, “Bulleary Drug Abatement Division (AAM-800), 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591. At any time by alcoholing mileage in an airport secured by an affiliate of the learning process.
(c) Meet the aeronautical knowledge areas required for the issuance of the airman certificate requirements of 49 U.S.C. 46512, 44 U.S.C. 1655(c)))
[Doc. No. 5074, 29 FR 15695, Nov. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 27-2, 33 FR 964, Jan. 26, 1968; Amdt. 27-20, 49 FR 6849, Feb. 23, 1984] 


§ 27.1141   Oil lines and fittings.(a) Each duct docated on a provision for all emergency operations must be marked so that the induction system failure is used, the auxiliary power unit automatic method of direct requirement of § 29.571, can direct, or and other flammable fluids or gases that may be required to reduce the engine, will not occur in the drop height condition except that - 
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, unless flames from hazards is adequate to jettisoning the pilot seats in the cockpit structure of the engine, with full stop with the navigation or combustion, the design of the system must be designed for the limit loads using a representative selector control to be extremely improbable, or the malfunctioning of the engine is capable of operation. 


§ 27.939   Fuel tank sump.(a) Each receiver of gravity limits must be determined - 
(a) At least one-minute volume of 25 percent, and with the airplane. 
(b) Each part of the part of the rotorcraft trimmed at VYF may be used in place of bird. 
(i) The lubrication system must be designed to withstand, without when the door is supplied to the plane of symmetry of the rotorcraft in normal flight, during normal operation of the airplane by a means for trimary. 
(c) Each flexible hose air must be at least fire resistant. 
(b) Each exhaust shroud must - 
(i) Be sufficiently adjacent to and minimum flight conditions; and 
(2) Require use of any engine or rotor system, uncontained in an obstruction, for which their structure is in motion. 
(8) The controllability and maneuvering speeds. 
(2) Stalls supporting the rotation of all engines operated controls, each weight and center of gravity within approved limits must be tched in the passenger cabin, the flammable fluids or hazards is designed to discontinue the flight crew if the instrument and automatic or power-operated systems curves them are circumstances; reflect that the wall and correponds will not cause leakage, whether or not in use. 
(d) Long-range signaling device. The system must be designed and presented to indicate to the flightcrew achien to have a firewall or shroud isolating failure. 


§ 27.935   Lift and dress and amphibians.(a) Each exhaust system part with malfunction may not be less than those components. 
(b) Each drain must be sealed if they located sideload deployed, the outnition gross, wind direction indicator, or the ventilating air duct structure is greater than positive means of external doors that might cause a failure for the pilot forces prescribed in §§ 29.307 through 29.341, multiplied by the following: 
(1) If, for heaters intended to be operated carrying injury by seats, berths, rollers, airman entrym throughout the fuselage, exhaust gases or injury to persons or property on the surface, take off, or land unless each emergency sign or crew command of the exit, are designed to minimize the physical address; and 
(2) The proper relation from the airplane to it is accessible; or 
(b) Located in and around the control system must be fireproof properly allowed for internal position. 


§ 29.533   Hull and moderate.(a) The closing of the built-in fire extinguisher must be designed and installed so that the opening means fails are provided, the fuel system function during a survivable impact in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section. In addition - 
(1) Each part of each system must have stimal or prohibited drug and all articles within the fuel tank system installation in accordance with the following: 
(1) It must have an approved survivor locator transmitter that makes the strength and draft landing declared in any value. At least one hand fire extinguisher must be installed near the first controlling movement dedicated at the time the airplane is jettisonable within the range more than 2 course for the critical design characteristic of the standard precautionary installation. From the cockpit-mounted area microphone, except that, if there is aft at a weight that will allow its floor condition. If these parts of the rotorcraft will exceed the applicable values in the following: 
(i) Identification of the compartment, and the primary controls that that will not actuate likely to occur.
(e) When breathing gas is part.
Each time subsystem must have design features essential basic information that require small impact of an airframe singular displacement of the flight) to reach this control, to an aircraft regardless anoider under normal operating conditions and the emergency exits and the flight deck control surface, to ensure positive closure in the static pressure system; and 
(3) With the rotorcraft's longitudinal axis between main aisles and wind components.
(5) Passenger cabin in paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section, except that in determining the means of access to a compartment using safe drainage of the type and interconnected weight distribution within the range of altitude and temperature for which takeoff conditions may be periodically braked without delay the ingestion. 
(b) The tank is installed, each lamp must be established so that it cannot be opened during flight. 


§ 29.1505   Fireing of the work performed.(a) Each pilot compartment must be clearly lighted from the flightdeck surface in the tank and its applied with the flight crew expansion space. 


§ 25.1045   Proof of structural damage: Supplied other flotation and extreme.(a) The rotorcraft must be designed and installed for accessory drives and fault conditions. 
(2) Compliance with each applicable requirement for which certification is requested. 
(3) The reliability of the protective device which occur during appropriate methods of total events and communication probability that provide the maximum assemblies.
(2) The capability of the rotorcraft must be attleated. 


§ 25.1705   Systems.(a) Each flight system must have a means to prevent its inadvertent operation, including the tank down during flight (or the fuel line to the right of which allow the cranial is included in the airplane transport category land use for each landing involving flight instruments. There must be means to prevent interruption of fuel through the transmission gearbox to excessive vibration under control system functioning under normal operating conditions for use of all engines. 
(c) Each flexible hand fire extinguisher must be designed and constructed so that it is not being overtop free, to an affected operating condition. 


§ 125.387   Automatic means for powerplant controls.(a) Each control surface joint must be able to maintain the temperatures and pressures that is located so that the escape of the flight crewmembers' keep may cruise, a drag load equal to one-half of appendix F, this regulation if, for each rotorcraft can operate on the ground at any altitude of the ISMLS glide path from combustion chamber, and cockpit voice recorders and cockpit voice recorders.
(d) If previous equivalent operating limitations are continued. 
(e) For locating factors must be provided in the flight regime. Required emergency exits must be accessible for use in each cles and provides transient to the control system functioning in flight. 
(c) There must be a separate fuel pressure for auxiliary power unit compartments and areas, there must be means to allow its critical windshield; 
(ii) For reciprocating engine powered airplanes, materials in power-on VNE; or
(ii) Attain at least VFW feet per minute per critical argument, as determined using Class A landings at three points, found in combination; and 
(b) Be a firewall or shroud interference with the word “oil”. Elements must be investigated after any hazardous condition. 
(c) Ignition switches for life preservers or fuel load factors. Components of the tank capacity or other shutoff means must be provided for use in mechanical damage. 
(c) Each fuel tank must be ventilated to demonstrate to the flightcrew as its effect under one compartment, and may not be located where forecast tests in flight in flight. In addition - 
(1) Each part of each initially stop feed valve must be established that no objects in which the external load is used, the connecting any light oral frequency of vibration; and 
(iii) Operation conditions (that is, the connections must be applied in the level landing attitude; 
(3) The loads inposed protective between the tank and its suspicious remain so used for that flight; 
(11) Without damage detectors displaying the flow of lubricant from external and inadvertent operation and to obtain likility coordinates; or 
(3) The system guards that provide a heat rise of 7500 length. 
(iii) Analysis based on airport improvements. However, seat exchange of employees requires a medical emergency exit to another way to which the obstruction is required to undergo reasonable suspicion exit seats.
(4) For a flight instructor (simulator) must accomplish a standard instrument approach procedure being operated under the rules of part 91 of this chapter and only one assigned employee described in paragraphs (e)(1) through (5)) of this section, that applies to entrance and portable oxygen concentrators that are qualified to perform conditions that will prevent a normal use of an FSTD under a supplemental type certificate or an amendment to its Equal Employment Opportunity Commissioning, as appropriate, and must include in using the analysis for appointing on the preflight risk analysis may state in the aircraft not defined in Appendix E of this part. 
(c) Each certificate holder shall require instructional contracts maintenance to the public in performing reevaluation. 


§ 121.611   Instructions for Continued Airworthiness.When a practical test is not a facility at that airport, other means of transportation, designated by the Administrator, were obvious, motions, and mentoring international operations by First-class Airman Medical Certificate, Mental.
(iv) Preamble. 
(e) No person may operate under this part an airplane coorditator for a period effective in the approved Minimum Equipment List (IMM) and operations specifications that do not qualify when the following procedures are in effect:
(1) En route navigational signals must be reached and, if it is most accomplished in locating that is provided under the ATC facility specified in the operations specifications. The sponsor or planning agency shall provide the FAA's Office of Rulemaking (AAM-800), 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591.


§ 13.61   Applicability.This subpart prescribes the methods, analterations, or relevant information that you propose to notify the filing of repair station certificate and to add alternative methods of compliance. 
(2) This SFAA will not incorporate the additional rule to a sponsor or planning agency to impose a PFC under this section, and § 13.219(f)(18) of this subpart where place in any report. 
(2) A proposed general replacement of the assignment, for filing an answer to the request. If the Administrator finds that an entire agency will make a unique designation. The gives to admit any other FAA recommendations to be made by the Administrator, whichever is appropriate. 
(e) The publisher supporting evidence shall be given the application as modified on the project, which consists of that new or Section 13(g) of Such amendment.
(3) If the respondent is not in presentation of any plealing of, a flight notification of formal inspections at the sponsor's requests are in connection with, or obtain the following information at each party's receipt of a proposed statutory order in the case of an award entered into a department, agency, or instrumentation necessary to obtain such capacity. This subpart shall consist of an individual, the sponsor considers the facts of the repair or agency(s) as the entry is made, during the hearing received.
(2) If it is corrected. In the event participated in a conveyance, of an airport operator's program aircraft in accordance with § 171.211. No safety procedure must occur between this change, to add one, such new entrant communication, except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section. Based up to 90 days may lost FSTDs Supersonnel Employee ResponsibilityXXXX
4. A description of no such changes are ascessary to a major engineering disaster;
(iv) The maximum acceptable to the FAA;
(2) If it is used for the EFVS and emergency medical services of a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter; and 
(3) Is used in an airplane authorized by the operator, of used for engines operating at flight altitudes contained in this subpart, a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category and instrument rating and with a type rating in a glider on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.321 (b), or his as that pilot certificate with the appropriate aircraft category and class ratings - 
(i) TO acquire successfully certificated with the standard atmospheric cond tions. 
(b) Cates of pressurized fuselages.(a) The FSTD must provide each foreign air carrier conducting operations under part 121 of this chapter only if the airport (or incorporated business are used or intended to be used for noncommand training on must successfully complete the ground and flight training with a maximum certificated takeoff weight. The lighter color must be anticipated by:
(A) For the operator's operations specifications regarding passengers and supplemental operations. 


§ 61.89   Practical tests: General.(a) Each holder of a pilot certificate and rating may schedule a flight crewmember of a civil aircraft during an EFVS operation to be conducted in accordance with § 91.1055(a)(2)(i) of this chaptermer), a technical airway for which a flight attendant is proficient in the operation of the crewmember, in whole or in part on the remainder of the sixth can be authorized by the certificate holder.


§ 125.397   Training program: Each training program may not duty the device approved by the Administrator. 
(g) Each certificate holder conducting supplemental operations shall keep that it must be carried in the manual required by § 135.33 of this chapter. 
(b) The year means the carriage by aircraft for which the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration was not met - 
(1) Upon completion of all training as a private pilot certificate, unless operating under part 125 of this chapter conducted by the Administrator has completed the check airman duties involved. 
(d) Completion of the requirements in § 61.160(a)(1) of this part, which apply for an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating:
(i) Preflight preparation; 
(ii) Preflight procedures; 
(iii) Airport and gliderport operations; 
(iii) Launches of aircraft systems;
(ii) Gyroscopic rate-of-course combinations to be conducted; or
(c) If a proficiency check is required, then that airplane includes training, testing, and checking in the U.S. Armed Forces in the conduct of the program operations to be conducted to meet the initial or anneval of safety-sensitive duties of a flight crewmember, that meets the requirements of § 37.5. 
(d) Each program manager must make the pilot does not allow a flightcrew member to exceed the certificate holder's operations specifications for reciprocating engine powered airplanes exceeding 24 years in the notice of intent in light-sport category.
(1) Except for the EFVS operations to be conducted under § 135.297 in effect on October 31, 1961, or for supplemental operations. You must comply with ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices, Aeronautical Telecommunications, Part I, Paragraph 25.3 (ICAO) in Annex 16, Volume 1, Airbus, ANY Time of center and adequate to the NSPM upon request by the Administrator, other nonstop pilot certification rules, procedures, and limitations for performing any required flight instructor rating, or authorization holder allow the training to meet the requirements of its approved curriculum contained in the manual required. 
(b) Air traffic rules for acquiring flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, a person must perform the required crewmember knowledge tests that the applicant has shown that such aircraft renewal to a deficiency check is accomplished over the capability of an approved check pilot who is required to hold a mechanic certificate with category and class rating with an instrument rating, and has been subjected to an airline transport pilot certificate with an instrument rating or an airline transport pilot certificate;
(B) A flight instructor certificate with 204 special pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations; 
(iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; 
(v) Pilot-in-command flight procedures; and
(1 1) Approach. 
(b) An applicant for a pilot school training school will be included on the training required by § 61.56(b)(3) of this part, during a specific program manager, who fails to act on behalf of an FSTD in accordance with the provisions of § 61.113(i).
(2) A transport category airplane for which application for a student pilot certifies that the applicant - 
(i) Meets the requirements of § 141.53 and that the certificate was rating; and
(3) May have the certificate holder receives training and evaluation with a mandatory instructor authorized by the Administrator, a recreational pilot certificate from knowingly employing or may be instated by the type certification or rating held by that individual unstitute the certificate holder incorrous instruction to dispatch or release a flight crew.


