An ontology to represent medically relevant actions, procedures, therapies, interventions, and recommendations.
The official definition, explaining the meaning of a class or property. Shall be Aristotelian, formalized and normalized. Can be augmented with colloquial definitions.
definition
Ontology annotation property. Relates an ontology to a term that is a designated root term of the ontology. Display tools like OLS can use terms annotated with this property as the starting point for rendering the ontology class hierarchy. There can be more than one root.
has ontology root term
Use on obsolete terms, relating the term to another term that can be used as a substitute
Add as annotation triples in the granting ontology
term replaced by
A synonym type for describing abbreviations or initalisms
An alternative label for a class or property which has a more general meaning than the preferred name/primary label.
has broad synonym
An annotation property that links an ontology entity or a statement to a prefixed identifier or URI.
An alternative label for a class or property which has the exact same meaning than the preferred name/primary label.
has exact synonym
An alternative label for a class or property which has a more specific meaning than the preferred name/primary label.
has narrow synonym
An alternative label for a class or property that has been used synonymously with the primary term name, but the usage is not strictly correct.
has related synonym
a core relation that holds between a part and its whole
part of
a core relation that holds between a whole and its part
has part
Paraphrase of elucidation: a relation between a realizable entity and a process, where there is some material entity that is bearer of the realizable entity and participates in the process, and the realizable entity comes to be realized in the course of the process
realized in
Paraphrase of elucidation: a relation between a process and a realizable entity, where there is some material entity that is bearer of the realizable entity and participates in the process, and the realizable entity comes to be realized in the course of the process
realizes
x is preceded by y if and only if the time point at which y ends is before or equivalent to the time point at which x starts. Formally: x preceded by y iff ω(y) <= α(x), where α is a function that maps a process to a start point, and ω is a function that maps a process to an end point.
preceded by
x precedes y if and only if the time point at which x ends is before or equivalent to the time point at which y starts. Formally: x precedes y iff ω(x) <= α(y), where α is a function that maps a process to a start point, and ω is a function that maps a process to an end point.
precedes
b occurs_in c =def b is a process and c is a material entity or immaterial entity& there exists a spatiotemporal region r and b occupies_spatiotemporal_region r.& forall(t) if b exists_at t then c exists_at t & there exist spatial regions s and s’ where & b spatially_projects_onto s at t& c is occupies_spatial_region s’ at t& s is a proper_continuant_part_of s’ at t
Paraphrase of definition: a relation between a process and an independent continuant, in which the process takes place entirely within the independent continuant
occurs in
[copied from inverse property 'occurs in'] b occurs_in c =def b is a process and c is a material entity or immaterial entity& there exists a spatiotemporal region r and b occupies_spatiotemporal_region r.& forall(t) if b exists_at t then c exists_at t & there exist spatial regions s and s’ where & b spatially_projects_onto s at t& c is occupies_spatial_region s’ at t& s is a proper_continuant_part_of s’ at t
Paraphrase of definition: a relation between an independent continuant and a process, in which the process takes place entirely within the independent continuant
contains process
A defining ingredient defines what a food is principally categorized as, rather than an ingredient listed by percentage of weight or volume. A food may have more than one defining ingredient.
has defining ingredient
A relation attaching between a food material and another food material that has been added to it at some point in its history.
has ingredient
Refraining from performing, acting, or behaving some behavior.
avoided behavior
Uses of chemicals which affect the course of conditions, diseases, syndromes or pathology to benefit the health of an individual.
therapeutic uses
Action of refraining from recommending, performing, or participating in some medical actions.
avoided medical action
Refraining from consumption of some types of food.
avoided food
The inverse property of is specified input of
has specified input
The inverse property of is specified output of
has specified output
a relation between a specifically dependent continuant (the characteristic) and any other entity (the bearer), in which the characteristic depends on the bearer for its existence.
Note that this relation was previously called "inheres in", but was changed to be called "characteristic of" because BFO2 uses "inheres in" in a more restricted fashion. This relation differs from BFO2:inheres_in in two respects: (1) it does not impose a range constraint, and thus it allows qualities of processes, as well as of information entities, whereas BFO2 restricts inheres_in to only apply to independent continuants (2) it is declared functional, i.e. something can only be a characteristic of one thing.
characteristic of
Inverse of characteristic_of
has characteristic
a relation between a continuant and a process, in which the continuant is somehow involved in the process
participates in
a relation between a process and a continuant, in which the continuant is somehow involved in the process
has participant
a relation between a quality and an independent continuant (the bearer), in which the quality specifically depends on the bearer for its existence
This relation is modeled after the BFO relation of the same name which was in BFO2, but is used in a more restricted sense - specifically, we model this relation as functional (inherited from characteristic-of). Note that this relation is now removed from BFO2020.
quality of
a relation between a role and an independent continuant (the bearer), in which the role specifically depends on the bearer for its existence
role of
a relation between an independent continuant (the bearer) and a quality, in which the quality specifically depends on the bearer for its existence
has quality
a relation between an independent continuant (the bearer) and a role, in which the role specifically depends on the bearer for its existence
has role
a relation between two distinct material entities, the new entity and the old entity, in which the new entity begins to exist when the old entity ceases to exist, and the new entity inherits the significant portion of the matter of the old entity
derives from
a relation between two distinct material entities, the old entity and the new entity, in which the new entity begins to exist when the old entity ceases to exist, and the new entity inherits the significant portion of the matter of the old entity
derives into
a relation between two independent continuants, the location and the target, in which the target is entirely within the location
location of
a relation between two independent continuants, the target and the location, in which the target is entirely within the location
located in
a relation between a 2D immaterial entity (the boundary) and a material entity, in which the boundary delimits the material entity
2D boundary of
a relation between a material entity and a 2D immaterial entity (the boundary), in which the boundary delimits the material entity
has 2D boundary
relation between an anatomical structure and a neuron projection bundle that has synaptic terminals in the structure.
innervated by
X outer_layer_of Y iff: . X :continuant that bearer_of some PATO:laminar . X part_of Y . exists Z :surface . X has_boundary Z . Z boundary_of Y has_boundary: http://purl.obolibrary.org/obo/RO_0002002 boundary_of: http://purl.obolibrary.org/obo/RO_0002000
A relationship that applies between a continuant and its outer, bounding layer. Examples include the relationship between a multicellular organism and its integument, between an animal cell and its plasma membrane, and between a membrane bound organelle and its outer/bounding membrane.
bounding layer of
Primitive instance level timing relation between events
before or simultaneous with
x simultaneous with y iff ω(x) = ω(y) and ω(α ) = ω(α), where α is a function that maps a process to a start point, and ω is a function that maps a process to an end point and '=' indicates the same instance in time.
t1 simultaneous_with t2 iff:= t1 before_or_simultaneous_with t2 and not (t1 before t2)
simultaneous with
X ends_after Y iff: end(Y) before_or_simultaneous_with end(X)
ends after
X immediately_preceded_by Y iff: end(X) simultaneous_with start(Y)
immediately preceded by
X immediately_precedes_Y iff: end(X) simultaneous_with start(Y)
immediately precedes
Relation between a neuron and a material anatomical entity that its soma is part of.
has soma location
Relation between an anatomical structure (including cells) and a neuron that chemically synapses to it.
synapsed by
Holds between a cell c and a protein complex or protein p if and only if that cell has as part a plasma_membrane[GO:0005886], and that plasma membrane has p as part.
has plasma membrane part
Relation between a neuron and an anatomical structure (including cells) that it chemically synapses to.
N1 synapsed_to some N2 Expands to: N1 SubclassOf ( has_part some ( ‘pre-synaptic membrane ; GO:0042734’ that part_of some ( ‘synapse ; GO:0045202’ that has_part some ( ‘post-synaptic membrane ; GO:0045211’ that part_of some N2))))
synapsed to
x overlaps y if and only if there exists some z such that x has part z and z part of y
overlaps
Relation between a 'neuron projection bundle' and a region in which one or more of its component neuron projections either synapses to targets or receives synaptic input. T innervates some R Expands_to: T has_fasciculating_neuron_projection that synapse_in some R.
innervates
X continuous_with Y if and only if X and Y share a fiat boundary.
continuous with
d derived_by_descent_from a if d is specified by some genetic program that is sequence-inherited-from a genetic program that specifies a.
two individual entities d1 and d2 stand in a shares_ancestor_with relation if and only if there exists some a such that d1 derived_by_descent_from a and d2 derived_by_descent_from a.
x only in taxon y if and only if x is in taxon y, and there is no other organism z such that y!=z a and x is in taxon z.
x is in taxon y if an only if y is an organism, and the relationship between x and y is one of: part of (reflexive), developmentally preceded by, derives from, secreted by, expressed.
life cycle stage of
Connects a biological entity to its taxon of origin.
A is spatially_disjoint_from B if and only if they have no parts in common
a is connected to b if and only if a and b are discrete structure, and there exists some connecting structure c, such that c connects a and b
connected to
c connects a if and only if there exist some b such that a and b are similar parts of the same system, and c connects b, specifically, c connects a with b. When one structure connects two others it unites some aspect of the function or role they play within the system.
connects
a is attached to part of b if a is attached to b, or a is attached to some p, where p is part of b.
attached to part of
Relation between an arterial structure and another structure, where the arterial structure acts as a conduit channeling fluid, substance or energy.
supplies
Relation between an collecting structure and another structure, where the collecting structure acts as a conduit channeling fluid, substance or energy away from the other structure.
drains
w 'has component' p if w 'has part' p and w is such that it can be directly disassembled into into n parts p, p2, p3, ..., pn, where these parts are of similar type.
has component
x develops from y if and only if either (a) x directly develops from y or (b) there exists some z such that x directly develops from z and z develops from y
This is the transitive form of the develops from relation
develops from
develops into
Candidate definition: x directly_develops from y if and only if there exists some developmental process (GO:0032502) p such that x and y both participate in p, and x is the output of p and y is the input of p, and a substantial portion of the matter of x comes from y, and the start of x is coincident with or after the end of y.
directly develops from
directly develops into
p regulates q iff p is causally upstream of q, the execution of p is not constant and varies according to specific conditions, and p influences the rate or magnitude of execution of q due to an effect either on some enabler of q or some enabler of a part of q.
regulates
p negatively regulates q iff p regulates q, and p decreases the rate or magnitude of execution of q.
negatively regulates
p positively regulates q iff p regulates q, and p increases the rate or magnitude of execution of q.
positively regulates
A relation between a material entity (such as a cell) and a process, in which the material entity has the ability to carry out the process.
capable of
c stands in this relationship to p if and only if there exists some p' such that c is capable_of p', and p' is part_of p.
capable of part of
x surrounded_by y if and only if (1) x is adjacent to y and for every region r that is adjacent to x, r overlaps y (2) the shared boundary between x and y occupies the majority of the outermost boundary of x
surrounded by
x adjacent to y if and only if x and y share a boundary.
adjacent to
surrounds
A relation that holds between two occurrents. This is a grouping relation that collects together all the Allen relations.
temporally related to
starts
x starts with y if and only if x has part y and the time point at which x starts is equivalent to the time point at which y starts. Formally: α(y) = α(x) ∧ ω(y) < ω(x), where α is a function that maps a process to a start point, and ω is a function that maps a process to an end point.
starts with
x develops from part of y if and only if there exists some z such that x develops from z and z is part of y
develops from part of
x develops_in y if x is located in y whilst x is developing
develops in
ends
x ends with y if and only if x has part y and the time point at which x ends is equivalent to the time point at which y ends. Formally: α(y) > α(x) ∧ ω(y) = ω(x), where α is a function that maps a process to a start point, and ω is a function that maps a process to an end point.
ends with
x 'has starts location' y if and only if there exists some process z such that x 'starts with' z and z 'occurs in' y
has start location
x 'has end location' y if and only if there exists some process z such that x 'ends with' z and z 'occurs in' y
has end location
p has input c iff: p is a process, c is a material entity, c is a participant in p, c is present at the start of p, and the state of c is modified during p.
has input
p has output c iff c is a participant in p, c is present at the end of p, and c is not present in the same state at the beginning of p.
has output
x has developmental contribution from y iff x has some part z such that z develops from y
has developmental contribution from
inverse of has developmental contribution from
developmentally contributes to
t1 induced_by t2 if there is a process of developmental induction (GO:0031128) with t1 and t2 as interacting participants. t2 causes t1 to change its fate from a precursor material anatomical entity type T to T', where T' develops_from T
developmentally induced by
Inverse of developmentally induced by
developmentally induces
Candidate definition: x developmentally related to y if and only if there exists some developmental process (GO:0032502) p such that x and y both participates in p, and x is the output of p and y is the input of p
This relation groups together various other developmental relations. It is fairly generic, encompassing induction, developmental contribution and direct and transitive develops from
developmentally preceded by
x developmentally replaces y if and only if there is some developmental process that causes x to move or to cease to exist, and for the site that was occupied by x to become occupied by y, where y either comes into existence in this site or moves to this site from somewhere else
developmentally replaces
developmentally succeeded by
part of developmental precursor of
p is causally upstream of, positive effect q iff p is casually upstream of q, and the execution of p is required for the execution of q.
holds between x and y if and only if x is causally upstream of y and the progression of x increases the frequency, rate or extent of y
p is causally upstream of, negative effect q iff p is casually upstream of q, and the execution of p decreases the execution of q.
q characteristic of part of w if and only if there exists some p such that q inheres in p and p part of w.
characteristic of part of
A relationship that holds via some environmental process
evolutionarily related to
A mereological relationship or a topological relationship
mereotopologically related to
A relationship that holds between entities participating in some developmental process (GO:0032502)
developmentally related to
A grouping relationship for any relationship directly involving a function, or that holds because of a function of one of the related entities.
functionally related to
this relation holds between c and p when c is part of some c', and c' is capable of p.
part of structure that is capable of
regulated by
negatively regulated by
positively regulated by
A relationship that holds via some process of localization
related via localization to
This relationship holds between p and l when p is a transport or localization process in which the outcome is to move some cargo c from a an initial location to some destination l.
has target end location
results in transport to from or in
is member of is a mereological relation between a item and a collection.
member of
has member is a mereological relation between a collection and an item.
has member
input of
output of
a is attached to b if and only if a and b are discrete objects or object parts, and there are physical connections between a and b such that a force pulling a will move b, or a force pulling b will move a
attached to
x has_fused_element y iff: there exists some z : x has_part z, z homologous_to y, and y is a distinct element, the boundary between x and z is largely fiat
A has_fused_element B does not imply that A has_part some B: rather than A has_part some B', where B' that has some evolutionary relationship to B.
derived from ancestral fusion of
A relationship that holds between two material entities in a system of connected structures, where the branching relationship holds based on properties of the connecting network.
in branching relationship with
x spatially_coextensive_with y if and inly if x and y have the same location
spatially coextensive with
x is a branching part of y if and only if x is part of y and x is connected directly or indirectly to the main stem of y
branching part of
x has developmental potential involving y iff x is capable of a developmental process with output y. y may be the successor of x, or may be a different structure in the vicinity (as for example in the case of developmental induction).
has developmental potential involving
x has potential to developmentrally contribute to y iff x developmentally contributes to y or x is capable of developmentally contributing to y
has potential to developmentally contribute to
x has potential to developmentally induce y iff x developmentally induces y or x is capable of developmentally inducing y
has potential to developmentally induce
x has the potential to develop into y iff x develops into y or if x is capable of developing into y
This relation has a stronger meaning than merely indicating that X may develop into Y, in that the capability of developing into Y is always present, even if X does not always actually develop into Y. In particular, this means that if Y is restricted to a given taxon T, X is necessarily likewise restricted.
has potential to develop into
x has potential to directly develop into y iff x directly develops into y or x is capable of directly developing into y
has potential to directly develop into
causally downstream of
immediately causally downstream of
relation that links two events, processes, states, or objects such that one event, process, state, or object (a cause) contributes to the production of another event, process, state, or object (an effect) where the cause is partly or wholly responsible for the effect, and the effect is partly or wholly dependent on the cause.
causally related to
p is causally upstream of q iff p is causally related to q, the end of p precedes the end of q, and p is not an occurrent part of q.
causally upstream of
p is immediately causally upstream of q iff p is causally upstream of q, and the end of p is coincident with the beginning of q.
immediately causally upstream of
p provides input for q iff p is immediately causally upstream of q, and there exists some c such that p has_output c and q has_input c.
provides input for
transitive form of directly_provides_input_for
transitively provides input for
p is 'causally upstream or within' q iff p is causally related to q, and the end of p precedes, or is coincident with, the end of q.
inverse of causally upstream of or within
p contributes to morphology of w if and only if a change in the morphology of p entails a change in the morphology of w. Examples: every skull contributes to morphology of the head which it is a part of. Counter-example: nuclei do not generally contribute to the morphology of the cell they are part of, as they are buffered by cytoplasm.
x composed_primarily_of y if and only if more than half of the mass of x is made from y or units of the same type as y.
p has part that occurs in c if and only if there exists some p1, such that p has_part p1, and p1 occurs in c.
relation between physical entity and a process or stage
x existence starts during y if and only if the time point at which x starts is after or equivalent to the time point at which y starts and before or equivalent to the time point at which y ends. Formally: x existence starts during y iff α(x) >= α(y) & α(x) <= ω(y).
x starts ends with y if and only if the time point at which x starts is equivalent to the time point at which y starts. Formally: x existence starts with y iff α(x) = α(y).
x existence overlaps y if and only if either (a) the start of x is part of y or (b) the end of x is part of y. Formally: x existence starts and ends during y iff (α(x) >= α(y) & α(x) <= ω(y)) OR (ω(x) <= ω(y) & ω(x) >= α(y))
The relations here were created based on work originally by Fabian Neuhaus and David Osumi-Sutherland. The work has not yet been vetted and errors in definitions may have occurred during transcription.
x exists during y if and only if: 1) the time point at which x begins to exist is after or equal to the time point at which y begins and 2) the time point at which x ceases to exist is before or equal to the point at which y ends. Formally: x existence starts and ends during y iff α(x) >= α(y) & α(x) <= ω(y) & ω(x) <= ω(y) & ω(x) >= α(y)
x existence ends during y if and only if the time point at which x ends is before or equivalent to the time point at which y ends and after or equivalent to the point at which y starts. Formally: x existence ends during y iff ω(x) <= ω(y) and ω(x) >= α(y).
x existence ends with y if and only if the time point at which x ends is equivalent to the time point at which y ends. Formally: x existence ends with y iff ω(x) = ω(y).
x transformation of y if x is the immediate transformation of y, or is linked to y through a chain of transformation relationships
x immediate transformation of y iff x immediately succeeds y temporally at a time boundary t, and all of the matter present in x at t is present in y at t, and all the matter in y at t is present in x at t
x existence starts during or after y if and only if the time point at which x starts is after or equivalent to the time point at which y starts. Formally: x existence starts during or after y iff α (x) >= α (y).
x existence ends during or before y if and only if the time point at which x ends is before or equivalent to the time point at which y ends.
A relationship between a material entity and a process where the material entity has some causal role that influences the process
p is causally related to q if and only if p or any part of p and q or any part of q are linked by a chain of events where each event pair is one where the execution of p influences the execution of q. p may be upstream, downstream, part of, or a container of q.
q towards e2 if and only if q is a relational quality such that q inheres-in some e, and e != e2 and q is dependent on e2
A relation between a segment or subdivision of an organism and the maximal subdivision of material entities that provides structural support for that segment or subdivision.
A relation that holds between elements of a musculoskeletal system or its analogs.
x is a conduit for y iff y overlaps through the lumen_of of x, and y has parts on either side of the lumen of x.
x lumen_of y iff x is the space or substance that is part of y and does not cross any of the inner membranes or boundaries of y that is maximal with respect to the volume of the convex hull.
s is luminal space of x iff s is lumen_of x and s is an immaterial entity
A relation that holds between an attribute or a qualifier and another attribute.
s 'has part structure that is capable of' p if and only if there exists some part x such that s 'has part' x and x 'capable of' p
A relationship that holds between a material entity and a process in which causality is involved, with either the material entity or some part of the material entity exerting some influence over the process, or the process influencing some aspect of the material entity.
causal relation between material entity and a process
Holds between c and p if and only if c is capable of some activity a, and a regulates p.
Holds between c and p if and only if c is capable of some activity a, and a negatively regulates p.
Holds between c and p if and only if c is capable of some activity a, and a positively regulates p.
a produces b if some process that occurs_in a has_output b, where a and b are material entities. Examples: hybridoma cell line produces monoclonal antibody reagent; chondroblast produces avascular GAG-rich matrix.
Note that this definition doesn't quite distinguish the output of a transformation process from a production process, which is related to the identity/granularity issue.
produces
a produced_by b iff some process that occurs_in b has_output a.
produced by
A relationship between a realizable entity R (e.g. function or disposition) and a material entity M where R is realized in response to a process that has an input stimulus of M.
causally upstream of or within, negative effect
causally upstream of or within, positive effect
"has substance added" is a relation existing between a (physical) entity and a substance in which the entity has had the substance added to it at some point in time.
has substance added
r 'realized in response to' s iff, r is a realizable (e.g. a plant trait such as responsivity to drought), s is an environmental stimulus (a process), and s directly causes the realization of r.
realized in response to
q1 different_in_magnitude_relative_to q2 if and only if magnitude(q1) NOT =~ magnitude(q2). Here, magnitude(q) is a function that maps a quality to a unit-invariant scale.
q1 increased_in_magnitude_relative_to q2 if and only if magnitude(q1) > magnitude(q2). Here, magnitude(q) is a function that maps a quality to a unit-invariant scale.
This relation is used to determine the 'directionality' of relative qualities such as 'increased strength', relative to the parent type, 'strength'.
q1 decreased_in_magnitude_relative_to q2 if and only if magnitude(q1) < magnitude(q2). Here, magnitude(q) is a function that maps a quality to a unit-invariant scale.
This relation is used to determine the 'directionality' of relative qualities such as 'decreased strength', relative to the parent type, 'strength'.
s3 has_cross_section s3 if and only if : there exists some 2d plane that intersects the bearer of s3, and the impression of s3 upon that plane has shape quality s2.
Example: a spherical object has the quality of being spherical, and the spherical quality has_cross_section round.
q1 reciprocal_of q2 if and only if : q1 and q2 are relational qualities and a phenotype e q1 e2 mutually implies a phenotype e2 q2 e.
There are frequently two ways to state the same thing: we can say 'spermatocyte lacks asters' or 'asters absent from spermatocyte'. In this case the quality is 'lacking all parts of type' - it is a (relational) quality of the spermatocyte, and it is with respect to instances of 'aster'. One of the popular requirements of PATO is that it continue to support 'absent', so we need to relate statements which use this quality to the 'lacking all parts of type' quality.
A relation between a cell and molecule or complex such that every instance of the cell has a high number of instances of that molecule expressed on the cell surface.
A relation between a cell and molecule or complex such that every instance of the cell has a low number of instances of that molecule expressed on the cell surface.
X device utilizes material Y means X and Y are material entities, and X is capable of some process P that has input Y.
device utilizes material
A is a deprotonated form of B if and only if A is chemical entity that is a Brønsted–Lowry Base (i.e., can receive a proton) and by adding some nonzero number of protons transforms it into B. This is a transitive relationship and follows this design pattern: https://oborel.github.io/obo-relations/direct-and-indirect-relations.
A is a protonated form of B if and only if A is chemical entity that is a Brønsted–Lowry Acid (i.e., can give up a proton) and by removing some nonzero number of protons transforms it into B. This is a transitive relationship and follows this design pattern: https://oborel.github.io/obo-relations/direct-and-indirect-relations.
Two chemicals are tautomers if they can be readily interconverted. This commonly refers to prototropy in which a hydrogen's position is changed, such as between ketones and enols. This is also often observed in heterocyclic rings, e.g., ones containing nitrogens and/or have aryl functional groups containing heteroatoms.
is tautomer of
Group A is a substituent group from Chemical B if A represents the functional part of A and includes information about where it is connected. A is not itself a chemical with a fully formed chemical graph, but is rather a partial graph with one or more connection points that can be used to attach to another chemical graph, typically as a functionalization.
is substitutent group from
Chemical A has functional parent Chemical B if there is chemical transformation through which chemical B can be produced from chemical A. For example, the relationship between a salt and a freebased compound is a "has functional parent" relationship.
has functional parent
Chemicals A and B are enantiomers if they share the same molecular graph except the change of the configuration of substituents around exactly one chiral center. A chemical with no chiral centers can not have an enantiomer. A chemical with multiple chiral centers can have multiple enantiomers, but its enantiomers are not themselves enantiomers (they are diastereomers).
is enantiomer of
Chemical A has parent hydride Chemical B if there exists a molecular graphical transformation where functional groups on A are replaced with hydrogens in order to yield B.
has parent hydride
x vessel supplies blood to y if and only if x is a vessel that supplies blood directly or indirectly to an anatomical structure y.
x vessel drains blood from y if and only if x is a vessel that drains blood directly or indirectly from an anatomical structure y.
x anteriorly_connected_to y iff the anterior part of x is connected to y. i.e. x connected_to y and x posterior_to y.
x distally_connected_to y iff the distal part of x is connected to y. i.e. x connected_to y and x proximal_to y.
X extends_fibers into Y iff there exists some neuron (N) and N has_soma_location X and N 'has synaptic IO in region' some Y
Relationship between a fluid and a material entity, where the fluid is the output of a realization of a filtration role that inheres in the material entity.
Relationship between a fluid and a filtration barrier, where the portion of fluid arises as a transformation of another portion of fluid on the other side of the barrier, with larger particles removed
x posteriorly_connected_to y iff the posterior part of x is connected to y. i.e. x connected_to y and x anterior_to y.
x proximally_connected_to y iff the proximal part of x is connected to y. i.e. x connected_to y and x distal_to y.
c site_of p if c is the bearer of a disposition that is realized by a process that has p as part.
placeholder relation. X = 'subdivision of A' and subdivision_of some B means that X is the mereological sum of A and B
entity
continuant
occurrent
independent continuant
spatial region
process
realizable entity
quality
specifically dependent continuant
role
material entity
immaterial entity
Elementary particle not affected by the strong force having a spin ½, a negative elementary charge and a rest mass of 0.000548579903(13) u, or 0.51099906(15) MeV.
The conjugate base of γ-amino-β-hydroxybutyric acid arising from deprotonation of the carboxy group.
Any member of a group of fat-soluble retinoids produced via metabolism of provitamin A carotenoids that exhibit biological activity against vitamin A deficiency. Vitamin A is involved in immune function, vision, reproduction, and cellular communication.
A pyridinium ion obtained by protonation of the ring nitrogen of pyridoxal.
Any bacterial metabolite produced during a metabolic reaction in Mycoplasma genitalium.
A steroid compound with a structure based on a 27-carbon (cholestane) skeleton.
A steroid compound with a structure based on a 24-carbon (cholane) skeleton.
Any steroid (or derivative) based on a cholane skeleton.
A DNA polymerase inhibitor that interferes with the action of a DNA-directed DNA polymerase (EC 2.7.7.7).
DNA nucleotidyltransferase (DNA-directed) inhibitor
DNA nucleotidyltransferase (DNA-directed) inhibitors
DNA-directed DNA polymerase (EC 2.7.7.7) inhibitor
DNA-directed DNA polymerase (EC 2.7.7.7) inhibitors
EC 2.7.7.7 (DNA-directed DNA polymerase) inhibitors
deoxynucleoside-triphosphate:DNA deoxynucleotidyltransferase (DNA-directed) inhibitor
deoxynucleoside-triphosphate:DNA deoxynucleotidyltransferase (DNA-directed) inhibitors
deoxyribonucleate nucleotidyltransferase inhibitor
deoxyribonucleate nucleotidyltransferase inhibitors
deoxyribonucleic acid duplicase inhibitor
deoxyribonucleic acid duplicase inhibitors
deoxyribonucleic acid polymerase inhibitor
deoxyribonucleic acid polymerase inhibitors
deoxyribonucleic polymerase I inhibitors
EC 2.7.7.7 (DNA-directed DNA polymerase) inhibitor
A dopamine agonist that binds to and activates the dopamine receptor D1.
Any steroid acid anion based on a cholanic acid skeleton.
A class of carbonyl compound encompassing dicarboxylic acids and any derivatives obtained by substitution of either one or both of the carboxy hydrogens.
dicarboxylic acids and O-substituted derivatives
Any member of the class of benzoquinones that is 1,4-benzoquinone or its C-substituted derivatives.
Any quinone in which one or more of the carbons making up the quinone moiety is substituted by a hydroxy group.
A naphthoquinone in which the oxo groups of the quinone moiety are at positions 1 and 4 of the parent naphthalene ring.
A carbohydrate acid derivative anion obtained by deprotonation of the carboxy groups of hyaluronic acid; major species at pH 7.3.
Any polyunsaturated fatty acid containing 22 carbons and 6 double bonds.
A dicarboxylic acid anion obtained by deprotonation of at least one of the carboxy groups of oxalic acid.
A metal sulfate with formula BaO4S. Virtually insoluble in water at room temperature, it is mostly used as a component in oil well drilling fluid it occurs naturally as the mineral barite.
Any organic compound having an initial boiling point less than or equal to 250 °C (482 °F) measured at a standard atmospheric pressure of 101.3 kPa.
An N-oxide where there are three organic groups bonded to the nitrogen atom.
A compound that, on administration, undergoes conversion by biochemical (enzymatic), chemical (possibly following an enzymatic step), or physical (e.g. photochemical) activation processes before becoming the active agent for which it is a pro-agent.
Any steroid that has β-configuration at position 5.
A cardiovascular drug that tends to raise reduced blood pressure.
An organic cation obtained by protonation of the amino group of any tertiary amino compound.
A quaternary ammonium ion obtained by methylation of any tertiary amine
Any compound that can disrupt the functions of the endocrine (hormone) system
A Brønsted acid derived from one or more inorganic compounds. Inorganic acids (also known as mineral acids) form hydrons and conjugate base ions when dissolved in water.
Any member of a group of hydroxy steroids occuring in bile, where they are present as the sodium salts of their amides with glycine or taurine. In mammals bile acids almost invariably have 5β-configuration, while in lower vertebrates, some bile acids, known as allo-bile acids, have 5α-configuration.
Any main group molecular entity that is gaseous at standard temperature and pressure (STP; 0°C and 100 kPa).
Any carotenoid derivative with an β-end group
A ketone containing a hydroxy group on the α-carbon relative to the C=O group.
A carboxylic acid anion obtained by deprotonation of any retinoid carboxy group.
An α-hydroxy ketone in which the carbonyl group and the hydroxy group are linked by a carbon bearing two organyl groups.
Any saturated fatty acid containing 4 carbons.
An antigenic epitope recognized by an anti-bilirubin monoclonal antibody designated 24G7. A substructure of bilirubin IXα, it is the region containing the oxo group at C-1, the methyl group at C-2, C-(4, 5, 6, 9), and N-21 and -22.
An organic anion arising from deprotonation of the hydroxy group of an enol.
A GABA receptor agonist specific for GABAB receptors.
An α-amino-acid anion that is the conjugate base of glutamic acid, having anionic carboxy groups and a cationic amino group
A GABA receptor antgonist specific for GABAA receptors, ligand-gated ion channels (also known as ionotropic receptors).
A peptide hormone which consists of two polypeptide chains, A- and B- chains which are linked together by disulfide bonds. The amino acid sequence of insulin varies across species and certain segments of the molecule are highly conserved. In most species, the A chain consists of 21 amino acids and the B chain consists of 30 amino acids. In mammals, insulin is synthesised in the pancreas within the β cells whereas in certain species of fish, the insulin-producing tissue is uniquely located in separate structures called Brockmann bodies.
A cardiovascular drug that prevents atherosclerosis (a disease in which the inside of an artery narrows due to the build up of plaque). Compare with antiatherogenic agent.
Any EC 3.4.17.* (metallocarboxypeptidase) inhibitor that inhibits the action of angiotensin-converting enzyme 2 (EC 3.4.17.23).
EC 3.4.17.23 (angiotensin-converting enzyme 2) inhibitor
EC 3.4.17.23 (angiotensin-converting enzyme 2) inhibitors
angiotensin converting enzyme 2 inhibitor
angiotensin converting enzyme 2 inhibitors
angiotensin converting enzyme-2 inhibitor
angiotensin converting enzyme-2 inhibitors
angiotensin-converting enzyme 2 inhibitor
angiotensin-converting enzyme 2 inhibitors
Any EC 3.4.* (hydrolases acting on peptide bond) inhibitor that inhibits the action of a metallocarboxypeptidase (EC 3.4.17.*).
EC 3.4.17* (metallocarboxypeptidase) inhibitor
EC 3.4.17* (metallocarboxypeptidase) inhibitors
Any agent that induces nausea and vomiting.
A molecular entity that can accept an electron, a pair of electrons, an atom or a group from another molecular entity.
A choline that is the parent compound of the cholines class, consisting of ethanolamine having three methyl substituents attached to the amino function.
A sulfur-containing amino acid that is propanoic acid with an amino group at position 2 and a sulfanyl group at position 3.
A 2-oxo monocarboxylic acid anion that is the conjugate base of pyruvic acid, arising from deprotonation of the carboxy group.
A simple monocarboxylic acid containing two carbons.
A sulfonium compound that is the S-adenosyl derivative of L-methionine. It is an intermediate in the metabolic pathway of methionine.
(3S)-5'-[(3-amino-3-carboxypropyl)methylsulfonio]-5'-deoxyadenosine, inner salt
The simplest (and the only achiral) proteinogenic amino acid, with a hydrogen atom as its side chain.
A triterpene consisting of 2,6,10,15,19,23-hexamethyltetracosane having six double bonds at the 2-, 6-, 10-, 14-, 18- and 22-positions with (all-E)-configuration.
Aldehydic parent sugars (polyhydroxy aldehydes H[CH(OH)]nC(=O)H, n ≥ 2) and their intramolecular hemiacetals.
Any α-amino acid having L-configuration at the α-carbon.
A tertiary amine oxide resulting from the oxidation of the amino group of trimethylamine.
A primary alcohol is a compound in which a hydroxy group, ‒OH, is attached to a saturated carbon atom which has either three hydrogen atoms attached to it or only one other carbon atom and two hydrogen atoms attached to it.
A monocarboxylic acid anion that is the conjugate base of formic acid. Induces severe metabolic acidosis and ocular injury in human subjects.
A straight-chain, sixteen-carbon, saturated long-chain fatty acid.
Any N-acyl-amino acid in which the amino acid moiety has D configuration.
A peptide containing ten or more amino acid residues.