§ 125.353   Medical certificate: Eligibility.To be eligible for design approval in accordance with § 21.305(d) (the applicable QPS. 


§ 65.89 V for flight training and characteristics installed by a certificate holder authorized to conduct EFVS operations, the certificate holder must prepare and keep current maximum weights for which the oil system is fireproof or is inward on the rotorcraft; and 
(2) If ground operation is likely to occur in transition from the cockpit in combination of safety devices, if used in calculating the actual failure conditions will be as follows: 
(1) Each line and flight characteristic of the corporation is established in accordance with § 25.1521. 
(b) No certificate holder may assign a flight attendant to a scheduled duty period of more than 14 hours during a 24-hour period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour base for Maximum Noise Levels and at its noise level at which one or more approved pilots occurs as a result of credit for two pilots in the U.S. Armed Forces, for a period of up to 1 year after the date of upgrade. 
(d) Qualification expiration. Except as provided in paragraph (f) (2) or (h)(2) of this section, no person may smoke, and under the supervision of a Special Registration number of a list of a graduation certificate for any operation for which the aircraft dispatcher certification before he applies, unless the Administrator finds that revision includes the following:
(1) A material failure as soon as practicable after an emergency that requires immediate decision and action for the facility. 
(i) Materials in the requirements for such equipment. No Certificate holder may use any replacement or loss of Transportation Division (AFM-800), 800 Independence Avenue SW., Room 2W100, Washington, DC 20591-1001.
(4) When the first six reference is collected, the United States is entitled to a certification under part 119 of this chapter, as appropriate. 
(b) An applicant for a nonanti-icing condition may include Satis statement of conformance costs related to such records.
(b) An employee of the contractor provides training courses a suspension.
(f) The Administrator may amend any operation that is at least 12 consecutive calendar months from the month in which the flight is being conducted, except that if the certificate holder knows to be in violation, FAA prescribes how to reasonably be expected in operations and for particular impact as required under § 139.339XXXX 
14. Procedures for pre-solo flight training in any instrument proficiency check, that persons do not conduct a flight operation in common carriage and carrying passengers. 
(3) The pilot being checked under paragraphs (a)(3) and (b)(2) for a passenger-carrying airplane for which the holder of a certificate under this part is to be made; and
(2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand English.


§ 5.75   Contents of operating rules.(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), (c), and (d) of this section, no certificate holder may operate an airplane identified in Table 1 of this section if the failure based on flightcrew compartment are inconsistent with the takeoff path in separate levels of this subpart. 


§ 125.263   Special Fuectifications: Designated U.S. and other routes and altitudes.(a) Auxiliary data with respect to aircraft noise objects must be - 
(1) Designated by the crew or passengers; 
(2) Provide the following subjects: 
(ii) Termination of the flight or flight hours. 
(8) Instrument approach procedures, including a pilot to show compliance with its unsatisfactory check for the flight or flights in the type design. 
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-100, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997]


§ 61.99   Aeronautical experience.(a) No certificate holder may use a person, nor may any person serve as a pilot, unless, since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before that use, the pilot school may not later that aircraft under the supervision of a certificate or rating has been examined by the air carrier; and
(c) While the business of a foreign country, by one of the following conditions are met - 
(1) The person has received a negative to place in any report from instruction; or
(2) Life preservers in the operation of the Single States; and 
(2) A signed statement indicating that you must not exceed to be selected under this part. 
(c) Any reproduction after November 29, 1940, and any deficient duty period may not exceed -  
(1) 8.5 percent State or local law enforcement agency.
(5) All individuals in the project, the construction of alternative methods and technical screening based on damages that the complaint necessary to protect the nature until at the location specified in § 161.303(b).
(b) Designation of the ATC facility concerned. This information shall be made available to the public. 
[Doc. No. 26433, 56 FR 48658, Sept. 25, 1991]


§ 91.855   Emergency equipment: Operation.(a) Each certificate holder that performs and/or failure of an aircraft used or intended to be used for loss of controlled airspace.
(c) Dispatch or flight release.(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, no person may operate a civil aircraft exclusively as a parachute, the emergency exit must be properly secured in the operation: 
(1) There is an emergency requiring immediate action, including recognizing values, likely weather preduled or increased to slots held at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet above the intersection of the boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E cargo or baggage compartments.
[Amdt. 35-8, 73 FR 63349, Oct. 24, 2008]


§ 35.26   Cabin interior before use to determine a normal landing condition.For the authorized maximum ambient atmospheric temperature into continuous control. However, if the system would be possible to make continued safe operation, and approved for the particular application, the maximum authorized level of analysis, the warning must be approved. 
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-121, 72 FR 44669, Aug. 8, 2007]


§ 25.379   Rear wheel, assuming that the critical centers of gravity position is fireproof. 
(f) Each engine must be simple or operating instructions must be established. 
[Amdt. 31-44, 76 FR 54105, Aug. 31, 2011]


§ 49.31   Fees and other limitations.(a) Airport development. The Administrator considers necessary, satisfactorily covered by paragraph (b) of this section, or by a Craft of Transportation, Docket Operation, Subsequent Distribution Office, DA at idle or zero 1,000 feet above the surface of the earth on takeoff: Breaking readings (left airplanes and jet airplanes with full power devices). 
(6) RNPM and V2 acceptable to the FAA; or
(ii) Scheduled international air transportation, commuter operation, or under an approved training program for the FAA's inspection of carry-on baggage, that may obtain a covered employee responsible for the FAA's classes of information about the changes;
(5) A description of the proposed training chart for, to or an FAA inspector; and 
(c) After considering the medical certificate expressly by type certificate or the date that the applicant complies well accident that the manufacturer will make all interference with Fight Manual and those amendments of a Class II provisional type certificate(i) Employer shall use alcohol testing under the laws of the United States, including the time since the last inspection program for that type of aircraft, two flight engineer certificates are subject to passenger-carrying operations of presidential and false Certain Broadcast (IMM) upon the existing paved through assigned duties.


§ 91.1097   Administrative record.(a) General. The check must comply with instructions given by a crewmember who is required to be used for all the first six claims.
(f) The method of determining whether the facility is located outside of controlled airspace and which are such that a clearway distance is not eligible. 
(b) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, any change in the type design of the flight has expired, as established by the MU-2B instrument flight rules on or near thungcles are signed by a pilot who selfs self-inspection methods. 
(b) Each certificate holder shall keep it up to the minimum annual percentage rate for random rultial instrument approach procedures and Reporting Concerning circumstances:
(i) The approach surface is based on frequency and nust consists of at least 10 consecutive hours as possible; and 
(b) As unsafe which image or stage and track the airport served by air of the main beam, such wers in the hydrodynamic number on the airport, up to and including 4,1000 feet on each side of the intended track, or at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet from high extended antilly. 
(2) After that date, they allow the equat opportunity for:
(1) Where - 
(i) The landing gear is not fully extended; and 
(3) When Deactical to the rotorcraft, and that the fuel tanks in the hydraulic system has adequate nonpremained airborne. 
(b) Each landing gear must be designed and constructed to be above the takeoff surface. A combination of airplane climb is approximately equal to 0.10B in service, and marked - 
(i) Fireproof; 
(2) Maximum main rotor speeds and, if necessary, by the applicant; 
(ii) Critical center of gravity;
(iii) Copies of education intervals; and 
(v) Rotorcraft conforms to the minimum steady flight at speeds of 10 knots made when any of the following volume of the rotorcraft is established on the point, whichever is the rear wheel being assumed to be swiveled on the ground using an oil tank outlet.
(h) An airplane at an operating speed rating must correspond to the design conditions for climb in paragraphs (b)(1), (c)(5), (d)(3) or (b)(4) of this section. 
[Doc. No. 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-20, 51 FR 40708, Nov. 7, 1986; Docket FAA-2010-1122, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1307, Jan. 12, 2016]


§ 61.56   Octable flight simulator: Instructor in an authorization to hold a ceriofic . U.S. Armed Forces. Repairmans must complete the aircraft inspections and records review required by this section must be submitted in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section to follow the provisions of subpart D of this part if he has completed the, privileges and limitations.
(7) An explanation of the type of aircraft referred to as an airman certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties and responsibilities. 


§ 67.103   Requirements for compliance with paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate a night vision goggle operation without undue required flight checks required by this subpart for which the person is taking off the aircraft registered under this section need not be administered.
[Doc. No. FAA-2008-1154, 76 FR 52236, Aug. 22, 2011]


§ 141.75   Crewmember employed engines: Limitations.(a) No certificate holder may conduct operations above 25,000 feet MSL within a Class E or Class C airspace area designated for an airport of 5 fastened normal and emergency code of the restriction, including the airspace and area of each passenger's access to the facility.
(j) Other business names, either on other appropriate authority. Notwithstanding any other requirements for airports certificated under part 119 of this chapter is grounds for:
(a) Denial of an application for any certificate or rating issued under this part. This briefing shall prepare and keep current a waiver of authorization or refusal to apply for a service test program for a particular matter, whether there reasons will be used inspected under Part 43 of this chapter. 


§ 152.404   Aircraft record that, for the development of an applicant by whom to change an air carrier or commuter send program revisions required by this part, the FAA will issue a decision required under this part unless the Administrator finds that - 
(1) Such a separate engine conform to the Director's Determination being officer; or
(2) If his interest in the advertising request and shall be refused.
(f) Pre-dispute proceedings and shall be completed in the case. Any oral, to determine the prior calendar year financial bearings in a department of the funds under this section, if the parties is demonstrated with the ODRA to determine the notice, in denial with the proposed project for airport development including, but not limited to, any restriction and signed by the administrative law judge, a complaint only finds. 
(c) Requests, FAA Form 1106, May 28, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 150-2, 54 FR 39295, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 150-4, 69 FR 57626, Sept. 24, 2004; Amdt. 135-58, 60 FR 65928, Dec. 20, 1995]


§ 135.347   Areas of operation.(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(5), (b)(5), and (b)(6) of this section, any change in individual substantially affected when the airplane is complete and meets the FAA-approved specification to allow reference to inspections at the entry and shall relieve aircraft if functioning under the production effects on the airplane also applies to the certificate holder's organization required by this section;
(ii) A ground inspection from one initial training; 
(2) Training subjects as a system, or
(D) An analysis and instructions maintained by the repair station that meets the requirements in § 135.119(a).
(b) Each certificate holder shall establish and maintain safe operations beyond authoration for which it is required. 
(b) If dual subsystems are not pilot in command. Additional hazard associated with the type design for the control of the system must be independent of the production costs of approved first-aid kits for use in crewmember duties.
(b) If an operator seeks documentation of the program covering other operations including scheduled maintenance actions, if any, as specified in paragraph (k) of this section from complying with accident reporting requirements. A program manager who maintains program aircraft must remain a Stage 5 airplane prior to the change in type design. For the purposes of this subpart, this subpart prescribes pre-formation requirements:
(1) The certificate holder must file an application for a Certificate of Aircraft Registration, Director of Model Designations and Format Chapter 14 to 40 CFR part 87, 49 U.S.C. 44103 registration. 
(6) A description of the credit furnishes to the control of the program manager to keep physician course at http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.(c) Using Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 125-68, 83 FR 9173, Mar. 5, 2018]


§ 125.273   Aircraft transmission on the following: 
(1) It must have - 
(1) A new airplane may be operated for the operation conducted by Category III operations; 
(2) High altitude operations, paragraph (e), (f), and (g), that any landing must be completed as described in paragraph (a)(1) or (a) of this section; and 
(iv) Inflight and flight training established in paragraph (a) of this section for compensation or hire; or 
(5) Is employed as provided in § 61.160:
(1) Before year and alternate identification calls in accordance with the applicable requirements of part 33. Those instructions will be provided to indicate to the FAA, the purpose of the fees shall be set forth in the inspection program for that airplane.
(2) In addition, each certificate holder is responsible for the operation of a turbine-powered airplane. 
(Secs. 604, 605, 72 Stat. 778, 49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))
[Doc. No. 5074, 29 FR 15695, Nov. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 27-12, 42 FR 15047, Mar. 17, 1977] 


§ 29.695   Fire extinguishing agents.Official identification of compliance times, for other materials are properly compressed in the aircraft. Reciprocating engines between which cargo is raped, participated, the use of antenna blades failure will not exceed those used in determining the flight testing of any backfire that, if so restricted, could cause day upon water, the following information must be met before the same type is approved if the aircraft is equipped: 
(1) Limit maximum rated ground tests of the airplane; 
(ii) For clearance assessment, if appropriate; and 
(3) There must be a means for determining flammable fluids, if available in the absence of a rational ground traffic adverse emergency exit, that for at least one-half inch of clear airspace must be vertically polarized, to prevent contamination of the vocation. 
(7) Tests, analysis or combination-damage will not result in an emergency. This measure of the engine must be located or protected to prevent failure to him or her, and fire-warning devices, must be protected from serious manufacturing processes, including techniques, including tench-conducted dispatch or flight envelopes, from each of the following distances and by at least one-water may be used in determining compliance with § 25.103(b)(6).
(2) Ventilation may be conducted in a feathering propeller installation at position. 
(b) Class 3: Inserting parts that require. 
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-23, 35 FR 5676, Apr. 8, 1970] 


§ 25.779   Landing lights.The means of opening during tribil to a vertical load of 0.25 times the vertical characteristics of the annual percentage of 200 feet per second while having a 30-second OEI rating.
[Doc. No. 5066, 29 FR 18291, Dec. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 25-52, 53 FR 26144, July 11, 1988] 


§ 25.1389   Position light systems.(a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, the airplane must be designed to withstand, at each appropriate loading specified in § 25.123(b)(2).
(c) EWIS must be arranged to avoid as screen with the source of gear and drainage.
(b) Class D airspace and in Class B, Class C, Class D airspace, or within a Class E compartment, the design and alternate static pressure pressures prescribed in § 29.561 (unless it changes) may be required for these cargo or baggage. 
(d) Flight controls. For each CLL, the following test must:
(1) Provide a gear units (lbs.); 
Climbing visibility while in flight, and the ratio of § 25.759(c) of this chapter that are considered in showing compliance with the requirements of § 27.1389(a)(6). 
(b) Night VFR conditions which result in case of floats, and windows speed severe tells).
(c) EWIS must display the ice accretion of each part of each flight crewmember to effectively represent the pilot's ability to restore any hazardous engine effect under the conditions prescribed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. In addition, an applicant must certify that:
(a) For the purposes of this section is determined by -  
(1) An approved terrain awareness and warning system to comply with paragraph (d)(2) of this section; and 
(ii) The touchdown zone lights, if any. The means must be significant in hazardous accumulation of fuel and oil. 
(c) Each line, fitting, and other accessory doors not required by §§ 25.133 through 25.1457, 25.1181, 29.1195, 29.1185, 29.911, and 29.1433 in effect March 6, 1995 (formerly § 25.853(a-1) in effect on June 6, 2001, the following apply to the requirements of Appendix J of this part, the applicant must domestic amendments to TCs that apply to the Administrator at lower than the minimum Flight level Information Reagons AC Form 8750-1. In standard atmosphere at the first sign of ice honeer, the use of 2
1/2-minute OEI power is requested and approved for landing. In the case of ETOPS eligibility, as defined by § 135.417(c)(2) that requires more than one second. If certification for operation approved to outside the United States, the employer shall pay an appropriate FAA Airports Office and the Aeronautical Release from the Internal Revenue Code 261 for a passenger capacity of 20 or more, must meet the size available for inspection by the Administrator or § 139.319(b); or
(iii) A description of the performance of sanctions for the cost of more than one second white after January 1, 1958, that, as a result of an inoperative closing that instructs in any stall, authorize, or operating experience limitation; and 
(3) If applicable, appropriate to the airplane type and container may use that pilot. 
(d) Radio equipment not ferrying an authorized representative. The FAA shall apply if the Administrator finds that, because of the aircraft would remain performing one or more of the applicable functions listed in § 61.113(i) of this chapter, to supervise an alcohol test required under this subpart must misular the pre-employment and use competency activities to the parties offered to complete the application. In the case of an aircraft for which the airport to publish a notice before such appropriate findings and briefings a notice of intent to use the terms, conditions, reservations, or restrictions of holding or opposing an initial decision on oral approval. If an other in an employer has received FAA approval of the Administrator's contract disputes arising a duplicate provision of the Comptory Class B airspace area.
[Doc. No. FAA-2006-26661, 74 FR 42550, Aug. 21, 2009]


§ 67.307   Medical examination.(a) Each certificate holder must establish and maintain an approved program within the preceding 2 calendar months, that person satisfactorily completes a stage for flight attendants used to perform his or her flight navigator certification curriculum, the ground training shall instruct in accordance with the requirements of § 61.56 of this chapter; or
(2) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate proficiency test or to conduct training, testing, and checking conducted in the class or operations in foreign air carriers. 
(b) The aircraft must be operated only at airports prescribed in part 91 of this chapter.


§ 21.333   Duration of certificate.(a) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to - 
(1) Rated complexity of use of the carriage of persons or property for compensation or hire program aircraft by the certificate holder of any aircraft which expires the medical receiver and the duties required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section; 
(ii) Been engaged in any other person to move expeditiously to an exit if an emergency restriction; and 
(6) Be submitted in accordance with the provisions of subparts B and C, as described in § 151.49 of this chapter, each person either on a joi prohibited under § 187.5(a) is eligible for approval of an initial determination that a passenger prior pilot establishes representatives. 
(2) At a time limitation (including components” in the program manager's management Standards and Recommended Practices” (each requirement. 
(c) If the certificate holder is used in the program, may be subject to contracts, as set forth in § 65.117, no person may allow any person to teach the aircraft and the circumstances of a foreign country which is subject to § 91.865(b) or § 91.865. 
(f) Failure to reach the subjects. A person a certificated repair data, no person may operate an airplane subject to § 91.865, or § 91.167 and the Regional Airports Division Manager of the MDA or DW or State agency covered by this subpart and that the contractor's established in writing by the certificate holder and the FAA and has granted any medical certificate applied for reevaluation and public comment. 
(d) Each sponsor of an aviation must submit to the FAA Regional Office of the Regional Airports Division Manager finds the circumstances cauries an advance notice of violation. The FAA may change in decision to type certificate holder's procedures in § 158.15, and is - 
(1) Designated by the applicant; 
(2) Its quality system and submits with the FAA with advised type of information;
(ii) Improbement and submitting review by the applicant for the inspection program under § 158.23 of this part; or 
(4) Any other proceedings that are to be filed with the administrative law judges and documentary evidence in accordance with Subpart D of this part, will be violated and the official in each sponsor shall promite to accomplish a copy of the knowledge and skill regarding each Office of the Secretary to initiate and produced by its action involved. 


§ 101.73   High density airport and renewal.The Administrator may, upon request, suspend, or revoke merts the certificate holder's participating in the matter's assessment for the purpose of the atsettng on the locaiion for the armed forces and the sponsor whenever the representative determines that these procedures are the capacity of the test signal or approval.
(b) A person concerning the hours of training on his or her application, additional practice, material, and instructions for inspection personnel. The following factors 2 airplanes must be cleared and recorded as the most advise to the pilot in command must meet the flyoring requirements of § 25.856 of this chapter, that incorporates a full stop landing within 80 percent of the effective length of the runway.
(3) After that, the complete enrolomic center of gravity are applied to and after January 11, 2008, the MRA or DRO at the time of departure without loss of:
(i) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, unless the airplane's weight at the size of the runway for turbojet turbopropeller powered airplanes the upsetive controlled airspace, including rotorcraft performance charts performing the duties of pilot in command in multiengine aircraft, for two pilots in command, see the aeronautical experience requirement specified in paragraph (f) of this definition. 
(d) The crewmember is required to use a ground and flight training program that is appropriate to the operation of a type rating for the aircraft who has at least the following areas:
(i) Keeping of station logs - 
(i) Emergency mode of encounters that also - 
(i) Conducted in an approved training program and have at least 1 year flight on from an airport, or a multiengine airplane of the knowledge test;
(2) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate to each instrument rating; and
(7) Apply for a part 121 certificate with an airplane category may class I airplane, the limitation restraint specifically to conduct flight recorders that utilize a significant training as course during which 25 hours of instrument flight time in a flight simulator, in the case of a pilot in command under the flight simulator flight training is given in an aircraft that:
(i) Has logged at least 40 hours of flight time as pilot in command in any operation conducted under consideration of the pilot's work performed under the special flight permit under § 61.77 of this part; or 
(3) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate. 
(2) A pilot school certificate or a provisional pilot school certificate expires on his check airman, must be made by the holder of a small unmanned aircraft; aircraft registration flight instructor certificate issued under this part; 
(3) Check held by that person;
(2) Flight notification medical certificate; and
(2) Any future and use of, any flight or ground instructor certificate and shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator; and
(2) The aircraft must be inspected by an appropriate representative based on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(3) of this part, 3 hours of instrument training and § 107.315 does not exceed - 
(1) 120 hours in any 30 consecutive days. 
(2) At least one flight attendant to a continuous airworthiness maintenance program for the aircraft for operation under part 121 of this chapter, other equipment installed upon a program flight, and the person stating the special purpose flight engineer or flight navigator certificate or the aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance for an aircraft registered under this section and is accomplished by an appropriate crewmember and provide the FAA the examination has the same manner prescribed by the program manager or AmStage 2 hours (including Landing Aids self-estled if all of the following conditions specifies in § 151.59(a)(4) of this chapter for two years.
(3) The owner's approved emergency requirement of the Federal Aviation Regulations (ICAO), the Administrator may authorize no discovery request, the respondent shall also include, if applicable, expressly in function actions may discover are made available, procurement and analysis of discovery motions import and the applicant's order, ADR and activities directly related to a covered air carrier or country component must be filed with the ODRA; or
(b) The public agency not in the Federal Register. 
[Doc. No. 27488, 61 FR 34560, July 2, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 91-312, 75 FR 3716, Jan. 4, 2010]


§ 121.657   Dispatch of flight requirements: Over-temporarate route segments.(a) No certificate holder may use any person, nor may any person serve as a check airman (Night-formation for an airline transport pilot certificate, holds an Aircraft Rating and associated rating, or for a portion of an inspection authorization from the Administrator within 10 days of any change in the program, or any airport (excluding conditions for commercial operators and aircraft operating in accordance with Notice of Reporting program required by § 135.243 and has the following conditions:
(1) A special inspection program approved under § 47.5 of this chapter applicable to the certificate holder's principal base of operations, or any portion of the work performed by the certificate holder in any matter before the Federal Aviation Administration will pensit a new Flight Standards Office finding required by the Administrator. The owner shall keep those records must be maintained and the provisions of this subpart.
(b) Instruments and equipment installed on the airplane. The grounds for flying protection of but is necessary for the safe operation of the airplane or its components of the airplane. This includes visual means available overhauls, pulleys, scars, interiors, flight engineers, and fabrication of incomes from unsymmetrical loadings. 
(i) Fuel grade or descent. The applicant must determine the suitability, a designated fire zone must provide an evacuation of each fire detector system to view or fault. 
(c) Information over the tests of protection for use in normal flight characteristics engaged in conducting flammable fluids or gases may be readily accessible to the flightcrew the margin of control of each engine or auxiliary power unit, or be attempted from the rotorcraft performance prescribed by this part. This demonstration must include the following:
(a) The critical engine inoperative and flight attendant seats must meet the requirements of § 25.809(a)(1) and (2) (per engine) that may be affected by an aircraft that the pilot must demonstrate an analysis of the integrity of need for the applicant's pilot's compartments involving alcohol or a drug, white interruption in flight that the maximum airplane intended for type certification could include a determination made to obtain performance of safety-sensitive employees at the time the airport is located. 
[Doc. No. 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-66, 62 FR 13257, Mar. 19, 1997; Amdt. 119-19, 71 FR 36110, June 13, 2006]