Any 3-hydroxy steroid whose skeleton is closely related to cholestan-3-ol (additional carbon atoms may be present in the side chain).
A fatty acid with a chain length ranging from C13 to C22.
A pyridinemonocarboxylic acid that is pyridine in which the hydrogen at position 3 is replaced by a carboxy group.
An organic heterobicyclic compound that consists of 2-oxohexahydro-1H-thieno[3,4-d]imidazole having a valeric acid substituent attached to the tetrahydrothiophene ring. The parent of the class of biotins.
5-[(3aS,4S,6aR)-2-oxohexahydro-1H-thieno[3,4-d]imidazol-4-yl]pentanoic acid
(+)-cis-Hexahydro-2-oxo-1H-thieno[3,4]imidazole-4-valeric acid
(3aS,4S,6aR)-Hexahydro-2-oxo-1H-thieno[3,4-d]imidazole-4-valeric acid
5-(2-oxohexahydro-1H-thieno[3,4-d]imidazol-4-yl)pentanoic acid
cis-(+)-Tetrahydro-2-oxothieno[3,4]imidazoline-4-valeric acid
cis-Hexahydro-2-oxo-1H-thieno(3,4)imidazole-4-valeric acid
cis-Tetrahydro-2-oxothieno(3,4-d)imidazoline-4-valeric acid
An optically active form of glutamic acid having D-configuration.
An optically active form of glutamic acid having L-configuration.
A monoatomic monoanion resulting from the addition of an electron to any halogen atom.
A γ-amino acid comprising 4-aminobutyric acid having a 2-hydroxy substituent.
A cholestanoid consisting of cholestane having a double bond at the 5,6-position as well as a 3β-hydroxy group.
An azane that consists of a single nitrogen atom covelently bonded to three hydrogen atoms.
A mucopolysaccharide composed of repeating β-D-glucopyranuronosyl-(1→3)-β-D-N-acetylgalactosaminyl units.
A sulfur oxoanion obtained by deprotonation of both OH groups of sulfuric acid.
A carbonyl group with two C-bound amine groups. The commercially available fertilizer has an analysis of 46-0-0 (N-P2O5-K2O).
A primary alcohol that is ethane in which one of the hydrogens is substituted by a hydroxy group.
A lipid containing phosphoric acid as a mono- or di-ester. The term encompasses phosphatidic acids and phosphoglycerides.
A branched-chain saturated fatty acid consisting of hexadecanoic acid carrying methyl substituents at positions 3, 7, 11 and 15.
A mucopolysaccharide composed of N-acetylglucosamine and glucuronic acid subunits. It is found in the connective tissues of vertebrates. A principal constituent of the extracellular matrix (ECM), it mediates the growth and metastasis of tumour cells.
A bile acid that is 5β-cholan-24-oic acid bearing three α-hydroxy substituents at position 3, 7 and 12.
3alpha,7alpha,12alpha-trihydroxy-5beta-cholan-24-oic acid
(3alpha,5beta,7alpha,12alpha)-3,7,12-trihydroxycholan-24-oic acid
3alpha,7alpha,12alpha-Trihydroxy-5beta-cholanic acid
An optically active form of cysteine having D-configuration.
Any benzoquinone derived from 2,3-dimethoxy-5-methylbenzoquinone; one of a group of naturally occurring homologues. The redox-active quinoid moiety usually carries a polyprenoid side chain at position 6, the number of isoprenoid units in which is species-specific. Ubiquinones are involved in the control of mitochondrial electron transport, and are also potent anti-oxidants.
A monocarboxylic acid anion that is the conjugate base of pantothenic acid, obtained by deprotonation of the carboxy group.
A naturally occurring polypeptide synthesized at the ribosome.
The L-enantiomer of methionine.
(2S)-2-amino-4-(methylsulfanyl)butanoic acid
L-alpha-amino-gamma-methylmercaptobutyric acid
Any member of the class of organooxygen compounds that is a polyhydroxy-aldehyde or -ketone or a lactol resulting from their intramolecular condensation (monosaccharides); substances derived from these by reduction of the carbonyl group (alditols), by oxidation of one or more hydroxy groups to afford the corresponding aldehydes, ketones, or carboxylic acids, or by replacement of one or more hydroxy group(s) by a hydrogen atom; and polymeric products arising by intermolecular acetal formation between two or more such molecules (disaccharides, polysaccharides and oligosaccharides). Carbohydrates contain only carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms; prior to any oxidation or reduction, most have the empirical formula Cm(H2O)n. Compounds obtained from carbohydrates by substitution, etc., are known as carbohydrate derivatives and may contain other elements. Cyclitols are generally not regarded as carbohydrates.
Amide derived from two or more amino carboxylic acid molecules (the same or different) by formation of a covalent bond from the carbonyl carbon of one to the nitrogen atom of another with formal loss of water. The term is usually applied to structures formed from α-amino acids, but it includes those derived from any amino carboxylic acid. X = OH, OR, NH2, NHR, etc.
A chelator that is any compound containing a ligand (typically organic) which is able to form a bond to a central copper atom at two or more points.
A methylated tertiary amine that is trimethylammonium in which the hydrogen attached to the nitrogen is replaced by a hydroxy group.
A ribonucleoside composed of a molecule of uracil attached to a ribofuranose moiety via a β‒N1-glycosidic bond.
A penicillanic acid compound having a (6R)-amino substituent. The active nucleus common to all penicillins, it may be substituted at the 6-amino position to form the semisynthetic penicillins, resulting in a variety of antibacterial and pharmacologic characteristics.
6-amino-2,2-dimethylpenam-3alpha-carboxylic acid
(2S,5R,6R)-6-amino-3,3-dimethyl-7-oxo-4-thia-1-azabicyclo[3.2.0]heptane-2-carboxylic acid
A hydroxymethylpyridine with hydroxymethyl groups at positions 4 and 5, a hydroxy group at position 3 and a methyl group at position 2. The 4-methanol form of vitamin B6, it is converted intoto pyridoxal phosphate which is a coenzyme for synthesis of amino acids, neurotransmitters, sphingolipids and aminolevulinic acid.
A six-carbon aromatic annulene in which each carbon atom donates one of its two 2p electrons into a delocalised π system. A toxic, flammable liquid byproduct of coal distillation, it is used as an industrial solvent. Benzene is a carcinogen that also damages bone marrow and the central nervous system.
A mineral that is an inorganic nutrient which must be ingested and absorbed in adequate amounts to satisfy a wide range of essential metabolic and/or structural functions in the human body.
A dihydroxy-5β-cholanic acid that is (5β)-cholan-24-oic acid substituted by hydroxy groups at positions 3 and 7 respectively.
3alpha,7alpha-dihydroxy-5beta-cholan-24-oic acid
3alpha,7alpha-Dihydroxy-5beta-cholanic acid
Any oligosaccharide, polysaccharide or their derivatives consisting of monosaccharides or monosaccharide derivatives linked by glycosidic bonds. See also http://www.ontobee.org/ontology/GNO?iri=http://purl.obolibrary.org/obo/GNO_00000001.
A sulfur-containing amino acid that is butyric acid bearing an amino substituent at position 2 and a methylthio substituent at position 4.
alpha-amino-gamma-methylmercaptobutyric acid
An optically active form of methionine having D-configuration.
(2R)-2-amino-4-(methylsulfanyl)butanoic acid
A glycine derivative having methyl and amidino groups attached to the nitrogen.
((amino(imino)methyl)(methyl)amino)acetic acid
A naturally-occurring β-amino acid comprising propionic acid with the amino group in the 3-position.
A member of the class of biladienes that is a linear tetrapyrrole with the dipyrrole units being of both exovinyl and endovinyl type. A product of heme degradation, it is produced in the reticuloendothelial system by the reduction of biliverdin and transported to the liver as a complex with serum albumin.
3,18-diethenyl-2,7,13,17-tetramethyl-1,19-dioxo-1,10,19,22,23,24-hexahydro-21H-biline-8,12-dipropanoic acid
1,10,19,22,23,24-hexahydro-2,7,13,17-tetramethyl-1,19-dioxo-3,18-divinylbiline-8,12-dipropionic acid
2,17-diethenyl-1,10,19,22,23,24-hexahydro-3,7,13,18-tetramethyl-1,19-dioxo-21H-biline-8,12-dipropanoic acid
2,7,13,17-tetramethyl-1,19-dioxo-3,18-divinyl-1,10,19,22,23,24-hexahydro-21H-biline-8,12-dipropanoic acid
An α,ω-dicarboxylic acid that is ethane substituted by carboxyl groups at positions 1 and 2.
D-Ribitol in which the hydroxy group at position 5 is substituted by a 7,8-dimethyl-2,4-dioxo-3,4-dihydrobenzo[g]pteridin-10(2H)-yl moiety. It is a nutritional factor found in milk, eggs, malted barley, liver, kidney, heart, and leafy vegetables, but the richest natural source is yeast. The free form occurs only in the retina of the eye, in whey, and in urine; its principal forms in tissues and cells are as flavin mononucleotide and flavin-adenine dinucleotide.
A compound in which a carbonyl group is bonded to two carbon atoms: R2C=O (neither R may be H).
A compound in which a carbohydrate component is covalently bound to a protein component.
The L-enantiomer of serine.
(S)-alpha-Amino-beta-hydroxypropionic acid
A short-chain fatty acid anion that is the conjugate base of hexanoic acid (also known as caproic acid).
An amino-acid betaine that is butanoate substituted with a hydroxy group at position C-3 and a trimethylammonium group at C-4.
Any 3β-hydroxy-steroid that contains a double bond between positions 5 and 6.
An aldohexose used as a source of energy and metabolic intermediate.
The conjugate base of propionic acid; a key precursor in lipid biosynthesis.
A phosphoamino acid consisting of creatine having a phospho group attached at the primary nitrogen of the guanidino group.
{[imino(phosphonoamino)methyl](methyl)amino}acetic acid
Any substance that inhibits the process of ferroptosis (a type of programmed cell death dependent on iron and characterized by the accumulation of lipid peroxides) in organisms.
Any substance that induces or promotes ferroptosis (a type of programmed cell death dependent on iron and characterized by the accumulation of lipid peroxides) in organisms.
A pyridinecarbaldehyde that is pyridine-4-carbaldehyde bearing methyl, hydroxy and hydroxymethyl substituents at positions 2, 3 and 5 respectively. The 4-carboxyaldehyde form of vitamin B6, it is converted into pyridoxal phosphate, a coenzyme for the synthesis of amino acids, neurotransmitters, sphingolipids and aminolevulinic acid.
Any member of the group of substituted penams containing two methyl substituents at position 2, a carboxylate substituent at position 3 and a carboxamido group at position 6.
A sulfur oxoanion that is the conjugate base of hydrogen sulfite (H2SO3).
A straight-chain saturated fatty acid containing five carbon atoms.
A complex cob(III)alamin in which cobalt is positioned in the centre of a planar corrin tetrapyrrole ring and bound axially to a 5,6-dimethylbenzimidazole moiety and a cyano group. It is one of several forms of the vitamin known as vitamin B12.
A compound RC(=O)H, in which a carbonyl group is bonded to one hydrogen atom and to one R group.
A carbohydrate that is an acyclic polyol having the general formula HOCH2[CH(OH)]nCH2OH (formally derivable from an aldose by reduction of the carbonyl group).
The carbon oxoanion resulting from the removal of a proton from carbonic acid.
An optically active form of cysteine having L-configuration.
A common and naturally occurring pyrimidine nucleobase in which the pyrimidine ring is substituted with two oxo groups at positions 2 and 4. Found in RNA, it base pairs with adenine and replaces thymine during DNA transcription.
The simplest member of the class toluenes consisting of a benzene core which bears a single methyl substituent.
A cyclic carotene obtained by dimerisation of all-trans-retinol. A strongly-coloured red-orange pigment abundant in plants and fruit and the most active and important provitamin A carotenoid.
Any compound that supports healthy aging, slows the biological aging process, or extends lifespan.
Any member of a group of vitamers that belong to the chemical structural class called butenolides that exhibit biological activity against vitamin C deficiency in animals. The vitamers include L-ascorbic acid and its salt, ionized and oxidized forms.
Any member of a group of vitamers that belong to the chemical structural class called flavins that exhibit biological activity against vitamin B2 deficiency. Symptoms associated with vitamin B2 deficiency include glossitis, seborrhea, angular stomaitis, cheilosis and photophobia. The vitamers include riboflavin and its phosphate derivatives (and includes their salt, ionised and hydrate forms).
Any member of a group of vitamers that belong to the chemical structural class called pyridines that exhibit biological activity against vitamin B3 deficiency. Vitamin B3 deficiency causes a condition known as pellagra whose symptoms include depression, dermatitis and diarrhea. The vitamers include nicotinic acid and nicotinamide (and their ionized and salt forms).
Any member of a group of vitamers that belong to the chemical structural class called pantothenic acids that exhibit biological activity against vitamin B5 deficiency. Deficiency of vitamin B5 is rare due to its widespread distribution in whole grain cereals, legumes and meat. Symptoms associated with vitamin B5 deficiency are difficult to asses since they are subtle and resemble those of other B vitamin deficiencies. The vitamers include (R)-pantothenic acid and its ionized and salt forms.
Any member of a group of vitamers that belong to the chemical structural class called biotins that exhibit biological activity against vitamin B7 deficiency. Vitamin B7 deficiency is very rare in individuals who take a normal balanced diet. Foods rich in biotin are egg yolk, liver, cereals, vegetables (spinach, mushrooms) and rice. Symptoms associated with vitamin B7 deficiency include thinning hair, scaly skin rashes around eyes, nose and mouth, and brittle nails. The vitamers include biotin and its ionized and salt forms.
Any B-vitamin that exhibits biological activity against vitamin B9 deficiency. Vitamin B9 refers to the many forms of folic acid and its derivatives, including tetrahydrofolic acid (the active form), methyltetrahydrofolate (the primary form found in blood), methenyltetrahydrofolate, folinic acid amongst others. They are present in abundance in green leafy vegetables, citrus fruits, and animal products. Lack of vitamin B9 leads to anemia, a condition in which the body cannot produce sufficient number of red blood cells. Symptoms of vitamin B9 deficiency include fatigue, muscle weakness, and pale skin.
Any member of a group of cobalamin vitamers that exhibit biological activity against vitamin B12 deficiency. Vitamin B12 deficiency is associated with low red blood cell count and anemia. The vitamers are found in foods such as cereals, meat, fish, and poultry. The vitamers include adenosylcobalamin, hydroxocobalamin, cyanocobalamin, aquacobalamin, nitritocobalamin and methylcobabalamin (also includes their ionized, salt and phosphate derivatives).
An agonist that binds to and activates somatostatin receptors.
The (R)-enantiomer of mevalonic acid.
(3R)-3,5-dihydroxy-3-methylpentanoic acid
(R)-3,5-dihydroxy-3-methylpentanoic acid
A glycosylglucose disaccharide, found most notably in milk, that consists of D-galactose and D-glucose fragments bonded through a β-1→4 glycosidic linkage. The glucose fragment can be in either the α- or β-pyranose form, whereas the galactose fragment can only have the β-pyranose form.
A triol with a structure of propane substituted at positions 1, 2 and 3 by hydroxy groups.
A compound showing blue fluorescence, formed by a photolysis of riboflavin in acid or neutral solution.
The primary alcohol that is the simplest aliphatic alcohol, comprising a methyl and an alcohol group.
An α-amino acid that is alanine substituted at position 3 by a hydroxy group.
Any glyceride resulting from the condensation of all three hydroxy groups of glycerol (propane-1,2,3-triol) with fatty acids.
A molecular entity that can transfer ("donate") an electron, a pair of electrons, an atom or a group to another molecular entity.
A short-chain fatty acid anion that is the conjugate base of butyric acid, obtained by deprotonation of the carboxy group.
A glycosyl glycoside formed by glucose and fructose units joined by an acetal oxygen bridge from hemiacetal of glucose to the hemiketal of the fructose.
beta-D-fructofuranosyl alpha-D-glucopyranoside
'Lipids' is a loosely defined term for substances of biological origin that are soluble in nonpolar solvents. They consist of saponifiable lipids, such as glycerides (fats and oils) and phospholipids, as well as nonsaponifiable lipids, principally steroids.
Any polysaccharide containing a substantial proportion of aminomonosaccharide residues.
Any six-carbon monosaccharide which in its linear form contains either an aldehyde group at position 1 (aldohexose) or a ketone group at position 2 (ketohexose).
A tertiary amine that is ammonia in which each hydrogen atom is substituted by an methyl group.
A biomacromolecule consisting of large numbers of monosaccharide residues linked glycosidically. This term is commonly used only for those containing more than ten monosaccharide residues.
An α-amino acid that is phenylalanine bearing a hydroxy substituent at position 4 on the phenyl ring.
2-Amino-3-(p-hydroxyphenyl)propionic acid
2-amino-3-(4-hydroxyphenyl)propanoic acid
The parent compound of the citrulline class consisting of ornithine having a carbamoyl group at the N5-position.
2-amino-5-(carbamoylamino)pentanoic acid
An α-amino acid that is glutaric acid bearing a single amino substituent at position 2.
An iron group element atom that has atomic number 26.
Any nucleoside where the sugar component is D-ribose.
An α-amino acid that is pentanoic acid bearing two amino substituents at positions 2 and 5.
That part of DNA or RNA that may be involved in pairing.
An acyclic branched or unbranched hydrocarbon having the general formula CnH2n+2, and therefore consisting entirely of hydrogen atoms and saturated carbon atoms.
A phosphate ion that is the conjugate base of hydrogenphosphate.
The monophosphate ester obtained by condensation of phosphoric acid with the primary hydroxy group of pyridoxal.
(4-formyl-5-hydroxy-6-methylpyridin-3-yl)methyl dihydrogen phosphate
3-hydroxy-5-(hydroxymethyl)-2-methylisonicotinaldehyde 5-phosphate
Phosphoric acid mono-(4-formyl-5-hydroxy-6-methyl-pyridin-3-ylmethyl) ester
The (S)-enantiomer of mevalonate.
A lactone having a six-membered lactone ring.
A 4-hydroxy-4-methyloxan-2-one that has (S)-configuration.
A racemate comprising equimolar amounts of (R)-mevalonolactone and (S)-mevalonolactone.
A dihydroxy monocarboxylic acid comprising valeric acid having two hydroxy groups at the 3- and 5-positions together with a methyl group at the 3-position.
beta,delta-dihydroxy-beta-methylvaleric acid
A hydroxy monocarboxylic acid anion that is the conjugate base of 3,5-dihydroxy-3-methylpentanoic acid resulting from the deprotonation of the carboxy group; Major species at pH 7.3.
An N-acetyl-amino acid having D-configuration.
An L-amino acid having an N-acetyl substituent.
An N-acyl-amino acid that has acetyl as the acyl group.
Any N-acylamino acid having L-configuration.
A glycosyl compound arising formally from the elimination of water from a glycosidic hydroxy group and an H atom bound to a nitrogen atom, thus creating a C-N bond.
Compounds with the general formula RNHC(=O)CH3.
Any amino acid derivative that is the N-acetyl or O-acetyl derivative of an amino acid.
An organic group formed by removing one or more hydroxy groups from an oxoacid that has the general structure RkE(=O)l(OH)m (l ≠ 0). Although the term is almost always applied to organic compounds, with carboxylic acid as the oxoacid, acyl groups can in principle be derived from other types of acids such as sulfonic acids or phosphonic acids.
Any of the naturally occurring, basic nitrogen compounds (mostly heterocyclic) occurring mostly in the plant kingdom, but also found in bacteria, fungi, and animals. By extension, certain neutral compounds biogenetically related to basic alkaloids are also classed as alkaloids. Amino acids, peptides, proteins, nucleotides, nucleic acids, amino sugars and antibiotics are not normally regarded as alkaloids. Compounds in which the nitrogen is exocyclic (dopamine, mescaline, serotonin, etc.) are usually classed as amines rather than alkaloids.
A univalent group ‒CnH2n+1 derived from an alkane by removal of a hydrogen atom from any carbon atom.
Any amine formally derived from ammonia by replacing one, two or three hydrogen atoms by alkyl groups.
Highly reactive chemical that introduces alkyl radicals into biologically active molecules and thereby prevents their proper functioning. It could be used as an antineoplastic agent, but it might be very toxic, with carcinogenic, mutagenic, teratogenic, and immunosuppressant actions. It could also be used as a component of poison gases.
A monoatomic or polyatomic species having one or more elementary charges of the electron.
A substance that opposes oxidation or inhibits reactions brought about by dioxygen or peroxides.
A substance that destroys or inhibits replication of viruses.
A ketoaldonate that is the conjugate base of ascorbic acid.
An L-α-amino acid which is L-aspartic acid or any of the essential amino acids biosynthesised from it (asparagine, lysine, methionine, threonine and isoleucine). A closed class.
oxaloacetate/aspartate family amino acid
oxaloacetate/aspartate family amino acids
A molecular entity having an available pair of electrons capable of forming a covalent bond with a hydron (Brønsted base) or with the vacant orbital of some other molecular entity (Lewis base).
Any benzenoid aromatic compound consisting of the benzene skeleton and its substituted derivatives.
A monocarboxylic acid anion obtained by deprotonation of the carboxy group of any benzoic acid.
Any aromatic carboxylic acid that consists of benzene in which at least a single hydrogen has been substituted by a carboxy group.
Any quinone resulting from the formal oxidation of catechol, hydroquinone, or their C-substituted derivatives.
Any compound that produces a peak used as reference frequency in the δ chemical shift scale.
Any amino acid-derived zwitterion - such as glycine betaine (N,N,N-trimethylammonioacetate) - in which the ammonium nitrogen carries methyl substituents and bears no hydrogen atoms.
A sodium salt of the conjugate of any bile acid with either glycine or taurine.
Any amino acid in which the parent hydrocarbon chain has one or more alkyl substituents
Any inhibitor of complement component 5.
The univalent carboacyl group formed by loss of -OH from the carboxy group of carbamic acid.
Organooxygen compounds that are salts or esters of carbonic acid, H2CO3.
An EC 4.2.1.* (hydro-lyases) inhibitor that interferes with the action of carbonic anhydrase (EC 4.2.1.1). Such compounds reduce the secretion of H+ ions by the proximal kidney tubule.
EC 4.2.1.1 (carbonic anhydrase) inhibitors
carbonate hydro-lyase (carbon-dioxide-forming) inhibitor
carbonate hydro-lyase (carbon-dioxide-forming) inhibitors
carbonic anhydrase (EC 4.2.1.1) inhibitor
carbonic anhydrase (EC 4.2.1.1) inhibitors
EC 4.2.1.1 (carbonic anhydrase) inhibitor
One of a class of tetraterpenoids (C40), formally derived from the acyclic parent, ψ,ψ-carotene by hydrogenation, dehydrogenation, cyclization, oxidation, or combination of these processes. This class includes carotenes, xanthophylls and certain compounds that arise from rearrangement of the skeleton of ψ,ψ-carotene or by loss of part of this structure. Retinoids are excluded.
A class of β-lactam antibiotics differing from the penicillins in having a 6-membered, rather than a 5-membered, side ring. Although cephalosporins are among the most commonly used antibiotics in the treatment of routine infections, and their use is increasing over time, they can cause a range of hypersensitivity reactions, from mild, delayed-onset cutaneous reactions to life-threatening anaphylaxis in patients with immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated allergy.
A quaternary ammonium ion based on the choline ion and its substituted derivatives thereof.
Any member of the class of chromanes that is chromane substituted by one or more hydroxy groups.
A low-molecular-weight, non-protein organic compound participating in enzymatic reactions as dissociable acceptor or donor of chemical groups or electrons.
An organic molecule or ion (usually a metal ion) that is required by an enzyme for its activity. It may be attached either loosely (coenzyme) or tightly (prosthetic group).
Any constitutionally or isotopically distinct atom, molecule, ion, ion pair, radical, radical ion, complex, conformer etc., identifiable as a separately distinguishable entity.
An amino acid derivative resulting from reaction of cysteine at the amino group, carboxy group, or thiol group, or from the replacement of any hydrogen of cysteine by a heteroatom. The definition normally excludes peptides containing cysteine residues.
A hydroxy-5β-cholanic acid carrying two hydroxy groups at unspecified positions.
Any terpenoid derived from a diterpene. The term includes compounds in which the C20 skeleton of the parent diterpene has been rearranged or modified by the removal of one or more skeletal atoms (generally methyl groups).
Any substance which when absorbed into a living organism may modify one or more of its functions. The term is generally accepted for a substance taken for a therapeutic purpose, but is also commonly used for abused substances.
A compound or agent that combines with an enzyme in such a manner as to prevent the normal substrate-enzyme combination and the catalytic reaction.
Any primary alcohol based on an ethanol skeleton.
Any carboxylic ester resulting from the formal condensation of the carboxy group of a carboxylic acid with ethanol.
Any vitamin that dissolves in fats and are stored in body tissues. Unlike the water-soluble vitamins, they are stored in the body for long periods of time and generally pose a greater risk for toxicity when consumed in excess.
Compounds containing at least one furan ring.
Glucocorticoids are a class of steroid hormones that regulate a variety of physiological processes, in particular control of the concentration of glucose in blood.
An amino acid derivative resulting from reaction of glutamic acid at the amino group or either of the carboxy groups, or from the replacement of any hydrogen by a heteroatom. The definition normally excludes peptides containing glutamic acid residues.
An L-α-amino acid which is L-glutamic acid or any of the essential amino acids biosynthesised from it (glutamine, proline and arginine). A closed class.
An EC 6.3.* (C‒N bond-forming ligase) inhibitor that interferes with the action of glutamate—ammonia ligase (EC 6.3.1.2).
EC 6.3.1.2 (glutamate--ammonia ligase) inhibitors
L-glutamate:ammonia ligase (ADP-forming) inhibitor
L-glutamate:ammonia ligase (ADP-forming) inhibitors
glutamate--ammonia ligase (EC 6.3.1.2) inhibitor
glutamate--ammonia ligase (EC 6.3.1.2) inhibitors
glutamylhydroxamic synthetase inhibitors
EC 6.3.1.2 (glutamate--ammonia ligase) inhibitor
A proteinogenic amino acid derivative resulting from reaction of glycine at the amino group or the carboxy group, or from the replacement of any hydrogen of glycine by a heteroatom.
Any disaccharide in which the two monosaccharide components are connected by a glycosidic linkage between their anomeric centres.
A chemical entity is a physical entity of interest in chemistry including molecular entities, parts thereof, and chemical substances.
A role played by the molecular entity or part thereof within a biological context.
A defined linked collection of atoms or a single atom within a molecular entity.
Any organonitrogen compound containing a carbamimidamido (guanidino) group. Guanidines have the general structure (R1R2N)(R3R4N)C=N-R5 and are related structurally to amidines and ureas.
A cyclic compound having as ring members atoms of carbon and at least of one other element.
A heterodetic cyclic peptide is a peptide consisting only of amino-acid residues, but in which the linkages forming the ring are not solely peptide bonds; one or more is an isopeptide, disulfide, ester, or other bond.
Originally referring to an endogenous compound that is formed in specialized organ or group of cells and carried to another organ or group of cells, in the same organism, upon which it has a specific regulatory function, the term is now commonly used to include non-endogenous, semi-synthetic and fully synthetic analogues of such compounds.
A compound consisting of carbon and hydrogen only.
Hydroxides are chemical compounds containing a hydroxy group or salts containing hydroxide (OH−).
Any member of the class of 5β-cholanic acids carrying at least one hydroxy group at unspecified position.
Any carboxylic acid with at least one hydroxy group.
Any member of the class of pyridines with at least one hydroxy substituent.
A compound which contains oxygen, at least one other element, and at least one hydrogen bound to oxygen, and which produces a conjugate base by loss of positive hydrogen ion(s) (hydrons).
A molecular entity that contains no carbon.
A salt is an assembly of cations and anions.
A molecular entity having a net electric charge.
A 2-amino-3-methylpentanoic acid having either (2R,3R)- or (2S,3S)-configuration.
rel-(2R,3R)-2-amino-3-methylpentanoic acid
Any lipid formally derived from isoprene (2-methylbuta-1,3-diene), the skeleton of which can generally be discerned in repeated occurrence in the molecule. The skeleton of isoprenoids may differ from strict additivity of isoprene units by loss or shift of a fragment, commonly a methyl group. The class includes both hydrocarbons and oxygenated derivatives.
Oxo carboxylic acids formally derived from aldonic acids by replacement of a secondary CHOH group by a carbonyl group.
Any hexose containing a single ketone group.
Ketonic parent sugars (polyhydroxy ketones H[CH(OH)]nC(=O)[CH(OH)]mH) and their intramolecular hemiketals.
Cyclic amides of amino carboxylic acids, having a 1-azacycloalkan-2-one structure, or analogues having unsaturation or heteroatoms replacing one or more carbon atoms of the ring.
Any cyclic carboxylic ester containing a 1-oxacycloalkan-2-one structure, or an analogue having unsaturation or heteroatoms replacing one or more carbon atoms of the ring.
A branched-chain amino acid that consists of glycine in which one of the hydrogens attached to the α-carbon is substituted by an isobutyl group.
A diamino acid that is caproic (hexanoic) acid bearing two amino substituents at positions 2 and 6.
A macrocyclic lactone with a ring of twelve or more members which exhibits antibiotic activity.
A macrocyclic lactone with a ring of twelve or more members derived from a polyketide.
Any intermediate or product resulting from metabolism. The term 'metabolite' subsumes the classes commonly known as primary and secondary metabolites.
Any member of the class of pyridines that carries at least one methyl substituent.
A racemate composed of equimolar amounts of (R)- and (S)-mevalonate.
A racemate composed of equimolar amounts of (R)- and (S)-mevalonic acid.
rac-3,5-dihydroxy-3-methylpentanoic acid
(+-)-2,4-dideoxy-3-C-methylpentonic acid
Any polyatomic entity that is an electrically neutral entity consisting of more than one atom.
An oxoacid containing a single carboxy group.
An agent that increases the frequency of mutations above the normal background level, usually by interacting directly with DNA and causing it damage, including base substitution.
A polycyclic aromatic ketone metabolite of naphthalene.
An endogenous compound that is used to transmit information across the synapse between a neuron and another cell.
A family of polyunsaturated fatty acids that have in common a final carbon-carbon double bond in the ω−3 position, i.e., the third bond from the methyl end of the fatty acid.
Any organic ion with a net negative charge.
Any organic ion with a net positive charge.
Compounds of the general formula SO3HOR where R is an organyl group
An alcohol derived from an aliphatic compound.
An organophosphorus compound is formally a compound containing at least one carbon-phosphorus bond, but the term is often extended to include esters and thioesters.
A solute used by a cell under water stress to maintain cell volume.
An oxide is a chemical compound of oxygen with other chemical elements.
Any compound that has an aldehydic or ketonic group as well as a carboxylic acid group in the same molecule.
Any fatty acid anion containing at least one C-C unsaturated bond; formed by deprotonation of the carboxylic acid moiety.
A quinone in which the two oxo groups of the quinone are located para to each other on the 6-membered quinonoid ring.
A class of amides formed from pantoic acid and β-alanine and its derivatives.
A five-carbon monosaccharide which in its linear form contains either an aldehyde group at position 1 (aldopentose) or a ketone group at position 2 (ketopentose).
Any peptide with hormonal activity in animals, whether endocrine, neuroendocrine, or paracrine.
Salts and esters of phosphoric and oligophosphoric acids and their chalcogen analogues. In inorganic chemistry, the term is also used to describe anionic coordination entities with phosphorus as central atom.
A phosphorus oxoacid that consists of one oxo and three hydroxy groups joined covalently to a central phosphorus atom.
An endogenous molecular entity that results in a colour of an organism as the consequence of the selective absorption of light.
Any amino acid whose side chain is capable of forming one or more hydrogen bonds.
Natural and synthetic compounds containing alternating carbonyl and methylene groups ('β-polyketones'), biogenetically derived from repeated condensation of acetyl coenzyme A (via malonyl coenzyme A), and usually the compounds derived from them by further condensations, etc. Considered by many to be synonymous with the less frequently used terms acetogenins and ketides.
A compound that contains two or more hydroxy groups.
Any fatty acid containing more than one double bond. Acids in this group are reported to have cardioprotective effects; and levels are lowered in chronic fatigue syndrome.
A quinone substituted by a polyprenyl-derived side-chain. Prenylquinones occur in all living cells. Due to their amphiphilic character, they are mainly located in biological membranes where they function as electron and proton carriers in the photosynthetic and respiratory electron transport chains. Some prenylquinones also perform more specialised roles sucy as antioxidants and enzyme cofactors. Prenylquinones are classified according to ring structure: the main classes are menaquinones, phylloquinones, ubiquinones and plastoquinones.
A tightly bound, specific nonpolypeptide unit in a protein determining and involved in its biological activity.
A class of imidazopyrimidines that consists of purine and its substituted derivatives.
A monocarboxylic acid in which the carboxy group is attached to a pyridine (or substituted pyridine) ring.
Any organonitrogen heterocyclic compound based on a pyridine skeleton and its substituted derivatives.
A nucleobase whose skeleton is derived from pyrimidine.
A nitrogen molecular entity that is electronically neutral but which contains a quaternary nitrogen.
Molecules or ions formed by the incomplete one-electron reduction of oxygen. They contribute to the microbicidal activity of phagocytes, regulation of signal transduction and gene expression, and the oxidative damage to biopolymers.
Oxygenated derivatives of 3,7-dimethyl-1-(2,6,6-trimethylcyclohex-1-enyl)nona-1,3,5,7-tetraene and derivatives thereof.
Any fatty acid containing no carbon to carbon multiple bonds. Known to produce adverse biological effects when ingested to excess.
An α-amino acid which is biosynthesised from 3-phosphoglycerate (i.e. serine, glycine, cysteine and homocysteine). A closed class.
An aliphatic monocarboxylic acid with a chain length of less than C6. If any non-hydrocarbon substituent is present, the compound is not normally regarded as a short-chain fatty acid.
Any alkali metal salt having sodium(1+) as the cation.
An ester of an alcohol and sulfuric acid.
A sulfur oxoacid that consists of two oxo and two hydroxy groups joined covalently to a central sulfur atom.
Any isoprenoid that is a natural product or related compound formally derived from isoprene units. Terpenoids may contain oxygen in various functional groups. This class is subdivided according to the number of carbon atoms in the parent terpene. The skeleton of terpenoids may differ from strict additivity of isoprene units by the loss or shift of a fragment, generally a methyl group.