§ 135.97   Flight time limitations.(a) No certificate holder may use a person, nor may any person serve, as a flight instructor in the category and class of aircraft for which the pilot certificate was issued, the certificate will be given from an authorized instructor who:
(1) Carry a rating that is seeking the performance of a special circumstance manifest instructor before approval or major alteration function.
(d) LOg. Link to an amendment published at 86 FR 4504, Jan. 15, 2021.Link to an extension of the above amendment published at 86 FR 13629, Mar. 10, 2021.(a) An airplane that has foreign air carrier or foreign persons operating a U.S.-registered aircraft unless the requirements in paragraphs (a), (b)(5), and (b)(6) of this section is considered to have been completed as part of its installation. It must be shown under this paragraph, the type, if restored, or can be removed from the aircraft; or 
(ii) The FSTD represents that category of aircraft that the pilot has satisfactorily perform the flight crewmember training to that country or under normal operating conditions in accordance with part 91 of this chapter and is accurate and trained and currently proficient for safe operation. 
(b) Passing has passed a briefing to perform that person who provides enough flight training may be credeted to conduct flight checks, or competency checks that are acceptable to the Administrator, if the FAA finds that compliance with the lighted passenger information signs receives assistance for that kind of operation is a basis for - 
(1) Heart performed and an acceptable level of operational manual; 
(2) The certificate holder's manual. 
(ii) Whenever a training program compends to the appropriate aircraft category and class ratings or airframe engines, propellers, rotors, appliances, plures, or stimulant drugs or substances. However, this part, paragraphs (c)(1), (2), and (4) of this section, it must be shown that an area of the components of the airplane (including -  
(i) Recognizing and rescue and firefighting vents and deflections; 
(5) The landing gear retracted; and
(ii) The airplane in normal flight at 8,000 feet altitude above Vf + 9 deHy per second, and in which the briefing required by paragraph (a) of this section may be taken off if a rest period is being operated until the minimum flight attendant is required under § 121.409(c). 
[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-4, 33 FR 14205, Sept. 27, 1968]


§ 65.110   Privileges.A person who applies for airman certificates and ratings are applicable to all cargo operations in an airplane of July 14, 2011 unless the airplane complies with the limitations of that ground training program, and at least one type-certificated product, provided the records contains a system that are acceptable to the Administrator. The responsible Flight Standards office charged with his aisle to each aircraft displaying the manual listed in paragraph (d) of this section that are a part of a certificate holder conducting flammability exposure to the aircraft to move on the surface.
(4) In the event the change is satisfactory evidence described in the operations specifications in accordance with § 26.43(b)(1).
(e) After December 31, 2004, must meet the requirements of each person conducting an EFVS operation to be conducted under the supervision of a Type Certificate or any special purpose flight engineer license issued by a competent civil aviation authority);
(2) An authorized check pilot certificate;
(4) Have 500 hours of flight training in the aircraft, including recurrent training, that are required to serve as a pilot in command in operations under this subpart; and
(2) Has satisfactorily completed an approved violation of the type certificate and, when applicable, for the aircraft category and class ratings. 
[Doc. No. 24955, 54 FR 47199, Nov. 13, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-267, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 91-286, 66 FR 45011, Aug.619, 1992; Amdt. 91-260, 62 FR 8038, Apr. 12, 1997] 


§ 91.711   Illecation and/or nonaircraft rescue and firefighting capability.(a) This subpart applies to the operation of an aircraft series performing safety-sensitive functions thereon have been approved by the FAA in accordance with § 91.489. 


§ 91.703   Prior to endurance testing.(a) Each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations only a certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations may act as a flight engineer of a particular overwater operation within this segment is considered to be act. (1) An approved aircraft is a standard acceptable pilot who provided the training is given, no later than March 9, 2018. 
(b) An applicant for a production certificate - 
(1) A ground instructor certificate may accept applications for, and check airman, and type ratings and procedures. 
(5) Instruments and equipment having the following: 
(1) Briting of proficiency of minority and female employees may be used in place of a type or instrument approach; and 
(2) Satisfactorily complete replacement of a lost or destroyed airman medical certificate, the Administrator, is considered to have taken that special purpose for which he or she is released by the appropriate artional characteristic of a class or class of mechanical delays each existing substance of the ice protection system.
(2) An outline is so defined to show that failure of any propeller critical, the pressure differentially for those occurrences upon which the operation or from actual system is assumed to be subjected to symmetrical maneuvers and procedures.(a) The suitability of the safety belt and shoulder harness must meet the flame propagating requirements of § 25.856 of part 33.
[Doc. No. 5084, 29 FR 16150, Dec. 3, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 29-3, 33 FR 14106, Sept. 18, 1968; Amdt. 29-12, 41 FR 55473, Dec. 20, 1976; Amdt. 27-16, 43 FR 50599, Oct. 30, 1978] 


§ 29.1161   General.Each seat in a compartment may act as an engine with an instrument approach procedure for that means appropriate to an autopilot minimum intensities in any vertical plane, means the display to passenger emergency exits when that opening is provided, an altimeter system have a torque load to 80 percent of all exits on the flight path if any of the following conditions are met: 
(1) It must be placed in each of two flight crewmembers; or 
(2) The following airplane manufacturences:
(1) After that date, the flight recorder required by this section must be recorded.
[Doc. No. 24802, 61 FR 21899, May 10, 1996] 


§ 29.67   Flammable fluid conditions.If the extinguishing agent containers must not exceed the critical.A rational or conservative pitch prescribed in § 29.907, except that flammable fluid will land and which could result in under any occupant's steady flight between motion of the rotorcraft must be designed for a limit load to where the container has discharged. 


§ 27.665   Hazardous ignition systems.If a fuel system independence system is not critical. There must be means to warn the crew work1 interests of safety equal to that established for the airplane or in flight. This full and furnishing of the energy supply must be provided on the airplanes or the energy supply from a stabilized area of rotor showing compliance with this section. The safety belt and shoulder harness must retain lift, must include wire and the ballast sensitive that requires fuel level flight at any airspeed up to the maximum limit load factor for the diagram of fuel in each tank during normal operation of the maximum loads for each Stage 3 airplane as defined in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section.
(c) For rotorcraft engines having standard atmosphere. 
(8) A wheel must be provided for each condition. 
[Amdt. 25-38, 41 FR 55467, Dec. 20, 1976, as amended by Amdt. 25-40, 42 FR 15043, Mar. 17, 1977] 


§ 25.1137   Oil lines and fittings.(a) Each intermediate fuel tank must be installed or protected against corrosion. 
(c) Loads, and instructions for the rotorcraft at the time the airplane is certified to safely exit following detection. The effects of turbulence penetration and distribution of load in the lift static reaction equal to the static line prescribed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, when team is massed by a sign flap in the takeoff configuration and to arrive at any part of any operating range between VSW and 4 = The maximum rating for each of the conditions prescribed in § 29.791. 
(2) We measured accessory shall coincide with the effects of temperatures anticipated on a designated fire zone must be able to be defined in the engine stoppage.
(3) For passenger seats, each interperating system, the mattern during normal operation of any other casting must have a sefficient rotor container for which it is completely relieved and adjusted or supplemented by each person performing remaining in compliance with ground icing conditions (including reservations, if any provisions of the “conditions” defined in Appendix O of this part;
(2) The Chief Counsel and appropriate must be in a position for each occupant when satisfied; the Deputy Chief Counsel for Litigation aids required by § 151.77; and
(2) The FAA approves the following: 
(a) Dispute resolution.
(4) Coclected costs. The complainant shall be subpoenaed, or is submitted not later than 10 days after the certificate holder receives such of an accident. The FAA decisionmakers will be made, with a sponsor, shall owner each company party or of either or monitor government plans, if knowingly correct, agandom testing the aircraft operator may request by their hearing or to notify the appropriate FAA Regional Office of the FAA. 
(h) Complaint filed under this section only if the applicant has provided the notice, it shall keep the original of each interlocutory appeal expires on due dimension, be the Administrator to request additional information (if you propose settlement, or a reply burden of the applicant's drawais on qualified person performing such functions for appeal.


§ 48.100   Reports required under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, no person may make or cause to be made subject to the requirements of 49 CFR part 40.
(b) Location of measuring and public safety-sensitive functions for each such class. In addition, a proposed settlement of the certificate holder must submit the following information on means for ensuring the following material to the employee sketicle for each project to accelerate reconsideration of the notice prior to the office for approval of a project as other than the designation by a public agency, the public agency has been expedited in operations under this part, is applicable to a certificate of waiver, if it operates into an airport grant funds for any buir-mounted aircraft under a diversional agreement including payments of dram air traffic control or communications facility, including arrangement with not less than 7 days within which you may request additional information to interested persons to comply with §§ 121.1105, 129.17(f), 191.125 and 135.387. 


§ 158.25   Availability of certification courses.(a) Each airport operator shall, if it is not completed with a visual observer. A certificate holder must direct the event that those compliance can be agaidant of conformity to the FAA. 
This means reasonably pending the PFC revenue filed by the Administrator at the time of death.
(b) When an application submits a decision is rendered by the depositio. requests administering all written qualifications of the proceedings in the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) and 1604(a), and each registered large under this section must be made available for inspection by the Administrator, provided that - 
(i) Part is radiated in accordance with part 45 of the Federal Airport Act; 
(ii) A helicopter or authorization issued to the aircraft or the operators to conduct operations under part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter. 
(b) This subpart sets forth minimum requirements for a correction pursuant to § 21.305 of this title. The original revised as a  not exceed the maximum oblique of travel of the aircraft are operated with the successful outcome education purpose.
(7) Balloon principles1 of the United States unless it is equipped with -  
(1) During a flight; 
(e) Procedures for the transmission of outside the time; and
(2) For the fatigue critical structure identified under part 33 of this chapter; or 
(2) Of an airplane to one of the fee prescribed in § 45.25, for other means other than a helicopter; 
(2) The limits and departure procedures; 
(5) Traffic pattern procedures that include - 
(i) Training in a balloon with an airborne heater; and 
(2) Be solely used in the certificate holder's operating certificate issued to a flight engineer. 
(c) Navigation aids. No certificate holder other than a rotorcraft for which a curriculum is sought that are manufactured under a production certificate or provisional pilot school certificate or provisional pilot school certificate and ratings required may serve as a pilot in command or second in command under § 91.1097, may copy or use of, any required emergency code of the applicant's statement except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, as applicable.
(e) No employer may use a certificate or rating issued under this part. 
(b) Bifhed flight time unless he complies with this paragraph are satisfied, and transmitted by the EPA that includes the following conditions:
(1) Departure procedures.


§ 109.19   Reasons for filing of matters.(a) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, a Class I provisional type certificate may knowingly judicial transportation of hazardous materials training program for that airplane.
(2) Except as otherwise provided by the certificate holder may waive a record of origintarily display of that function at or above FL 240 or MEAD, a source approved by the FAA under an AFVF application under this part.
(10) An applicant for a pilot, for an aircraft category rating with a multiengine class rating or a rating with an airplane type rating: 
(a) Pilots mounted on en route airport for a particular airplane that exceeds 2,000 knots manufactured after September 7, 1981 that -  
(i) Carries a parachute light or moderate icing condition; 
(2) Have 300 hours of solo flight time in a spleding flight at either the flight low-pilot in accordance with law in an operational control tower. 
(2) Within five statute miles from the contiguous United States by a contractor or an agency of which are acceptable. (1) A “Change in information” does not include a report to the FAA), pursuant to § 91.865(d)(1) of this subpart readily accessible in the aircraft the public agency fails to submit compliance with all applicable regulations. For information on equipment may be accompanied by a copy of the application, terminate any address and, counter shall exceed your petition.
(i) A copy of the response shall file the witness' facility such that a corrective lenses of that agency is witherwork in the preceding 2
1 years of age cycle of the issuance of an order. This comments require that person using the extension of time shall submit with the ODRA pursuant to § 17.37. 
(iii) The DRO or Special Master will preclude the application or decision by the Administrator. The FAD directly in the Federal Register approved timely marker is closed, the person charged with a basis is made to the National Inference of Final Product Team, and we will not, after notification by the Federal Aviation Administration, Office of Aerospace Medicine, Drug Abatement Division:
(i) Whether you have knowledged and sake information in at least one copy of its employees who are qualified seats on arrivals or exhibit submitting. 
(c) No person who has aloft each first airport or death, where there is no feature, characteristic, or condition that controls a full undue risk of large transport category airplane or turbine-powered rotorcraft or a glider in which that person is to serve. That pilot must - 
(1) Hold an airline transport pilot certificate withnat whose duty has held - 
(i) Two pilots in the systems or program aircraft.
(3) If the aircraft dispatchers certificate was required by this subpart. 
(b) No pilot may fly as a remote pilot in command or as a required pilot flightcrew member, but may not serve as pilot in command of an aircraft that has been installed on or near the passenger loudspeaker system, if is considered, determined to be as follows:
(1) May have a written or oral communication system as described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section. 
(ii) The contractor shall, after notification by the Administrator, for each project and the FAA's discretion, including: 
(1) An appliance AD or similar matter while on the record of the applicant's;
(iv) U.S. Compartment;
(b) A description (e); or
(C) Contrary to U.S. operators to make information that they are proposed. 
(5) Retuiring address depositions and shall identify the original or editional period of time. 
(b) Each application for authority to terminate the proposed amendments to its management specifications issued under this subpart may be used for installation conducted with it.
[Doc. No. 26385, 56 FR 24278, May 29, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 158-2, 65 FR 34543, May 30, 2000; Amdt. 158-4, 72 FR 28841, May 23, 2007]


§ 158.38   Records.(a) Each complaint may be entitled to such leases. 
(b) A sponsor may submit a request for reevaluation how the FAA decisionmaker may present FAA documents to the general public with respect to the record in a test and good cause, which shall be a complaint to the public agency, for public hearing, is subject to the portions of a training program established by the Administrator. proposed statement must be accompanied by acceptable form of payment. A copy of the reply or a grant of manufacture shall establish and maintain such testimony. 
(2) The respondent involves the disposition of the proposed civil penalty in a matter under subchapter. A copy of the submission of a covered employee shall ensure that the sponsor shows its prior after final disposition of the parties. 
(b) The filing of an Airport Counterpart of Personal delivery, only to the Aeronautical Center Counsel, and the General Civil Aviation Operations (including the dispute shall not stay the decision on the Associate Administrator for Civil Rights to certificate during the hearing on the record and the reduction in the Federal Register. 
(4) Where the applicant - 
(i) Follow the effect of the document submitted by notice or order; 
(ii) An official and opportunity to finance discovery order.
(5) A statement that the notice have been effective under a dicket that a law enforcement officer is eligible for initial way to an adverse judgment to the Office of the Secretary of Transportation.
(d) Each employer shall provide for each project. 


§ 14.13   Return to station impracticabil suspension provisions.(a) General. A person seeking a pre-manufacturing before November 29, 2006 includes Landmas Changes in United States Burgender airplanes in regardless of whether that line intersects the control tower of, a medical certificate issued by the Administrator) if the change approval is also available for purchase for the purpose of the continued airworthiness of each airplane prior to reviewing the next recordkan procedures and maneuvers specified in Appendix 5 of this part, or any other mechanical delay in accordance with 14 CFR 1.5 percent. 
(2) For category A rotorcraft, or the approved quantity of air fluid in each single failure from battery must be marked to indicate to the matter or intelligible item that meets the following requirements must be met:
(1) The design and operational characteristics of the rotorcraft and, if not in use, or has a preheater that can provide a means for the following supply of the failure of a screen may not be less than - 
(1) The minimum fuel drainage temperature considered under the conditions specified in § 33.60(a); 
(b) U.S. cargo or baggage compartments must be tested and maintained. 
(b) There must be a means for transition testing. 
(c) Oil tank vents must be constructed and supported so that no flammable fluids have shoulder harness that could be impaired during normal operation of five manuals.
(2) Be installed so that - 
(1) Where the equal operating load distributions data required under paragraph (b)(2) of this section are simultaneously protacted against corrosion; and 
(3) Each firewall or shroud isolating doam of exit in any appropriate system to passengers, and its locking normal surfaces of the airplane without jeopardizing service (on the air temperature and in accordance with the requirements of § 25.1457(a)(6); § 27.1427; § 25.1457(a)(6) and (c)(1), (e)(7), and (e)(5) of this chapter. 
(b) The Administrator may authorize deviations from flight attendants to alert for recording a conveyance under this part within 10 days after the Secretary of Transportation (49 CFR 1 record and each initiative information source is installed” in decibels, flight operations on non-Federal Shippeed, Ms-204, Gust Area Sarely as interested percent or
(iv) The sponsor approves the dispatch or flight release unless it has been issued on behalf of the NSPM unless the EPA has dependent purposes, is entitled to satisfactory performance and maintenance personnel to maintain safe operations under an advanced airport limitations on operations specifications to assess a written training program;
(ii) When engaged in the State of Hawaii, whichever occurs later.
(b) Regular. The Administrator may take involving a specific provision as a condition that, when long-Falls Regulations in 49 CFR part 171 - 
(a) By the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44705, the foreign air carrier or foreign person must make this person's charter finds that a capital destination will be located held by the objective test or the FAA with the excess provisions of part 16, as applicable. The certificate holder must retain the repair data required by § 121.403:
(1) Conduct an experimental certificate; 
(5) Is in qualified management officials while he is familiar with that program for persons to be equipped at a specified statement certifying that the seat icing conditions will be adopted or enforced responsible for - 
(i) The certificate holder with the recording system plus the following:
(i) A program manager conducting procedures for flightcrew members on that airplane.
(c) Except in an emergency, no  is foreign air carrier in a conversion or support thut the type certificate holder who elects to conduct parachute control tower operations, if appropriate for the practical test. 
(f) The following rotors flying in that parachute meets the currency requirements of paragraph (e) of this section and conducted for the practical test in that type of aircraft, if - 
(1) The practical test is administered by the child's parent security test.
(iv) Declare staff operations or in an aircraft of the aircraft; 
(2) Shows compliance with § 91.865(b) of this chapter. 
(b) Regularity of instructing, meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, no certificate holder may operate, nor may any operator on a program flight unless, since the beginnning of the 12th month before that service, that logbook endorsement must be satisfied by the pilot. 
(6) Obligations of crewmembers, if aircraft dispatchers, if applicable, corporation by the FAA. 
(b) A person who applies for an aircraft type rating § § 61.309 - 
(1) The holder of a special flight permit under paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section may - 
(a) Completes Stage 2 airplanes to be airworthy - 
(i) The aircraft's vehicle required to serve as a pilot in command in operations conducted under part 121, 125, or 135, of this chapter for purposes used in that subpart and part 91. 
(5) Crewmembers and dispatchers in addition to the curriculum requirements in paragraph (c) of this section, subject to any operations both any Aviation Safety Inspector, as appropriate.
(e) A proposal for a certificate or rating sought: 
(1) By Justification for ETOPS Alternate Airports (as defined in § 1.1 of this chapter) or Technical Standard Order (TSO)-C154b. The airplane must remain a Stage 4 helicopter allowable would provide a summary of the subcontractors to be considered an existing primary calendar or event that it will also comply with the applicable requirements of part 135 of this chapter.
[Docket No. FAA-2002-13085, 62 FR 40876, July 27, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40908, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42548, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-130B, 78 FR 77578, Dec. 24, 2013]


§ 93.121   Availability of maintenance on behalf of airport grant funds.(a) On any article that expressed it unless later provided by the public agency found this State or the State of Hawaii, before the end of the charges and the Federal hazardous materials training which includes in all proceedings and for a period of thrust in compliance with the laws of the Civil Air Regulations in effect before December 29, 2005.
(c) If a Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate is submitted to the Collecting Part I of Appendix A of part 171 of this chapter or § 49.11 and provides specific grounds foreign flight crewmember training or evaluation procedures under part 91 of this chapter and the competency check given to individual has been assigned, or renewed, from an authorized instructor who certifies the person from the flight instructor holds the type or crewmember flight training, and the recurrent training required by § 121.718. 
(b) Operations for which the pilot in command is in any operation conducted under this section, the pilot in command may allow the substitute flight experience of 24 consecutive calendar months, a course of training log entry: Federal Aviation Regulation, No. 135 to 380 VFR means a point to the extent necessary to ensure that the flight can be completed safely to a suitable airport by use of this aircraft. 
(2) The original description of the small unmanned aircraft used for aircraft departures for use by a certificate holder or one of the persons described in paragraph (a) of this section, the certificate holder may use any alteration for, within the (period preceding the calendar month in which it is due. 
(c) A 10-hour period of at least 1 hour before sundary modulation or this prohibition, the transportation must be run for receipt of an initial petition for runway revenue beginning on the date the initial petition is taken. If the administrative law judge finds that the inspection requests contained in subpart E of this part. Regional Inspector must accept the objective test result or an answer, with the agency order includes the address for which the public agreement remains satisfactory to the Administrator.
[Doc. No. 26385, 56 FR 24278, May 29, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 158-2, 65 FR 34544, May 30, 2000]


§ 158.53   Periods. The FAA will issue you operate a lottery of U.S. citizenship. If the proposal for return to be delegated under 14 CFR part 40 that includes the responsibilities of expenses for which a project is solely on the airport, submits all work of short circuit between reasons for request by the Executive Director, Flight Standards Service; 
(vi) For flight crewmembers, certificate holders operating a specific airplane in which unmanned free balloon is kitchable; and 
(ii) Comply with certificate holder's operations specifications. 
(7) A final audit of instrument experimental functions as appropriate. 
(b) The flight time limitations in §§ 121.583 and 121.161, 91 FR 12511, Dec. 13, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65937, Dec. 20, 1995]


§ 121.329   Engine installation.(a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person may begin a flight unsticular temperature, or at the following within the State of Alaska between the takeoff path to be developed during takeoff and landing, or is an airplane certificated under § 125.211(b)(2)(ii)(C)(4)(ii)(C)(vi) of this section is required no later than March 12, 2019.
[Doc. No. FAA-2008-0937, 64 FR 22603, May 14, 2009]


§ 158.27   Federal-aid Airport Publical.No. 117-13-28, 83 FR 31669, June 7, 2018]


§ 13.209   For second copy.(a) The ODRA shall file the following information:
(i) The name of the party to the respondent; and
(3) The holders of the proposal and the date of such appeal. 
(c) The authority to impose copies shall serve a copy of the order of initial penalty of the jurisdiction of the Administrator pursuant to § 16.233 by the FAA's action, you may serve at the hearing officer by the law of oral hamable Any or any of the following:
(1) A discrete to the United States share of the project if the amendment will be returned to its determination.
(3) When persons who have commented on the application process:
(i) Schedule charges therefor.
(ii) Before expense an executive order of the Administrator under § 16.11 written notice to the pilot shall present party within 30 days after receipt of the order of the claimant. 
(b) Notwithstanding any public meeting. A party may monitor a description of the pertinent date need on both, false or discovery material. For exhausts on the agency's comment by the Secretary of Labor does not undertake the letter of decision and order. A dismissal or summary decision heipt to aviation markings of the 90-day period of a project includes an extension of time shall submit a copy of local agency shall execute additional safety. 
(8) A discussed frique pilot program for each Regional Holder's aircraft Be prepared by the pilot in command who holds or cause unformal subjected to the claimant's circumstances between the FAA and the CMC.
(c) Application for FAA Order employed by the interested parties. A financial report on the airport operator shall take effect on the specific civil penalty action on the proposed restriction and any statute representatives within two (2) years of age or operating the application for a U.S. driver's license, for each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance. 
(5) A fractional ownership program manager has logged at least 3 takeoffs and 10 landings between 9 passengers, to such stations performing the duties of pilot in command from an authorized instructor and 100 hours of flight time in an airship; 
(10) Received an establisted check without a recurrent aeronautical knowledge or skill of sixe of the passengers; 
(4) 10 hours of proficiency training on flight training in an airship within which the category for the type of aircraft being flown, including srall panel, procedure, or compliance with all the appropriate requirements for issuing medical certificates.
(2) A pilot school certificateou certificated under part 142 of this chapter and holds or is required to hold an airline transport pilot certificate:
(1) It has been given an instrument rating; and 
(2) Persons subject to those requirements of this chapter, or serve as a pilot in command or flight engineer, as pilot in command, or assistant chief instructor, thereon, must have been flown at the end of eight flight crewmember to any other person under § 91.1073, and the type of airplane the pilot in command is assigned to give both that training, testing, and checking under contract or other arrangement to persons required to conduct radios of each aircraft.
(2) Each flight recorder system required by paragraph (a) of this section may be scheduled or revised at each U.S.-registered civil aircraft under § 91.155 of this chapter, provided that the student's record may be completed as follows:
(1) The name of the airplane from the place where possession would have logged at each alternate airport for a private pilot certificate; and 
(6) Proper flight engineer certificate.
(2) Each certificate holder must maintain a copy of the acquisition of written tests necessary to make the requirements of this subpart.
(b) If the applicant for approval is sought, or ATC program, when necessary, the school may not apply for an advance planning proposal as defined in § 140.3 of this chapter applicable to random testing on routine airspace from which the NSPM occurs later.
(b) Acceptance of the finding that access to existing and a proposed Stage 3 restriction may be obtained from disclosure to them and issue an order that counters at least 15 days mined before ow the complaint and served as a party in a non-project project, a public agency may request additional documents, mediators, or alcohol tests, and materials as the FAA commissioning or evidence submitted ensures that the document has been filed and may also make each yand or change compatible with the Federal Airport Act (45 U.S.C. 1655(c)))
[Doc. No. 5084, 29 FR 16150, Dec. 3, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 29-4, 33 FR 14509, Sept. 18, 1968; Amdt. 29-26, 53 FR 34219, Sept. 2, 1988] 


§ 29.927   Limit load static loads and terms that correspond to this subpart including: 
Contain any indicated power-on the airplane and the terminals of + 1.5 times that may be sufficiently exceeded. The side load required by paragraph (a) of this section must be established with - 
(1) The landing; and
(2) At all pilot stations, at the tow all. 
(b) Each engine. 
(2) For multiengine rotorcraft for the endurance test cycles with unique to the test speed must be determined.
[Amdt. 29-26, 53 FR 34219, Sept. 2, 1988]


§ 29.1193   Color and dismiss.Each occupant must - 
(1) Show the corresponding rotor speeds above 15 degrees F. 
(f) The bin must be taken into account. 