A tertiary alcohol is a compound in which a hydroxy group, ‒OH, is attached to a saturated carbon atom which has three other carbon atoms attached to it.
A subclass of polyketides having an octahydrotetracene-2-carboxamide skeleton, substituted with many hydroxy and other groups.
Any oxacycle having an oxolane (tetrahydrofuran) skeleton.
A natural pigment containing four pyrrole rings joined by one-carbon units linking position 2 of one pyrrole ring to position 5 of the next.
Any terpenoid derived from a tetraterpene. The term includes compounds in which the C40 skeleton of the parent tetraterpene has been rearranged or modified by the removal of one or more skeletal atoms (generally methyl groups).
Any member of the group of 1,3-thiazolium cations that exhibit biological activity against vitamin B1 deficiency in animals. Symptoms of vitamin B1 deficiency include constipation, loss of apetite, fatigue, nausea, delirium, blurry vision and muscle weakness. Severe vitamin B1 deficiency can also lead to a disease known as beriberi. Vitamin B1 consists of the vitamer thiamin and its acid, aldehyde and phosphorylated derivatives (and their corresponding ionized, salt and hydrate forms).
An organic tricyclic compound in which at least one of the rings of the tricyclic skeleton contains one or more heteroatoms.
Any member of the class of benzenes that is a substituted benzene in which the substituents include one (and only one) methyl group.
Any nutrient required in small quantities by organisms throughout their life in order to orchestrate a range of physiological functions.
An element whose atom has an incomplete d sub-shell, or which can give rise to cations with an incomplete d sub-shell.
A chemical compound containing three hydroxy groups.
A univalent carboacyl group is a group formed by loss of OH from the carboxy group of a carboxylic acid.
Any fatty acid containing at least one C=C or C≡C bond.
A branched-chain amino acid that consists of glycine in which one of the hydrogens attached to the α-carbon is substituted by an isopropyl group.
Any member of a group of fat-soluble hydroxy seco-steroids that exhibit biological activity against vitamin D deficiency. Vitamin D can be obtained from sun exposure, food and supplements and is biologically inactive and converted into the biologically active calcitriol via double hydroxylation in the body.
Any member of the group of pyridines that exhibit biological activity against vitamin B6 deficiency. Vitamin B6 deficiency is associated with microcytic anemia, electroencephalographic abnormalities, dermatitis with cheilosis (scaling on the lips and cracks at the corners of the mouth) and glossitis (swollen tongue), depression and confusion, and weakened immune function. Vitamin B6 consists of the vitamers pyridoxine, pyridoxal, and pyridoxamine and their respective 5'-phosphate esters (and includes their corresponding ionized and salt forms).
Any vitamin that dissolves in water and readily absorbed into tissues for immediate use. Unlike the fat-soluble vitamins, they are not stored in the body and need to be replenished regularly in the diet and will rarely accumulate to toxic levels since they are quickly excreted from the body via urine.
A subclass of carotenoids consisting of the oxygenated carotenes.
A neutral compound having formal unit electrical charges of opposite sign on non-adjacent atoms. Sometimes referred to as inner salts, dipolar ions (a misnomer).
An N-acyl-amino acid that is a form of the water-soluble vitamin B9. Its biologically active forms (tetrahydrofolate and others) are essential for nucleotide biosynthesis and homocysteine remethylation.
N-(4-{[(2-amino-4-oxo-3,4-dihydropteridin-6-yl)methyl]amino}benzoyl)-L-glutamic acid
(2S)-2-(4-{[(2-amino-4-oxo-3,4-dihydropteridin-6-yl)methyl]amino}benzamido)pentanedioic acid
N-[(4-{[(2-amino-4-oxo-1,4-dihydropteridin-6-yl)methyl]amino}phenyl)carbonyl]-L-glutamic acid
A cobalt group element atom that has atomic number 27.
A surfactant (or a mixture containing one or more surfactants) having cleaning properties in dilute solutions.
A broad-spectrum polyketide antibiotic produced by the Streptomyces genus of actinobacteria.
An organonitrogen heterocyclic antibiotic that contains a β-lactam ring.
An aromatic amino acid that is alanine in which one of the methyl hydrogens is substituted by a phenyl group.
An aldohexose that is the C-4 epimer of glucose.
Any member of a group of fat-soluble 2-methyl-1,4-napthoquinones that exhibit biological activity against vitamin K deficiency. Vitamin K is required for the synthesis of prothrombin and certain other blood coagulation factors.
A cyclic carotene with a β- and an ε-ring at opposite ends respectively.
A one-carbon compound that is ammonia in which one of the hydrogens is replaced by a carboxy group. Although carbamic acid derivatives are common, carbamic acid itself has never been synthesised.
A ketohexose that is an isomer of glucose.
The conjugate base of a fatty acid, arising from deprotonation of the carboxylic acid group of the corresponding fatty acid.
The (S)-enantiomer of mevalonic acid.
(3S)-3,5-dihydroxy-3-methylpentanoic acid
An onium cation obtained by protonation of ammonia.
An N-acetyl-L-amino acid that is the N-acetylated derivative of the natural amino acid L-cysteine.
(2R)-2-acetylamino-3-sulfanylpropanoic acid
(R)-2-acetylamino-3-mercaptopropanoic acid
L-alpha-acetamido-beta-mercaptopropionic acid
A carboxylic acid dianion obtained by deprotonation of both carboxy groups of any dicarboxylic acid.
An α-amino acid that is glycine in which the α-is substituted by a 3-guanidinopropyl group.
2-amino-5-(carbamimidamido)pentanoic acid
A pantothenate that is the conjugate base of (R)-pantothenic acid, obtained by deprotonation of the carboxy group.
(R)-N-(2,4-dihydroxy-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutyl)-beta-alanine, ion(1-)
{[(2S,4S,5R,6S)-5-acetamido-6-{[(2S,3R,4S,5S,6R)-2-{[(2R,3S,4R,5R,6S)-5-acetamido-4-hydroxy-2-[(sulfooxy)methyl]-6-{[(2R,3R,4S,5S,6R)-2,3,5-trihydroxy-6-[(sulfooxy)methyl]oxan-4-yl]oxy}oxan-3-yl]oxy}-3,5-dihydroxy-6-[(sulfooxy)methyl]oxan-4-yl]oxy}-4-hydroxyoxan-2-yl]methoxy}sulfonic acid
The conjugate base formed when the carboxy group of a carboxylic acid is deprotonated.
A monoatomic monocation obtained from sodium.
A diatomic molecule containing covalently bonded hydrogen and fluorine atoms.
A divalent inorganic anion resulting from the removal of two protons from ammonia.
A carboxamide derived from a monocarboxylic acid.
A bile acid anion that is the conjugate base of cholic acid.
An α-amino-acid anion that is the conjugate base of L-glutamic acid, having anionic carboxy groups and a cationic amino group
An α-amino-acid anion that is the conjugate base of D-glutamic acid, having anionic carboxy groups and a cationic amino group
A dicarboxylic acid dianion that is the conjugate base of glutamate(1−).
An L-α-amino acid anion that is the dianion obtained by the deprotonation of the both the carboxy groups of L-glutamic acid.
A monocarboxylic acid anion resulting from the removal of a proton from the carboxy group of acetic acid.
An alkane that is propane substituted by a methyl group at position 2.
A cobalt-corrinoid hexaamide that is cobalamin with the oxidation state of the central cobalt atom unspecified.
A derivative of the dimethylisoalloxazine (7,8-dimethylbenzo[g]pteridine-2,4(3H,10H)-dione) skeleton, with a substituent on the 10 position.
A dicarboxylic acid dianion obtained by deprotonation of both carboxy groups of oxalic acid.
The simplest carboxylic acid, containing a single carbon. Occurs naturally in various sources including the venom of bee and ant stings, and is a useful organic synthetic reagent. Principally used as a preservative and antibacterial agent in livestock feed. Induces severe metabolic acidosis and ocular injury in human subjects.
A short-chain saturated fatty acid comprising ethane attached to the carbon of a carboxy group.
A straight-chain saturated fatty acid that is butane in which one of the terminal methyl groups has been oxidised to a carboxy group.
A C6, straight-chain saturated fatty acid.
A compound in which a hydroxy group, ‒OH, is attached to a saturated carbon atom.
Any member of a group of hydroxy-5β-cholanic acids occuring in bile, where they are present as the sodium salts of their amides with glycine or taurine. In mammals bile acids almost invariably have 5β-configuration.
A short-chain fatty acid anion that is the conjugate base of valeric acid; present in ester form as component of many steroid-based pharmaceuticals.
The ethyl ester of tazarotenic acid. A prodrug for tazarotenic acid, it is used for the treatment of psoriasis, acne, and sun-damaged skin.
ethyl 6-[(4,4-dimethyl-3,4-dihydro-2H-thiochromen-6-yl)ethynyl]nicotinate
The L-enantiomer of cysteinate(1−).
The L-enantiomer of cysteinate(2−).
The L-enantiomer of cysteinium.
The D-enantiomer of cysteinate(1−).
The D-enantiomer of cysteinate(2−).
The D-enantiomer of cysteinium.
A sulfur-containing amino-acid anion that is the conjugate base of cysteine, obtained by deprotonation of the carboxy group.
An aromatic amino-acid anion that is the conjugate base of phenylalanine, arising from deprotonation of the carboxy group.
An α-amino-acid cation that is the conjugate acid of phenylalanine, arising from protonation of the amino group.
An α-amino-acid cation that is the conjugate acid of glycine, arising from protonation of the amino.
An α-amino-acid anion that is the conjugate base of glycine, arising from deprotonation of the carboxy group.
A pyridinemonocarboxylate that is the conjugate base of nicotinic acid, arising from deprotonation of the carboxy group; major species at pH 7.3.
An α-amino-acid anion that is the conjugate base of lysine, arising from deprotonation of the carboxy group.
An α-amino-acid cation that is the conjugate acid of lysine, having two cationic amino groups and an anionic carboxy group.
An α-amino-acid cation obtained by protonation of both amino groups of lysine.
An acene that consists of four ortho-fused benzene rings in a rectilinear arrangement.
An α-amino-acid anion that is the conjugate base of leucine, arising from deprotonation of the carboxy group.
An α-amino-acid cation that is the conjugate acid of leucine, arising from protonation of the amino group.
The L-enantiomer of methioninate.
The L-enantiomer of methioninium.
The D-enantiomer of methioninate.
The D-enantiomer of methioninium.
A sulfur-containing amino-acid anion that is the conjugate base of methionine, arising from deprotonation of the carboxy group.
A sulfur-containing amino-acid cation that is the conjugate acid of methionine, arising from protonation of the amino group.
An α-amino-acid anion that is the conjugate base of tyrosine, arising from deprotonation of the carboxy group.
An α-amino-acid cation that is the conjugate acid of tyrosine, arising from protonation of the amino group.
A 2-oxo monocarboxylic acid that is the 2-keto derivative of propionic acid. It is a metabolite obtained during glycolysis.
A serinate that is the conjugate base of L-serine, obtained by deprotonation of the carboxy group.
A serinium that is the conjugate acid of L-serine, obtained by protonation of the amino group.
The D-enantiomer of serinate.
The D-enantiomer of serinium.
An α-amino-acid anion that is the conjugate base of serine.
An α-amino-acid cation that is the conjugate acid of serine.
A compound formally derived from ammonia by replacing three hydrogen atoms by hydrocarbyl groups.
A compound formally derived from ammonia by replacing one hydrogen atom by a hydrocarbyl group.
A compound formally derived from ammonia by replacing one, two or three hydrogen atoms by hydrocarbyl groups.
An amide is a derivative of an oxoacid RkE(=O)l(OH)m (l ≠ 0) in which an acidic hydroxy group has been replaced by an amino or substituted amino group.
A calcium salt with formula CCaO3.
A benzopyran consisting of a pyran ring having a benzene ring ortho-fused across positions 2 and 3.
A biochemical role played by any micronutrient that is an organic compound. Vitamins are present in foods in small amounts and are essential to normal metabolism and biochemical functions, usually as coenzymes. The term "vitamines" (from vita + amines) was coined in 1912 by Casimir Funk, who believed that these compounds were amines.
A substance that kills or slows the growth of Mycobacterium tuberculosis and is used in the treatment of tuberculosis.
Intended use of the molecular entity or part thereof by humans.
A particle not known to have substructure.
Any member of a group of fat-soluble chromanols that exhibit biological activity against vitamin E deficiency. The vitamers in this class consists of a chroman-6-ol core which is substituted at position 2 by a methyl group and (also at position 2) either a saturated or a triply-unsaturated hydrocarbon chain consisting of three isoprenoid units. The major function of vitamin E is to act as a natural antioxidant by scavenging free radicals and molecular oxygen.
A monoatomic entity is a molecular entity consisting of a single atom.
An assembly consisting of a central atom (usually metallic) to which is attached a surrounding array of other groups of atoms (ligands).
An organic fundamental parent is a structure used as a basis for substitutive names in organic nomenclature, containing, in addition to one or more hydrogen atoms, a single atom of an element, a number of atoms (alike or different) linked together to form an unbranched chain, a monocyclic or polycyclic ring system, or a ring assembly or ring/chain system.
Any substituent group which does not contain carbon.
Any substituent group or skeleton containing carbon.
A univalent group formed by removing a hydrogen atom from a hydrocarbon.
Any organic substituent group, regardless of functional type, having one free valence at a carbon atom.
A chemical entity constituting the smallest component of an element having the chemical properties of the element.
A nucleus is the positively charged central portion of an atom, excluding the orbital electrons.
Heavy nuclear particle: proton or neutron.
A derivative of an oxoacid RkE(=O)l(OH)m (l ≠ 0) in which an acidic hydroxy group has been replaced by an amino or substituted amino group.
A derivative of two oxoacids RkE(=O)l(OH)m (l ≠ 0) in which two acyl groups are attached to the amino or substituted amino group.
A molecular entity all atoms of which have the same atomic number.
An organosulfur compound is a compound containing at least one carbon-sulfur bond.
An anion consisting of more than one atom.
A substance that kills or slows the growth of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi and protozoans.
A substance (or active part thereof) that kills or slows the growth of bacteria.
A nutrient is a food component that an organism uses to survive and grow.
A heteroorganic entity is an organic molecular entity in which carbon atoms or organic groups are bonded directly to one or more heteroatoms.
An agrochemical is a substance that is used in agriculture or horticulture.
A fertilizer is any substance that is added to soil or water to assist the growth of plants.
An energy-rich substance that can be transformed with release of usable energy.
A substance administered to aid diagnosis of a disease.
A molecular entity containing one or more atoms of an alkali metal.
An alkaline earth molecular entity is a molecular entity containing one or more atoms of an alkaline earth metal.
Any p-block element atom that is in group 15 of the periodic table: nitrogen, phosphorus, arsenic, antimony and bismuth.
A p-block molecular entity containing any pnictogen.
Any p-block element belonging to the group 16 family of the periodic table.
Any p-block molecular entity containing a chalcogen.
An ester of a carboxylic acid, R1C(=O)OR2, where R1 = H or organyl and R2 = organyl.
An atom belonging to one of the main groups (found in the s- and p- blocks) of the periodic table.
A serine zwitterion obtained by transfer of a proton from the carboxy to the amino group of L-serine.
A hydracid is a compound which contains hydrogen that is not bound to oxygen, and which produces a conjugate base by loss of positive hydrogen ion(s) (hydrons).
Arylmethyl groups and derivatives formed by substitution: ArCR2‒.
A pnictogen oxoacid which contains phosphorus and oxygen, at least one hydrogen atom bound to oxygen, and forms an ion by the loss of one or more protons.
A molecular entity containing one or more atoms of a transition element.
An atom of an element that exhibits typical metallic properties, being typically shiny, with high electrical and thermal conductivity.
The sulfur oxoanion formed by deprotonation of sulfonic acid.
An amino-acid anion obtained by deprotonation of any α-amino acid.
Any main group element atom belonging to the p-block of the periodic table.
A carbon oxoacid acid carrying at least one ‒C(=O)OH group and having the structure RC(=O)OH, where R is any any monovalent functional group. Carboxylic acids are the most common type of organic acid.
Any carboxylic acid having a sulfur substituent.
A molecular entity containing one or more atoms from any of groups 1, 2, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, and 18 of the periodic table.
Any molecule that consists of a series of atoms joined together to form a ring.
A cyclic compound having as ring members atoms of the same element only.
A homocyclic compound in which all of the ring members are carbon atoms.
A molecule that features two fused rings.
A polycyclic compound in which two rings have two, and only two, atoms in common. Such compounds have n common faces and 2n common atoms.
Any acyclic or cyclic, saturated or unsaturated carbon compound, excluding aromatic compounds.
A cyclically conjugated molecular entity with a stability (due to delocalization) significantly greater than that of a hypothetical localized structure (e.g. Kekulé structure) is said to possess aromatic character.
Any monocyclic or polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon.
A mancude monocyclic hydrocarbon without side chains of the general formula CnHn (n is an even number) or CnHn+1 (n is an odd number). In systematic nomenclature an annulene with seven or more carbon atoms may be named [n]annulene, where n is the number of carbon atoms.
A polycyclic compound in which at least one of the rings contains at least one non-carbon atom.
A bicyclic compound in which at least one of the rings contains at least one skeletal heteroatom.
An s-block molecular entity is a molecular entity containing one or more atoms of an s-block element.
A main group molecular entity that contains one or more atoms of a p-block element.
A d-block molecular entity is a molecular entity containing one or more atoms of a d-block element.
Hydrides are chemical compounds of hydrogen with other chemical elements.
A macromolecule formed by a living organism.
A cation consisting of more than one atom.
An amino acid in which the amino group is located on the carbon atom at the position α to the carboxy group.
A non-proteinogenic amino acid in which the amino group is located on the carbon atom at the position β to the carboxy group.
A non-proteinogenic amino-acid in which the amino group is located on the carbon atom at the position γ to the carboxy group.
When two or more amino acids combine to form a peptide, the elements of water are removed, and what remains of each amino acid is called an amino-acid residue.
A carboxylic acid containing one or more amino groups.
An amino-acid residue derived from an α-amino acid.
An organic compound having at least one hydroxy group attached to a carbon atom.
Alkenols; the term refers specifically to vinylic alcohols, which have the structure HOCR'=CR2. Enols are tautomeric with aldehydes (R' = H) or ketones (R' ≠ H).
Any organic molecule that consists of atoms connected in the form of a ring.
A heterocyclic compound formally derived from an arene by replacement of one or more methine (‒C=) and/or vinylene (‒CH=CH‒) groups by trivalent or divalent heteroatoms, respectively, in such a way as to maintain the continuous π-electron system characteristic of aromatic systems and a number of out-of-plane π-electrons corresponding to the Hückel rule (4n+2).
Conjugated protein is a protein that contains a non-peptide component, usually in stoichiometric proportion.
An N-glycosyl compound that has both a nucleobase, normally adenine, guanine, xanthine, thymine, cytosine or uracil, and either a ribose or deoxyribose as functional parents.
A macromolecule is a molecule of high relative molecular mass, the structure of which essentially comprises the multiple repetition of units derived, actually or conceptually, from molecules of low relative molecular mass.
Organic aromatic compounds having one or more hydroxy groups attached to a benzene or other arene ring.
An amino acid whose structure includes an aromatic ring.
Any carboxylic acid in which the carboxy group is directly bonded to an aromatic ring.
An amino compound in which the amino group is linked directly to an aromatic system.
transition element coordination entities
A substance used in a chemical reaction to detect, measure, examine, or produce other substances.
A derivative of the corrin nucleus, which contains four reduced or partly reduced pyrrole rings joined in a macrocycle by three =C‒ groups and one direct carbon-carbon bond linking α positions.
A pentose with a (potential) aldehyde group at one end.
A hexose with a (potential) aldehyde group at one end.
Any nutrient required in large quantities by organisms throughout their life in order to orchestrate a range of physiological functions. Macronutrients are usually chemical elements (carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, phosphorus and sulfur) that humans consume in the largest quantities. Calcium, sodium, magnesium and potassium are sometimes included as macronutrients because they are required in relatively large quantities compared with other vitamins and minerals.
Any aldopentose where the open-chain form has all the hydroxy groups on the same side in the Fischer projection. Occurrs in two enantiomeric forms, D- and L-ribose, of which only the former is found in nature.
A quaternary ammonium ion that is the the conjugate acid of carnitine.
3-hydroxy-4-(trimethylammonio)butanoic acid
Saturated acyclic nitrogen hydrides having the general formula NnHn+2.
An oxo monocarboxylic acid anion in which the oxo group is located at the 2-position.
A hydrocarbon of biological origin having carbon skeleton formally derived from isoprene [CH2=C(CH3)CH=CH2].
A C20 terpene.
A C30 terpene.
A C40 terpene.
A substance which lowers the surface tension of the medium in which it is dissolved, and/or the interfacial tension with other phases, and, accordingly, is positively adsorbed at the liquid/vapour and/or at other interfaces.
A substance that diminishes the rate of a chemical reaction.
A substance that increases the rate of a reaction without modifying the overall standard Gibbs energy change in the reaction.
The zwitterionic form of an amino acid having a negatively charged carboxyl group and a positively charged amino group.
An amino acid zwitterion obtained by transfer of a proton from the carboxy to the amino group of serine.
A serine zwitterion obtained by transfer of a proton from the carboxy to the amino group of D-serine.
A derivative of ammonium, NH4+, in which all four of the hydrogens bonded to nitrogen have been replaced with univalent (usually organyl) groups.
A derivative of ammonium, NH4+, in which one (or more) of the hydrogens bonded to the nitrogen have been replaced with univalent organyl groups. The substituting carbon of the organyl group must not itself be directly attached to a heteroatom (thereby excluding protonated amides, hemiaminals, etc).
Neutral molecules having charge-separated forms with an onium atom which bears no hydrogen atoms and that is not adjacent to the anionic atom.
Neutral molecules having charge-separated forms with an sulfonium atom which bears no hydrogen atoms and that is not adjacent to the anionic atom.
Any neutral molecule having charge-separated forms with a quaternary ammonium atom which bears no hydrogen atoms and that is not adjacent to the anionic atom.
A polycyclic compound that contains more than one ring with at least two common atoms (also known as bridgehead carbons) that are adjacent to each other.
A polyclic compound in which all of the ring members are carbon atoms.
A polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon consisting of fused benzene rings in a rectilinear arrangement.
Any drug that enhances the activity of the central nervous system.
Amines that constitute a class of central nervous system stimulants based on the structure of the parent amphetamine 1-phenylpropan-2-amine.
Any of naturally occurring compounds and synthetic analogues, based on the cyclopenta[a]phenanthrene carbon skeleton, partially or completely hydrogenated; there are usually methyl groups at C-10 and C-13, and often an alkyl group at C-17. By extension, one or more bond scissions, ring expansions and/or ring contractions of the skeleton may have occurred. Natural steroids are derived biogenetically from squalene which is a triterpene.
A sterol in which the hydroxy group at position 3 has β- configuration.
Any heteroorganic entity containing at least one carbon-nitrogen bond.
An imide in which the two acyl substituents on nitrogen are carboacyl groups.
An amide of a sulfonic acid RS(=O)2NR'2.
Any aliphatic monocarboxylic acid derived from or contained in esterified form in an animal or vegetable fat, oil or wax. Natural fatty acids commonly have a chain of 4 to 28 carbons (usually unbranched and even-numbered), which may be saturated or unsaturated. By extension, the term is sometimes used to embrace all acyclic aliphatic carboxylic acids.
Parent monosaccharides are polyhydroxy aldehydes H[CH(OH)]nC(=O)H or polyhydroxy ketones H‒[CHOH]n‒C(=O)[CHOH]m‒H with three or more carbon atoms. The generic term 'monosaccharide' (as opposed to oligosaccharide or polysaccharide) denotes a single unit, without glycosidic connection to other such units. It includes aldoses, dialdoses, aldoketoses, ketoses and diketoses, as well as deoxy sugars, provided that the parent compound has a (potential) carbonyl group.
An oxoanion is an anion derived from an oxoacid by loss of hydron(s) bound to oxygen.
A substance used in the prophylaxis or therapy of infectious diseases.
A substance used to treat or prevent parasitic infections.
An EC 3.4.15.* (peptidyl-dipeptidase) inhibitor that interferes with the action of peptidyl-dipeptidase A (EC 3.4.15.1).
EC 3.4.15.1 (peptidyl-dipeptidase A) inhibitors
angiotensin I-converting enzyme inhibitor
angiotensin I-converting enzyme inhibitors
angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
dipeptidyl carboxypeptidase I inhibitors
endothelial cell peptidyl dipeptidase inhibitor
endothelial cell peptidyl dipeptidase inhibitors
peptidyl-dipeptidase A (EC 3.4.15.1) inhibitor
peptidyl-dipeptidase A (EC 3.4.15.1) inhibitors
EC 3.4.15.1 (peptidyl-dipeptidase A) inhibitor
Antidepressants are mood-stimulating drugs used primarily in the treatment of affective disorders and related conditions.
A class of drugs producing both physiological and psychological effects through a variety of mechanisms involving the central nervous system.
A loosely defined grouping of drugs that have effects on psychological function.
A substance that reduces or suppresses inflammation.
A traditional grouping of drugs said to have a soothing or calming effect on mood, thought or behaviour.
Anxiolytic drugs are agents that alleviate anxiety, tension, and anxiety disorders, promote sedation, and have a calming effect without affecting clarity of consciousness or neurologic conditions.
An anti-inflammatory drug that is not a steroid. In addition to anti-inflammatory actions, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs have analgesic, antipyretic, and platelet-inhibitory actions. They act by blocking the synthesis of prostaglandins by inhibiting cyclooxygenase, which converts arachidonic acid to cyclic endoperoxides, precursors of prostaglandins.
Antipsychotic drugs are agents that control agitated psychotic behaviour, alleviate acute psychotic states, reduce psychotic symptoms, and exert a quieting effect.
Antimanic drugs are agents used to treat bipolar disorders or mania associated with other affective disorders.
An agent capable of relieving pain without the loss of consciousness or without producing anaesthesia. In addition, analgesic is a role played by a compound which is exhibited by a capability to cause a reduction of pain symptoms.
A drug that has principally analgesic, antipyretic and anti-inflammatory actions. Non-narcotic analgesics do not bind to opioid receptors.
A narcotic or opioid substance, synthetic or semisynthetic agent producing profound analgesia, drowsiness, and changes in mood.
A loosely defined group of drugs that tend to reduce the activity of the central nervous system.
A compound which inhibits or antagonises the biosynthesis or actions of androgens.
An agent that promotes the excretion of urine through its effects on kidney function.
An agent that selectively binds to and activates β-adrenergic receptors.
An agent that causes an increase in the expansion of a bronchus or bronchial tubes.
A drug which lowers the blood glucose level.
An agent that binds to but does not activate β-adrenergic receptors thereby blocking the actions of endogenous or exogenous β-adrenergic agonists. β-Adrenergic antagonists are used for treatment of hypertension, cardiac arrhythmias, angina pectoris, glaucoma, migraine headaches and anxiety.
heterocyclic organic fundamental parents
organic heterocyclic fundamental parents
A drug that affects the rate or intensity of cardiac contraction, blood vessel diameter or blood volume.
Any molecular entity that consists of a ring having (formally) the maximum number of noncumulative double bonds.
An agent that selectively binds to and activates α-adrenergic receptors.
mancude-ring organic heterobicyclic parents
mancude-ring organic heterocyclic parents
A heterobicyclic aromatic organic compound comprising a pyrimidine ring fused to an imidazole ring; the parent compound of the purines.
A negative ion consisting solely of carbon and oxygen atoms, and therefore having the general formula CxOyn− for some integers x, y and n.
A substance that inhibits or prevents the proliferation of neoplasms.
A food additive that is used to added improve the taste or odour of a food.
A drug used to cause dilation of the blood vessels.
A drug used to prevent seizures or reduce their severity.
A lactam in which the amide bond is contained within a four-membered ring, which includes the amide nitrogen and the carbonyl carbon.
An EC 1.17.3.* (oxidoreductase acting on CH or CH2 with oxygen as acceptor) inhibitor that interferes with the action of xanthine oxidase (EC 1.17.3.2).
EC 1.17.3.2 (xanthine oxidase) inhibitors
hypoxanthine-xanthine oxidase inhibitors
hypoxanthine:oxygen oxidoreductase inhibitor
hypoxanthine:oxygen oxidoreductase inhibitors
xanthine oxidase (EC 1.17.3.2) inhibitor
xanthine oxidase (EC 1.17.3.2) inhibitors
xanthine:oxygen oxidoreductase inhibitor
xanthine:oxygen oxidoreductase inhibitors
EC 1.17.3.2 (xanthine oxidase) inhibitor
Adrenergic uptake inhibitors are drugs that block the transport of adrenergic transmitters into axon terminals or into storage vesicles within terminals. The tricyclic antidepressants and amphetamines are among the therapeutically important drugs that may act via inhibition of adrenergic transport. Many of these drugs also block transport of serotonin.
An inhibitor of HIV protease, an enzyme required for production of proteins needed for viral assembly.
Any EC 1.1.1.* (oxidoreductase acting on donor CH-OH group, NAD+ or NADP+ acceptor) inhibitor that inhibits HMG-CoA reductases. Hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA reductase inhibitors have been shown to lower directly cholesterol synthesis. The Enzyme Commission designation is EC 1.1.1.34 for the NADPH-dependent enzyme and EC 1.1.1.88 for an NADH-dependent enzyme.
hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA reductase inhibitor
hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA reductase inhibitors
EC 1.1.1.34/EC 1.1.1.88 (hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA reductase) inhibitor
Any drug used in the treatment of acute or chronic vascular hypertension regardless of pharmacological mechanism.
A substance used to treat hyperlipidemia (an excess of lipids in the blood).
A secondary alcohol is a compound in which a hydroxy group, ‒OH, is attached to a saturated carbon atom which has two other carbon atoms attached to it.
Any carboxylic acid containing two carboxy groups.
Any dicarboxylic acid anion that is a monoanion obtained by the deprotonation of only one of the carboxy groups of the dicarboxylic acid.
A compound formally derived from an oxoacid RkE(=O)l(OH)m (l > 0) and an alcohol, phenol, heteroarenol, or enol by linking with formal loss of water from an acidic hydroxy group of the former and a hydroxy group of the latter.
An agent that suppresses immune function by one of several mechanisms of action. Classical cytotoxic immunosuppressants act by inhibiting DNA synthesis. Others may act through activation of T-cells or by inhibiting the activation of helper cells. In addition, an immunosuppressive agent is a role played by a compound which is exhibited by a capability to diminish the extent and/or voracity of an immune response.
A central nervous system depressant used to induce drowsiness or sleep or to reduce psychological excitement or anxiety.
An antimicrobial agent that destroys fungi by suppressing their ability to grow or reproduce.
Any member of the group of lipids containing a common glycerol backbone to which at least one fatty acid-derived group is attached.
A carboxylic acid anion formed when the carboxy group of a monocarboxylic acid is deprotonated.
A phosphorus oxoanion that is the conjugate base of phosphoric acid.
A substance that suppresses Mycobacterium leprae, ameliorates the clinical manifestations of leprosy, and/or reduces the incidence and severity of leprous reactions.
Any fatty acid in which the parent hydrocarbon chain has one or more alkyl substituents; a common component in animal and bacterial lipids. The fatty acyl chain is usually saturated and the substituent a methyl group; however, unsaturated BCFAs are found in marine animals, and branches other than methyl are found in microbial lipids.
Any antimicrobial drug which is used to treat or prevent protozoal infections.
A substance used to lower plasma cholesterol levels.
A gout suppressant that acts directly on the renal tubule to increase the excretion of uric acid, thus reducing its concentrations in plasma.
A drug used to treat rheumatoid arthritis.
A drug that increases uric acid excretion by the kidney (uricosuric drug), decreases uric acid production (antihyperuricemic), or alleviates the pain and inflammation of acute attacks of gout.
A drug used for its effect on the kidneys' regulation of body fluid composition and volume.
Any monocarboxylic acid which also contains a separate (alcoholic or phenolic) hydroxy substituent.
Any monocarboxylic acid having at least one additional oxo functional group.
Any carboxylic acid anion containing at least one oxo group.
Any monocarboxylic acid having a 2-oxo substituent.
A substance used for its pharmacological action on any aspect of neurotransmitter systems. Neurotransmitter agents include agonists, antagonists, degradation inhibitors, uptake inhibitors, depleters, precursors, and modulators of receptor function.
A hydroxy monocarboxylic acid that has a hydroxy group β to the carboxy group.
Any hydroxy monocarboxylic acid carrying at least two hydroxy groups.
Any amino acid carrying two amino groups.
Natural and synthetic antibiotics containing the 4-thia-1-azabicyclo[3.2.0]heptan-7-one structure, generally assumed to have the 5R configuration unless otherwise specified.
Any C22 polyunsaturated fatty acid containing six double bonds.
A drug used to treat or prevent microbial infections.
A substance used in the prophylaxis or therapy of virus diseases.
A drug used to treat or prevent bacterial infections.
Any monocarboxylic acid anion carrying at least one hydroxy substituent.
A biological macromolecule minimally consisting of one polypeptide chain synthesized at the ribosome.
Compounds having a fully conjugated cyclic dione structure, such as that of benzoquinones, derived from aromatic compounds by conversion of an even number of ‒CH= groups into ‒C(=O)‒ groups with any necessary rearrangement of double bonds (polycyclic and heterocyclic analogues are included).
A compound in which two monosaccharides are joined by a glycosidic bond.
Conjugate base of chenodeoxycholic acid; major species at pH 7.3.
A steroid acid that consists of cholane having a carboxy group in place of the methyl group at position 24.
(5beta,17beta)-gamma-methylandrostane-17-butanoic acid
Members of the class of cholanic acids based on a 5β-cholane skeleton.
The glycerol phosphate ester of a phosphocholine. A nutrient with many different roles in human health.
Any member of a group of drugs that reversibly inhibit the propagation of signals along nerves. Wide variations in potency, stability, toxicity, water-solubility and duration of action determine the route used for administration, e.g. topical, intravenous, epidural or spinal block.
Lepton is a fermion that does not experience the strong force (strong interaction). The term is derived from the Greek λεπτοσ (small, thin).
Baryon is a fermion that does experience the strong force (strong interaction). The term is derived from the Greek βαρυσ (heavy).
Particle of half-integer spin quantum number following Fermi-Dirac statistics. Fermions are named after Enrico Fermi.
A subatomic particle known to have substructure (i.e. consisting of smaller particles).
Hadron is a subatomic particle which experiences the strong force.
A nucleus or any of its constituents in any of their energy states.