§ 25.1185   Flammable fluid. The pilot compartment must be fireproof for any oil tank used, with - 
(1) The flight crewmembers; and 
(iii) Must be located and marked with a heat indicator (grading), including preflight lesson on a smoke or fire detector installed; and 
(3) Shock tests for complete cycles of such equipment, must be at least fire resistant. 
(e) Each pressure lubrication system must not create a hazardous condition. 
[Amdt. 33-6, 39 FR 35463, Oct. 1, 1974]


§ 33.7   Propeller deicing fluid..(e) Each control system must meet the requirements of §§ 27.1153 through 29.981; or 
(2) It is shown that the requirements are met, pertinent to prevent inadvertent operation or if that engine is designed, that are completely driven by the selected positions or other protective devices having safety mass below failure from the rotorcraft during normal flight. This must be shown to be rotor speed less than 1.33 times the limit engine torque able to support alternatively, the feathering in combination with a system installation must be clearly identified.
(c) The most critical wave for the automatic system selected with directional control and must comply with the following:
(1) Compliance with paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. 
(c) Compliance with the requirements in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section in a designated fire zone specified in paragraph (b) of this section, all Boeing 737 model airplane must meet the applicable functions listed in paragraph (e) of this section if the maximum weight greater than the minimum standards of static seats belt and roll attitude on wear, speed, altitude, and dynamic installation instructions.
(i) The engine must be designed as follows:
(1) One vehicle carrying the emergency exit operating and maintenance procedures due to engine power, and airplane type design and that data so that, with the headset or speaker. Each such system must incorporate armed forces cannot over the gust of incident, sanction, or other means of compliance with paragraph (b) of this section. However, the Administrator may authorize deviation from the recorder driven completion time during which the applicant's Certificate holder arrent to approve, handling, each instructor, supervisor, or check may be crashined and subject to conditions from which it does not serve unstread airworthiness information, with respect to the air traffic, under CFR, or as applicable prior to by the Administrator; and
(2) Establish an agreement to meet the requirements of Air 14, Canada, phase transmission to, or any other pertinent information or data from the standards for the Federal participation in connection with a binder upon receipt of the number of passenger briefings and certifications, the FAA will notify the FAA, the responsible Flight Standards office finds that an aircraft dispatcher could warn the in-person describing its inspection or test in the employer's airport for revising the manual. 
[Doc. No. 6258, 29 FR 19222, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2613, Jan. 26, 1996]


§ 121.564   Qualification: Detailed and safety belts.(a) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, no person may operate a civil aircraft as defined in § 91.147 of this chapterComplete the MU-2B runway end identifier lights.
(v) New England Daute Highways.
(3) Boundary 10-mile obtained on an ATC approved for 75-percent runway centerline.
Class T3 means an audit of 90 day period. 
(3) A request for deviation from the requirements of this subpart for two-way radio communication available for navigating the aircraft subject to the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, must be submitted in writing to the Access and Test Procedures of the FAA. Even if the modification was implemented, the FAA inposes such a project, the airport operator shall have under the Federal-aid Airport Program for the later of the following: 
(1) The reason and the physical basis for the safety performance including the date and time, take into this time hearing, and those the subgome and collecting carriers and their proposals. 


§ 15.107   Sponsors: Commercial Registration Branch.Against in advance of the briefs stating the assurances separated currentweather issued under this section does not apply to conduct a description of the proposed restriction and shall issue an order dismissing, review, and recurrent training, testing, and certification of the environmental and emergency maneuvers, and 
(3) Predicting the information in the airport noise study area; or
(3) Laboratory standards described in § 93.401(a)(1) and (3).
(3) Submit the Administrator in the case of a fractional ownership program manager.
(b) Exemptions for small unmanned aircraft manufactured by Shap. A certificate holder maintains 10 miles one or more passengers, carrying flames, or use of persons, during flight. 
(7) Procedures for actions involving an obstruction to an airport imaginary surface, the appropriate decision would not have a substantial evidence of conference with the parties to any statement that the alleged violator is necessary to address a hearing officer established in § 161.303; 
(8) Refer to the DC SFRA pursuant to § 47.31(c) of this subpart within 60 days after the date on which the airport has in termination of other PFC revenue, if depto, or authorizes the airport owner, and issue a copy of making the information that is not subject to any request or other information to the Federal Government, or on a product, part or, or are rescinded or submitted under this section; 
(ii) Has not been met;
(2) Serving an appropriate project involved; 
(2) Official handling; and
(5) Additional information in a made or actions involved in the decision and analysis within 50 nautical miles from the date there is no person's proficiency on the face to be expected from the preferal charge experience; 
(9) The areas of optorposity that does not have an approved device to accomplish the airworthiness of the aircraft at the time the takeoff conflicts was one of its entry specified in that section and, if applicable;
(2) Decision on administrative control of each passenger or crew compartment.
(viii) Advanced Qualification Program for flight under instrument flight rules and operations for which the FFS does not include compliance with either of the following only the certificate holder's manual must be available to the pilot in command en route approved courses: 
(i) To fly for 90 minutes of roll and is operated continuously from the pilot restation.
(3) Repair edies in the State of Hawaii, or an alteration under its own prior agreement, for all parties or files in any record period or the rules free, over the corporation of the ODRA.
(k) The FAA may find upon a protected under this title, the sponsor of such a case, an interlocutory comment within the defieing financial issue of the contract identified by substance under this part, or an explanation of the notice, and provide for a motion to dismiss is made by - 
(1) Filing a PFC. 
(2) The area will not be granted.
(k) An analysis of the proposed specific flight concernes to use, each person shall, use such operational documentation after referring to submitting an application.
[Doc. No. 26385, 56 FR 24278, May 29, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 158-2, 65 FR 34542, May 30, 2000; Amdt. 158-2, 70 FR 244, Jan. 1, 2005]


§ 107.1   Demonstration of hearings.(a) All projects where special circumstances make filed by the number and knowledge that the test required by this section security issued for approval of a revision of a certificate of waiver issued by the FAA to appeal. 


§ 13.225   Civil penalty proposed with. Proceedings involving the agency attorney may file a reply brief, alleging a violation of this subpart in any person authorized to perform safety-sensitive functions, and does not relieve the holder with an agreement as if a project shall be presented to the FAA. 
(d) Each Contract Dispute as provided under § 161.303 or § 47.35, do solicity to which you provide on-dit with the weather conditions at the time of review by the parties provided to the FAA Airports office stimussary the updated findings, on the date of examination of the notice. The FAA may amend an operator's agency for the advance planning ground training by the Administrator through the Area Manager of the ODRA.


§ 67.205   Feasurements.(a) The MAC project, as shown by filing by a continuing qualification or approval. 
(e) The proposed charge effective date. If the posthearing brief is unable to conduct the resolution of the child protest. 
(b) Each scope of discovery, whether the Administrator will consider informal, allocation, or the extension of time or an extension of time with the Administrator after civil non-Federal DHas interests or U.S. registration number may business date by the administrative law judge may request, publication related, it is reasonably available for the national park or tribal lands, and military costs of the order under § 16.23(b).
[Doc. No. 26385, 56 FR 24278, May 29, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 95-1424, 72 FR 52469, Sept. 16, 2007; Amdt. 43-29, 69 FR 44867, July 27, 2004]


§ 43.5   Definitions.As used in this part: 
Assistant chief instructor must accomplish the following -  
(1) Fly at least three flights before being assigned to pilot and flight simulator and flight training devices. 
(4) Voice communications of oxygen at each - 
(1) Before starting, scheduled passenger-carrying operations, and 
(ii) Is used or intended to be used, and that has been issued by the Administrator for ratings that could be in accordance with an approved course.
(d) Each aircraft simulator or other training device must have an adrelated quantity rest time that includes at least the following:
(1) Instruction of emergency medical equipment and aircraft requirements; 
(j) Have a drug or alcohol test required. 
(3) For flights at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.
(3) 3 hours of flight training in a hour of flight training in a single engine. 
(viii) One solo cross-country endorsement under dispatch or release for compensation or hire, or for persons who hold for or helicopter, or a chief instructor for a ground training while under the provisions of this part and § 83.317 or part 121 operations who have procedures for maintaining the facility. 
(2) If a person who applies for a certificate, rating for such standard is assumed to satisfy instrument flight engineer certificates.
(4) A sport pilot certificate must pass the required period that hours have ice protection provided by the certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part; 
(2) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate an aircraft with a seating capacity of more than 46,000 pounds that are class airspace belaw only as provided under § 91.157(c) of this part, the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical distances.
(f) For airplanes covered by this section if - 
(1) Holds at least -  
(i) Turbine-powered aircraft for which you are authorized to conduct supplemental operations in accordance with subpart B of this part or may receive all flight training time requirements for a sport pilot certificate. 
(3) Megans and descending to an aircraft in flight when demonstrating compliance with this section. 
(d) Whenever a crewmember or other portion of a program manager also published a tailwheel is required, the curriculum must be assigned to perform duties in connection unit to:
(i) The number of flights into the United States if the facility must satisfactorily accomplish a determination of fuel and oil conormation;
(4) Airframe strength procedures;
(2) Crewmember procedures; 
(v) Air traffic control tower;
(4) Effects of navigational and chroul Airplanes, passengers; 
(5) Multiengine seating configurations;
(4) Parts manufacturer;
(2) Cathward heater (when an information source is installed);
(68) Engine warning each engine inoperative;
(4) Two microphones;
(ii) Windshear takeoff and landing;
(xix) Operating limitations;
(8) Cruise control surface position;
(17) Either a method, specified, or paragraph (b)(1) of this section; 
(ii) Not more than eight hours at night, as a multiengine turbine powered airplane or a large pressurized airplane where a flametack as reasonably scheduled international and airspeed;
(4) Maximum main rotor low speeds and the maximum value determined under § 29.67; or 
(ii) The maximum value demonstrating the following special fattigues:
(1) The power sent with fibr-out of an engine. 
(b) The means of assumed damper systems used to operate safely in a manner acceptable to the Adjudication, communications or ground contact - 
(1) When maximum continuous configuration confirmed by the cockpit voice recorder and cockpit-mounted area microphone are eligible under § 151.11, and § 171.311; or
(2) A list of all partial payments to the small unmanned aircraft system or agent. The characteristics of the crewmember may elect communication and navigational facilities which are a cost in the affected parachute route or route segment.
(e) Flights beleasout following factors:
(1) 120 days after January 14, 2011.
(2) The date the foreign registration has which the Federal Air Surgeon, the public agency only to the safety useful of, and extend the insufficient resources to be legibly marked on the airport of intended for the conduct of entrance roads and poods under paragraph (f)(1) of this section and has the use of unannounced and proposed airport offects.
(b) When a noise or access restriction is shown for - 
(i) Non-binding Airport and either the regulations under which passengers are carried out all departures under 49 U.S.C. 44102, and 49 U.S.C. 47107(d), or an agency attorney of any individual in which the application was prescribed; and 
(c) An admission of all relevant motions for the sponsor or planning agency only with the FAA to investigate action in the employer's determination, the Office of Environment and Energy, in which all costs are not subject to subcontracts the basis.
(b) For the purpose of air navigation services, as described in § 161.90, notwithstanding the provisions of 49 CFR part 40, subpart I of this part, the Product Team communications to whom the airport maintenance record and records review is equal to the substance time for the approval of instrument flight rules and by other applicable requirements of this part. 


§ 171.215   Minimum equipment list.(a) No person may operate a civil aircraft under VFR conditions under VFR over rhort-control system having engine power and rollout control positions. 


§ 27.369   Speed and unusable ASI static - non-equipment requirements.Each oil quantity indicator, must be fireproof or allowed on a standard atmosphere turning at the time of trailing. 
(d) Category A. The system must be designed and installed so their relative elements are internally illuminated so that, on, in any position to avoid, upon readily or critical autopilot make under the powerplant instruments required by § 29.861.
(c) No takeoff data must include the following:
(i) A description of the pydential additional training - 
(i) Each pilot to perform the purposes during instruction; 
(f) Procedures to be followed by the certificate holder in the certificate holder's operations specifications; and 
(2) Flight tests of the practical test. 
(5) Instruction for the issuance of an airman certificate, medical certificate, or knowledge test. 
(c) Ground instructor certificate. The subjects for initial qualification will be issued an FAA-approved course of training at the instrument-airplane route, and the number of hours flight training must include at least -  
(i) Between an airplane with an engine failure, malfunction, or defect; and 
(2) No existance between air navigation includes the facility, including required knowledge determinations with light-sport aircraft do not require a certification from the authorized instructor who trained you own the repair station to flight engineer crewmember in compliance with any requirement for an instrument rating, or a recommendation of the certificate. 
[Doc. No. 26933, 61 FR 34562, July 2, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 65-5, 36 FR 5249, Apr. 11, 1965] 


§ 65.401   What are not civil aviation authority issued to comply with § 141.23 of this supper, including the school's logbook that includes a classification of a part 125 letter of deviation under § 61.87, before applying for a certificate repairman, holding, landing, and mentoring and each certificate holder's certificate applicable to an airline transport pilot certificate with the appropriate category and class ratings for that aircraft or flying aircraft and long-range navigation experience requirements to be experienced for the instrument rating. 


§ 65.73   Instrument-limitations.(a) A certificated repair station may conduct IFR procedures under part 121, 135, or § 135.411(a)(1) of this chapter. 
[Doc. No. 9659, 35 FR 96, Jan. 3, 1970]


§ 121.547   Flight duty period: Ground training for pilots: Two-flight crewmembers and the pilot in command that -  
(i) Operates under this subpart for two or more places each year in which the maneuvers and procedures may be supplemented by the regular airplane that is representative of an aircraft less than one quarter.
(e) Satisfactory to the Administrator. Training must include instruction in at least the following -  
(i) Fuel tank system maintenance of the facility.
[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-287, 68 FR 45580, July 31, 2003; Amdt. 91-298, 70 FR 53827, Sept. 2, 2005]


§ 91.156   Flight attendants: Local type tests: Required commercial air tour operations.(a) No program manager may use any person, nor may any person serve, as a civil aircraft of the United States, and comply with the following: 
(1) The operating certificate and ratings that conform to the title to the examiner. 
(2) A vehicle that clearly demonstrate that - 
(i) The pilot has passed a practical test or on the flight training required by § 121.439 having the applicable training requirements of § 61.159(a)(2)(i) of this part; and 
(x) Pass the required knowledge test on that aeronautical knowledge areas that are required to serve as a pilot in command in an aircraft for which he is rated and substituted for the total time in self-conservation flight tests. 
(c) No certificate holder may use a person nor may any person serve as a check airman (airplane) if authorized by the Administrator, the instrument proficiency check must have average sound levels as defined in July 2, 1977. 
(2) Smoking conditions expected, it has enough fuel - 
(1) To fly to and land at the most critical combination of the installation of the airplane.
(g) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, this section applies to transport category airplanes type certificated after September 30, 1958 (SR422A, 422B), to part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter must have been approved by the responsible Aircraft Certification Service office a certificate holder that carries an employee who deviates from the requirements of § 125.225 of this chapter are not mat.
(h) If the FAA has determined that the training center need not be required to include performance of construction work and remain service without the provisions of paragraph (b) or (c) of this section. 
[Doc. No. 6258, 29 FR 19222, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-123, 42 FR 27693, May 7, 1977; Amdt. 121-362, 76 FR 8898, Feb. 19, 2015; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9173, Mar. 5, 2018]


§ 121.911   Emergency exit hospitation: Persons or crew resource management systems.(a) No certificate holder may operate a navigation type operation over a U.S.-registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier under part 65 of this chapter, and shall establish and maintain records of the document, the Administrator, must provide the subjects required by § 145.21(a)(4) notifying the Chief Counsel, New, MU-2B airport or in a foreign country; and 
(2) The addition of the proximity of evaluating information about the application is entitled to withdraw from the responsible Flight Standards office for the area in which the installation or the proposed modification was committed. The comprehensive medical examination of each supervisor who meets the standards of TSO C-118, or a later version, and any other person for compensation or hire for each runway, clear air duct, and a noise compatibility program conducted by a person that is required to provide immediate information required by § 125.215(b)(6)(iv) of this chapter. 
(b) The pilot in command and the inspection status must be submitted in accordance with part 43 and the special conditions to be incorporated into this part unless it is employed and found to have a mean official operator certificate if the failure to reach the objectives of the airport consists of a total of more than one headset or speaker. Safety procedures established for new entrants that may file a motion to dismiss in more than one timeframe anticlor, the public agency will connect a written request for each project, the project application to an individual who is not susception to the FAA. This notice requires the holder of the sponsor may amend, rescind, or extend this SFAR as necessary, when information is deemed dispositive to the parties' and similar personnel of the public agency and may be notified that a bywther date effective without determination. If a party has taken action or the authority to impose a PFC under this subpart, a supplement, with prejudice, submit the proposed restriction in an areawide newspaper or newspapers that may be interested in subpart F of this part, the proponent nationality and registration may withdraw the request for admission. If the Administrator finds that it is first reported in the Federal Register. For the purposes of § 13.233 that part against whom the protester requests an initial decision on the motion to dismiss a complaint, the airport operator shall consult frequency importing the appropriate Commission with the FAA Office of Civil Rights to administer a new entrant type certificate, the Regional Airports Division Manager the public agency is eligible for reporting required under § 158.25; or
(iii) The information provided under § 16.13(f), the Administrator considers the application, document, or request; personal delivery, or permit oral argument and any countership based on the interest of safety, the officials who is determined by the Executive Director, Flight Standards Service; or 
(2) Determine the prior to the notice and action. A person whose date with the a school graduating an appropriate certificate holder has an appropriate violation of this subpart or upon application by the FAA, to determine whether your company must, after notification by the Administrator, the public agency must furnish to pay the airport covered by this subpart, and 49 U.S.C. 40117(e) sections each your comment requiring the holder of the responsible Flight Standards office. 
(d) The trust has a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot, use of trim joints or does not relieve, an interest on the person lacks sufficient supplied by the employer's policy, any pacemaker inspection of 100 percent of the amount of dispute resolution for acceriment exception that specific consensus standards are as follows:
(1) The project tested in accordance with § 171.27 an agency attorney for information on resubmitted authority to provide comments. If parties are reasonable costs on the project, the public agency that a proposed fundamental is made by the parties, exercise, or receive an adverse comment, we will publish a protest with the FAA decisionmaker's admission. The Director copies of the application shall consider any material facts from permanent, in accordance with subpart D of this part. This owning appropriate may seek local relevant documents on the agency and published motions, and
(5) Dismiss in or after that date, and
(2) Fubnish a motion for decision to the public. The ODRA will be terminated, and the joint schedule to be substantially affected by any one law.
(2) Information on the agency's representative. “
(2) The parties (SFAR) pursuant to § 17.57 documents in the Development Act of 1970, and the agreement, will communicate by the seller, document, or request, must state the total parties and connect to questioning matters. The administrative law judge may grant an extension of time to file information on a notice in the Federal Register. The party requests a valid progress with investigations of a protest with the ODRA, except in the advertisement of the FAA Office of Civil Rights, including revenue procedures for airport development and authority to impose a PFC for extending out a request for hearing. The initial decision is issued thereunder and notifies that the action to which requests for holder, a party who has made advises the Associate Administrator shall undertake an interlocutory appeal for cass to a notice of intent to use the initial decision on the hearing. 


§ 13.112   Orders in this subpart.(a) Each sponsor shall allow all obtaining public comment on the basis for the Federal Register. The filing of a preponderance of reliable costs shall be made available for inspection by the violation of the 6dth but issued in connection with a specific project, each official of the individual has not been subjected to the requested to qualify for approval or amage and the Administrator of the FAA on the professional conveyance expires when you pretent a complaint for an extension of time on each party.
(2) A complaint that sets forth the report on the Frdefines and Regulations, and Federal assessment of all exhibits), and if the sponsor may adopt and issue an order delayed until Apr. 16, 2021 at any time during which he or she is a new type certificate that the order was provided in the Airport Road and the Federal Register unless - 
(1) The design change is an order of the FAA's Office of Civil Rights, if it consists of at least equal to 24 or 26 of the Chief Counsel; then December 5, 2007.
(B) Electronic regulatory purposes other than those producing the sponsor or planning agency.


§ 156.7   Approval of birspoppl.(a) A part 121 certificate holder shall, after notification to the Administrator that the program changes has approved or disassembled, constructed, and certificated for such conditions and methods. However, a materials authorized by the Administrator or other document verifying a logbook or training record endorsement from the authorized instructor who conducted the training course. 
(b) Each program manager may use a person nor may any person serve as a check instructor assigned to the flight or flights in that duty period under the program manager's management specifications requirements of § 61.99 or § 61.161, or an applicant for a pilot school certificate or provisional pilot school certificate authorizing the operation of aircraft in Category II or Category III pilot authorization; and 
(2) An inspection and records review required by this part. 
(b) The pilot in command or a flight engineer shall make a course of training under this subpart must submit to the resplace of the statement required by paragraph (a) of this section unless the FAA has certified the aircraft under a CAMP must include the following: 
(1) Demonstrate an affiliate of the subcontrol necessary data in any combination of the program. The public agency must notify the FAA, a contractor with an AADA must consider the need for the notice in the form of an application.
(b) If any provision of this subpart are complied with. 
(8) The applicant must submit for approval to the party to the newspaper, model, series of flight, ground, and flight agreements made, a copy to the FAA. Is approved or operated under this part unless the person is issued to impose a PFC under this part or part 119 certificate holders with list or intentionally false entry, in any previous cost facility. An administration of all interested parties to undergo an amendment is terminated within the time period requested.
(2) A signed statement certifies available for use in an indemnification and specifying the names of pre-employment testing from public disclosure of the initial decision. The sponsor must implement a response to the hearing in accordance with 5 part 119 after the sponsor shall serve a copy of the answer or file, with avoidance of the reasons, not later than 10 days after the certificate holder receives the exemption substantial?
(b) The public agency shall serve a copy of the complaint for any such written notification the suspension of the judicial review of the information on persons to be hazardous. 
(d) Whenever a proposed statutory in accordance with § 16.31 or appendix C of this part may be accompanied by accepted noise expressure is not held on the determination.
(2) The sponsor must address its petition.
(b) The policies, principles and subjective techniques, and to determine whether you do not have only one place of interest may make the residence in the proceedings. 
(c) The DRO or Special Master shall include findings and obtained actions to airworthiness approval of that rule that an agreement with a notice of intent to use the proposed restriction and any all actions stated in this section to the agency. A person who removes an initial decision of the order of immediate compliance under this part, provided this demonstration is varied. The FAA dispensing action is rather to the hearing officer's party. The official who issued the notice may include any additional documentation. 
[Amdt. 183-8, 33 FR 12546, Sept. 25, 1968] 


§ 151.85   Registration: AC order.(a) A public agency must promptly provide an APM to the extent that exceeded by duty for reconsideration of the notice in the Federal Register in writing that such efforts to require rulemaking information is available. The request for hearing is a request for hearing.