Any molecular entity consisting of more than one atom.
An ion consisting of more than one atom.
The (R)-enantiomer of mevalonate.
Any compound containing the carbonyl group, C=O. The term is commonly used in the restricted sense of aldehydes and ketones, although it actually includes carboxylic acids and derivatives.
Organic compounds containing an oxygen atom, =O, doubly bonded to carbon or another element.
Any of a class of steroid hormones that are produced in the adrenal cortex.
Any compound having phosphocholine as part of its structure.
Compounds based on a biladiene skeleton.
Any hydroxy steroid carrying a hydroxy group at position 3.
A 3-hydroxy steroid in which the 3-hydroxy substituent is in the α-position.
A 3-hydroxy steroid in which the 3-hydroxy substituent is in the β-position.
A 7-hydroxy steroid in which the hydroxy group at position 7 has an α-configuration.
A hydroxy steroid carrying a hydroxy substituent at position 7.
A monoatomic or polyatomic species having one or more elementary charges of the proton.
An organochalcogen compound is a compound containing at least one carbon-chalcogen bond.
An organochalcogen compound containing at least one carbon-oxygen bond.
A branched-chain saturated fatty acid anion that is the conjugate base of phytanic acid, arising from deprotonation of the carboxylic acid group.
A 7,8-dimethylbenzo[g]pteridine-2,4-dione that is isoalloxazine substituted by methyl groups at positions 7 and 8.
A substance administered to enhance contrast in images of the inside of the body obtained using X-rays, γ-rays, sound waves, radio waves (MRI), or radioactive particles in order to diagnose disease.
A substance having the property of absorbing, and therefore being opaque to, electromagnetic radiation, particularly X-rays.
Any of the group of polysaccharides composed of alternating units from uronic acids and glycosamines, and commonly partially esterified with sulfuric acid.
Any of a class of 10—60 kDa glycosaminoglycan sulfates, widely distributed in cartilage and other mammalian connective tissues.
A group of heterocyclic compounds based on the pteroic acid skeleton conjugated with one or more L-glutamic acid units.
An acid is a molecular entity capable of donating a hydron (Brønsted acid) or capable of forming a covalent bond with an electron pair (Lewis acid).
A molecular entity consisting of two or more chemical elements.
A lactone having a five-membered lactone ring.
An amide of a carboxylic acid, having the structure RC(=O)NR2. The term is used as a suffix in systematic name formation to denote the ‒C(=O)NH2 group including its carbon atom.
A compound which inhibits or antagonizes the biosynthesis or actions of proteases (endopeptidases).
An EC 3.1.1.* (carboxylic ester hydrolase) inhibitor that interferes with the action of cholinesterase (EC 3.1.1.8).
choline esterase II (unspecific) inhibitor
choline esterase II (unspecific) inhibitors
Any glycerolipid having a phosphate group ester-linked to a terminal carbon of the glycerol backbone.
A penam that consists of 3,3-dimethyl-7-oxo-4-thia-1-azabicyclo[3.2.0]heptane bearing a carboxy group at position 2 and having (2S,5R)-configuration.
2,2-dimethylpenam-3alpha-carboxylic acid
(2S,5R)-3,3-dimethyl-7-oxo-4-thia-1-azabicyclo[3.2.0]heptane-2-carboxylic acid
A straight chain alkane composed of 4 carbon atoms.
A carboacyl group is a group formed by loss of at least one OH from the carboxy group of a carboxylic acid.
An agent that selectively binds to and activates adrenergic receptors.
An agent that binds to but does not activate adrenergic receptors thereby blocking the actions of endogenous or exogenous adrenergic agonists.
An agent that binds to but does not activate α-adrenergic receptors thereby blocking the actions of endogenous or exogenous α-adrenergic agonists. α-Adrenergic antagonists are used in the treatment of hypertension, vasospasm, peripheral vascular disease, shock, and pheochromocytoma.
Histamine antagonists are the drugs that bind to but do not activate histamine receptors, thereby blocking the actions of histamine or histamine agonists.
Drugs used for their actions on histaminergic systems.
Any agent that acts on an adrenergic receptor or affects the life cycle of an adrenergic transmitter.
Any of a class of cyclic chemical compounds that contain an unsaturated six-membered ring with one ring oxygen atom and an oxo substituent.
A drug used for the treatment or prevention of cardiac arrhythmias. Anti-arrhythmia drugs may affect the polarisation-repolarisation phase of the action potential, its excitability or refractoriness, or impulse conduction or membrane responsiveness within cardiac fibres.
A compound composed of two or more pyrrole units.
Any organonitrogen compound containing a cyclic component with nitrogen and at least one other element as ring member atoms.
Any organic heterocyclic compound containing at least one ring oxygen atom.
A ligand with two or more separate binding sites that can bind to a single metallic central atom, forming a chelate.
A monocarboxylic acid anion resulting from the removal of a proton from the carboxy group of a pyridinemonocarboxylic acid. A 'closed class'.
A hydroxypyridine carrying a single hydroxy substituent.
Any member of the class of pyridines carrying a hydroxymethyl substituent at unspecified position.
One of a class of drugs that acts by selective inhibition of calcium influx through cell membranes or on the release and binding of calcium in intracellular pools.
A branched chain amino acid that consists of 3-methylpentanoic acid bearing an amino substituent at position 2.
Any organic heterocyclic compound containing a benzene ring in which two of the C-H fragments have been replaced by isolobal nitrogens (the diazine parent structure).
An EC 1.13.11.* (oxidoreductase acting on single donors and incorporating 2 atoms of oxygen) inhibitor that interferes with the activity of 4-hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase (EC 1.13.11.27).
4-hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase (EC 1.13.11.27) inhibitor
4-hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase (EC 1.13.11.27) inhibitors
4-hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase inhibitor
4-hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase inhibitors
4-hydroxyphenylpyruvate hydroxylase inhibitor
4-hydroxyphenylpyruvate hydroxylase inhibitors
4-hydroxyphenylpyruvate:oxygen oxidoreductase (hydroxylating, decarboxylating) inhibitor
4-hydroxyphenylpyruvate:oxygen oxidoreductase (hydroxylating, decarboxylating) inhibitors
4-hydroxyphenylpyruvic acid dioxygenase inhibitor
4-hydroxyphenylpyruvic acid dioxygenase inhibitors
EC 1.13.11.27 (4-hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase) inhibitors
p-hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase inhibitor
p-hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase inhibitors
p-hydroxyphenylpyruvate hydroxylase inhibitor
p-hydroxyphenylpyruvate hydroxylase inhibitors
p-hydroxyphenylpyruvate oxidase inhibitor
p-hydroxyphenylpyruvate oxidase inhibitors
p-hydroxyphenylpyruvic acid hydroxylase inhibitor
p-hydroxyphenylpyruvic acid hydroxylase inhibitors
p-hydroxyphenylpyruvic hydroxylase inhibitor
p-hydroxyphenylpyruvic hydroxylase inhibitors
p-hydroxyphenylpyruvic oxidase inhibitor
p-hydroxyphenylpyruvic oxidase inhibitors
EC 1.13.11.27 (4-hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase) inhibitor
Any drug used for its actions on cholinergic systems. Included here are agonists and antagonists, drugs that affect the life cycle of acetylcholine, and drugs that affect the survival of cholinergic neurons.
Any drug that binds to and activates cholinergic receptors.
Any drug that binds to and activates a muscarinic cholinergic receptor.
muscarinic acetylcholine receptor agonist
A pyrimidine carrying one or more oxo substituents.
A member of the class of pyrimidines that is pyrimidine substituted by at least one amino group and its derivatives.
An EC 3.1.1.* (carboxylic ester hydrolase) inhibitor that interferes with the action of enzyme acetylcholinesterase (EC 3.1.1.7), which helps breaking down of acetylcholine into choline and acetic acid.
EC 3.1.1.7 (acetylcholinesterase) inhibitors
acetyl.beta-methylcholinesterase inhibitor
acetyl.beta-methylcholinesterase inhibitors
acetylcholine acetylhydrolase inhibitors
acetylcholinesterase (EC 3.1.1.7) inhibitor
acetylcholinesterase (EC 3.1.1.7) inhibitors
EC 3.1.1.7 (acetylcholinesterase) inhibitor
An EC 1.4.3.* (oxidoreductase acting on donor CH-NH2 group, oxygen as acceptor) inhibitor that interferes with the action of monoamine oxidase (EC 1.4.3.4).
EC 1.4.3.4 (monoamine oxidase) inhibitors
amine oxidase (flavin-containing) inhibitor
amine oxidase (flavin-containing) inhibitors
amine:oxygen oxidoreductase (deaminating) (flavin-containing) inhibitor
amine:oxygen oxidoreductase (deaminating) (flavin-containing) inhibitors
amine:oxygen oxidoreductase (deaminating) inhibitor
amine:oxygen oxidoreductase (deaminating) inhibitors
monoamine oxidase (EC 1.4.3.4) inhibitor
monoamine oxidase (EC 1.4.3.4) inhibitors
monoamine:O2 oxidoreductase (deaminating) inhibitor
monoamine:O2 oxidoreductase (deaminating) inhibitors
EC 1.4.3.4 (monoamine oxidase) inhibitor
Any agent that affects the transport of molecular entities across a biological membrane.
An agent that inhibits sodium influx through cell membranes.
Any dianion containing at least one carboxy group.
A membrane transport modulator that is able to regulate intracellular calcium levels.
Substance which produces loss of feeling or sensation.
Substance that produces loss of consciousness.
Any alkylbenzene that is benzene substituted with one or more methyl groups.
A monocyclic arene that is benzene substituted with one or more alkyl groups.
A molecular entity capable of donating a hydron to an acceptor (Brønsted base).
A molecular entity capable of accepting a hydron from a donor (Brønsted acid).
A molecular entity able to provide a pair of electrons and thus capable of forming a covalent bond with an electron-pair acceptor (Lewis acid), thereby producing a Lewis adduct.
Any saturated fatty acid with a carbon side-chain or isopropyl termination.
Any saturated fatty acid lacking a side-chain.
Any compound having a pyrimidine as part of its structure.
Any drug which can be used to prevent or alleviate glaucoma, a disease in which the optic nerve is damaged, resulting in progressive, irreversible loss of vision. It is often, though not always, associated with increased pressure of the fluid in the eye.
A monovalent inorganic anion that consists of phosphoric acid in which one of the three OH groups has been deprotonated.
A phosphate ion that is the conjugate base of dihydrogenphosphate.
A primary aliphatic amine that is butane substituted by an amino group at position 1.
A ubiquinone having a side chain of 10 isoprenoid units. In the naturally occurring isomer, all isoprenyl double bonds are in the E- configuration.
In general, a mineral is a chemical substance that is normally crystalline formed and has been formed as a result of geological processes. The term also includes metamict substances (naturally occurring, formerly crystalline substances whose crystallinity has been destroyed by ionising radiation) and can include naturally occurring amorphous substances that have never been crystalline ('mineraloids') such as georgite and calciouranoite as well as substances formed by the action of geological processes on bigenic compounds ('biogenic minerals').
A liquid that can dissolve other substances (solutes) without any change in their chemical composition.
A dicarboxylic acid monoanion that is the conjugate base of oxalic acid.
A pantothenic acid having R-configuration.
3-[(2R)-2,4-dihydroxy-3,3-dimethylbutanamido]propanoic acid
Any ester resulting from the condensation of one or more of the hydroxy groups of glycerol (propane-1,2,3-triol) with fatty acids.
A chemical compound that can be excited by light of a specific wavelength and subsequently transfer energy to a chosen reactant. This is commonly molecular oxygen within a cancer tissue, which is converted to (highly rective) singlet state oxygen. This rapidly reacts with any nearby biomolecules, ultimately killing the cancer cells.
Any steroid substituted by at least one carboxy group.
An agonist that selectively binds to and activates a nicotinic acetylcholine receptor.
nicotinic acetylcholine receptor agonists
nicotinic acetylcholine receptor agonist
A compound, usually an anti-bacterial agent or a toxin, which inhibits the synthesis of a protein.
A substance used locally on humans and other animals to destroy harmful microorganisms or to inhibit their activity (cf. disinfectants, which destroy microorganisms found on non-living objects, and antibiotics, which can be transported through the lymphatic system to destroy bacteria within the body).
An antimicrobial agent that is applied to non-living objects to destroy harmful microorganisms or to inhibit their activity.
A solvent that is composed of polar molecules. Polar solvents can dissolve ionic compounds or ionisable covalent compounds.
A polar solvent that is capable of acting as a hydron (proton) donor.
Solvent that is capable of acting as a hydron (proton) acceptor.
Self-ionizing solvent possessing both characteristics of Brønsted acids and bases.
Compounds derived from oxoacids RkE(=O)l(OH)m (l ≠ 0) by replacing =O by =NR; thus tautomers of amides. In organic chemistry an unspecified imidic acid is generally a carboximidic acid, RC(=NR)(OH).
A carboximidic acid that is the imidic acid tautomer of urea, H2NC(=NH)OH, and its hydrocarbyl derivatives.
A drug used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease.
An agent and endogenous substances that antagonize or inhibit the development of new blood vessels.
A local anesthetic that is used to numb the surface of a body part.
Any drug that acts on an α-adrenergic receptor.
Any of the drugs that act on β-adrenergic receptors.
A drug used for its effects on dopamine receptors, on the life cycle of dopamine, or on the survival of dopaminergic neurons.
A drug that binds to but does not activate dopamine receptors, thereby blocking the actions of dopamine or exogenous agonists.
A role played by a substance that can react readily with, and thereby eliminate, radicals.
Substance which binds to cell receptors normally responding to naturally occurring substances and which produces a response of its own.
Substance that attaches to and blocks cell receptors that normally bind naturally occurring substances.
Any drug that binds to but does not activate cholinergic receptors, thereby blocking the actions of acetylcholine or cholinergic agonists.
A drug that binds to but does not activate muscarinic cholinergic receptors, thereby blocking the actions of endogenous acetylcholine or exogenous agonists.
muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist
An antagonist at the nicotinic cholinergic receptor.
nicotinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist
nicotinic acetylcholine receptor antagonists
An azole in which the five-membered heterocyclic aromatic skeleton contains a N atom and one S atom.
Any L-α-amino acid carrying an N-acyl substituent.
A chemical substance which inhibits the function of the endocrine glands, the biosynthesis of their secreted hormones, or the action of hormones upon their specific sites.
An aldehyde in which a formyl group is located on a heteroarene.
A drug designed to prevent leukotriene synthesis or activity by blocking binding at the receptor level.
One of various classes of drugs with different action mechanisms used to treat or ameliorate peptic ulcer or irritation of the gastrointestinal tract.
A chemical substance that prevents or reduces the probability of conception.
A chemical substance or agent with contraceptive activity in females.
A compound, usually hormonal, taken orally in order to block ovulation and prevent the occurrence of pregnancy.
A compound formally derived from ammonia by replacing one, two or three hydrogen atoms by organyl groups.
An agent that binds to and activates excitatory amino acid receptors.
Any anion formed by loss of a proton from a steroid acid.
A drug that softens, separates, and causes desquamation of the cornified epithelium or horny layer of skin. Keratolytic drugs are used to expose mycelia of infecting fungi or to treat corns, warts, and certain other skin diseases.
A drug used to treat or prevent skin disorders or for the routine care of skin.
A substance that can be converted into a vitamin by animal tissues.
Any protective agent counteracting or neutralizing the action of poisons.
Drug that acts on blood and blood-forming organs and those that affect the hemostatic system.
Heterocyclic compound with sulfur and nitrogen in the ring.
Heterocyclic compound of a ring with sulfur and two nitrogen atoms fused to a benzene ring. Members inhibit sodium-potassium-chloride symporters and are used as diuretics.
A compound that, on administration, must undergo chemical conversion by metabolic processes before becoming the pharmacologically active drug for which it is a prodrug.
Synthetic or natural substance which is given to prevent a disease or disorder or are used in the process of treating a disease or injury due to a poisonous agent.
A substance that does not act as agonist or antagonist but does affect the gamma-aminobutyric acid receptor-ionophore complex. GABA-A receptors appear to have at least three allosteric sites at which modulators act: a site at which benzodiazepines act by increasing the opening frequency of gamma-aminobutyric acid-activated chloride channels; a site at which barbiturates act to prolong the duration of channel opening; and a site at which some steroids may act.
Mononuclear cations derived by addition of a hydron to a mononuclear parent hydride of the pnictogen, chalcogen and halogen families.
A univalent organyl group obtained by cleaving the bond from C-2 to the side chain of a proteinogenic amino-acid.
proteinogenic amino-acid side-chain groups
proteinogenic amino-acid side-chain group
Any cholinergic antagonist that inhibits the actions of the parasympathetic nervous system. The major group of drugs used therapeutically for this purpose is the muscarinic antagonists.
Any steroid based on a cholestane skeleton and its derivatives.
A drug or agent which antagonizes or impairs any mechanism leading to blood platelet aggregation, whether during the phases of activation and shape change or following the dense-granule release reaction and stimulation of the prostaglandin-thromboxane system.
Substance that sweeten food, beverages, medications, etc.
An agent that inhibits cell membrane glycoproteins that are selectively permeable to potassium ions.
A γ-lactone that consists of a 2-furanone skeleton and its substituted derivatives.
An aliphatic alcohol in which the aliphatic alkane chain is substituted by a hydroxy group at unspecified position.
A substance used either in the prevention or facilitation of pregnancy.
A chemical substance that interrupts pregnancy after implantation.
A compound in which monosaccharide units are joined by glycosidic linkages. The term is commonly used to refer to a defined structure as opposed to a polymer of unspecified length or a homologous mixture. When the linkages are of other types the compounds are regarded as oligosaccharide analogues.
A product in capsule, tablet or liquid form that provide essential nutrients, such as a vitamin, an essential mineral, a protein, an herb, or similar nutritional substance.
A substance that possess antiestrogenic actions but can also produce estrogenic effects as well. It acts as complete or partial agonist or as antagonist. It can be either steroidal or nonsteroidal in structure.
Any organic heterobicyclic compound consisting of a benzene ring fused to a thiopyran.
An EC 1.14.14.* (oxidoreductase acting on paired donors, incorporating of 1 atom of oxygen, with reduced flavin or flavoprotein as one donor) inhibitor which interferes with the action of aromatase (EC 1.14.14.14) and so reduces production of estrogenic steroid hormones.
A drug used to treat hyperparathyroidism by reducing the excessive production of parathyroid hormones.
A compound which inhibits or antagonises the biosynthesis or actions of estrogens.
Biologically active substance whose activity affects or plays a role in the functioning of the immune system.
A substance that augments, stimulates, activates, potentiates, or modulates the immune response at either the cellular or humoral level. A classical agent (Freund's adjuvant, BCG, Corynebacterium parvum, et al.) contains bacterial antigens. It could also be endogenous (e.g., histamine, interferon, transfer factor, tuftsin, interleukin-1). Its mode of action is either non-specific, resulting in increased immune responsiveness to a wide variety of antigens, or antigen-specific, i.e., affecting a restricted type of immune response to a narrow group of antigens. The therapeutic efficacy is related to its antigen-specific immunoadjuvanticity.
A cardiovascular drug that prevents atherogenesis, the accumulation of lipid-containing plaques on the innermost layers of the arteries. Compare with antiatherosclerotic agent.
A drug used to treat allergic reactions.
A natural or synthetic analogue of the hormones secreted by the adrenal gland.
Any molecular entity that contains carbon.
A role played by a chemical compound to induce direct or indirect DNA damage. Such damage can potentially lead to the formation of a malignant tumour, but DNA damage does not lead inevitably to the creation of cancerous cells.
A role played by a chemical compound which is known to induce a process of carcinogenesis by corrupting normal cellular pathways, leading to the acquistion of tumoral capabilities.
A chemical compound, or part thereof, which causes the onset of an allergic reaction by interacting with any of the molecular pathways involved in an allergy.
A role played by a chemical compound in biological systems with adverse consequences in embryo developments, leading to birth defects, embryo death or altered development, growth retardation and functional defect.
A role is particular behaviour which a material entity may exhibit.
A poison that interferes with the functions of the nervous system.
A drug used to prevent nausea or vomiting. An antiemetic may act by a wide range of mechanisms: it might affect the medullary control centres (the vomiting centre and the chemoreceptive trigger zone) or affect the peripheral receptors.
An agent that modulates the physiologic angiogenesis process. This is accomplished by endogenous angiogenic proteins and a variety of other chemicals and pharmaceutical agents.
A compound that specifically inhibits the reuptake of serotonin in the brain. This increases the serotonin concentration in the synaptic cleft which then activates serotonin receptors to a greater extent.
A compound formally derived from ammonia by replacing one hydrogen atom by an organyl group.
A compound formally derived from ammonia by replacing three hydrogen atoms by organyl groups.
A cyclic compound containing nine or more atoms as part of the cyclic system.
A dopaminergic agent that blocks the transport of dopamine into axon terminals or into storage vesicles within terminals. Most of the adrenergic uptake inhibitors also inhibit dopamine uptake.
A drug that modulates the function of the endocrine glands, the biosynthesis of their secreted hormones, or the action of hormones upon their specific sites.
A drug that binds to and activates dopamine receptors.
A role played by the molecular entity or part thereof within a chemical context.
An organic molecule that is electrically neutral carrying a positive and a negative charge in one of its major canonical descriptions. In most dipolar compounds the charges are delocalized; however the term is also applied to species where this is not the case.
Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons consisting of fused benzene rings in a rectilinear arrangement and their substitution derivatives.
Compounds containing a tetracene skeleton.
Sulfate salts where the cation is a metal ion.
Any anion formed by loss of a proton from the carboxy group of a penicillin.
A drug used to produce muscle relaxation (excepting neuromuscular blocking agents). Its primary clinical and therapeutic use is the treatment of muscle spasm and immobility associated with strains, sprains, and injuries of the back and, to a lesser degree, injuries to the neck. Also used for the treatment of a variety of clinical conditions that have in common only the presence of skeletal muscle hyperactivity, for example, the muscle spasms that can occur in multiple sclerosis.
A drug used for its actions on skeletal muscle.
A drug that binds to and activates γ-aminobutyric acid receptors.
gamma-aminobutyric acid receptor agonist
gamma-aminobutyric acid receptor agonists
A substance, such as agonists, antagonists, degradation or uptake inhibitors, depleters, precursors, and modulators of receptor function, used for its pharmacological actions on GABAergic systems.
Any organic substituent group, regardless of functional type, having two free valences at carbon atom(s).
A carboxamide resulting from the formal condensation of a carboxylic acid with the amino group of an amino acid.
Compounds containing a biotin (5-[(3aS,4S,6aR)-2-oxohexahydro-1H-thieno[3,4-d]imidazol-4-yl]pentanoic acid) skeleton.
An organic anion that is the conjugate base of methanol.
An organic anion that is the conjugate base of ethanol.
A biological role played by the molecular entity or part thereof within a biochemical context.
A role played by the molecular entity or part thereof which causes the development of a pathological process.
A biological role which describes how a drug interacts within a biological system and how the interactions affect its medicinal properties.
A biological role relating to the normal mechanisms and their interactions within a living system.
Any molecule or ion capable of binding to a central metal atom to form coordination complexes.
Any substance introduced into a living organism with therapeutic or diagnostic purpose.
A phosphate mineral with the general formula Ca5(PO4)3X where X = OH, F or Cl.
A phosphate mineral with the formula Ca5(PO4)3(OH).
The biological role played by a material entity when bound by a receptor of the adaptive immune system. Specific site on an antigen to which an antibody binds.
A polymer carrying multiple negative charges.
Any fatty acid containing at least one C=C double bond.
A macromolecule containing ionic groups.
Any drug found useful in the symptomatic treatment of diarrhoea.
A drug used for its effects on the gastrointestinal system, e.g. controlling gastric acidity, regulating gastrointestinal motility and water flow, and improving digestion.
A cyclic compound having as ring members atoms of at least two different elements.
An amino acid zwitterion arising from transfer of a proton from the carboxy to the amino group of glycine.
A fatty acid anion with a chain length of C13 to C22.
Conjugate base of biotin arising from deprotonation of the carboxy group.
Zwitterionic form of γ-amino-β-hydroxybutyric acid having an anionic carboxy group and a protonated amino group.
gamma-amino-beta-hydroxybutyric acid zwitterion
Anionic form of chondroitin D-glucuronate arising from deprotonation of the carboxylic acid groups of the repeating units; major species at pH 7.3.
Zwitterionic form of L-methionine having a anionic carboxy group and a cationic amino group; major species at pH 7.3.
Zwitterionic form of 6-aminopenicillanic acid arising from migration of a proton from the carboxy group to the 6-amino group; major species at pH 7.3.
Zwitterionic form of D-methionine arising from transfer of a proton from the carboxy to the amino group; major species at pH 7.3.
Zwitterionic form of creatine arising from transfer of a proton from the carboxy to the guanidino group; major species at pH 7.3.
Zwitterionic form of β-alanine arising from transfer of a proton from the carboxy to the amino group; major species at pH 7.3.
A dicarboxylic acid dianion obtained by deprotonation of the two carboxy groups of bilirubin; major species at pH 7.3.
An organic anion that is the conjugate base of riboflavin resulting from the removal of a proton from the nitrogen at position 3 (between the two carbonyl groups). Major microspecies at pH 7.3.
The conjugate acid of a primary aliphatic amine.
Dianion of N-phosphocreatine arising from deprotonation of the phospho and carboxy groups and protonation of the guanidino group; major species at pH 7.3.
An ammonium ion that is the conjugate acid of trimethylamine, obtained via protonation of the nitrogen; major species at pH 7.3.
The conjugate base of an N-acetyl-D-amino acid.
An amino-acid residue protonated on nitrogen.
An organic phosphoric acid derivative in which one or more oxygen atoms of the phosphate group(s) has been deprotonated.
Any fatty acid anion obtained by removal of a proton from the carboxy group of a short-chain fatty acid (chain length of less than C6).
Any fatty acid anion in which there is no C‒C unsaturation.
Any saturated fatty acid anion lacking a carbon side-chain.
straight-chain saturated fatty acid anions
straight-chain saturated fatty acid anion
Any fatty acid anion with a carbon side-chain or isopropyl termination.
Any saturated fatty acid anion with a carbon side-chain or isopropyl termination.
branched-chain saturated fatty acid anions
branched-chain saturated fatty acid anion
An organic anion of general formula RS(=O)2O(−) where R is an organyl group.
Any substance capable of eliciting an immune response only when attached to a large carrier such as a protein. Examples include dinitrophenols; oligosaccharides; peptides; and heavy metals.
Any fatty acid whose skeletal carbon atoms form an unbranched open chain.
A fatty acid anion formed by deprotonation of the carboxylic acid functional group of a straight-chain fatty acid.
An organic anion arising from deprotonation of a acyclic tetrapyrrole compound.
Any member of the sub-set of polyunsaturated fatty acid for which there is an absolute dietary requirement.
Any fatty acid with a chain length of between C6 and C12.
A fatty acid anion resulting from the deprotonation of the carboxylic acid moiety of a medium-chain fatty acid.
An organic anion that is the conjugate base of diamino acid.
Compounds containing one or more phosphoric acid units.
The dianion resulting from the removal of two protons from the phosphate group of pyridoxal 5'-phosphate.
(4-formyl-5-hydroxy-6-methylpyridin-3-yl)methyl phosphate
3-hydroxy-5-(hydroxymethyl)-2-methylisonicotinaldehyde 5-phosphate dianion
3-hydroxy-5-(hydroxymethyl)-2-methylisonicotinaldehyde 5-phosphate(2-)
A reagent that forms a bond to its reaction partner (the electrophile) by donating both bonding electrons.
A zwitterionic tautomer of S-adenosyl-L-methionine arising from shift of the proton from the carboxy group to the amino group.
Conjugate base of an L-α-amino acid arising from deprotonation of the C-1 carboxy group.
Zwitterionic form of an L-α-amino acid having an anionic carboxy group and a protonated amino group.
Zwitterionic form of a D-α-amino acid having an anionic carboxy group and a protonated amino group.
A carboxylic acid anion that is the conjugate base of an N-acyl-L-α-amino acid arising from deprotonation of the C-1 carboxy group.
The conjugate base of an N-acyl-D-α-amino acid arising from deprotonation of the C-1 carboxy group.
A drug which interferes with the binding, fusion and entry of an HIV virion to a human cell. By blocking this step in HIV's replication cycle, such agents slow the progression from HIV infection to AIDS.
A chemical substance is a portion of matter of constant composition, composed of molecular entities of the same type or of different types.
A mixture is a chemical substance composed of multiple molecules, at least two of which are of a different kind.
A polymer is a mixture, which is composed of macromolecules of different kinds and which may be differentiated by composition, length, degree of branching etc..
An ionic polymer is a polymer, composed of ionic macromolecules.
An atom or small molecule with a positive charge that does not contain carbon in covalent linkage, with a valency of one.
A hydrolase inhibitor that interferes with the action of any hydrolase acting on peptide bonds (peptidase), EC 3.4.*.*).
EC 3.4.* (hydrolase acting on peptide bond) inhibitor
EC 3.4.* (hydrolase acting on peptide bonds) inhibitors
EC 3.4.* (hydrolases acting on peptide bond) inhibitors
inhibitor of hydrolases acting on peptide bond (EC 3.4.*)
inhibitors of hydrolases acting on peptide bond (EC 3.4.*)
EC 3.4.* (hydrolases acting on peptide bond) inhibitor
Any hormone produced by the thyroid gland
Zwitterionic form of any peptide where, in general, the amino terminus is positively charged and the carboxy terminus is negatively charged.
Any substance that inhibits the action of N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptors. They tend to induce a state known as dissociative anesthesia, marked by catalepsy, amnesia, and analgesia, while side effects can include hallucinations, nightmares, and confusion. Due to their psychotomimetic effects, many NMDA receptor antagonists are used as recreational drugs.
N-methyl-D-aspartate receptor antagonist
N-methyl-D-aspartate receptor antagonists
Any substance which inhibits the action of receptors for excitatory amino acids.
excitatory amino acid receptor antagonist
excitatory amino acid receptor antagonists
Any pharmacological or immunological agent that modifies the effect of other agents such as drugs or vaccines while having few if any direct effects when given by itself.
Any α-amino acid anion in which the parent amino acid has D-configuration.
A racemate is an equimolar mixture of a pair of enantiomers.
A sulfated glycosaminoglycan, a linear polymer that consists of the repeating disaccharide [3)-β-Gal-(1→4)-β-GlcNAc-(1→] and containing sulfo groups located at random positions.
A hormone antagonist that blocks angiotensin receptors.
An EC 3.5.1.* (non-peptide linear amide C-N hydrolase) inhibitor that interferes with the function of histone deacetylase (EC 3.5.1.98).
EC 3.5.1.98 (histone deacetylase) inhibitors
histone deacetylase (EC 3.5.1.98) inhibitor
histone deacetylase (EC 3.5.1.98) inhibitors
EC 3.5.1.98 (histone deacetylase) inhibitor
Any compound that has a nucleobase as a part.
nucleobase-containing molecular entities
Any hydroxy carboxylic acid which contains a hydroxy group located β- to the carboxylic acid group.
A polymer, composed of polyanion macromolecules.
A 2-(2,6-dioxopiperidin-3-yl)-1H-isoindole-1,3(2H)-dione that has R-configuration at the chiral centre.
A 2-(2,6-dioxopiperidin-3-yl)-1H-isoindole-1,3(2H)-dione that has S-configuration at the chiral centre.
A lipid-rich mixture containing glycerol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid and other components.
Zwitterionic form of a polar amino acid having an anionic carboxy group and a protonated amino group.
Any branched-chain fatty acid containing methyl branches only.
The dicarboxylic acid dianion formed from folic acid by loss of a proton from each of the two carboxy groups in the glutamic acid moiety.
Any organophosphate oxoanion that is a negatively charged phospholipid, e.g. phosphatidylserine(1−), phosphatidate(2−), phosphatidylglycerol(1−).
Any additive that enhances the efficiency of fuel.
Any compound that is able to prevent damage to the liver.
The chemical role played by a substance that stabilizes an emulsion by increasing its kinetic stability.
An organic cation resulting from protonation or quaternisation at the 3-position of any 1,3-thiazole.
A β-amino-acid anion that is the conjugate base of β-alanine.
A carbohydrate derivative arising formally from the elimination of water from a glycosidic hydroxy group and an H atom bound to an oxygen, carbon, nitrogen or sulfur atom of a separate entity.
Any organooxygen compound derived from a carbohydrate by replacement of one or more hydroxy group(s) by an amino group, a thiol group or similar heteroatomic groups. The term also includes derivatives of these compounds.
An alkaline earth salt that has barium(2+) as the cation.
A carbohydrate derivative that is formally obtained from a carbohydrate acid.
A sulfur-containing amino acid whose α-carboxylic acid group is ionized (not protonated).
A branched-chain amino acid whose α-carboxylic acid group is ionized.
An aromatic amino acid whose α-carboxylic acid group is ionized (non-protonated).
A carboxylic acid anion resulting from the deprotonation of the carboxy group of a carbohydrate acid derivative.
An EC 2.6.1.* (transaminase) inhibitor that interferes with the action of 4-aminobutyrate—2-oxoglutarate transaminase (EC 2.6.1.19).
4-aminobutanoate:2-oxoglutarate aminotransferase inhibitor
4-aminobutanoate:2-oxoglutarate aminotransferase inhibitors
4-aminobutyrate aminotransferase inhibitor
4-aminobutyrate aminotransferase inhibitors
4-aminobutyrate--2-ketoglutarate aminotransferase inhibitor
4-aminobutyrate--2-ketoglutarate aminotransferase inhibitors
4-aminobutyrate--2-oxoglutarate aminotransferase inhibitor
4-aminobutyrate--2-oxoglutarate aminotransferase inhibitors
4-aminobutyrate--2-oxoglutarate transaminase (EC 2.6.1.19) inhibitor
4-aminobutyrate--2-oxoglutarate transaminase (EC 2.6.1.19) inhibitors
4-aminobutyrate--2-oxoglutarate transaminase inhibitor
4-aminobutyrate--2-oxoglutarate transaminase inhibitors
4-aminobutyrate-2-oxoglutarate transaminase inhibitor
4-aminobutyrate-2-oxoglutarate transaminase inhibitors
4-aminobutyric acid 2-ketoglutaric acid aminotransferase inhibitor
4-aminobutyric acid 2-ketoglutaric acid aminotransferase inhibitors
4-aminobutyric acid aminotransferase inhibitor
4-aminobutyric acid aminotransferase inhibitors
EC 2.6.1.19 (4-aminobutyrate--2-oxoglutarate transaminase) inhibitors
GABA--2-oxoglutarate aminotransferase inhibitor
GABA--2-oxoglutarate aminotransferase inhibitors
GABA--2-oxoglutarate transaminase inhibitor
GABA--2-oxoglutarate transaminase inhibitors
GABA--alpha-ketoglutarate aminotransferase inhibitors
GABA--alpha-ketoglutarate transaminase inhibitor
GABA--alpha-ketoglutarate transaminase inhibitors
GABA--alpha-ketoglutaric acid transaminase inhibitor
GABA--alpha-ketoglutaric acid transaminase inhibitors
GABA--alpha-oxoglutarate aminotransferase inhibitor
GABA--alpha-oxoglutarate aminotransferase inhibitors
GABA--oxoglutarate aminotransferase inhibitor
GABA--oxoglutarate aminotransferase inhibitors
GABA--oxoglutarate transaminase inhibitor
GABA--oxoglutarate transaminase inhibitors
aminobutyrate aminotransferase inhibitor
aminobutyrate aminotransferase inhibitors
beta-alanine aminotransferase inhibitors
beta-alanine--oxoglutarate aminotransferase inhibitor
beta-alanine--oxoglutarate aminotransferase inhibitors
beta-alanine--oxoglutarate transaminase inhibitor
beta-alanine--oxoglutarate transaminase inhibitors
gamma-amino-N-butyrate transaminase inhibitor
gamma-amino-N-butyrate transaminase inhibitors
gamma-aminobutyrate aminotransaminase inhibitor
gamma-aminobutyrate aminotransaminase inhibitors
gamma-aminobutyrate transaminase inhibitor
gamma-aminobutyrate transaminase inhibitors
gamma-aminobutyrate--alpha-ketoglutarate aminotransferase inhibitor
gamma-aminobutyrate--alpha-ketoglutarate aminotransferase inhibitors
gamma-aminobutyrate--alpha-ketoglutarate transaminase inhibitor
gamma-aminobutyrate--alpha-ketoglutarate transaminase inhibitors
gamma-aminobutyrate:alpha-oxoglutarate aminotransferase inhibitor
gamma-aminobutyrate:alpha-oxoglutarate aminotransferase inhibitors
gamma-aminobutyric acid aminotransferase inhibitor
gamma-aminobutyric acid aminotransferase inhibitors
gamma-aminobutyric acid pyruvate transaminase inhibitor
gamma-aminobutyric acid pyruvate transaminase inhibitors
gamma-aminobutyric acid transaminase inhibitor
gamma-aminobutyric acid transaminase inhibitors
gamma-aminobutyric acid--2-oxoglutarate transaminase inhibitor
gamma-aminobutyric acid--2-oxoglutarate transaminase inhibitors
gamma-aminobutyric acid--alpha-ketoglutarate transaminase inhibitor
gamma-aminobutyric acid--alpha-ketoglutarate transaminase inhibitors
gamma-aminobutyric acid--alpha-ketoglutaric acid aminotransferase inhibitor
gamma-aminobutyric acid--alpha-ketoglutaric acid aminotransferase inhibitors
gamma-aminobutyric transaminase inhibitor
gamma-aminobutyric transaminase inhibitors
glutamate--succinic semialdehyde transaminase inhibitor
glutamate--succinic semialdehyde transaminase inhibitors
EC 2.6.1.19 (4-aminobutyrate--2-oxoglutarate transaminase) inhibitor
Any compound that can be used for the treatment of neurodegenerative disorders.
Any lactone in which the cyclic carboxylic ester group forms a part of a cyclic macromolecule.
An antagonist at the metabotropic glutamate receptor.
metabotropic glutamate receptor antagonists
metabotropic glutamate receptor antagonist
An agonist that selectively binds to and activates a protein kinase C receptor
Any substance which is added to food to preserve or enhance its flavour and/or appearance.
A food additive that is used to change or otherwise control the acidity or alkalinity of foods. They may be acids, bases, neutralising agents or buffering agents.
An agonist that selectively binds to and activates AMPA receptors.
alpha-amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazolepropionic acid receptor agonist
An agonist that selectively binds to and activates a protein kinase receptor.
An EC 2.5.1.* (non-methyl-alkyl or aryl transferase) inhibitor that interferes with the action of protein farnesyltransferase (EC 2.5.1.58), one of the three enzymes in the prenyltransferase group.
EC 2.5.1.58 (protein farnesyltransferase) inhibitors
farnesyl-diphosphate:protein-cysteine farnesyltransferase inhibitor
farnesyl-diphosphate:protein-cysteine farnesyltransferase inhibitors
protein farnesyltransferase (EC 2.5.1.58) inhibitor
protein farnesyltransferase (EC 2.5.1.58) inhibitors
EC 2.5.1.58 (protein farnesyltransferase) inhibitor
An amino acid zwitterion arising from transfer of a proton from the carboxy to the amino group of methionine; major species at pH 7.3.
An EC 2.1.2.* (hydroxymethyl-, formyl- and related transferases) inhibitor that interferes with the action of glycine hydroxymethyltransferase (EC 2.1.2.1).
5,10-methylenetetrahydrofolate:glycine hydroxymethyltransferase inhibitor
5,10-methylenetetrahydrofolate:glycine hydroxymethyltransferase inhibitors
EC 2.1.2.1 (glycine hydroxymethyltransferase) inhibitors
L-serine hydroxymethyltransferase inhibitor
L-serine hydroxymethyltransferase inhibitors
glycine hydroxymethyltransferase (EC 2.1.2.1) inhibitor
glycine hydroxymethyltransferase (EC 2.1.2.1) inhibitors
glycine hydroxymethyltransferase inhibitor
glycine hydroxymethyltransferase inhibitors
serine hydroxymethyltransferase inhibitor
serine hydroxymethyltransferase inhibitors
EC 2.1.2.1 (glycine hydroxymethyltransferase) inhibitor
An excitatory amino acid agonist which binds to NMDA receptors and triggers a response.
A food additive which is added to flour or dough to improve baking quality and/or colour.
Any of a group of guanidine or amidine phosphates that function as storage depots for high-energy phosphate in muscle with the purpose of regenerating ATP from ADP during muscular contraction.
An inorganic cation with a valency of two.
An organic molecular entity containing a single carbon atom (C1).
Any organic molecular entity that is acidic and contains carbon in covalent linkage.
A group that carries an overall positive charge.
A group that carries an overall negative charge.
An amino-acid residue carrying an overall negative charge.
Any substance that causes disturbance to organisms by chemical reaction or other activity on the molecular scale, when a sufficient quantity is absorbed by the organism.
A drug used to treat or prevent infections caused by Mycobacteria, a genus of actinobacteria. Aerobic and nonmotile, members of the genus include the pathogens responsible for causing tuberculosis and leprosy.
An antiviral agent that destroys or inhibits the replication of the human immunodeficiency virus.
An antiviral agent that destroys or inhibits the replication of the herpes simplex virus (also known as the human herpes virus).
An anti-HSV agent agent that destroys or inhibits the replication of herpes simplex virus-1.
An anti-HSV agent agent that destroys or inhibits the replication of herpes simplex virus-2.
Any compound that has anti-asthmatic effects.
Antipsychotic drugs which can have different modes of action but which tend to be more likely than second generation antipsychotics to cause extrapyramidal motor control disabilities such as body rigidity or Parkinson's disease-type movements; such body movements can become permanent even after treatment has ceased.
Antipsychotic drugs which can have different modes of action but which tend to be less likely than first generation antipsychotics to cause extrapyramidal motor control disabilities such as body rigidity or Parkinson's disease-type movements.
A carbohydrate derivative that is any derivative of a polysaccharide.
Substances which are added to food in order to prevent decomposition caused by microbial growth or by undesirable chemical changes.
A food preservative which prevents decomposition of food by preventing the growth of fungi or bacteria. In European countries, E-numbers for permitted food preservatives are from E200 to E299, divided into sorbates (E200-209), benzoates (E210-219), sulfites (E220-229), phenols and formates (E230-239), nitrates (E240-259), acetates (E260-269), lactates (E270-279), propionates (E280-289) and others (E290-299).
A compound that inhibits the action of γ-aminobutyric acid.
gamma-aminobutyric acid receptor antagonist
gamma-aminobutyric acid receptor antagonists
Any substance which is used to neutralise stomach acidity.
An ammonium ion derivative resulting from the protonation of the nitrogen atom of a primary amino compound. Major species at pH 7.3.
An α-amino acid anion that is the conjugate base of citrulline, obtained by deprotonation of the carboxy group.
A monocarboxylic acid anion that is the conjugate base of creatine, obtained by deprotonation of the carboxy group.
Any compound which can be used to treat or alleviate the symptoms of dyskinesia.
Any compound used for the treatment of eye conditions or eye diseases.
Any compound used to suppress premature labour and immature birth by suppressing uterine contractions.
An N-acyl-L-α-amino acid anion obtained by deprotonation of any folic acid.
Any branched-chain fatty acid anion containing methyl branches only.
A sulfonium betaine that is a conjugate base of S-adenosyl-L-methionine obtained by the deprotonation of the carboxy group.
Any compound that has anti-inflammatory effects.
A provitamin that can be converted into vitamin A by enzymes from animal tissues.
Any 1,4-benzoquinone carrying a single hydroxy substituent.
A 4-hydroxy-4-methyloxan-2-one that has (R)-configuration. It is a natural product found in Phomopsis archeri.
Any monocyclic heteroarene consisting of a five-membered ring containing nitrogen. Azoles can also contain one or more other non-carbon atoms, such as nitrogen, sulfur or oxygen.
An antagonist at the P2Y12 receptor
purinergic receptor subtype P2Y12 antagonist
purinergic receptor subtype P2Y12 antagonists
An agonist that binds to and activates G-protein-coupled receptors
alpha-amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazolepropionic acid receptor antagonist
alpha-amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazolepropionic acid receptor antagonists
Any drug that has been developed specifically for treatment of a rare medical condition, the condition itself being known as an orphan disease.
An enzyme inhibitor that inhibits the action of a transferase (EC 2.*)
An organic anion that is the conjugate base of tetracycline zwitterion obtained by deprotonation of the two enolic hydroxy groups and protonation of the tertiary amino group.
Benzoquinones with at least one hydroxy substituent.
An amino-acid anion in which the amino group is situated γ- to the carboxylate group.
Any compound that promotes the growth of new blood vessels from pre-existing vessels.
Any molecule that consists of at least one carbon atom as part of the electrically neutral entity.
A biomacromolecule composed of carbohydrate residues which is secreted by a microorganism into the surrounding environment.
A thiochromane that is acetylene in which the hydrogens are replaced by 5-carboxypyridin-2-yl and 4,4-dimethylthiochroman-6-yl groups. It is the active form of the prodrug tazarotene.
6-[(4,4-dimethyl-3,4-dihydro-2H-1-benzothiopyran-6-yl)ethynyl]nicotinic acid
6-((3,4-dihydro-4,4-dimethyl-2H-1-benzothiopyran-6-yl)ethynyl)-3-pyridinecarboxylic acid
6-(2-(4,4-dimethylthiochroman-6-yl)ethynyl)nicotinic acid
Any inhibitor that interferes with the action of sodium-glucose transport protein subtype 2.
sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitor
sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors
sodium-glucose transport protein subtype 2 inhibitors
sodium/glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitor
sodium/glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitors
sodium-glucose transport protein subtype 2 inhibitor
A drug used in treating and healing of wounds.
Any organic molecule containing a C≡C bond.
A role borne by a molecule that acts to counteract or neutralize the deleterious effects of paracetamol (acetaminophen).
A role borne by a molecule that acts to counteract or neutralize the deleterious effects of curare.
A compound that causes the contraction of body tissues, typically used to reduce bleeding from minor abrasions.
Any organic aromatic compound having one or more hydroxy groups attached to a heteroarene ring.
A dicarboximide that is isoindole-1,3(2H)-dione in which the hydrogen attached to the nitrogen is substituted by a 2,6-dioxopiperidin-3-yl group.
A ligase inhibitor that interferes with the action of a C‒N bond-forming ligase (EC 6.3.*.*).
C-N bond-forming ligase (EC 6.3.*) inhibitor
C-N bond-forming ligase (EC 6.3.*) inhibitors
EC 6.3.* (C-N bond-forming ligase) inhibitorS
EC 6.3.* (C-N bond-forming ligase) inhibitor
Any enzyme inhibitor that interferes with the action of a ligase (EC 6.*.*.*). Ligases are enzymes that catalyse the joining of two molecules with concomitant hydrolysis of the diphosphate bond in ATP or a similar triphosphate.
Any metabolite produced during a metabolic reaction in eukaryotes, the taxon that include members of the fungi, plantae and animalia kingdoms.
Any eukaryotic metabolite produced during a metabolic reaction in animals that include diverse creatures from sponges, insects to mammals.
Any animal metabolite produced during a metabolic reaction in mammals.
Any member of the group of eight water-soluble vitamins originally thought to be a single compound (vitamin B) that play important roles in cell metabolism. The group comprises of vitamin B1, B2, B3, B5, B6, B7, B9, and B12 (Around 20 other compounds were once thought to be B vitamins but are no longer classified as such).
Any mammalian metabolite produced during a metabolic reaction in a mouse (Mus musculus).
Any fungal metabolite produced during a metabolic reaction in Baker's yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae ).
Saccharomyces cerevisiae secondary metabolites
A mixture containing all eight of the B vitamins (B1, B2, B3, B5, B6, B7, B9, and B12). It is used as a dietary supplement and as a component of growth media for microorganisms.
Any metabolite produced during a metabolic reaction in prokaryotes, the taxon that include members of domains such as the bacteria and archaea.
A compound which increases either the number of red cells or the amount of haemoglobin in the blood.
A pyranone based on the structure of 2H-pyran-2-one and its substituted derivatives.
An amino acid zwitterion obtained by transfer of a proton from the carboxy to the amino group of any aromatic amino-acid.
Any metabolite produced by metabolism of a xenobiotic compound.
A compressed gas or liquid with a boiling point lower than room temperature which to used to propel and dispense liquids such as deodorants, insecticides, paints, etc. from aerosol cans.
Any metabolite produced during a metabolic reaction in marine macro- and microorganisms.
Any unsaturated fatty acid anion containing more than one C-C unsaturated bond. Major species at pH 7.3.
Any glycerolipid that is glycerol bearing three substituent groups - either acyl, alkyl, or alk-1-enyl at each of the three possible positions.
A fatty acid anion obtained by deprotonation of the carboxy group of any ω-methyl fatty acid; major species at pH 7.3.
A transferase inhibitor inhibiting the action of transferase of a one-carbon-containing group (EC 2.1.*.*).
one-carbon-containing group transferase inhibitor
one-carbon-containing group transferase inhibitors
A transferase inhibitor that inhibits the transfer of an alkyl (other than methyl) or aryl group (EC 2.5.1.*).
EC 2.5.1.* (non-methyl-alkyl or aryl transferase) inhibitors
alkyl/aryl (non-methyl) transferase inhibitor
alkyl/aryl (non-methyl) transferase inhibitors
non-methyl alkyl/aryl transferase (EC 2.5.1.*) inhibitor
non-methyl alkyl/aryl transferase (EC 2.5.1.*) inhibitors
non-methyl alkyl/aryl transferase inhibitor
non-methyl alkyl/aryl transferase inhibitors
non-methyl-alkyl or aryl transferase inhibitor
non-methyl-alkyl or aryl transferase inhibitors
EC 2.5.1.* (non-methyl-alkyl or aryl transferase) inhibitor
A transferase inhibitor that inhibits a nitrogenous group transferase (EC 2.6.*.*).
nitrogenous group transferase (EC 2.6.*) inhibitor
nitrogenous group transferase (EC 2.6.*) inhibitors
nitrogenous group transferase inhibitors
EC 2.6.* (nitrogenous group transferase) inhibitor
A transferase inhibitor that inhibits the action of a phosphorus-containing group transferase (EC 2.7.*.*).
EC 2.7.* (P-containing group transferase) inhibitors
EC 2.7.* (phosphorus-containing group transferase) inhibitor
EC 2.7.* (phosphorus-containing group transferase) inhibitors
phosphorus-containing group transferase (EC 2.7.*) inhibitor
phosphorus-containing group transferase (EC 2.7.*) inhibitors
phosphorus-containing group transferase inhibitor
phosphorus-containing group transferase inhibitors
EC 2.7.* (P-containing group transferase) inhibitor
An enzyme inhibitor which interferes with the action of a lyase (EC 4.*.*.*). Lyases are enzymes cleaving C‒C, C‒O, C‒N and other bonds by other means than by hydrolysis or oxidation.
A lyase inhibitor which inhibits the action of a C‒O lyase (EC 4.2.*.*).
A lyase inhibitor which inhibits the action of a C‒N lyase (EC 4.3.*.*).
An enzyme inhibitor which interferes with the action of an oxidoreductase (EC 1.*.*.*).
An oxidoreductase inhibitor which interferes with the action of an oxidoreductase acting on the CH-OH group of donors (EC 1.1.*.*).
EC 1.1.* (oxidoreductase acting on donor CH-OH group) inhibitors
inhibitor of oxidoreductase acting on CH-OH group of donor
inhibitor of oxidoreductase acting on CH-OH group of donors
inhibitors of oxidoreductase acting on CH-OH group of donor
inhibitors of oxidoreductase acting on CH-OH group of donors
oxidoreductase acting on donor CH-OH group (EC 1.1.*) inhibitor
oxidoreductase acting on donor CH-OH group (EC 1.1.*) inhibitors
oxidoreductase acting on donor CH-OH group inhibitor
oxidoreductase acting on donor CH-OH group inhibitors
EC 1.1.* (oxidoreductase acting on donor CH-OH group) inhibitor
An oxidoreductase inhibitor which interferes with the action of an oxidoreductase acting on the CH‒NH2 group of donors (EC 1.4.*.*).
EC 1.4.* (oxidoreductase acting on donor CH-NH2 group) inhibitor
EC 1.4.* (oxidoreductase acting on donor CH-NH2 group) inhibitors
inhibitor of oxidoreductase acting on CH-NH2 group of donor
inhibitor of oxidoreductase acting on CH-NH2 group of donors
inhibitors of oxidoreductase acting on CH-NH2 group of donor
inhibitors of oxidoreductase acting on CH-NH2 group of donors
oxidoreductase acting on CH-NH2 group of donor inhibitor
oxidoreductase acting on CH-NH2 group of donor inhibitors
oxidoreductase acting on CH-NH2 group of donors (EC 1.4.*) inhibitor
oxidoreductase acting on CH-NH2 group of donors (EC 1.4.*) inhibitors
An oxidoreductase inhibitor which interferes with the action of an oxidoreductase acting on single donors with incorporation of molecular oxygen (oxygenases), EC 1.13.*.*.
EC 1.13.* [oxidoreductase acting on single donors with incorporation of molecular oxygen (oxygenases)] inhibitors
oxidoreductase acting on single donors with incorporation of molecular oxygen (oxygenases) (EC 1.13.*) inhibitor
oxidoreductase acting on single donors with incorporation of molecular oxygen (oxygenases) (EC 1.13.*) inhibitors
oxidoreductase acting on single donors with incorporation of molecular oxygen (oxygenases) inhibitor
oxidoreductase acting on single donors with incorporation of molecular oxygen (oxygenases) inhibitors
EC 1.13.* [oxidoreductase acting on single donors with incorporation of molecular oxygen (oxygenases)] inhibitor
An oxidoreductase inhibitor which interferes with the action of an oxidoreductase acting on hydrogen as donors (EC 1.14.*.*).
EC 1.14.* (oxidoreductase acting on paired donors, with incorporation or reduction of molecular oxygen) inhibitors
inhibitor of oxidoreductase acting on paired donors, with incorporation or reduction of molecular oxygen (EC 1.14.*)
inhibitor of oxidoreductases acting on paired donors, with incorporation or reduction of molecular oxygen (EC 1.14.*)
inhibitors of oxidoreductase acting on paired donors, with incorporation or reduction of molecular oxygen (EC 1.14.*)
inhibitors of oxidoreductases acting on paired donors, with incorporation or reduction of molecular oxygen (EC 1.14.*)
oxidoreductase acting on paired donors, with incorporation or reduction of molecular oxygen (EC 1.14.*) inhibitor
oxidoreductase acting on paired donors, with incorporation or reduction of molecular oxygen (EC 1.14.*) inhibitors
oxidoreductase acting on paired donors, with incorporation or reduction of molecular oxygen inhibitor
oxidoreductase acting on paired donors, with incorporation or reduction of molecular oxygen inhibitors
EC 1.14.* (oxidoreductase acting on paired donors, with incorporation or reduction of molecular oxygen) inhibitor
An oxidoreductase inhibitor which interferes with the action of an oxidoreductase acting on CH or CH2 (EC 1.17.*.*).
EC 1.17.* (oxidoreductase acting on CH or CH2) inhibitors
oxidoreductase acting on CH or CH2 (EC 1.17.*) inhibitor
oxidoreductase acting on CH or CH2 (EC 1.17.*) inhibitors
oxidoreductase acting on CH or CH2 inhibitor
oxidoreductase acting on CH or CH2 inhibitors
EC 1.17.* (oxidoreductase acting on CH or CH2) inhibitor
Any enzyme inhibitor that interferes with the action of a hydrolase (EC 3.*.*.*).
A hydrolase inhibitor that interferes with the action of any ester hydrolase (EC 3.1.*.*).
Any hydrolase inhibitor that interferes with the action of a hydrolase acting on C-N bonds, other than peptide bonds (EC 3.5.*.*).
EC 3.5.* (hydrolase acting on non-peptide C-N bond) inhibitor
EC 3.5.* (hydrolase acting on non-peptide C-N bond) inhibitors
EC 3.5.* (hydrolases acting on C-N bonds, other than peptide bonds) inhibitor
EC 3.5.* (hydrolases acting on C-N bonds, other than peptide bonds) inhibitors
EC 3.5.* (hydrolases acting on non-peptide C-N bonds) inhibitors
EC 3.5.* (hydrolases acting on non-peptide C-N bonds) inhibitor
An EC 3.1.* (ester hydrolase) inhibitor that interferes with the action of a carboxylic ester hydrolase (EC 3.1.1.*).
EC 3.1.1.* (carboxylic ester hydrolase) inhibitors
carboxylic ester hydrolase (EC 3.1.1.*) inhibitor
carboxylic ester hydrolase (EC 3.1.1.*) inhibitors
EC 3.1.1.* (carboxylic ester hydrolase) inhibitor
Any EC 3.4.* (hydrolases acting on peptide bond) inhibitor that interferes with the activity of a peptidyl dipeptidase (EC 3.4.15.*).
EC 3.4.15.* (peptidyl-dipeptidase) inhibitors
inhibitor of peptidyl-dipeptidases (EC 3.4.15.*)
inhibitors of peptidyl-dipeptidases (EC 3.4.15.*)
peptidyl-dipeptidase (EC 3.4.15.*) inhibitor
peptidyl-dipeptidase (EC 3.4.15.*) inhibitors
EC 3.4.15.* (peptidyl-dipeptidase) inhibitor
An EC 3.5.* (hydrolases acting on non-peptide C-N bonds) inhibitor that interferes with the action of any non-peptide linear amide C-N hydrolase (EC 3.5.1.*).
EC 3.5.1.* (non-peptide linear amide C-N hydrolase) inhibitors
non-peptide linear amide C-N hydrolase (EC 3.5.1.*) inhibitor
non-peptide linear amide C-N hydrolase (EC 3.5.1.*) inhibitors
EC 3.5.1.* (non-peptide linear amide C-N hydrolase) inhibitor
An EC 2.7.* (P-containing group transferase) inhibitor that interferes with the action of any nucleotidyltransferase (EC 2.7.7.*).
EC 2.7.7.* (nucleotidyltransferase) inhibitors
inhibitor of nucleotidyltransferases (EC 2.7.7.*)
inhibitors of nucleotidyltransferases (EC 2.7.7.*)
nucleotidyltransferase (EC 2.7.7.*) inhibitor
nucleotidyltransferase (EC 2.7.7.*) inhibitors
EC 2.7.7.* (nucleotidyltransferase) inhibitor
An EC 6.3.* (C‒N bond-forming ligase) inhibitor that interferes with the action of any acid-ammonia (or amine) ligase (EC 6.3.1.*).
EC 6.3.1.* (acid-ammonia/amine ligase) inhibitors
acid-ammonia (or amine) ligase inhibitor
acid-ammonia (or amine) ligase inhibitors
EC 6.3.1.* (acid-ammonia/amine ligase) inhibitor
An EC 4.3.* (C‒N lyase) inhibitor that interferes with the action of any ammonia-lyase (EC 4.3.1.*).
An EC 2.5.* (transferase) inhibitor that inhibits the action of any transferase that transfers an alkyl (other than methyl) or aryl group (EC 2.5.*).
EC 2.5.* (non-methyl-alkyl or aryl transferase) inhibitors
non-methyl-alkyl or aryl transferase (EC 2.5.*) inhibitor
non-methyl-alkyl or aryl transferase (EC 2.5.*) inhibitors
EC 2.5.* (non-methyl-alkyl or aryl transferase) inhibitor
An EC 1.1.* (oxidoreductase acting on donor CH-OH group) inhibitor that uses NAD+ or NADP+ as acceptor (EC 1.1.1.*).
EC 1.1.1.* (oxidoreductase acting on donor CH-OH group, NAD(+) or NADP(+)acceptor) inhibitors
oxidoreductase acting on donor CH-OH group, NAD(+) or NADP(+) acceptor (EC 1.1.1.*) inhibitor
oxidoreductase acting on donor CH-OH group, NAD(+) or NADP(+) acceptor (EC 1.1.1.*) inhibitors
EC 1.1.1.* (oxidoreductase acting on donor CH-OH group, NAD(+) or NADP(+) acceptor) inhibitor
An EC 1.13.* [oxidoreductase acting on single donors with incorporation of molecular oxygen (oxygenases)] inhibitor that inhibits the action of any oxidoreductase incorporating 2 atoms of oxygen (EC 1.13.11.*).
EC 1.13.11.* (oxidoreductase acting on single donors and incorporating 2 O atoms) inhibitors
EC 1.13.11.* (oxidoreductase acting on single donors and incorporating 2 atoms of oxygen) inhibitor
EC 1.13.11.* (oxidoreductase acting on single donors and incorporating 2 atoms of oxygen) inhibitors
oxidoreductase acting on single donors and incorporating 2 atoms of oxygen (EC 1.13.11.*) inhibitor
oxidoreductase acting on single donors and incorporating 2 atoms of oxygen (EC 1.13.11.*) inhibitors
EC 1.13.11.* (oxidoreductase acting on single donors and incorporating 2 O atoms) inhibitor
An EC 1.14.* (oxidoreductase acting on paired donors, with incorporation or reduction of molecular oxygen) inhibitor that interferes with the action of any such enzyme incorporating one atom of oxygen and using reduced flavin or flavoprotein as donor (EC 1.14.14.*).
EC 1.14.14.* (oxidoreductase acting on paired donors, incorporating of 1 atom of oxygen, with reduced flavin or flavoprotein as one donor) inhibitors
EC 1.14.14.* (oxidoreductase acting on paired donors, with incorporation of 1 atom of oxygen, with reduced flavin or flavoprotein as one donor) inhibitor
EC 1.14.14.* (oxidoreductase acting on paired donors, with incorporation of 1 atom of oxygen, with reduced flavin or flavoprotein as one donor) inhibitors
oxidoreductase acting on paired donors, with incorporation of 1 atom of oxygen, with reduced flavin or flavoprotein as one donor (EC 1.14.14.*) inhibitor
oxidoreductase acting on paired donors, with incorporation of 1 atom of oxygen, with reduced flavin or flavoprotein as one donor (EC 1.14.14.*) inhibitors
EC 1.14.14.* (oxidoreductase acting on paired donors, incorporating of 1 atom of oxygen, with reduced flavin or flavoprotein as one donor) inhibitor
An EC 1.17.* (oxidoreductase acting on CH or CH2) inhibitor that interferes with the function of any such enzyme that uses oxygen as acceptor (EC 1.17.3.*).
EC 1.17.3.* (oxidoreductase acting on CH or CH2 with oxygen as acceptor) inhibitors
oxidoreductase acting on CH or CH2 with oxygen as acceptor (EC 1.17.3.*) inhibitor
oxidoreductase acting on CH or CH2 with oxygen as acceptor (EC 1.17.3.*) inhibitors
EC 1.17.3.* (oxidoreductase acting on CH or CH2 with oxygen as acceptor) inhibitor
An EC 1.4.* (oxidoreductase acting on donor CH-NH2 group) inhibitor that interferes with the action of any such enzyme using oxygen as acceptor (EC 1.4.3.*).
EC 1.4.3.* (oxidoreductase acting on donor CH-NH2 group, oxygen as acceptor) inhibitors
oxidoreductase acting on donor CH-NH2 group, oxygen as acceptor (EC 1.4.3.*) inhibitor
oxidoreductase acting on donor CH-NH2 group, oxygen as acceptor (EC 1.4.3.*) inhibitors
EC 1.4.3.* (oxidoreductase acting on donor CH-NH2 group, oxygen as acceptor) inhibitor
An EC 2.1.* (C1-transferase) inhibitor that interferes with the action of any hydroxymethyl-, formyl- and related transferase (EC 2.1.2.*).
EC 2.1.2.* (hydroxymethyl-, formyl- and related transferases) inhibitors
hydroxymethyl-, formyl- and related transferases (EC 2.1.2.*) inhibitor
hydroxymethyl-, formyl- and related transferases (EC 2.1.2.*) inhibitors
EC 2.1.2.* (hydroxymethyl-, formyl- and related transferases) inhibitor
An EC 2.6.* (nitrogenous group transferase) inhibitor that inhibits the action of any transaminase (EC 2.6.1.*).
An EC 4.2.* (C‒O lyase) inhibitor that interferes with the action of any hydro-lyase (EC 4.2.1.*).
A drug which increases the blood glucose level.
Any eukaryotic metabolite produced during a metabolic reaction in plants, the kingdom that include flowering plants, conifers and other gymnosperms.
An enzyme inhibitor that interferes with one or more steps in a metabolic pathway.
Any eukaryotic metabolite produced during a metabolic reaction in fungi, the kingdom that includes microorganisms such as the yeasts and moulds.
Any human metabolite produced by metabolism of a xenobiotic compound in humans.
Any prokaryotic metabolite produced during a metabolic reaction in bacteria.
Any bacterial metabolite produced during a metabolic reaction in Escherichia coli.
A compound that alters the structure of mucus so as to decrease its viscosity and thereby facilitate its removal by ciliary action and expectoration. Compare with antitussives, which suppress the cough reflex, and expectorants, which are considered to increase the volume of secretions in the respiratory tract, so facilitating their removal by ciliary action and coughing.
An EC 1.1.1.* (oxidoreductase acting on donor CH-OH group, NAD+ or NADP+ acceptor) inhibitor that interferes with the action of prostaglandin-E2 9-reductase (EC 1.1.1.189).
(5Z,13E)-(15S)-9alpha,11alpha,15-trihydroxyprosta-5,13-dienoate:NADP(+) 9-oxidoreductase inhibitor
(5Z,13E)-(15S)-9alpha,11alpha,15-trihydroxyprosta-5,13-dienoate:NADP(+) 9-oxidoreductase inhibitors
9-keto-prostaglandin E2 reductase inhibitor
9-keto-prostaglandin E2 reductase inhibitors
9-ketoprostaglandin reductase inhibitors
EC 1.1.1.189 (prostaglandin-E2 9-reductase) inhibitors
prostaglandin 9-ketoreductase inhibitors
prostaglandin E 9-ketoreductase inhibitor
prostaglandin E 9-ketoreductase inhibitors
prostaglandin E2-9-oxoreductase inhibitor
prostaglandin E2-9-oxoreductase inhibitors
prostaglandin-E2 9-reductase (EC 1.1.1.189) inhibitor
prostaglandin-E2 9-reductase (EC 1.1.1.189) inhibitors
reductase, 15-hydroxy-9-oxoprostaglandin inhibitor
reductase, 15-hydroxy-9-oxoprostaglandin inhibitors
EC 1.1.1.189 (prostaglandin-E2 9-reductase) inhibitor
A food additive that imparts colour to food. In European countries, E-numbers for permitted food colours are from E 100 to E 199, divided into yellows (E 100-109), oranges (E 110-119), reds (E 120-129), blues and violets (E 130-139), greens (E 140-149), browns and blacks (E 150-159), and others (E 160-199).
A diuretic that acts on the ascending loop of Henle in the kidney.
An EC 4.3.1.* (ammonia-lyase) inhibitor that interferes with the action of histidine ammonia-lyase (EC 4.3.1.3).
EC 4.3.1.3 (histidine ammonia-lyase) inhibitors
L-histidine ammonia-lyase (urocanate-forming) inhibitor
L-histidine ammonia-lyase (urocanate-forming) inhibitors
histidine ammonia-lyase (EC 4.3.1.3) inhibitor
histidine ammonia-lyase (EC 4.3.1.3) inhibitors
EC 4.3.1.3 (histidine ammonia-lyase) inhibitor
Any mammalian metabolite produced during a metabolic reaction in humans (Homo sapiens).
A zwitterion obtained by transfer of a proton from the 2-hydroxy group to the 1-amino group of tetracycline. It is the major microspecies at pH 7.3 (according to Marvin v 6.2.0.).
An EC 3.5.1.* (non-peptide linear amide C-N hydrolase) inhibitor that interferes with the action of amidase (EC 3.5.1.4).
A food additive that is used to make or keep fruit or vegetable tissues firm and crisp. or which interacts with gelling agents such as pectin to produce or strengthen a gel.
An antioxidant that used as a food additives to help guard against food deterioration.
A food preservative that acts by chelating with metal cations (particularly those of copper, iron and nickel) that catalyse the oxidation of fats in food.
A propellant that is used to expel foods from an aerosol container.
A polyunsaturated fatty acid anion that is the conjugate base of docosahexaenoic acid, obtained by deprotonation of the carboxy group; major species at pH 7.3.
Any saturated fatty acid anion containing 3 carbons. Formed by deprotonation of the carboxylic acid moiety. Major species at pH 7.3.
Any saturated fatty acid anion containing 4 carbons. Formed by deprotonation of the carboxylic acid moiety. Major species at pH 7.3.