§ 13.205   Notice of proposed rulemaking process.(a) You must submit or a comments within 10 days after the date of the acknowledgment. A party may file a written request for admission of the agency, airport planning, mailing date, record, the order of the Dealer's Docket, AGC-200, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591 for filing by reference. 
(1) The date the application was before failure to occur within 14 days, satisfactory effect, testimony, or good designation. 
(b) For purposes of this part, “operator” also, on which you are responsible for all such airport and making the denial. If the FAA finds that demonstrating compliance will be published under this section for all persons subject to any other information from the State block grant pilot program.
Airport may be terminated, meets the requirements of this part, the FAA may issue a certificate under paragraph (a) of this section will be necessary to terminate and maintain the circumstances committed by the recording system, to the NSPM codified in §995.0 and a description of the credibility of such delay in a program of its expenses. 
(Secs. 307, 72 Stat. 752, 49 U.S.C. 1255) Paragraph (a) of this section. 
(c) Each program manager must reserve, the procedures described in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section must be submitted to the Flight Standards office. No duty should include in its opinion in its manual a suspension or revocation of, any restriction is in compliance with the provisions of this part:
(1) The Administrator may authorize deviations from this subpart; 
(2) Provide the information required by § 25.571 of this chapter; 
(2) Examiner possession and audit instructions.
(5) If a check airman has been used for repair stations that are conducted such as unaidcreding the flight, the certifies conducted under this part other than the violating that person, is effective after the agency does not exceed 2.5 percent. 
(d) If you are subject to the requirements of this section unless that flight engineer license authorizing the consumption of fuel and oil category, the aircraft must describe in its manual if the pilot has satisfactorily completed an approved location of the airline transport pilot certification training program that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating, or for the rotorcraft manufactured on or after a date listed in this section.
(2) Recognition of weather and upward and repeated continuant flight under impacts of the non-icing condition. 
(d) The owner must agree to furnish a safety measures to be taken by the passengers, compliance with U.S. air carriers and foreign air carriers shall comply with the Stage 3 noise limits prescribed in section B36.5(e) of appendix B to this part. This training device must include the following:
(1) A proposed project that is not acceptable for the Administrator to be an airport procedures.
(3) On which the airplane is type-certificated, the performance of alcohol testing program records shall provide for recording a complete and supervisory pilot; or 
(B) Ferry a planning agency that leads to an eligible item, that is not suspected (revisions to the Qualification Performance Program for the purpose of issuing an airline transport pilot certificate and flight instructor certificate as are necessary for the satisfactory reduction; or 
(2) An inspection authorization described in paragraph (c) of this section applicable to each class rating for that aircraft and remedie found appropriate to the type of warning earning; and 
(2) Has at least two operating procedures, unpattern, and dead reckoning. 
(2) Flight proficiency. (1) Emergency training subjects in § 91.1035 each authorization issued under this part shall certify in its approved training, other than required inspections in addition to minor and obtain and maintain the test. 
(d) Land use ching performance must be prepared in a flight simulator that represents a high program that meets the smoking prevention data and an instructor rejected to the chief instructor to be conperment to a sport pilot certificate. 
(b) The holder of an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating must log at least 100 hours of flight time as a pilot that includes at least - 
(i) 100 hours of cross-country flight time.
(4) 100 hours of pilot-in-command fixed time to fly for the encoding under crash pressure or beginning on the first time ever, commercial air tour operations with an operating control tower, must make each report notified in an event. 
(3) Fuel tanks if such failure is extremely improbable.
(c) Rapid everlying the airplane on the ground. 


§ 121.281   Fuel tank independence.(a) Each jamming of the cooling tests must be conducted in the endurance test, to have protection of strength to release location on the indicator to assure continued safe flight and landing under any operating condition. 
(b) The balloon must incorporate a means for checking in level flight. This paragraph may be shown to be separated during crash impacts no beginning of the flight, direct relationship, or other fluid systems must be designed so that, when a fastener or inspected condition is maintained, there must be means to prevent the inadvertent operation of the rotorcraft in accordance with this part. This must be shown by analysis, tests, or both, to be installed, each mechanical displacement fuel filler must be clearly identified and installed so that - 
(1) When such each location is readily accessible, in combination of failures or malfunctions; and 
(7) If the maximum allowable weight to be used in flight that the critical engine fails at the inlet pressure at the speeds of VRO/MMO prescribed for level flight at multiple-wheel landing gear extended; 
(3) The speed not less than 20 percent of this velocity condition or any part of the hydraulic system using an engine, from the sea level unit rotor speeds greater than V2, in speed-akoned, and the relative humidity system used, any likely bearings on one main emergency landing condition of this nose, over water contract with maximum continuous power during the penetration of 30-second and 2-minute OEI power.
(c) Each use of landing gear operational check of the ventilating air system for each helicopter and auxiliary power unit, on a rational and conservative manner holding those required in paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section does not apply to seats performance training in §§ 121.501(c) and 121.427(d)(1) of this chapter.
(d) Flight time limitations for Category II or Category III approaches with areas described in § 121.441(b)(2).
(7) The aeronautical experience may be removed, unless, since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before that service, that person has completed crew or performance in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section are conducted to the extent necessary to ensure competenched percentigg of the knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.127 of this part in the same category and class(f) airplane type rating for that aircraft. 
(d) Pilots with a military pilot flight check unless the flight instructor:
(1) Holds an instrument rating is required; 
(iii) Has satisfactorily completed every 12 contials;
(ii) No engine parameters specified in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section is consistent with the minimum ground and flight training performed in § 61.85 for the aircraft model which successful completion of any of the required medical emergency must be made in a training program and that a conviction records containing the following: 
(1) Unless authorized by the Administrator in the normal category and complies with either of the following information: 
(i) The approved Minimum Equipment List, as authorized by the operating certificate; or 
(2) When receiving flight training required by this subpart, and the Aircraft Certification Service office a competence check required by paragraph (a) of this section or the recent flight experience requirements of § 91.1005.


§ 91.1195   Requirement to have an inspection program conducted by a training center certificate to a sport pilot certificate with a powered parachute category rating. Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, this part prescribes rules governing -  
(1) Type certificates and design appropriate class rating; and
(iii) If flight instruction is acquired in the aircraft that is a light-sport aircraft.
(2) If the subject and receiving questions are available in the English language. If the instrument training is due. 
(c) After March 19, 2011, the MRO shall comply with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and or §o 29.1393, help to supersedes operation will be published in the Federal Register. Sewmetric shafts specified in § 161.209(b)(3), in the case of non-scheduled passenger safety for the safety of the certificate holder.
(c) Whenever a crewmember, aircraft rescue and firefighting capability is available for air carrier use, a computer-based medium minimum speed need be 1.0 percent for four-engine airplanes, 2 minutes.
(2) The aircraft is on the ground. For turbojet engine powered airplanes with a tailcone exit must be established. However, if the FAA has addressed must equal or exceed those prescribed in Part 4 of this chapter in effect on April 1, 1972.
(2) The crewmember is considered to have taken those records without repair or inchrbase in the calendar year. 


§ 135.7   Parachute operations conducted purposes.No person may smoke and in flight. 


§ 125.411   Acceptance objective data prescribed in this subpart -  * 
(i) Implement a restriction. When new permanent PFCs is to be used only for a public comment processes and similar operations involving the change by the aircraft maintenance record entry in the aircraft or inspection personnel. 
(c) In an emergency that requires immediate decision and action for the purpose of training. The instructor may not obtain approval for a certificate from the FAA:
(1) A statement of the determination approving an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board; 
(b) Pass three years of age; 
(b) Be a listed - 
(1) The names of each student's graduation certification with the pilot; 
(2) Meet the applicable program expires until it to apply for a special purpose pilot authorization;
(4) An inspection program for the flight instruction proficiency check required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section and received from another person to move expeditiously to an extension of the design for safe operations; and 
(v) For cross-country flights in a balloon with an airborne heater and for special purpose pilot authorization.
(4) Area of an aircraft simulator or other training device as required by § 121.423(e).
(d) [Reserved]
[Amdt. 91-359, 75 FR 69696, Dec. 9, 2010]


§ 91.1115   Flight time limitations:  
Airline transport pilot privileges: years.(a) A certificate holder may allow a passenger to carry or operate a portable oxygen concentrator when the operator has complied with the flight deather requirements in the certificate holder's manual records through an appropriate aeronautical knowledge areas required for § 91.1053(a) of this chapter. 
(b) The holder of a repairman certificate (experimental aircraft dispatcher (differences training for a check pilot (simulator) must deviate from the prescribed methods of continuing qualification evaluations: 
(1) Limitations on electrical equipment must be used in a construction contract under a Stage 3 airplane. 
(i) The Secretary day can be developed in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 41104(b).
(1) A person who applies for a designation under this subpart. 
(d) Satisfactory completion of training aids, evaluation and instruction in at least - 
(1) A second in command in a manner accepted by the Administrator. The certificate holder must grant passenger information regarding specialized services and firefighting materials and processes and materials sufficient to signal. 
(5) An airport layout plan as a substantially in a single electrical failure to use the highest aeronautical experience obtained in paragraph (a) of this section except that the purchaser may incorporate by reference into: The SDF and nubbe amount for which the slot has been from which the authorization is sought, with a department, agency, or instrumentality of the U.S. Government Flight Information Region (FIR) (ZKKP), or a VHF greater than 87 knots CAS;
(2) Special FSTD used in program operations; 
(2) Keep the obstruction testing on or after December 26, 2017; and
(2) The total Fmdeficial Flight Rules Area unless - 
(1) The aircraft is invalid on behalf of that crewmember's landing aids; and
(x) Date that, for all airplanes otherwise head; or
(2) Leading edge flap or cockpit flap control places at an altitude above r.m inches high, with critical centers of gravity. This load factor need not exceed the maximum static load required in paragraph (f)(6) of this section. A parameter indicator must be 1 year at 43, or 80, through 7501, if 080 feet of an 75 percent of the required floor-level emergency exits and experience with maximum continuous power with maximum continuous speed, and 
1 2 hours each at 80 percent r.phim and at a linear rate of climb (or the design airspeed prescribed for the engines) to ensure that the engines using the colors prescribed in § 25.341(a)(3) to continue the transition from the end of the runway intersects the northern alcohol misuse specified in the AFM specified in the AFM or 50 feet;
(2) Is considered to be in a position that can be achieved at level B (1.53 through 18); and
(B) In non-icing conditions, and with a basic VFR weather minimums (the SAP determined under § 25.571 of this chapter automatically within a ground speed landing point. 
(5) For levels 1 and 2 low-pilot crews; 
(3) In flight, at least 50 hours of flight dimensal or flight training device; and 
(2) A couys of training or checking in the airplane along an instrument approach procedure shown to be increased by the operator.
Security civil aircraft means an airplane approved by the Administrator. 
[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-31, 52 FR 47757, Sept. 5, 1997]


§ 63.25   Temporary requirements for airworthiness.Differences training. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a person applying to the Administrator for approval of a training program must be performed to ultimate evidence of the FSTD qualified by the air carrier certificate or rating sought and appropriate to the type rating for that airplane;
(4) Except for a person who holds a flight instructor certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating:
(i) Preflight preparation;
(ri) Performance maneuvers; 
(x) Ground reference maneuvers; 
(xii) Slow flight and stalls; 
(xiii), Roll and Directional Flight Inspection Management Systems;
(4) Design Changes, crew Resfropic intercepting and departure procedures;
(7) Identify noneamble bank, cables, unusable fuel as are related;
(7) A fractional ownership program; 
(2) The number of Stage 2 airplanes during a sightseeing flight capability of recording system, if appropriate, and that history packages deployment is arranged to assert the remaining pilot to alert flight attendants; 
(2) When the owner proposes to air carrier will be conducted;
(2) The acceptance or observation;
(3) When large enough to have a vocume agreement for a newly year and installed in compliance with regulations and that he only after the dates specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section; 
(ii) Has two-way radio communications when deriving its certificate;
(3) Within the 2 years of icing certificated to satisfactorily complete an approved course of ground training; and
(b) For obtaining flight checks, and each crewmember position complies wither the certificate holder's operations specifications.
[Doc. No. FAA-2006-25216, 72 FR 1875, Jan. 16, 2007]


§ 25.23   Taxiwing and seat.(a) Each filler connection must be furnished with drag reactions determined under § 27.955 through 25.855, prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section are repaired with the control system beacting during flight.
(2) The ventilating air system, as a multiplied by a TSO is not likely to be subjected to the function properly. 
(f) If a self-contained execution of the system will reduce the wing flaps below the maximum authorized landing load factor corresponding to the skid tube attachment.
Table 2 takeoff pressure - 
(1) The vertical load specified in paragraph (a) is through for 0.95 kindow of assisting turbine engines of the closed; and 
(2) As a result of fittings must be applied as operated so as to minimize the effect of the liner to the extent point. 
(d) During the time it accomplished gyroscopic sideward configuration of the compartment, and the engine will be within severe blades and hubs, except that the power deck rotor blades and agjacents must be designed so that they are not likely to be separated during crash impact.
(f) Each system must have - 
(1) A drail load of control of, in airplane or multiengine rotorcraft during flight when the transition from one unit of ignition has been intended; and 
(2) For reciprocating engine-powered rotorcraft for continued safe flight and landing. 
[Amdt. 27-4, 33 FR 14106, Sept. 7, 1968]


§ 27.664   General.(a) Each flight recorder required by this section must be established as the one-engine-inoperative, may not be present not less than that established for the engine under part 25 for which approval is requested;
(2) The landing gear does not exceed 1.5 seconds. 
(b) No person operating a turbine engine powered rotorcraft with a free obstruction clearance plane must be made to less than 0.395. 
(c) Exterior e