Any saturated fatty acid anion containing 6 carbons. Formed by deprotonation of the carboxylic acid moiety. Major species at pH 7.3.
Any saturated fatty acid anion containing 16 carbons. Formed by deprotonation of the carboxylic acid moiety. Major species at pH 7.3.
A monocarboxylic acid anion that is the conjugate base of N-acetyl-L-cysteine, obtained by deprotonation of the carboxy group; major species at pH 7.3.
A physiological role played by any substance that is distributed in foodstuffs. It includes materials derived from plants or animals, such as vitamins or minerals, as well as environmental contaminants.
Any minor or unwanted substance introduced into the environment that can have undesired effects.
A substance used in a thermodynamic heat pump cycle or refrigeration cycle that undergoes a phase change from a gas to a liquid and back. Refrigerants are used in air-conditioning systems and freezers or refrigerators and are assigned a "R" number (by ASHRAE - formerly the American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air Conditioning Engineers), which is determined systematically according to their molecular structure.
An amino acid-zwitterion obtained by transfer of a proton from the carboxy to the amino group of any α-amino acid; major species at pH 7.3.
Any organooxygen compound that is a polyhydroxy-aldehyde or -ketone, or a compound derived from one. Carbohydrates contain only carbon, hydrogen and oxygen and usually have an empirical formula Cm(H2O)n; carbohydrate derivatives may contain other elements by substitution or condensation.
carbohydrates and carbohydrate derivatives
A chromanol that is chromane in which the hydrogen at position 6 is replaced by a hydroxy group.
Any metabolite produced by all living cells.
Any organic molecular entity that contains at least one C=C bond.
A long-chain fatty acid anion that is the conjugate base of hexadecanoic acid (palmitic acid); major species at pH 7.3.
A member of the class of pantothenic acids that is an amide formed from pantoic acid and β-alanine.
3-(2,4-dihydroxy-3,3-dimethylbutanamido)propanoic acid
Any inorganic anion with a valency of three.
Any inorganic anion with a valency of two.
Any inorganic anion with a valency of one.
A member of the class of monohydroxy-1,4-benzoquinones that is 2-hydroxy-1,4-benzoquinone carrying an additional methyl substituent at position 5.
A dicarboximide that is phthalimide or derivatives obtained from it by the formal replacement of one or more hydrogens.
A Daphnia metabolite produced by the species Daphnia galeata.
An animal metabolite produced by arthropods such as crabs, lobsters, crayfish, shrimps and krill.
A Daphnia metabolite produced by the species Daphnia magna.
A crustacean metabolite produced by the genus of small planktonic arthropods, Daphnia
Any derivative of a proteinogenic amino acid resulting from reaction at an amino group, carboxy group, or a side-chain functional group, or from the replacement of any hydrogen by a heteroatom.
Any derivative of a non-proteinogenic amino acid resulting from reaction at an amino group or carboxy group, or from the replacement of any hydrogen by a heteroatom.
non-proteinogenic amino-acid derivatives
Any of the 23 α-amino acids that are precursors to proteins, and are incorporated into proteins during translation. The group includes the 20 amino acids encoded by the nuclear genes of eukaryotes together with selenocysteine, pyrrolysine, and N-formylmethionine. Apart from glycine, which is non-chiral, all have L configuration.
Any amino-acid that is not naturally encoded in the genetic code of any organism.
Any derivative of an amino acid resulting from reaction at an amino group, carboxy group, side-chain functional group, or from the replacement of any hydrogen by a heteroatom. The definition normally excludes peptides containing amino acid residues.
A proteinogenic amino acid derivative resulting from the formal reaction of L-cysteine at the amino group, carboxy group, or thiol group, or from the replacement of any hydrogen of L-cysteine by a heteroatom.
Any α-amino acid which is not a member of the group of 23 proteinogenic amino acids.
A fatty acid anion obtained by deprotonation of the carboxy group of any 2-saturated fatty acid.
A methyl-branched fatty acid anion obtained by deprotonation of the carboxy group of any 3-methyl fatty acid; major species at pH 7.3.
A proteinogenic amino acid derivative resulting from reaction of L-glutamic acid at the amino group or either of the carboxy groups, or from the replacement of any hydrogen of L-glutamic acid by a heteroatom.
Any metabolite (endogenous or exogenous) found in human urine samples.
An EC 3.5.1.* (non-peptide linear amide C-N hydrolase) inhibitor that interferes with the action of nicotinamidase (EC 3.5.1.19).
Any eukaryotic metabolite produced during a metabolic reaction in algae including unicellular organisms like chlorella and diatoms to multicellular organisms like giant kelps and brown algae.
Any member of the class of cholanic acids carrying two hydroxy substituents at unspecified positions.
Any metabolite (endogenous or exogenous) found in human blood serum samples.
An organonitrogen heterocyclic antibiotic whose structure contains a quinolone or quinolone-related skeleton.
Any antifungal agent used to prevent or treat fungal infections in humans or animals.
A class of sulfonamides whose members generally have bacteriostatic antibiotic properties.
Any metal which causes the onset of an allergic reaction.
Any drug which causes the onset of an allergic reaction.
An organic anion obtained by deprotonation of the hydroxy group of 2-hydroxy-5-methylquinone. It is the major microspecies at pH 7.3 (according to Marvin v 6.2.0.).
A drug that acts as an antagonist, agonist, reverse agonist, or in some other fashion when interacting with cellular receptors.
A role borne by a molecule that acts to counteract or neutralize the deleterious effects of cyanide.
A carboxylic acic anion obtained by deprotonation of the carboxy group of any aromatic carboxylic acid. Major species at pH 7.3.
A GABA receptor agonist specific for GABAA receptors, ligand-gated ion channels (also known as ionotropic receptors).
Any inhibitor of erythropoietin, a glycoprotein hormone that controls erythropoiesis (red blood cell production).
An antagonist at purinergic P2 receptors
A member of the class of 2-pyranones that is tetrahydro-2H-pyran-2-one substituted by a methyl and hydroxy group at position 4.
A racemate comprising equimolar amounts of R- and S-thalidomide.
A material entity of anatomical origin (part of or deriving from an organism) that has as its parts a maximally connected cell compartment surrounded by a plasma membrane.
The definition of cell is intended to represent all cells, and thus a cell is defined as a material entity and not an anatomical structure, which implies that it is part of an organism (or the entirety of one).
OBSOLETE. A cell that is found in a natural setting, which includes multicellular organism cells 'in vivo' (i.e. part of an organism), and unicellular organisms 'in environment' (i.e. part of a natural environment).
Any sensory receptor cell that is a(n) neuron and is capable of some detection of stimulus involved in sensory perception.
A cell found in the embryo before the formation of all the gem layers is complete.
Cell that is part of the migratory cranial neural crest population. Migratory cranial neural crest cells develop from premigratory cranial neural crest cells and have undergone epithelial to mesenchymal transition and delamination.
A germ cell that supports male gamete production. In some species, non-germ cells known as Sertoli cells also play a role in spermatogenesis.
A male germ cell that develops from spermatogonia. The euploid primary spermatocytes undergo meiosis and give rise to the haploid secondary spermatocytes which in turn give rise to spermatids.
A male germ cell that develops from the haploid secondary spermatocytes. Without further division, spermatids undergo structural changes and give rise to spermatozoa.
A mature male germ cell that develops from a spermatid.
An euploid male germ cell of an early stage of spermatogenesis.
Female germ cell is a germ cell that supports female gamete production.
A female germ cell that has entered meiosis.
Any neuron that develops from some migratory neural crest cell.
A cell that will develop into a neuron often after a migration phase.
A relatively undifferentiated cell that retains the ability to divide and proliferate throughout life to provide progenitor cells that can differentiate into specialized cells.
This term applies to metazoan. For plant stem cells, consider using PO:0004011 ‘initial cell’ or its parent PO:0004010 ‘meristematic cell’.
A stem cell from which all cells of the lymphoid and myeloid lineages develop, including blood cells and cells of the immune system. Hematopoietic stem cells lack cell markers of effector cells (lin-negative). Lin-negative is defined by lacking one or more of the following cell surface markers: CD2, CD3 epsilon, CD4, CD5 ,CD8 alpha chain, CD11b, CD14, CD19, CD20, CD56, ly6G, ter119.
Markers differ between species, and two sets of markers have been described for mice. HSCs are reportedly CD34-positive, CD45-positive, CD48-negative, CD150-positive, CD133-positive, and CD244-negative.
A progenitor cell committed to the erythroid lineage.
A cell that is within the developmental lineage of gametes and is able to pass along its genetic material to offspring.
Originally this term had some plant germ line cell children.
A stem cell that can give rise to multiple lineages of cells.
A progenitor cell committed to myeloid lineage, including the megakaryocyte and erythroid lineages.
colony forming unit granulocyte, erythrocyte, macrophage, and megakaryocyte
This cell type is intended to be compatible with any vertebrate common myeloid progenitor. For mammalian CMP known to be CD34-positive, please use the term 'common myeloid progenitor, CD34-positive' (CL_0001059).
A progenitor cell committed to the megakaryocyte and erythroid lineages.
colony forming unit erythroid megakaryocyte
MEPs are reportedly CD19-negative, CD34-negative, CD45RA-negative, CD110-positive, CD117-positive, and SCA1-negative and reportedly express the transcription factors GATA-1 and NF-E2.
A oligopotent progenitor cell committed to the lymphoid lineage.
CLP are CD7-positive, CD10-positive, CD19-negative, CD34-positive, CD45RA-positive, CD79a-negative, CD127-positive, AA4.1-positive, RAG-negative, Sca-1-low, sIgM-negative, sIgD-negative, TdT-negative, Vpre-B-negative, and pre-BCR-negative. Expression of transcription factors include E2A-positive, EBF-positive, Ikaros-negative, PU.1-negative, and Pax5-negative.
A stem cell from which all cells of the body can form.
A cell that is commited to differentiating into a muscle cell. Embryonic myoblasts develop from the mesoderm. They undergo proliferation, migrate to their various sites, and then differentiate into the appropriate form of myocytes. Myoblasts also occur as transient populations of cells in muscles undergoing repair.
A connective tissue cell which secretes an extracellular matrix rich in collagen and other macromolecules. Flattened and irregular in outline with branching processes; appear fusiform or spindle-shaped.
These cells may be vimentin-positive, fibronectin-positive, fsp1-positive, MMP-1-positive, collagen I-positive, collagen III-positive, and alpha-SMA-negative.
Skeletogenic cell that is typically non-terminally differentiated, secretes an avascular, GAG rich matrix; is not buried in cartilage tissue matrix, retains the ability to divide, located adjacent to cartilage tissue (including within the perichondrium), and develops from prechondroblast (and thus prechondrogenic) cell.
Skeletogenic cell that produces enamel, overlies the odontogenic papilla, and arises from the differentiation of a preameloblast cell.
non-encoded relationship from VSAO produces VSAO:0000066
Skeletogenic cell that secretes dentine matrix, is derived from the odontogenic papilla, and develops from a preodontoblast cell.
legacy def: One of the cells forming the outer surface of dental pulp that produces tooth dentin.
A cell that has a filiform extrusion of the cell surface.
A cell that is usually found in a two-dimensional sheet with a free surface. The cell has a cytoskeleton that allows for tight cell to cell contact and for cell polarity where apical part is directed towards the lumen and the basal part to the basal lamina.
An epithelial cell that is part of a duct.
An endothelial cell that lines the vasculature.
A columnar/cuboidal epithelial cell is a cell usually found in a two dimensional sheet with a free surface. Columnar/cuboidal epithelial cells take on the shape of a column or cube.
A flat, squamous-like epithelial cell of mesodermal origin. It forms the mesothelium, which lines the body's serous cavities including the pleural, peritoneal, and pericardial spaces. This cell plays a crucial role in synthesizing and secreting lubricants, such as glycosaminoglycans and surfactants, which minimize friction between adjacent tissues during movement.
Mesothelial cells, which morphologically resemble squamous epithelial cells, express both epithelial markers (cytokeratins) and mesenchymal markers (vimentin), reflecting their mesodermal origin. They feature surface microvilli and apical-basal polarity. Under certain conditions, they can undergo mesothelial-to-mesenchymal transition. These cells also produce extracellular matrix proteins, maintain serosal homeostasis, and facilitate fluid transport.
A cell found predominately in the blood.
A type of lymphocyte whose defining characteristic is the expression of a T cell receptor complex.
A leukocyte with abundant granules in the cytoplasm.
A cell that is found in almost all tissues containing numerous basophilic granules and capable of releasing large amounts of histamine and heparin upon activation. Progenitors leave bone marrow and mature in connective and mucosal tissue. Mature mast cells are found in all tissues, except the bloodstream. Their phenotype is CD117-high, CD123-negative, CD193-positive, CD200R3-positive, and FceRI-high. Stem-cell factor (KIT-ligand; SCF) is the main controlling signal of their survival and development.
Mast cells are generally integrin beta-7-negative and positive for TLR2, TLR3, TLR4, TLR5, TLR7, TLR9, C3aR, C5aR, CR3, CR4, VEGF, FGF2, and renin. They can express MHC Class I and II on their surface. Activated murine mast cells (IgE+Antigen) were capable of expressing the following co-stimulatory molecules: CD95 (Fas), CD120b, CD137 (4-1BB), CD153 (CD30L), CD154 (CD40L), GITR, ICOSL, OX40L, PD-L1, and PD-L2. Note that there was some mouse strain variation. Mast cells have also been demonstrated to produce bFGF, CCL2, CCL4, CCL5, CCL11, CCL20, CXCL2, CXCL8, CXCL10, GM-CSF, IFN-gamma, IL-1, IL-2, IL-3, IL-8, IL-10, IL-11, IL-12, IL-13, IL-16, IL-25, IL-18, MIP-1, prostaglandin D2, SCF, TGF-beta, TNF-alpha, TSLP, VEGF, and XCL1. They express the transcription factors Transcription factors AP-1, GATA1, MITF, Notch2, PIAS3, PU.1, and STAT5.
Most generally any neuron which is not motor or sensory. Interneurons may also refer to neurons whose axons remain within a particular brain region as contrasted with projection neurons which have axons projecting to other brain regions.
An efferent neuron that passes from the central nervous system or a ganglion toward or to a muscle and conducts an impulse that causes or inhibits movement.
Any neuron having a sensory function; an afferent neuron conveying sensory impulses.
A vertebrate phagocyte with a single nucleus.
An endothelial cell comprises the outermost layer or lining of anatomical structures and can be squamous or cuboidal. In mammals, endothelial cell has vimentin filaments and is derived from the mesoderm.
From FMA: 9.07.2001: Endothelial cell has always been classified as a kind of epithelial cell, specifically a squamous cell but that is not true. First, endothelial cell can either be squamous or cuboidal (e.g. high-endothelial cell) and secondly, it has different embryological derivation (mesodermal) than a true epithelial cell (ectodermal and endodermal). The basis for present classification is the fact that it comprises the outermost layer or lining of anatomical structures (location-based) but a better structural basis for the differentia is the cytoskeleton of the cell. Endothelial cell has vimentin filaments while an epithelial cell has keratin filaments. [Onard].
A non-neuronal cell of the nervous system. They not only provide physical support, but also respond to injury, regulate the ionic and chemical composition of the extracellular milieu. Guide neuronal migration during development, and exchange metabolites with neurons.
Not all glial cells develop from glioblasts, with microglia developing from the mesoderm instead. See https://github.com/obophenotype/cell-ontology/issues/1571
A connective tissue cell that normally gives rise to other cells that are organized as three-dimensional masses. In humans, this cell type is CD73-positive, CD90-positive, CD105-positive, CD45-negative, CD34-negative, and MHCII-negative. They may further differentiate into osteoblasts, adipocytes, myocytes, neurons, or chondroblasts in vitro. Originally described as residing in the bone marrow, this cell type is now known to reside in many, if not all, adult organs.
Many but not all mesenchymal cells derive from the mesoderm. MSCs are reportedly CD3-negative, CD4-negative, CD5-negative, CD8-negative, CD11a-negative, CD11b-negative, CD14-negative, CD19-negative, CD29-positive, CD31-negative, CD34-negative, CD38-negative, CD40-negative, CD44-positive, CD45-negative, CD49-positive, CD54-positive, CD66b-negative, CD79a-negative, CD80-negative, CD102-positive, CD106-positive, CD117-positive, CD121a-positive, CD121b-positive, CD123-positive, CD124-positive, CD133-negative, CD146-positive, CD166-positive, CD271-positive, B220-negative, Gr1-negative, MHCI-positive, MHCII-negative, SSEA4-negative, sca1-positive, Ter119-negative, and glycophorin A-negative. Cultured MSCs are capable of producing stem cell factor, IL7, IL8, IL11, TGF-beta, cofilin, galectin-1, laminin-receptor 1, cyclophilin A, and MMP-2.
A fat-storing cell found mostly in the abdominal cavity and subcutaneous tissue of mammals. Fat is usually stored in the form of triglycerides.
A skeletogenic cell that secretes a specialized, avascular, GAG-rich matrix, is embedded in cartilage tissue matrix, retains the ability to divide, and develops from a chondroblast cell.
A cell capable of processing and presenting lipid and protein antigens to T cells in order to initiate an immune response.
Note change of name; nearly all somatic cells can present antigens to T cells via MHC Class I complexes leading to effector responses, but professional antigen presenting cells constitutively express MHC Class II as well as costimulatory molecules, and thus can initiate immune responses via T cells.
A pigment cell is a cell that contains pigment granules.
An epithelial cell, located in a gland, that is specialised for the synthesis and secretion of specific biomolecules, such as hormones, or mucous.
A cell that specializes in controlled release of one or more substances.
A cell of an exocrine gland; i.e. a gland that discharges its secretion via a duct.
A cell that secretes glycosaminoglycans.
Any secretory cell that is capable of some protein secretion.
A specialized, columnar, mucus secreting epithelial cell shaped like a flask or goblet. A narrow basal end contains the nucleus while the apical end is swollen by the accumulation of mucus laden secretory granules. Short microvilli project from the apical plasma membrane.
A cell of an endocrine gland, ductless glands that secrete substances which are released directly into the circulation and which influence metabolism and other body functions.
An endocrine cell that is located in the epithelium of the gastrointestinal tract or in the pancreas.
A neuron that is capable of some hormone secretion in response to neuronal signals.
The neurosecretory cell is neither an ordinary neuron nor an endocrine cell, but a combination of both. Its neuronal features resemble those of ordinary neurons concerning both structure and function. The production of a visible secretory material marks the neurosecretory neuron as a gland cell, and the fact that extractable cellular products act in the manner of hormones places it in the realm of endocrine elements. The modern definition of neurosecretion has evolved to include the release of any neuronal secretory product from a neuron.
A cell that stores epinephrine secretory vesicles. During times of stress, the nervous system signals the vesicles to secrete their hormonal content. Their name derives from their ability to stain a brownish color with chromic salts. Characteristically, they are located in the adrenal medulla and paraganglia of the sympathetic nervous system.
Any secretory cell that is capable of some peptide hormone secretion.
Any secretory cell that is capable of some insulin secretion.
Any secretory cell that is capable of some somatostatin secretion.
The main structural component of the liver. They are specialized epithelial cells that are organized into interconnected plates called lobules. Majority of cell population of liver, polygonal in shape, arranged in plates or trabeculae between sinusoids; may have single nucleus or binucleated.
Hepatocytes are reportedly MHC Class I-positive and MHC Class II-positive.
A cell whose primary function is to shorten.
A mature contractile cell, commonly known as a myocyte. This cell has as part of its cytoplasm myofibrils organized in various patterns.
A somatic cell located in skeletal muscle.
A non-striated, elongated, spindle-shaped cell found lining the digestive tract, uterus, and blood vessels. They develop from specialized myoblasts (smooth muscle myoblast).
A cell that is capable of detection of a stimulus involved in sensory perception.
A cell specialized to detect chemical substances and relay that information centrally in the nervous system. Chemoreceptors may monitor external stimuli, as in taste and olfaction, or internal stimuli, such as the concentrations of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood.
Any neuron that is capable of some detection of chemical stimulus involved in sensory perception of smell.
A cell specialized in detecting light stimuli that are involved in visual perception.
A cell whose function is determined by the generation or the reception of an electric signal.
A cell that moves by its own activities.
A cell of the outer of the three germ layers of the embryo.
A cell of the middle germ layer of the embryo.
A cell of the inner of the three germ layers of the embryo.
A red blood cell. In mammals, mature erythrocytes are biconcave disks containing hemoglobin whose function is to transport oxygen.
A non-nucleated disk-shaped cell formed by extrusion from megakaryocytes, found in the blood of all mammals, and mainly involved in blood coagulation.
Platelets are reportedly CCR1-positive, CCR2-negative, CCR3-positive, CCR4-positive, CCR5-negative, CCR6-negative, CCR7-negative, CCR8-negative, CCR9-negative, CCR10-negative, CD16-positive, CD23-positive, CD32-positive, CD40-positive, CD41-positive CD42-positive, CD61-positive, CD62P-positive, CD64-positive, CD89-positive, CD102-positive, CD147-positive (activated platelets), CD154-positive (activated platelets), CD162-positive, CD209, CD282-positive, CD284-positive, CD289-positive, CD181-negative, CD182-negative, CD183-negative, CD184-positive, CLEC2-positive, GPVI-positive, JAMC-positive, PAR1-positive, PAR2-negative, PAR3-positive, PAR4-positive, TSP1-positive, and TXA2R-positive. Platelets can reportedly produce CCL2, CCL3, CCL5, CCL7, CCL17, CD40L, CXCL1, CXCL4, CXCL4L1, CXCL5, CXCL7, CXCL8, CXCL12, EGF, factor V, factor VII, factor XI, factor XIII, bFGF, histamine, IGF-1, IL-1beta, PAI-1, PDGF, plasminogen, protein S, serotonin, TGF-beta, TFPI, VEGF, and vWF.
Any cell capable of ingesting particulate matter via phagocytosis.
A lymphocyte of B lineage that is capable of B cell mediated immunity.
Any photoreceptor cell that is part of some eye.
A peptide hormone secreting cell that produces growth hormone, somatotropin.
A mature sexual reproductive cell having a single set of unpaired chromosomes.
Columnar glandular cell with irregular nucleus, copious granular endoplasmic reticulum and supranuclear granules. Secretes a watery fluid containing proteins known as serous fluid.
Any cell that is capable of some mucus secretion.
A cell that is specialised to accumulate a particular substance(s).
Any cell that is capable of some oxygen transport.
A cell derived from the specialized ectoderm flanking each side of the embryonic neural plate, which after the closure of the neural tube, forms masses of cells that migrate out from the dorsal aspect of the neural tube to spread throughout the body.
A mesenchymal cell in embryonic development found in a contracting mass and that gives rise to osteoprogenitors.
Any cell that is part of some extraembryonic structure.
An extraembryonic cell that develops from a trophectodermal cell. This cell is found in the outer layer of the blastocyst and can invade other structures in the uterus once the blastocyst implants into the uterine wall. A trophoblast cell is involved in the implantation of the embryo into the uterine wall, placental formation, remodelling of maternal vasculature in the uterus, nutrient and gas exchange, hormone production, and immune modulation to support fetal development.
A cell of the outer layer of a blastula that gives rise to the ectoderm after gastrulation.
An undifferentiated cell produced by early cleavages of the fertilized egg (zygote).
A multifate stem cell found in skeletal muscle than can differentiate into many different cell types, including muscle. Distinct cell type from satellite cell.
Multi-potency demonstrated ex vivo. At the time of writing, it is unclear whether the endogenous population differentiates into multiple cell types in vivo.
Diploid cell produced by the fusion of sperm cell nucleus and egg cell.
A cell whose function is determined by its response to an electric signal.
A cell that initiates an electrical signal and passes that signal to another cell.
Any male germ cell that has characteristic some haploid and is capable of some fertilization.
A cell that contains more than two haploid sets of chromosomes.
A cell whose nucleus contains a single haploid genome.
A peptide hormone secreting cell pituitary that produces luteinizing hormone.
A peptide hormone cell that secretes prolactin.
A cell of the intermediate pituitary that produces melanocyte stimulating hormone.
melanocyte stimulating hormone secreting cell
A cell of hematopoietic origin, typically resident in particular tissues, specialized in the uptake, processing, and transport of antigens to lymph nodes for the purpose of stimulating an immune response via T cell activation. These cells are lineage negative (CD3-negative, CD19-negative, CD34-negative, and CD56-negative).
Langerhans cell is a conventional dendritic cell that has plasma membrane part CD207. A Langerhans cell is a stellate dendritic cell of myeloid origin, that appears clear on light microscopy and has a dark-staining, indented nucleus and characteristic inclusions (Birbeck granules) in the cytoplasm; Langerhans cells are found principally in the stratum spinosum of the epidermis, but they also occur in other stratified epithelia and have been identified in the lung, lymph nodes, spleen, and thymus.
Originally described in the dendritic cell ontology (DC_CL:0000021 )(PMID:19243617). These cells are also CD1a-high, CD14-negative, CD207-positive (langerin), CD324-positive (E-cadherin), and DCIR-positive. They reside in the epidermis.
A cell type that secretes 5-Hydroxytryptamine (serotonin).
A peptide hormone secreting cell that produces adrenocorticotropin, or corticotropin.
adrenocorticotrophic hormone secreting cell
adrenocorticotropic hormone secreting cell
A connective tissue cell of an organ found in the loose connective tissue.
A cell found throughout the gastrointestinal tract and in the pancreas. They secrete somatostatin in both an endocrine and paracrine manner. Somatostatin inhibits gastrin, cholecystokinin, insulin, glucagon, pancreatic enzymes, and gastric hydrochloric acid. A variety of substances which inhibit gastric acid secretion (vasoactive intestinal peptide, calcitonin gene-related peptide, cholecystokinin, beta-adrenergic agonists, and gastric inhibitory peptide) are thought to act by releasing somatostatin.
An endorphine cell that secretes enkephalin.
A peptide hormone secreting cell that secretes endorphin.
An endocrine cell found in the stomach and duodenum and is responsible for the secretion of gastrin and enkephalin. Most abundant in pyloric antrum, pyramidal in form with a narrow apex bearing long microvilli.
A peptide hormone secreting cell that secretes gastrin.
A precursor cell destined to differentiate into cardiac muscle cell.
A precursor cell destined to differentiate into smooth muscle myocytes.
A myoblast that differentiates into skeletal muscle fibers.
A phagocyte in vertebrates that is able to phagocytosis.
A neuron which conveys sensory information centrally from the periphery.
A neuron which sends impulses peripherally to activate muscles or secretory cells.
The basic cellular unit of nervous tissue. Each neuron consists of a body, an axon, and dendrites. Their purpose is to receive, conduct, and transmit impulses in the nervous system.
These cells are also reportedly CD4-negative and CD200-positive. They are also capable of producing CD40L and IFN-gamma.
A lymphocyte is a leukocyte commonly found in the blood and lymph that has the characteristics of a large nucleus, a neutral staining cytoplasm, and prominent heterochromatin.
Editors note: consider adding taxon constraint to vertebrata (PMID:18025161)
An immature, nucleated erythrocyte occupying the stage of erythropoeisis that follows formation of erythroid progenitor cells. This cell is CD71-positive, has both a nucleus and a nucleolus, and lacks hematopoeitic lineage markers.
A nucleated immature erythrocyte, having cytoplasm generally similar to that of the earlier proerythroblast but sometimes even more basophilic, and usually regular in outline. The nucleus is still relatively large, but the chromatin strands are thicker and more deeply staining, giving a coarser appearance; the nucleoli have disappeared. This cell is CD71-positive and lacks hematopoeitic lineage markers.
A nucleated, immature erythrocyte in which the nucleus occupies a relatively smaller part of the cell than in its precursor, the basophilic erythroblast. The cytoplasm is beginning to acquire hemoglobin and thus is no longer a purely basophilic, but takes on acidophilic aspects, which becomes progressively more marked as the cell matures. The chromatin of the nucleus is arranged in coarse, deeply staining clumps. This cell is CD71-positive and lacks hematopoeitic lineage markers.
The final stage of the nucleated, immature erythrocyte, before nuclear loss. Typically the cytoplasm is described as acidophilic, but it still shows a faint polychromatic tint. The nucleus is small and initially may still have coarse, clumped chromatin, as in its precursor, the polychromatophilic erythroblast, but ultimately it becomes pyknotic, and appears as a deeply staining, blue-black, homogeneous structureless mass. The nucleus is often eccentric and sometimes lobulated.
The earliest cytologically identifiable precursor in the thrombocytic series. This cell is capable of endomitosis and lacks expression of hematopoieitic lineage markers (lin-negative).
Lineage negative is described here as CD2-negative, CD3-negative, CD4-negative, CD5-negative, CD8a-negative, CD14-negative, CD19-negative, CD20-negative, CD56-negative, Ly6g-negative, and Ter119-negative.
A large hematopoietic cell (50 to 100 micron) with a lobated nucleus. Once mature, this cell undergoes multiple rounds of endomitosis and cytoplasmic restructuring to allow platelet formation and release.
Megakaryocytes are reportedly CD181-positive and CD182-positive.
A hematopoietic progenitor cell that is committed to the granulocyte and monocyte lineages. These cells are CD123-positive, and do not express Gata1 or Gata2 but do express C/EBPa, and Pu.1.
colony forming unit granulocyte macrophage
Originally described in the dendritic cell ontology (DC_CL:0000042)(PMID:19243617). GMPs are reportedly CD16-positive, CD32-positive, CD34-positive, CD38-positive, CD45RA-positive, CD110-negative, CD117-positive, CD123-positive, and SCA1-negative.
An immature erythrocyte that changes the protein composition of its plasma membrane by exosome formation and extrusion. The types of protein removed differ between species though removal of the transferrin receptor is apparent in mammals and birds.
A mesenchymal stem cell capable of developing into blood vessel endothelium.
These cells are reportedly CD31-positive, CD34-positive, CD144-positive, CD309-positive, and TAL1-positive.
A cell that originates in the neural crest, that has certain cytochemical and ultrastructural characteristics and is found scattered throughout the body; types include melanocytes, the cells of the chromaffin system, and cells in the hypothalamus, hypophysis, thyroid, parathyroids, lungs, gastrointestinal tract, and pancreas. This cell type concentrates the amino acid precursors of certain amines and decarboxylate them, forming amines that function as regulators and neurotransmitters. This cell type produces substances such as epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine, serotonin, enkephalin, somatostatin, neurotensin, and substance P, the actions of which may affect contiguous cells, nearby groups of cells, or distant cells, thus functioning as local or systemic hormones. The name is an acronym for amine precursor uptake and decarboxylation cell.
amine precursor uptake and decarboxylation cell
One of the two photoreceptor cell types in the vertebrate retina. In cones the photopigment is in invaginations of the cell membrane of the outer segment. Cones are less sensitive to light than rods, but they provide vision with higher spatial and temporal acuity, and the combination of signals from cones with different pigments allows color vision.
The reproductive cell in multicellular organisms.
One of the two photoreceptor cell types of the vertebrate retina. In rods the photopigment is in stacks of membranous disks separate from the outer cell membrane. Rods are more sensitive to light than cones, but rod mediated vision has less spatial and temporal resolution than cone vision.
A secretory cell that is grouped together with other cells of the same type to form grape shaped clusters known as acini (singular acinus).
A lymphocyte that can spontaneously kill a variety of target cells without prior antigenic activation via germline encoded activation receptors and also regulate immune responses via cytokine release and direct contact with other cells.
A cell whose primary function is to support other cell types.
A cell that stains readily in the anterior pituitary gland.
chromophil cell of anterior pituitary gland
An acidophilic chromophil cell that of the anterior pituitary gland.
acidophil cell of pars anterior of adenohypophysis
acidophil of pars anterior of adenohypophysis
acidophil of pars distalis of adenohypophysis
acidophil cell of pars distalis of adenohypophysis
An agranular supporting cell of the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis) that is characterized by a star-like morphology and ability to form follicles. Folliculostellate cells communicate with each other and with endocrine cells via gap junctions.
Folliculostellate cells are a heterogeneous group of cells rather than a single cell type, with different morphology and gene expression profiles. Due to this heterogeneity, it is unclear if different properties that have been attributed to folliculostellate cells (pluripotent, proliferative, phagocytic) are common in all folliculostellate cells or limited to particular subsets.
This cell type produces and secretes melatonin and forms the pineal parenchyma. Extending from each cell body, which has a spherical, oval or lobulated mucleus, are one or more tortuous basophilic processes, containing parallel microtubules known as synaptic ribbons. These processes end in expanded terminal buds near capillaries or less, frequently, ependymal cells of the pineal recess. The terminal buds contain granular endoplasmic reticulum, mitochondria and electron-dense cored vesicles, which store monoamines and polypeptide hormones, release of which appears to require sympathetic innervation.
A diploid cell that has derived from a spermatogonium and can subsequently begin meiosis and divide into two haploid secondary spermatocytes.
One of the two haploid cells into which a primary spermatocyte divides, and which in turn gives origin to spermatids.
An extracellular matrix secreting cell that secretes collagen.
A non-terminally differentiated cell that is capable of developing into a muscle cell.
A cell that stores and secretes pancreatic polypeptide hormone.
Epithelial cells derived from neural plate and neural crest.
The term "neuroepithelial cell" is used to describe both this cell type and sensory epithelial cell (CL:0000098).
A stem cell that can give rise to cell types of the body other than those of the germ-line.
Muscle cell which has as its direct parts myofilaments organized into sarcomeres.
An achromatic cell of the myeloid or lymphoid lineages capable of ameboid movement, found in blood or other tissue.
The set of neurons that receives neural inputs via bipolar, horizontal and amacrine cells. The axons of these cells make up the optic nerve.
Cardiac muscle cells are striated muscle cells that are responsible for heart contraction. In mammals, the contractile fiber resembles those of skeletal muscle but are only one third as large in diameter, are richer in sarcoplasm, and contain centrally located instead of peripheral nuclei.
This class encompasses the muscle cells responsible for heart* contraction in both vertebrates and arthropods. The ultrastucture of a wide range of arthropod heart cells has been examined including spiders, horseshoe crabs, crustaceans (see Sherman, 1973 and refs therein) and insects (see Lehmacher et al (2012) and refs therein). According to these refs, the cells participating in heart contraction in all cases are transversely striated. Insects hearts additionally contain ostial cells, also transversely striated muscle cells, but which do not participate in heart contraction.
A cell of the monocyte, granulocyte, mast cell, megakaryocyte, or erythroid lineage.
A immature or mature cell in the lineage leading to and including erythrocytes.
Note that in FMA erythropoietic cells are types of nucleated erythrocytes and thus don't include erythrocytes.
A nucleated precursor of an erythrocyte that lacks hematopoietic lineage markers.
A cell of the monocyte, granulocyte, or mast cell lineage.
Any of the immature or mature forms of a granular leukocyte that in its mature form has an irregularly shaped, pale-staining nucleus that is partially constricted into two lobes, and with cytoplasm that contains coarse, bluish-black granules of variable size. Basophils contain vasoactive amines such as histamine and serotonin, which are released on appropriate stimulation. A basophil is CD123-positive, CD193-positive, CD203c-positive, and FceRIa-positive.
Matures in the bone marrow and account for <1% of leukocytes in the peripheral blood, spleen, and bone marrow. Basophils are described as being CD11a-positive, CD11b-positive, CD13-positive, CD15-positive, CD18-positive, CD21-positive, CD25-positive, CD29-positive, CD35-positive, CD40-positive, CD40L-positive, CD44-positive, CD45R-negative, CD46-positive, CD49a-positive, CD49b-positive, CD49d-positive, CD55-positive, CD59-positive, CD62L-positive, CD63-positive, CD69-positive, CD90-negative, CD116-positive, CD117-negative, CD124-positive, CD125-positive, CD131-positive, CD161-positive, CD184-positive, CD191-positive, CD192-positive, CD197-positive, CD200R3-positive, CD218-positive, CD282-positive, CD284-positive, CD289-positive, CD290-positive, CD294-positive, natural killer cell receptor 2B4-positive, smad1-positive, CD3-negative, CD4-negative, CD7-negative, CD8-negative, CD14-negative, CD15-negative, CD16-negative, CD19-negative, CD20-negative, CD34-negative, CD36-negative, CD45R-negative, CD56-negative, CD57-negative, CD235a-negative, and GR1-negative. Transcription factors- GATA1-positive, PU.1-positive.
Any of the immature or mature forms of a granular leukocyte with a nucleus that usually has two lobes connected by one or more slender threads of chromatin, and cytoplasm containing coarse, round granules that are uniform in size and which can be stained by the dye eosin. Eosinophils are CD9-positive, CD191-positive, and CD193-positive.
Eosinophils are also CD14-negative, CD32-positive, CD44-positive, CD48-positive, CD69-positive, CD192-negative, MBP1-positive, MBP2-positive, TLR2-negative, TLR4-negative, and lineage-negative (B220, CD2, CD14, CD19, CD56, CD71, CD117, CD123, CD235a (glycophorin A), and TER119). The cytokines IL-3, IL-5, and GM-CSF are involved in their development and differentiation. Usually considered CD16-negative, CD16 is observed on eosinophilic metamyelocyte.
Any of the immature or mature forms of a granular leukocyte that in its mature form has a nucleus with three to five lobes connected by slender threads of chromatin, and cytoplasm containing fine inconspicuous granules and stainable by neutral dyes.
A B cell that is mature, having left the bone marrow. Initially, these cells are IgM-positive and IgD-positive, and they can be activated by antigen.
Mature B cells are also reportedly CD10-negative, CD19-positive, CD22-positive, CD34-negative, CD48-positive, CD79a-positive, CD84-positive, CD127-negative, CD352-positive, RAG-negative, TdT-negative, Vpre-B-negative, and pre-BCR-negative. Transcription factors expressed: Pax5-positive.
A terminally differentiated, post-mitotic, antibody secreting cell of the B cell lineage with the phenotype CD138-positive, surface immunonoglobulin-negative, and MHC Class II-negative. Plasma cells are oval or round with extensive rough endoplasmic reticulum, a well-developed Golgi apparatus, and a round nucleus having a characteristic cartwheel heterochromatin pattern and are devoted to producing large amounts of immunoglobulin.
Plasma cells develop in the spleen and migrate to the bone marrow. Plasma cells are also reportedly CD5-negative, CD10-negative, CD19-positive, CD20-negative, CD21-negative, CD22-negative, CD23-negative, CD24-negative, CD25-negative, CD27-positive, CD34-negative, CD38-positive, CD40-positive, CD43-positive, CD45-positive, CD48-positive, CD53-low, CD80-negative, CD81-positive, CD86-positive, CD95-positive, CD196-negative, CD229-positive, CD270-positive, CD352-positive, CD361-positive, and IgD-negative. Transcription factors: BLIMP1-positive, IRF4-positive, PAX5-negative, SpiB-negative, Ets1-negative, and XBP1-positive.
A T cell which regulates overall immune responses as well as the responses of other T cell subsets through direct cell-cell contact and cytokine release.
This cell type may express FoxP3 and CD25 and secretes IL-10 and TGF-beta.
An immature B cell is a B cell that has the phenotype surface IgM-positive and surface IgD-negative, and have not undergone class immunoglobulin class switching or peripheral encounter with antigen and activation.
Immature B cells are also reportedly CD5-positive, CD10-positive, CD19-positive, CD20-positive, CD21-positive, CD22-positive, CD24-positive, CD25-negative, CD27-negative, CD34-negative, CD38-positive, CD40-positive, CD43-negative, CD45-positive, CD48-positive, CD53-positive, CD79a-positive, CD80-negative, CD81-positive, CD86-negative, CD95-negative, CD127-negative, CD138-negative, CD185-positive, CD196-positive, MHCII/HLA-DR-positive, RAG-positive, TdT-negative, Vpre-B-negative, and preBCR-negative. Transcription factors expressed: Pax5-positive.
A precursor B cell is a B cell with the phenotype CD10-positive.
An immature B cell of an intermediate stage between the pre-B cell stage and the mature naive stage with the phenotype surface IgM-positive and CD19-positive, and are subject to the process of B cell selection. A transitional B cell migrates from the bone marrow into the peripheral circulation, and then to the spleen.
This cell type is compatible with the HIPC Lyoplate markers for 'transitional B cell'.
A lymphoid progenitor cell that is committed to the natural killer cell lineage, expressing CD122 (IL-15) receptor, but lacking many of the phenotypic characteristics of later stages of natural killer cell development such as expression of NK activating and inhibitory molecules. In human this cell has the phenotype CD34-positive, CD45RA-positive, CD10-positive, CD117-negative, and CD161 negative.
Most markers only described for human pro NK cells.
A progenitor cell of the B cell lineage, with some lineage specific activity such as early stages of recombination of B cell receptor genes, but not yet fully committed to the B cell lineage until the expression of PAX5 occurs.
Human pro-B cells are reportedly CD10-positive, CD22-positive, CD34-positive, CD38-positive, CD45-low, CD48-positive, CD79a-positive, CD127-positive, CD184-positive, RAG-positive, TdT-positive, Vpre-B-positive, pre-BCR-negative, IgD-negative, and IgM-negative. Transcription factors expressed: Pax5-positive, EBF-positive, E2A-negative, Ikaros-negative, and PU.1-negative.
A lymphoid progenitor cell of the T cell lineage, with some lineage specific marker expression, but not yet fully committed to the T cell lineage.
A progenitor cell of the mast cell lineage. Markers for this cell are FceRIa-low, CD117-positive, CD9-positive, T1/ST2-positive, SCA1-negative, and lineage-negative.
MCP are CD16-positive, CD32-positive, CD34-positive, CD45-positive, integrin beta-7-positive, and lin-negative (CD2, CD3e, CD4, CD5, CD8a, CD14, CD19, CD20, CD27, integrin alpha-M, ly6c, ly6g, NCAM-1, and ter119). These cells also express the transcription factors GATA-1, GATA-2, and MITF, but not C/EBPa.
A hematopoietic multipotent progenitor cell is multipotent, but not capable of long-term self-renewal. These cells are characterized as lacking lineage cell surface markers and being CD34-positive in both mice and humans.
hematopoietic multipotent progenitor cell
A progenitor cell restricted to the lymphoid lineage.
Note that this is a class of cell types, not an identified single cell type.
lymphoid lineage restricted progenitor cell
A progenitor cell restricted to the myeloid lineage.
myeloid lineage restricted progenitor cell
A leukocyte with a single non-segmented nucleus in the mature form.
An immature T cell located in the thymus.
A differentiated T cell with ability to traffic to peripheral tissues and is capable of mounting a specific immune response.
A effector T cell that provides help in the form of secreted cytokines to other immune cells.
A lymphocyte of B lineage with the commitment to express an immunoglobulin complex.
Types of B lineage lymphocytes include B cells and antibody secreting cells (plasmablasts and plasma cells). Lymphocytes of B cell lineage can be distinguished from those of T cell lineage by their lack of CD3e (as part of the T cell receptor complex).
A lymphocyte of B lineage that is devoted to secreting large amounts of immunoglobulin.
A small pre-B-II cell is a pre-B-II cell that is Rag1-positive, Rag2-positive, pre-BCR-negative, and BCR-negative, is not proliferating, and carries a DNA rearrangement of one or more immunoglobulin light chain genes.
Small pre-B-II cells are also reportedly CD10-positive, CD19-positive, CD34-negative, CD79a-positive, CD127-negative, TdT-negative, Vpre-B-negative, sIgM-negative, and sIgD-negative. Transcription factors: PU.1-positive, Ikaros-positive, E2A-positive, and PAX5-positive.
A pre-B-II cell is a precursor B cell that expresses immunoglobulin mu heavy chain (IgHmu+), and lack expression of CD34, TdT, immunoglobulin kappa light chain and immunoglobulin lambda light chain.
pre-B-II cell are also reportedly CD19-positive, CD22-positive, CD38-positive, CD45-positive, and CD48-positive.
An activated mature (naive or memory) B cell that is secreting immunoglobulin, typified by being CD27-positive, CD38-positive, CD138-negative.
CD27-positive, CD38-positive, CD20-negative B cell
This cell type is compatible with the HIPC Lyoplate markers for 'plasmablast'. Plasmablasts are also reportedly CD48-positive, CD63-positive, CD229-positive, CD270-positive, CD319-positive, CD352-positive, CD361-positive, and IgD-negative.
Conventional dendritic cell is a dendritic cell that is CD11c-high.
Originally described in the dendritic cell ontology (DC_CL:0000003)(PMID:19243617) These cells are also CD20-negative, MHCII-positive.
Originally described in the dendritic cell ontology (DC_CL:1110000)(PMID:19243617).
CD7-negative lymphoid progenitor OR granulocyte monocyte progenitor
A hematopoietic oligopotent progenitor cell that has the ability to differentiate into limited cell types but lacks lineage cell markers and self renewal capabilities. Cell lacks hematopoeitic lineage markers.
hematopoietic oligopotent progenitor cell, lineage-negative
A lymphocyte that lacks characteristic T cell, B cell, myeloid cell, and dendritic cell markers, that functions as part of the innate immune response to produce cytokines and other effector responses.
An innate lymphoid cell that is capable of producing the type 1 cytokine IFN-gamma, but not Th2 or Th17 cell-associated cytokines.
A lymphocyte of B lineage that is CD19-positive.
A cell type that can give rise to basophil and mast cells. This cell is CD34-positive, CD117-positive, CD125-positive, FceRIa-negative, and T1/ST2-negative, and expresses Gata-1, Gata-2, C/EBPa
There may be an intermediate cell type. These cells also CD13-positive, CD16-positive, CD32-positive, and integrin beta 7-positive. Transcription factors: GATA1-positive, MCP-1-positive, mitf-positive, PU.1-positive, and CEBP/a-low.
A hematopoietic progenitor cell that is capable of developing into only one lineage of hematopoietic cells.
hematopoietic lineage restricted progenitor cell
A hematopoietic oligopotent progenitor cell that has the ability to differentiate into limited cell types but lacks lineage cell markers and self renewal capabilities.
This cell type is intended to be compatible with any vertebrate hematopoietic oligopotent progenitor cell. For mammalian hematopoietic oligopotent progenitor cells known to be lineage-negative, please use the term 'hematopoietic oligopotent progenitor cell' (CL_0001060).
hematopoietic oligopotent progenitor cell
A secretory cell found in pancreatic acini that secretes digestive enzymes and mucins. This cell is a typical zymogenic cell, have a basal nucleus and basophilic cytoplasm consisting of regular arrays of granular endoplasmic reticulum with mitochondria and dense secretory granules.
An enteroendocrine cell that produces glucagon.
Specialized cardiac myocyte that is subendocardially interspersed with the regular cardiac muscle cell. They are uninucleate cylindrical cells, associated end-to-end in long rows, continue from the node to the atrioventricular bundle; relatively short compared to ordinary myocytes but are nearly twice their diameter.
A specialized cardiac myocyte in the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes. The cell is slender and fusiform confined to the nodal center, circumferentially arranged around the nodal artery.
Specialized cardiac myocyte which is in the internodal tract and atrioventricular node. The cell is more slender than ordinary atrial myocytes and has more myofibrils than nodal myocytes.
The myoendocrine cellis a specialized myocyte localized mainly in the right and left atrial appendages, and also scattered within other areas of the atria and along the conductive system in the ventricular septum. The most conspicuous feature distinguishing myoendocrine cells from other atrial myoctyes is the presence of membane-bounded secretory granules (these granules contain precursor of cardiodilatins or atrial natriuretic polypeptides).
An epithelial cell derived from endoderm.
An epithelial cell derived from ectoderm.
Epithelial cell derived from mesoderm or mesenchyme.
A cardiac myocyte that is an excitable cells in the myocardium, specifically in the conducting system of heart.
A cell found in the bone marrow. This can include fibroblasts, macrophages, adipocytes, osteoblasts, osteoclasts, endothelial cells and hematopoietic cells.
MH consider whether bone marrow cells are bone cells in the structural sense vs. being part of bone organ sense.
An endothelial cell of the vascular tree, which includes blood vessels and lymphatic vessels.
cubodial endothelial cell of vascular tree
These cells are reportedly CD31-positive, CD34-positive, CD144-positive, TAL1-positive.
A crenated erythrocyte with 30+ crenations, bumps or spurs that are the result of damage due to age or disease.
Epithelial cells derived from general body ectoderm and ectoderm placodes.
An epithelial cell that remains from the disintegration of the epithelial root sheath involved in the development of teeth.
A cell involved in the formation of a granulocyte.
A cell located between the pinealocytes.
An epithelial cell of the thymus. Epithelial reticular cells are pleomorphic, stellate, non-phagocytic cells which seem to be supportive in function and are held together by desmosomes. They replace the fibroblastoid reticular cells found in other lymphoid organs. Other epithelial cells in the medulla have the ultrastructure of secretory cells. Although different epithelial cells throughout the thymus appear alike by light microscopy their ultrastructure and function varies.
An acidophilic cell of the anterior pituitary that produces growth hormone, somatotropin.
A cell that is part of the nervous system.
A cell of the supporting or framework tissue of the body, which includes adipose tissue, cartilage, and bone. In vertebrates, this cell arises chiefly from the embryonic mesoderm and, in cranial regions, from neural crest.
An ocular connective tissue cell that is part of the eye's trabecular meshwork and is directly responsible for regulating the outflow of aqueous humor from the anterior chamber of the eye, thereby maintaining proper intraocular pressure.
A transversely striated, multinucleated syncytial muscle cell, formed by the fusion of myoblasts during muscle development.
A T cell that expresses a T cell receptor complex and has completed T cell selection.
A T cell that has not completed T cell selection.
A reticulocyte lacking a nucleus and showing a basophilic reticulum under vital staining due to the presence of ribosomes.
A cell located in the heart, including both muscle and non muscle cells.
From Onard of the FMA: Cardiac muscle cell or cardiac myocyte is a striated muscle cell. Cardiocyte on the other hand is any cell in the heart which includes cells other than muscle cells (e.g. endothelial cell of endocardium). Unless there is a consensus among anatomists that cardiocytes refer only to muscle cells, we will treat them as a general class of cells in the heart.
A glial cell that myelinates or ensheathes axons in the peripheral nervous system.
A myelinating Schwann cell wraps around a single axon. Myelination occurs in larger diameter axons, while a process called ensheathment occurs on smaller diameter axons in which a single cell wraps around multiple small, unmyelinated axons separating them with a thin layer of cytoplasm. The structure formed is called a Remak bundle.
An epithelial cell of the kidney cortex.
A multi-fate stem cell that can give rise to different retinal cell types including rod and cone cells.
A neuroblast derived from a neural crest cell.
A cell that is part of a cortex of kidney.
A CNS interneuron located in the spinal cord.
Is_a interneuron, part_of UBERON:0002240.
Multi fate stem cell that gives rise to both hepatocytes and cholangiocytes as descendants. The term often refers to fetal precursors of hepatocytes (differently from 'hepatic stem cell', usually applied to the self-renewing pool of hepatocyte precursors in the adult liver). Hepatoblasts may also be endogenous, as some stem cells found in the liver come from the bone marrow via blood circulation.
hepatoblast
Skeletogenic cell that has the potential to develop into an ameloblast. Located in the inner enamel epithelium, these cells elongate, their nuclei shift distally (away from the dental papilla), and their cytoplasm becomes filled with organelles needed for synthesis and secretion of enamel proteins.
unsure of neural crest contribution. In VSAO we have develops_from CL:0000008
Cell that has the potential to form a skeletal cell type (e.g. cells in periosteum, cells in marrow) and produce extracellular matrix (often mineralized) and skeletal tissue (often mineralized).
Needs logical definition. Should be capable_of skeletal system morphogenesis? or skeletal tissue development? needs to be added to GO. NOTES:a cell type of the early embryo (see also: mesenchymal cells) that will give rise to mineralized connective tissue. Scleroblasts can differentiate into osteoblasts (bone-forming cells), chondroblasts (cartilage-forming cells), odontoblasts (dentin-forming cells), ameloblasts (enamel-forming cells). The mesenchymal cells developing into osteoblasts and chondroblasts are derived from the mesoderm. Those developing into odontoblasts are neural crest cells. Those developing into ameloblasts are derived from the ectoderm. (http://www.copewithcytokines.de/cope.cgi?key=scleroblasts)
Skeletogenic cell that has the potential to develop into a cementoblast.
Skeletogenic cell that has the potential to form an odontoblast, deposits predentine, and arises from a cranial neural crest cell.
Cell that is part of the neural crest region of the neuroepithelium, prior to migration. Note that not all premigratory neural crest cells may become migratory neural crest cells.
Skeletogenic cell that has the potential to develop into a chondroblast; and arises from neural crest, meseosdermal and notochordal and connective tissue cells.
Any muscle cell in which the fibers are not organised into sarcomeres.
Any hematopoietic cell that is a precursor of some other hematopoietic cell type.
A transversely striated, synctial cell of skeletal muscle. It is formed when proliferating myoblasts exit the cell cycle, differentiate and fuse.
skeletal muscle fiber
A muscle cell that is part of some visceral muscle.
visceral muscle cell
A visceral muscle cell that is striated. Examples include the visceral muscle cells of arhtropods.
striated visceral muscle cell
A visceral muscle that is transversely striated. Examples include the visceral muscle cells of arthropods.
transversely striated visceral muscle cell
A non-polarised cell precursor cell that is part of some mesenchyme, is associated with the cell matrix but is not connected to other cells and is capable of migration.
Any neuron that is capable of part of some visual perception.
Any cell in the retina, the innermost layer or coating at the back of the eyeball, which is sensitive to light and in which the optic nerve terminates.
Any photoreceptor cell that is part of some camera-type eye.
zygote
Any myoblast that develops into some cardiac muscle cell.
A cell of the neural crest. Neural crest cells are multipotent. Premigratory neural crest cells are found at the neural plate boarder, some of which will undergo ectomesynchymal transition and delamination to form migratory neural crest cells.
A precursor cell that has a tendency to differentiate into a specific type of cell. They are descendants of stem cells, only they are more constrained in their differentiation potential or capacity for self-renewal, and are often more limited in both senses.
A cell that, by division or terminal differentiation, can give rise to other cell types.
Work is needed on GO 'cell differentiation' before it is clear whether the equivalent class definition 'native cell' that capable_of some 'cell differentiation' works. Also, may want to consider merging this with non-terminally differentiated cell.
Cytoplasm that exhibits a characteristic staining and color, pale-pink, with Wright-Giemsa stain.
Cytoplasm that exhibits a characteristic staining and color, red or pink, with Eosin stain.
Cytoplasm that exhibits molecular interaction for basic dyes under specific pH conditions.
Cytoplasm that exhibits affinity for both basic and acid stains under specific pH conditions.
Heterochromatin that is arranged in a carthwheel pattern.
An extraembryonic cell that is part of the trophectoderm, representing the first lineage to differentiate in the embryo. This cell is crucial for implantation into the uterine wall and differentiates into trophoblast cells, which contribute to placenta formation and facilitate maternal-fetal nutrient and signal exchange.
A fibroblast that is part of the areolar connective tissue.
A muscle cell that is part of the sinoatrial node.
A muscle cell that is part of the atrioventricular node.
An epithelial cell that is part of the nephron.
An epithelial cell that is part of the bile duct. Cholangiocytes contribute to bile secretion via net release of bicarbonate and water. They are cuboidal epithelium in the small interlobular bile ducts, but become columnar and mucus secreting in larger bile ducts approaching the porta hepatis and the extrahepatic ducts.
Any kidney epithelial cell that is part of some glomerular epithelium.
Any renal cortical epithelial cell that is part of some renal corpuscle.
Any kidney corpuscule cell that is part of some renal glomerulus.
An epithelial cell of the exocrine pancreas.
Glandular cell of exocrine pancreas epithelium. Example: pancreatic acinar cell, glandular cells in pancreatic canaliculi, glandular cells in pancreatic ducts.
Hematopoietic cells resident in the bone marrow. Include: hematopoietic stem cells (lymphoid stem cells and myeloid stem cells) and the precursor cells for thrombocytes, erythrocytes, basophils, neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes and lymphocytes.
An epithelial cell that is specialised for the synthesis and secretion of specific biomolecules.
secretory epithelial cell
Any cell that is part of a pituitary gland.
Any native cell that is part of a cardiac septum.
Any neuron that is part of a central nervous system.
A multinucleate cell formed by the fusion of multiple uninuclear cells through plasma membrane fusion. This process leads to a single large cell containing multiple nuclei within a shared cytoplasm.
A material entity consisting of exactly one atomic nucleus and the electron(s) orbiting it.
atom
A material entity that consists of two or more atoms that are all connected via covalent bonds such that any atom can be transitively connected with any other atom.
molecule
A material entity that is a maximal functionally integrated unit that develops from a program encoded in a genome
organism
completely executed planned process
A process that is initiated by an agent who intends to carry out a plan to achieve an objective through one or more actions as described in a plan specification.
planned process
Food material for humans and animals which is processed with the intention that it be consumable as a whole or added to other food products.
The FoodOn "food product"class is provided as a branch under which new food product categories and food products themselves can be placed. Here classes are provided to differentiate a food product by its food composition, processing and/or consumption characteristics. This avoids brand name products but it may include generic food dish categories. It has a much greater depth and polyhierarchy than other agency product type schemes have in an effort to group related products together. The upper level basis of this tree originated in the environment ontology (ENVO) and from the US Code of Federal Regulations.
food product
A food product made of meat, the skeletal muscle and associated fat, and other edible tissues such as organs, livers, skin, brains, bone marrow, kidneys, or lungs, of mammals.
mammalian meat food product
A food product which has as a defining ingredient some plant material.
plant food product
Cabbage or headed cabbage (comprising several cultivars of Brassica oleracea) is a leafy green or purple biennial plant, grown as an annual vegetable crop for its dense-leaved heads.
cabbage food product
A seafood product is a vertebrate or invertibrate organism from an aquatic environment.
Damion Dooley
animal seafood product
A food product derived from plant fruit.
plant fruit food product
sugar condiment
A lipid material derived from plants. Physically, oils are liquid at room temperature.
vegetable oil food product
A food product which is derived from or produced by an animal that has a vertibrae.
vertebrate food product
cereal grain food product
SIREN DB annotation: * liquid FOODON:03430130 * microbial/enzymatic modification process FOODON:03460119 * curing or aging process FOODON:03460253
fermented beverage
fermented grain beverage
bovine dairy food product
cattle dairy food product
A relish, sauce, or seasoning added to food to impart a particular flavour or to complement the dish.
condiment
fruit juice food product
Fungus material which is composed of yeast.
yeast material
plant inflorescence food product
cruciferous food product
cruciferous inflorescence food product
nut food product
plant seed food product
plant lipid food product
plant stem food product
invertebrate food product
A product of the dry seeds of plants of the genus Pisum.
dry pea food product
PULSES are annual leguminous crops yielding from one to 12 grains or seeds of variable size, shape and colour within a pod. They are used for both food and feed. The term "pulses" is limited to crops harvested solely for dry grain, thereby excludingcrops harvested green for food (green peas, green beans, etc.) which are classified as vegetable crops. Also excluded are those crops used mainly for oil extraction (e.g.soybeand and groundnuts) and leguminous crops (e.g. seeds of clover and alfalfa) that are used exclusively for sowing purposes.
pulse
pulses
pulse food product
A food product that has some spice or herb as a defining ingredient.
herb or spice
spice or herb
A fish food product includes products made from any fish species (aquatic vertebrate with gills and fins).
fish food product
A beverage derived from plants.
plant derived beverage
plant derived fermented beverage
nonfermented plant derived beverage product
A dairy food product has mammilian milk or a milk component as an ingredient.
dairy product
milk product
dairy food product
milk or milk based food product
Food material which has been fermented.
food (fermented)
Beer is a fermented cereal beverage resulting from the fermentation most commonly of malted barley (though wheat, corn, or rice may included), by a yeast, most commonly Saccharomyces cerevisiae, and flavored by dried flowers of hops, Humulus lupulus.
beer beverage
A plant food product which derives from one or more vegetables.
FAO definition for vegetable: "Vegetables are plants cultivated both as field crops and garden crops, both in the open and under glass." and also: "Vegetables are grouped according to botanic characteristics as follows: leafy or stem vegetables (e.g., cabbage); fruit-bearing vegetables (e.g., melons); flower vegetables (e.g., cauliflowers); root, bulb and tuberous vegetables (e.g., onion); leguminous vegetables (e.g., green peas); other vegetables (e.g., green maize and mushrooms)."
vegetable food product
Mature ovary of a plant, with a fleshy part of the carpel that develops with the seed to attract animals for aid in dispersal. Botanically, nuts are considered fruits.
botanical fruit food product
A one-celled fruit (pod) usually dehiscing down both sutures, and having the seed attached along a ventral suture. (Roubik 1995)
legume
legume food product
shellfish food product
A fermentation process in which either carbohydrates, proteins or fats are modified through microbial, enzymatic and/or other biological process.
food fermentation
An alcoholic drink (or alcoholic beverage) is a drink that contains ethanol, a type of alcohol produced by fermentation of grains, fruits, or other sources of sugar.
alcoholic beverage
animal based refined or partially-refined food product
A bean vegetable food product is a human or animal food product - such as a snap, shell or dry bean product - derived from the fruit pod, seed, or leaf of one of several genera of the flowering plant family Fabaceae.
bean food product
A broad bean food product is a product derived from the broad bean plant.
broad bean food product
broccoli food product
brussels sprout food product
A cabbage vegetable food product is a food product derived from the head or leaf portion of a cabbage plant.
cabbage head food product
A food product that derives from a cauliflower plant.
cauliflower food product
Food material which normally exists as an ingredient to another food material, rather than eaten on its own. This includes chemical food components.
On Feb 25th 2025 the definition was loosened to include the subclass "chemical food component".
food material component
cloves
clove food product
cow milk based food product
Damion Dooley's note: This category was created to organize SIREN inspired food products. It will probably get merged with the upper level 'dietary supplement' food product type items.
dietary or therapeutic formulation food
fermented cereal beverage
field corn sweetener product
fish refined food product
food flavoring or seasoning
food supplement
fruit based alcoholic beverage
gluten refined food product
grain based alcoholic beverage
human milk based food product
barley malt beverage
mollusk food product
mollusc food product
A food product that is derived from some mussel.
mussel food product
A food product having peanuts as an ingredient.
SIREN DB annotation: * seed (anatomical part) FOODON:03420155
peanut food product
plant based refined or partially-refined food product
An edible plant fat or oil product with characteristics that consumers desire such as bland flavour and odour, clear appearance, light colour, stability to oxidation and suitability for frying, and which is the result of a refining process that removes free fatty acids.
plant fat or oil refined food product
plant floret vegetable food product
A plant fruit food product which is labeled (in common language or by regulation) as a vegetable food product.
plant fruit as vegetable food product
plant head vegetable food product
food material by consumer group
plant seed vegetable food product
A food product deriving from a plant stem or spear part.
plant stem or spear food product
plant sweetener
organ meat product
A food product deriving from one or more pumpkins.
pumpkin food product
rape fat or oil refined food product
rapeseed food product
refined or partially-refined food product
sesame food product
soybean refined food product
soybean seed (field) food product
A soybean food product is a product derived from the soybean plant.
soy product
soybean food product
A food product deriving from one or more squashes.
squash food product
sugar based cacao food product
sugar cane refined or partially-refined food product
sunflower food product
sweetener
vitamin and mineral food supplement food product
vitamin as food supplement food product
A meal type is the name of an eating occasion that may have location, food type, or other customary contextual features. (Damion's 1st draft definition)
food by meal type
Any substance that can be consumed by an organism to satisfy nutritional or other health needs, or to provide a social or organoleptic food experience
food
foodstuff
nourishment
sustenance
This class is the top of FOODON's main food product hierarchy which is described in the https://www.foodon.org website, and can be searched in lookup services like https://www.ebi.ac.uk/ols/
food material
A process involving the physical transformation of a food source or food product into some derived organic material or food product
food transformation process
Invertebrates are animals that neither possess nor develop a vertebral column (commonly known as a backbone or spine), derived from the notochord. This includes all animals apart from the subphylum Vertebrata.
invertebrate animal
Food material which has been categorized by a characteristic such as granularity or temperature.
This term was renamed from "food product by quality" to align better with COB "characteristic" label, and as well to disambiguate from other use of "quality" as a food grading. This term is useful for tasks like food inspection where little prior knowledge of how the food came to be is available. Some terms like "food (frozen)"are both a quality descriptor and the output of a process.
food material by characteristic
A physical object quality which describes a characteristic of some food material.
food material characteristic
A food product consisting of food material derived from ingredients sourced from multiple organisms.
multi-ingredient
The definition of this is being discussed in issue: https://github.com/FoodOntology/foodon/issues/57 Namely, how to characterize the threshold of ingredients that make for multi-component classification? Salt, pepper, spices wouldn't normally make a food multi-component?
multi-component food
Dairy cattle are a type of cattle bred for the ability to produce large quantities of milk, from which dairy products are made. This class covers both male and female members of a dairy breed.
dairy cattle
Taurine cattle (Bos taurus taurus), also called European cattle, are a subspecies of domesticated cattle originating in the Near East. Both taurine cattle and indicine cattle (zebus) are descended from the aurochs. Taurine cattle were originally considered a distinct species, but are now typically grouped with zebus and aurochs into one species, Bos taurus. Most modern breeds of cattle are taurine cattle.
taurine cattle
An aquatic invertebrate may live entirely beneath the water, or may live upon its surface or on the plants surrounding it. Some breathe air, others breathe water. To move, they may walk, swim, float, skate, fly or glide on their bellies—or they may not move much at all.
aquatic invertebrate
Food material organized by the process which it results from.
food material by process
A lipid food product is a food product made primarily of plant or animal fat or oil
fats and oils
oils and fats
lipid food product
A seed of a bean plant from one of several genera of the flowering plant family (Fabaceae).
bean
vetch food product
A seed of a vetch plant.
vetch seed
pea food product
A liver food product is a food product that derives from one or more liver organs.
liver food product
A kidney food product is a food product that derives from one or more kidney organs
kidney food product
A fish steak, alternatively known as a fish cutlet, is a cut of fish which is cut perpendicular to the spine and can either include the bones or be boneless.
fish cutlet
fish steak
A whole animal.
A whole animal can be dead or alive, but its body must be relatively intact.
An animal which is dead or alive and has a relatively intact body.
animal
saffron
saffron food product
A seed of a peanut plant (Arachis hypogaea).
peanut
A genus of plants in the mustard family (Brassicaceae). The members of the genus are informally known as cruciferous vegetables, cabbages, or mustard plants.
bok choy vegetable food product
bomdong vegetable food product
broccolini vegetable food product
choy sum vegetable food product
collard greens vegetable food product
gai lan vegetable food product
komatsuna vegetable food product
mizuna vegetable food product
rutabaga vegetable food product
savoy cabbage vegetable food product
tatsoi vegetable food product
cole crop vegetable food product
cruciferous vegetable food product
brassica food product
Maize plant
An orange-yellow pepo fruit of a pumpkin plant.
pumpkin
A pepo fruit varietal of a squash plant (Cucurbita).
squash
A seed of a sunflower plant (Helianthus annuus)
sunflower seed
sunflower seed (whole kernel)
A pepo fruit of a winter squash cultivar harvested in the fall.
winter squash
A food product that is derived from some animal.
animal food product
A piece or pieces or amount of substance derived from one or more organisms.
organism piece
Anatomical or other piece(s) or substance derived from one or more plants.
plant material
A severed part of an animal.
piece of animal
Material which derives from one or more fungai.
fungus material
A characteristic of organism(s) or pieces(s) thereof, which have not had material processing that affects its biochemical composition.
raw
An organ that derives from an animal.
animal organ
A seed of a pumpkin plant.
pumpkin seed
Material which derives from one or more mammals.
mammal material
Material which derives from one or more vertebrate animals.
vertebrate material
invertebrate material
bovid material
aquatic invertebrate material
mollusk material
crustacean material
bivalve material
cephalopod material
Material which is produced by an animal.
This includes things like eggs and milk.
animal substance
An egg which is produced by an oviperous animal.
animal egg
Milk which is produced by animal lactation.
animal milk
Raw animal milk.
animal milk (raw)
Material that derives from some mussel.
This branch isn't necessarily food material
mussel material
Material that derives from some cow.
cow material
Material which is produced by a cow.
cow substance
Milk which is produced by cow lactation.
cow milk
A whole cow.
A cow which is dead or alive and has a relatively intact body.
cow
A whole raw shell-off hen egg is the egg yolk and egg white obtained from a cracked egg.
SIREN DB annotation: * whole, natural shape FOODON:03430150 * not heat-treated FOODON:03440003 * whole egg FOODON:03420274
chicken egg (shell off, raw)
SIREN DB annotation: * part of animal FOODON:03420164
fish (whole or pieces)
A seed of a broad bean plant (Vicia faba).
Windsor bean
broadbean
faba bean
fava bean
Horse bean
field bean
tic bean
tick bean
broad bean
fructose food product
A seed of a soyabean plant (Glycine max).
soy bean
soya bean
soybean
SIREN DB annotation: * liquid FOODON:03430130 * part of plant FOODON:03420174
vegetable juice food product
SIREN DB annotation: * liquid, low viscosity, with no visible particles FOODON:03430123 * germinated or sprouted seed FOODON:03420102 * flavoring, spice or herb added, natural FOODON:03460229 * alcohol fermentation process FOODON:03460232 * carbonated by fermentation FOODON:03460246 * preservation by filtration FOODON:03470121
barley malt beer beverage
A liquid prepared for consumption, or a product that can be combined with water or milk to make one.
beverage food product
milk
SIREN DB annotation: * liquid, low viscosity, with no visible particles FOODON:03430123 * milk (mammary secretion) UBERON:0001913
cow milk (liquid)
A food product derived from a spice.
SIREN DB annotation: * whole, natural shape FOODON:03430150 * not heat-treated FOODON:03440003 * part of plant FOODON:03420174
spice food product
SIREN DB annotation: * whole, shape achieved by forming FOODON:03430147 * fully heat-treated FOODON:03440014 * ingredient: sucrose CHEBI:17992 * microbial/enzymatic modification process FOODON:03460119 * curing or aging process FOODON:03460253 * ingredient: flavoring or spice extract or concentrate added FOODON:03460100 * ingredient: chocolate or cocoa added FOODON:03460231 * ingredient: vegetable fat or oil added FOODON:03460263
dark chocolate
Breast milk is the milk produced by the breasts (or mammary glands) of a human female.
human milk (raw)
SIREN DB annotation: * whole, natural shape FOODON:03430150 * seed (anatomical part) FOODON:03420155
edible seed food product
fruit
SIREN DB annotation: * whole, natural shape FOODON:03430150 * not heat-treated FOODON:03440003 * fruit part FOODON:03420167
fruit (raw)
SIREN DB annotation: * whole, natural shape FOODON:03430150 * not heat-treated FOODON:03440003 * seed (anatomical part) FOODON:03420155
sunflower seed (whole kernel, raw)
SIREN DB annotation: * whole, natural shape FOODON:03430150 * not heat-treated FOODON:03440003 * seed, skin present, germ present FOODON:03420133
pumpkin seed (shell off)
SIREN DB annotation: * liquid, high viscosity, with small particles FOODON:03430121 * not heat-treated FOODON:03440003 * extract, concentrate or isolate of plant or animal FOODON:03420228
sugar cane juice (pure)
SIREN DB annotation: * liquid, high viscosity, with no visible particles FOODON:03430139 * fat or oil FOODON:03420190
fish oil
SIREN DB annotation: * solid FOODON:03430151 * not heat-treated FOODON:03440003 * skeletal meat part FOODON:03420175
meat (raw)
SIREN DB annotation: * surrounded by 'can, bottle or jar' FOODON:03490194 * whole, natural shape FOODON:03430150 * fully heat-treated FOODON:03440014 * seed, skin present, germ present FOODON:03420133 * rehydration process FOODON:03460259 * sterilization by heating FOODON:03470123
peas (rehydrated, canned)
Raw cow milk.
raw milk
SIREN DB annotation: * liquid, low viscosity, with no visible particles FOODON:03430123 * not heat-treated FOODON:03440003 * milk (mammary secretion) UBERON:0001913 * not pasteurized claim or use FOODON:03510121
cow milk (raw)
SIREN DB annotation: * sliced FOODON:03430137 * skeletal meat part FOODON:03420175
fish (portion cut)
fish cutlet (raw)
raw fish cutlet
raw fish steak
SIREN DB annotation: * whole, natural shape FOODON:03430150 * not heat-treated FOODON:03440003 * skeletal meat part FOODON:03420175
fish steak (raw)
A whole raw liver is a whole liver organ obtained from an animal during a butchery process.
liver
SIREN DB annotation: * whole, natural shape FOODON:03430150 * not heat-treated FOODON:03440003 * liver UBERON:0002107
liver (raw)
canola meal
SIREN DB annotation: * medium ground FOODON:03430117 * seed, skin present, germ present FOODON:03420133 * water removal process FOODON:03460138 * fat removal process FOODON:03460161 * food animal as consumer FOODON:03510015
rapeseed meal
A seed of a sesame plant (Sesamum indicum).
sesame
sesame seed
oil
SIREN DB annotation: * liquid, high viscosity, with no visible particles FOODON:03430139 * fat or oil FOODON:03420190 * food bleaching process FOODON:03460197
rapeseed oil
A seed of a legume plant in the family Fabaceae.
SIREN DB annotation: * whole, shape achieved by forming FOODON:03430147 * ingredient: nutrient or dietary substance added FOODON:03460194 * dietary claim or use FOODON:03510023
vitamin supplement, prenatal
A whole raw kidney is a kidney obtained from an animal during a butchery process.
kidney
SIREN DB annotation: * whole, natural shape FOODON:03430150 * not heat-treated FOODON:03440003 * kidney UBERON:0002113
kidney (raw)
Food material which is raw.
SIREN DB annotation: * not heat-treated FOODON:03440003
food (raw)
processed food
Food material derived from a chicken egg.
SIREN DB annotation: * egg FOODON:03420194
chicken egg material
SIREN DB annotation: * liquid, high viscosity, with no visible particles FOODON:03430139 * high fructose syrup FOODON:03420272
corn syrup (high fructose)
SIREN DB annotation: * ingredient: nutrient or dietary substance added FOODON:03460194
multivitamin preparation
juice
juice beverage
An egg which is produced by an oviperous chicken.
egg
chicken egg
hen egg
This term is ambiguous about whether shell remains on egg or not, i.e. this encompasses both an uncooked egg in shell, or a boiled peeled egg, or a fried egg. SIREN DB annotation: * whole egg FOODON:03420274
A meat product is a product organized by the form of - or processing done to - its meat component (a skeletal meat part of an animal or crustacean).
SIREN DB annotation: * animal body or body part FOODON:03420127
meat (whole or pieces)
Liquid food prepared from fruit (21 CFR 146). Products prepared from fruit juice by thickening with pectin are indexed under *FRUIT JELLY*; those thickened with gelatin are under *FRUIT BUTTER, JELLY, PRESERVE OR RELATED PRODUCT*.
fruit juice or related product (us cfr)
Seasoned product that contains multiple ingredients and that is used in limited amounts to accompany other foods; excludes flavors, spices and herbs.
condiment, dressing, gravy or sauce
gravy, condiment, dressing or sauce
sauce, condiment, dressing or gravy
dressing, condiment, gravy or sauce (us cfr)
Aromatic or pungent plant product used whole or ground as a seasoning in food products.
spice or herb (us cfr)
A substance having greater than 2% of the caloric value of sucrose per equivalent unit of sweetening capacity. For example, the amount of such subtance having the sweetening capacity of 1 teaspoon of sucrose would have more than 0.4 calories (21 CFR 170.3(o)(21)).
nutritive carbohydrate sweetener
sweetener, nutritive
nutritive sweetener (us cfr)
Any form of whole or milled grain, prepared grain product or starch containing product derived from non-grain sources. [FDA CFSAN 1995]
grain or starch product (us cfr)
The liquid extracted or expressed from mature fruit with or without the application of heat. Includes concentrated juice and single-strength juice. If the single-strength juice is prepared from concentrate, then *WATER ADDED* should be used. Carbonated fruit juices are indexed by *FRUIT JUICE* or *FRUIT JUICE, DILUTED* and *CARBONATED* or the appropriate narrower term.
juice, fruit
fruit juice (us cfr)
Extract, concentrate or isolate derived from a food source through one or more refining steps (see *EXTRACT, CONCENTRATE OR ISOLATE OF PLANT OR ANIMAL*) and marketed as such. [FDA CFSAN 1995]
refined or partially-refined food product (us cfr)
Product that imparts or helps to impart a taste or aroma in food (21 CFR.170.3(n)(26). [FDA CFSAN 1995]
seasoning or flavoring
flavoring or seasoning (us cfr)
A multiple-component food product typically containing a protein source, a vegetable, and a potato, rice or cereal-based component packaged to be served after heating, either as separate items or courses or mixed as recipe components; see 21 CFR 102.26, 102.28 and 104.47 for nutritional quality guidelines.
compartmentalized dinner
dinner with components separated in serving containers
dinner, compartmentalized
food packs with separate components
heat and serve dinner
multiple-course dinner
tv dinner
multicomponent meal (us cfr)
Fruit in all forms; includes fruit juices and fruit juice drinks, fruit butters, jellies, preserves, and related products.
pie filling, fruit
fruit or fruit product (us cfr)
Milk in all forms, milk-based beverage, cultured milk product, or milk or milk product analog. Index infant formula under *MEAL REPLACEMENT*.
milk or milk product (us cfr)
Food product prepared by milling a grain or by producing flour, meal or grits from a non-grain source such as beans, starchy roots or tubers. Refined starch is indexed under *REFINED OR PARTIALLY REFINED FOOD PRODUCT*.
milled grain or starch product (us cfr)
Meat (flesh and organs including blood and bone marrow) from mammals. Used for meat in all forms including cured meat, sausage or luncheon meat and meat product analogs.
meat or meat product (from mammal) (us cfr)
Vegetables in all forms except where a use-related product type descriptior (such as *PREPARED FOOD PRODUCT* or *SNACK FOOD*) takes precedence.
vegetable or vegetable product (us cfr)
Milk, a product derived from milk, or a dairy product analog; includes cheese and frozen dairy desserts. [FDA CFSAN 1995]
dairy product (us cfr)
Food product that is 1) ready or nearly ready for consumption; 2) usually a composite of several foods or ingredients that often belong to distinct product types; 3) usually formulated, mixed and partially or fully cooked. Prepared foods often undergo several of the processes listed in *F. EXTENT OF HEAT TREATMENT* and *H. TREATMENT APPLIED*; these factors should be carefully considered in indexing. The classification of prepared food products emphasizes consumption characteristics. [FDA CFSAN 1995]
prepared dish
prepared food product (us cfr)
Food product that is usually pungent, tart, salty, or spicy and is used to enhance the flavors of other foods; includes catsup, relish, prepared mustard, prepared horseradish, and condiment sauces.
relish or condiment
condiment or relish (us cfr)
Alcoholic beverage prepared from water, malted grain and hops (humulus) by brewing. Examples are beer, ale and malt liquor (27 CFR 7.10).
malt beverage (us cfr)
Products of the flesh of animals. [FDA CFSAN 1995]
meat, poultry, seafood or related product (us cfr)
Alcoholic or nonalcoholic beverage; excludes milk and milk-based beverages, fruit juices and fruit juice drinks, and vegetable juices. [FDA CFSAN 1995]
beverage (us cfr)
A product added to a food item to achieve some degree of sweet taste; it may be nutritive or nonnutritive.
sweetener (us cfr)
Fruits and vegetables in all forms. [FDA CFSAN 1995]
fruit or vegetable product (us cfr)
Nuts in all forms, including nut butters and pastes.
nut or nut product (us cfr)
The liquid extracted or expressed from mature vegetables with or without optional ingredients such as seasoning or salt. Products prepared from vegetable juice by thickening with gelatin or pectin are indexed under the broader term *VEGETABLE OR VEGETABLE PRODUCT*. For part or portion, index the part or the plant from which the juice was extracted, rather than *PLANT EXTRACT, CONCENTRATE, OR ISOLATE*.
juice, vegetable
vegetable juice (us cfr)
Flesh from fish or shellfish. Includes seafood product analogs and seafood-based sausage or luncheon meat as well as such products as squid ink and clam juice.
seafood or seafood product (us cfr)
Any form of cacao, cacao product, chocolate, chocolate product or chocolate product analog except chocolate candy; includes such products as cacao beans, cacao nibs, chocolate liquor, sweet or milk chocolate, and chocolate syrup; excludes flavors and extracts derived from cacao beans and chocolate- or cacao-flavored foods (21 CFR 163). [FDA CFSAN 1995]
chocolate or cacao product
cacao or chocolate product (us cfr)
Beverage containing more than 0.5% alcohol; includes distilled spirits, malt beverage, and wine.
alcoholic beverage (us cfr)
Food group having common consumption, functional or manufacturing characteristics, e.g. *FRUIT OR VEGETABLE PRODUCT*, *DAIRY PRODUCT*, *CONFECTIONARY*, *PREPARED FOOD PRODUCT*, etc. [FDA CFSAN 1995]
LanguaL curation note: This term is for CLASSIFICATION ONLY; DO NOT USE term in indexing. Use a more precise narrower term.
USA agency food product type
seed or seed product (us cfr)
nut or seed product (us cfr)
supplemental formulation (us cfr)
therapeutic formulation
dietary or therapeutic formulation (us cfr)
Renamed from *PRODUCT TYPE, CODEX ALIMENTARIUS* in LanguaL 2008.
international agency food product type
An agency food product type is a class of food product defined by an agency or consortium.
This class is designed to hold 3rd party food classification schemes which are being mapped to FoodOn classes using the 'has member' relation. The two hierarchies are not melded into a subclass polyhierarchy because of possible logical inconsistencies in the agency schemes. The hierarchies of agency schemes are as true to their agency representation as possible.
agency food product type
Codex Alimentarius, Volume 2 - 1993, Section 2: Pesticide Residues in Food. The Codex Classification of food and animal feed commodities moving in trade and the description of the various items and groups of food and animal feedstuffs included in the present document have been developed by the Codex Committee on Pesticide Residues. It was first adopted by the 18th Session of the Codex Alimentarius Commission, (1989). The Codex Classification includes food commodities and animal feedstuffs for which Codex maximum residue limits will not necessarily be established. The Classification is intended to be as complete a listing of food commodities in trade as possible, classified into groups on the basis of the commodity's similar potential for pesticide residues. The Classification may also be appropriate for other purposes such as setting maximum levels for other types of residues or for other contaminants in food. The Codex Classification should be consulted in order to obtain a precise description of the food or animal feed commodities and, especially, in cases where Codex maximum residue limits have been set for groups of food and groups of animal feedstuffs. The Codex Classification is intended to promote harmonization of the terms used to describe commodities which are subject to maximum residue limits and of the approach to grouping commodities with similar potential for residue for which a common group maximum residue limit can be set.
Codex Alimentarius classification of food and feed commodities
a. primary food commodities of plant origin (ccpr)
Vegetables are foods derived from many different kinds of plants mostly annual and usually cultivated, commonly known by custom and tradition as "vegetables". In several countries, some of these commodities grown on large areas are distinguished as "field crops" or arable crops e.g. sugar beet. For the sake of convenience in this guide such crops are classified under Type 2 Vegetables. Exposure to pesticides is dependent on the particular part of the plant used for food and the growing practices. Vegetables may be consumed in whole or in part and in the form of fresh, dried or processed foods.
02 vegetables (ccpr)
Brassica (cole or cabbage) vegetables and flowerhead brassicas are foods derived from the leafy heads, stems and immature inflorescences of plants belonging to the genus Brassica or the family Cruciferae. Although Kohlrabi does not comply fully with the description above, for convenience and because of the similarity in residue behaviour the commodity is classified in this group. Koblrabi is a tuber-like enlargement of the stem. The edible part of the crop is partly protected from pesticides applied during the growing season by outer leaves, or skin (Kohlrabi). The entire vegetable after discarding obviously decomposed or withered leaves may be consumed.
010 brassica (cole or cabbage) vegetables, head cabbage, flowerhead brassicas (vb) (ccpr)
Food and Drugs, title 21, Code of Federal Regulations. Original food classification in LanguaL.
U.S. code of federal regulations, title 21 food product type
Index dietary/food supplements according to legal and market definitions.
nutritional supplement
LanguaL curation note: This term is for CLASSIFICATION ONLY; DO NOT USE term in indexing. Use a more precise narrower term. The United States defines dietary supplements in the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 1994 (DSHEA). Pub L 103-417, 108 STAT. 4235, (Oct. 25, 1994): A dietary supplement is a product taken by mouth that contains a "dietary ingredient" intended to supplement the diet. The "dietary ingredients" in these products may include: vitamins, minerals, herbs or other botanicals, amino acids, and substances such as enzymes, organ tissues, glandulars, and metabolites. Dietary supplements can also be extracts or concentrates, and may be found in many forms such as tablets, capsules, softgels, gelcaps, liquids, or powders. In the European Union, food supplements are framed by two kinds of regulations: - the EU vertical regulation relating to food supplements, composed with the directive 2002/46/CE (essentially for the definition of food supplements) and the regulation 1170/2009 (which lists the vitamins and minerals, and the chemical forms of the substances allowed in food supplements); - the EU transversal regulation relating to foodstuffs and especially the 2006/1924 regulation concerning nutrition and health claims, and the EU labeling transversal regulations, 90/496/EC and 2008/100/EC. The EU regulation 2002/46/CE defines food supplements as "foodstuffs the purpose of which is to supplement the normal diet and which are concentrated sources of nutrients or other substances with a nutritional or physiological effect, alone or in combination, marketed in dose form, namely forms such as capsules, pastilles, tablets, pills and other similar forms, sachets of powder, ampoules of liquids, drop dispensing bottles, and other similar forms of liquids and powders designed to be taken in measured small unit quantities". [Directive 2002/46/EC] Codex Alimentarius also includes supplements containing vitamins or dietary minerals [http://www.codexalimentarius.net/download/standards/10206/cxg_055e.pdf]
dietary supplement
Fibre supplements (or fiber supplements) are considered to be a form of a subgroup of functional dietary fibre, and in the United States are defined by the Institute of Medicine (IOM). According to the IOM, functional fibre "consists of isolated, non-digestible carbohydrates that have beneficial physiological effects in humans". Fibre supplements are widely available, and can be found in forms such as powders, tablets and capsules. Consumption of fibre supplements may be for: improving dietary intake, lowering blood cholesterol, alleviating irritable bowel syndrome, reducing the risk of colon cancer, and increasing feelings of satiety. [http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fibre_supplements]
fiber
fiber supplement
fibre
fibre supplement
dietary supplement, fibre
pea plant edible seed cultivar
A vegetable having shoot or stem which can be cooked and eaten.
shoot vegetable
spear vegetable
stem or spear vegetable plant
fruit plant used as vegetable
polysaccharide-producing plant
sugar-producing plant
plant used for producing extract or concentrate
starch-producing plant
oil-producing plant
An aquatic animal is an animal, either vertebrate or invertebrate, which lives in the water for most or all of its lifetime.
This is equivalent to: 'fish (food source)' or 'shellfish (food source)' or 'crustacean (food source)' or 'echinoderm (food source)' or 'coelenterate (food source)' However, this disjunction appears to be a burden on reasoners, and so this is currently not implemented.
fish or lower water animal
floret plant used as vegetable
A food material which is a chemical or chemical mixture that exists in a food material or was added to a food material.
LanguaL curation note: A chemical food component is a food substance derived from a nonliving source (e.g., salt, water or synthesized compounds). Note however that the LanguaL category includes additives which may be naturally derived, such as agar.
chemical food component
grain or seed-producing plant
carbohydrate-producing plant
vegetable-producing plant, above-ground parts
Mammals (from Latin mamma "breast") are vertebrate animals constituting the class Mammalia, and characterized by the presence of mammary glands which in females produce milk for feeding (nursing) their young, a neocortex (a region of the brain), fur or hair, and three middle ear bones.
mammal
fruit-producing plant
A legume is a plant or its fruit or seed in the family *Fabaceae* (or *Leguminosae*). Legumes are grown agriculturally, primarily for their grain seed called pulse, for livestock forage and silage, and as soil-enhancing green manure. Well-known legumes include alfalfa, clover, peas, beans, chickpeas, lentils, lupin bean, mesquite, carob, soybeans, peanuts and tamarind. [https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Legume]
fabaceae
pod or seed vegetable plant
edible seed producing plant
flavor-producing plant
herb-producing plant
spice or flavor-producing plant
Winter squash is an annual fruit representing several squash species within the genus Cucurbita. It differs from summer squash in that it is harvested and eaten in the mature fruit stage when the seeds within have matured fully and the skin has hardened into a tough rind. At this stage, most varieties of this fruit can be stored for use during the winter.
curcurbita
Cucurbita moschata
Cucurbita pepo
cucurbita maxima
winter squash cultivar
head vegetable plant
A dairy cow is an adult female member of a dairy cattle breed
domesticated cattle
dairy cow
squash plant
nut producing plant
A gill-bearing aquatic craniate animal that lacks limbs with digits.
"Most fish are ectothermic ('cold-blooded'), allowing their body temperatures to vary as ambient temperatures change, though some of the large active swimmers like white shark and tuna can hold a higher core temperature." - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fish
fish species
A whole mussel.
palaeoheterodonta
pteriomorphia
mytilidae
A mussel which is dead or alive and has a relatively intact body.
mussel
sesamum indicum
sesamum orientale
sesame plant
maize
zea mays
LanguaL curation note: Use 'field corn' for any breakfast cereals or snack foods having 'corn' as the main ingredient.
Zia mays plant
Rapeseed (*Brassica napus*), also known as rape, oilseed rape, charlock (and, in the case of one particular group of cultivars, canola), is a bright-yellow flowering member of the family *Brassicaceae* (mustard or cabbage family), cultivated mainly for its oil-rich seed. It is the third-largest source of vegetable oil in the world. [https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rapeseed]
brassica napus
rape plant
Brassica napus L. emend. Metzg. var. napus
canola
canola plant
oilseed rape plant
rapeseed plant
Syzygium aromaticum (L.) Merr. & L.M. Perry
caryophyllus
eugenia aromatica
syzygium aromaticum
clove plant
A member of the group of eukaryotic organisms in the kingdom Fungi that includes unicellular microorganisms such as yeasts and molds, as well as multicellular fungi that produce familiar fruiting forms known as mushrooms.
fungi
fungus
A vertebrate animal is any species of organism within the subphylum Vertebrata (chordates with backbones). Vertebrates represent the overwhelming majority of the phylum Chordata, with currently about 69,276 species described.
LanguaL curation note: For a unicellular animal, use *ALGAE OR FUNGUS USED AS FOOD SOURCE*.
vertebrate animal
Any grass cultivated (grown) for the edible components of its grain.
grain plant
green pea plant
lathyrus l.
pisum l.
pea plant
Yeasts are eukaryotic micro-organisms classified in the kingdom *Fungi*, with 1,500 species currently described estimated to be only 1% of all fungal species.
yeast
Vicia faba, the Broad Bean, is a species of bean (*Fabaceae*) native to north Africa and southwest Asia, and extensively cultivated elsewhere. A variety is provisionally recognized: Vicia faba var. equina Pers. - Horse Bean. Although usually classified in the same genus Vicia as the vetches, some botanists treat it in a separate monotypic genus *Faba*. The term fava bean (from the Italian fava, meaning "broad bean") is usually used in English speaking countries such as the US, however the term broad bean is the most common name in the UK.
vicia faba
faba bean plant
fava bean plant
horse bean plant
horsebean plant
Vicia faba L. (varieties for human consumption)
broad bean plant
Crustaceans form a large, diverse arthropod taxon which includes such familiar animals as crabs, lobsters, crayfish, shrimp, krill, woodlice, and barnacles. [https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crustacean]
crustacea
crustacean
saccharum officinarum
sugar cane plant
Field corn is maize of varieties that (in contrast with sweet corn and popcorn) are not, in the United States, grown primarily for consumption as human food in the form of fresh kernels. More than 98% of corn-growing land in the U.S. is in use for field-corn production. Principal field corn varieties are Dent corn, Flint corn, Flour corn (including blue corn (*Zea mays amylacea*), and Waxy corn.
corn, field
dent corn
flint corn
podcorn
zea mays var. indentata (not acc.)
zea mays var. indurata (not acc.)
Field corn is a general term used in North America for corn varieties other than sweet corn, popcorn, yellow food grade corn used for yellow corn meal or flour and corn starch, and white food-grade corn used for white meal or flour and corn starch. Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Field_corn LanguaL curation note: Searching note--use 'field corn' for any breakfast cereal or snack food having 'corn' as the first ingredient.
field corn plant
The term shellfish is used both broadly and specifically. For regulatory purposes it is often narrowly defined as filter-feeding molluscs such as clams, mussels, and oyster to the exclusion of crustaceans and all else. Although their shells may differ, all shellfish are invertebrates.
Covers both freshwater and saltwater organisms
shellfish species
Broccoli is a plant in the cabbage family, whose large flower head is used as a vegetable. The word broccoli, from the Italian plural of broccolo, refers to "the flowering top of a cabbage". Broccoli is usually boiled or steamed, but may be eaten raw and has become popular as a raw vegetable in hors d'oeuvre trays. Broccoli is classified in the *Italica* cultivar group of the species *Brassica oleracea*. Broccoli has large flower heads, usually green in color, arranged in a tree-like fashion on branches sprouting from a thick, edible stalk. The mass of flower heads is surrounded by leaves. Broccoli most closely resembles cauliflower, which is a different cultivar group of the same species.
Brassica oleracea L. var. italica Plenck
brassica oleracea l. convar. botrytis var. italica
brassica oleracea var. botrytis
brassica oleracea var. italica
broccoli plant
field pumpkin
pumpkin plant
A bean plant is one of several genera of the flowering plant family Fabaceae, which has seed pods, seeds, and/or leaf material used for human or animal food.
bean plant
vegetable-producing plant
nut or edible seed producing plant
Brassica oleracea L. var. gemmifera Zenker
Brassica oleracea var. gemmifera (DC.) Zenker
brassica oleracea var. gemmifera
brussels sprout plant
tare
vicia
vetch plant
Cucurbita (Latin for gourd) is a genus of herbaceous vines in the gourd family, Cucurbitaceae, also known as cucurbits, native to the Andes and Mesoamerica. Five species are grown worldwide for their edible fruit, variously known as squash, pumpkin, or gourd depending on species, variety, and local parlance, and for their seeds.
cucurbita spp.
pumpkin, squash or gourd
squash, gourd or pumpkin plant
Mollusca is a large phylum of invertebrate animals whose members are known as molluscs or mollusks. Molluscs are the largest marine phylum, comprising about 23% of all the named marine organisms. Numerous molluscs also live in freshwater and terrestrial habitats. [https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mollusca]
mollusk
mollusc
Bivalvia, in previous centuries referred to as the *Lamellibranchiata* and *Pelecypoda*, is a class of marine and freshwater molluscs that have laterally compressed bodies enclosed by a shell consisting of two hinged parts. Bivalves as a group have no head and they lack some usual molluscan organs like the radula and the odontophore. They include the clams, oysters, cockles, mussels, scallops, and numerous other families that live in saltwater, as well as a number of families that live in freshwater.[https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bivalvia]
bivalvia
lamellibranchiata
pelecypod
pelecypoda
bivalve
A cephalopod is any member of the molluscan class *Cephalopoda* such as a squid, octopus or nautilus. These exclusively marine animals are characterized by bilateral body symmetry, a prominent head, and a set of arms or tentacles modified from the primitive molluscan foot. Fishermen sometimes call them inkfish, referring to their common ability to squirt ink. [https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cephalopod]
cephalopoda
cephalopod
Damion Dooley's note: manysubclasses here are currently originating from LanguaL additives that have not yet been matched to CHEBI ontology terms. If matches are possible they will be implemented over time, at which point the corresponding FoodOn id's will be deprecated.
food additive
A chemical food component in liquid form.
Liquid as food source
liquid chemical food component
Food additive; technological purpose(s): bulking agent, humectant, sequestrant, stabilizer, sweetener.
sorbitol syrup
plant by taxonomy
brassica spp.
brassica species
The biological subfamily *Bovinae* includes a diverse group of 10 genera of medium- to large-sized ungulates, including domestic cattle, the bison, African buffalo, the water buffalo, the yak, and the four-horned and spiral-horned antelopes. The evolutionary relationship between the members of the group is obscure, and their classification into loose tribes rather than formal subgroups reflects this uncertainty. General characteristics include cloven hoofs and usually at least one of the sexes of a species having true horns.
bovinae
bovine
A bovid (family *Bovidae*) is any of almost 140 species of cloven-hoofed, ruminant mammal which has males with characteristic unbranching horns covered in a permanent sheath of keratin. The family is widespread, being native to Asia, Africa, Europe and North America, and diverse: members include bison, African buffalo, water buffalo, antelopes, gazelles, sheep, goats, muskoxen, and domestic cattle.
bovidae
bovid
The *Cucurbitaceae*, also called cucurbits and the gourd family, are a plant family consisting of about 965 species in around 95 genera, the most important of which are: *Cucurbita* - squash, pumpkin, zucchini, some gourds; *Lagenaria* - calabash, and others that are inedible; *Citrullus* - watermelon (*C. lanatus, C. colocynthis*) and others; *Cucumis* - cucumber (*C. sativus*), various melons; *Luffa* - luffa, loofah
cucurbitaceae
gourd/squash family
A broad term that includes the nutritive sweeteners dextrose, fructose, galactose, lactose, maltose and sucrose, which are simple carbohydrates with molecules composed of one or two saccharide units. Note that on a product label or in a recipe, 'sugar' means *SUCROSE* and should be so indexed. Use the broad term *SUGAR* only if the specific sugar used is not known or not listed in the vocabulary.
sugar
Material which is distinguished primarily by the organism(s) it derives from.
LanguaL curation note: "e.g. *LEAF*, *ROOT OR TUBER*, *ORGAN MEAT*, *MILK* OR *EGG*; it also includes components of parts, such as *CREAM*, and extracts, concentrates or isolates, such as *PROTEIN EXTRACT* or *SUGAR*."
Old definition as of Feb 25, 2025: Anatomical or other part(s) or substances derived from plant or animal or fungal organisms.
organism material
LanguaL curation note: Renamed from *FRUIT OR BERRY, PEEL REMOVED* in LanguaL 2008.
fruit, peel removed
Extract, concentrate or isolate high in sugar, oligosaccharide or polysaccharide.
carbohydrate extract, concentrate, or isolate
Material that derives from one or more animals
Langual note: Includes eggs and milk that, although separated from the animal, are produced as integral parts and are affected by the animal's food intake and metabolism.
animal material
The fleshy fruit of any plant. *FRUIT* includes vegetables berries and pods as well. The bulk of a fruit is its fleshy part, which is covered by a peel (skin) and which encloses a core, pit or seeds.
berry
berry or fruit (anatomical part)
fruit or berry, peel undetermined
hip (fruit)
infructescence
LanguaL curation note: The descriptors under *FRUIT* are arrayed so that the indexer can check first whether the peel is present, removed or undetermined; then check the same informationfor the core, pit or seeds. For juices, beverages or jellies made from fruit, Index the entire part from which the product is derived. Renamed from *FRUIT OR BERRY* in LanguaL 2008.
fruit part
Extract, concentrate or isolate high in gluten, the predominant protein of wheat or corn.
gluten
Food substance or component consisting predominantly of mixed glycerol esters of fatty acids and, in far lesser amounts, of fatty acids, sterols and pigments. A fat is a solid at room temperature, an oil is a liquid at room temperature (20 degrees C.). Excludes essential oils.
oil or fat
SIREN DB annotation: * liquid, high viscosity, with no visible particles FOODON:03430139 * solid FOODON:03430151 * fat or oil FOODON:03420190
fat or oil
Poultry, game bird or turtle eggs.
LanguaL curation note: Fish roe are indexed under *OVARY, ROE*.
egg or egg component
Edible organ meat, including blood and bone marrow.
variety meat
animal organ by physiological system
A physical-chemical component separated from the food source or its parts by extraction, centrifugation, filtration, heat processing, expressing or a similar process. The separated component may be converted through further processing. If this is done, the final substance is indexed. A water-extracted component may remain in aqueous dispersion. The extract, concentrate or isolate is indexed in preference to the anatomic part from which it is derived. For example, peanut oil is indexed under *PEANUT* combined wih *FAT OR OIL* rather than with *SEED OR KERNEL*. On the other hand, fruit and vegetable juices can be indexed under *FRUIT JUICE OR NECTAR* or *VEGETABLE JUICE* (A. PRODUCT TYPE); therefore the anatomic part of the plant should be indexed.
Damion Dooley's note: Items in this branch will be merged into foodon food product branch.
extract, concentrate or isolate of plant or animal
flesh of fruit
LanguaL curation note: Renamed from *FRUIT OR BERRY, PEEL REMOVED, CORE, PIT OR SEED REMOVED* in LanguaL 2008.
fruit, peel removed, core, pit or seed removed
Extract, concentrate or isolate high in protein; may contain amino acids, polypeptides and enzymes.
protein extract, concentrate or isolate
LanguaL curation note: Used when a sugar syrup or sugar syrup solids is the major ingredient. Sugar syrup is a liquid or semiliquid high in sugar content derived from a plant source through extraction possibly followed by conversion and/or concentration. A sugar syrup usually contains several sugars in varying proportions. Sugar syrup solids are derived by removing water from sugar syrup.
sugar syrup or syrup solids
high fructose syrup
The oil produced by pressing or extracting lipids from plant seeds (e.g. grapeseed oil, rapeseed oil, linseed oil) /AM
seed oil
The physical state of the food product (liquid, semiliquid, semisolid, or solid). Solid food products are further subdivided by shape or form. Terms are provided for products that have both liquid and solid components or that incorporate air or other gases. [FDA CFSAN 1995]
Damion Dooley's note: these categories need to be mapped over to PATO phenotypic categories, with a suitable treatment of mixtures of solids that are divided into parts.
food physical quality
A state of matter between a solid and a gas, in which a substance has the capacity to flow and conforms to the shape of the container.
fluid
Liquids range from water to honey, corresponding to a range in viscosity (or apparent viscosity) from 1 to 500 centipoise (viscosity is a measure of a liquid's resistance to flow). Products that are pourable but have a higher viscosity are *SEMILIQUID*.
food (liquid)
Refers to natural or formed shape as appropriate, regardless of size, which may vary from very large (e.g., beef carcass) to very small (e.g., poppy seed, yeast cell).
whole
LanguaL curation note: Whole refers not only to a whole plant or animal but also to a whole part as indexed in C. PART OF PLANT OR ANIMAL; examples of whole natural products are: an apple, rice in grain form, an asparagus spear, a spinach leaf, a beef carcass, a dressed chicken, a chicken drumstick, a calf liver. Products may have been slightly modified during processing and preservation (e.g., raisins or a pear that has been peeled and cored).
whole, natural shape
Used to specifically characterize a food product based on the treatment or processes applied to the product or any indexed ingredient. The processes include adding, substituting or removing components or modifying the food or component, e.g., through fermentation.
food treatment process
A food modification process by microbial or enzymatic action which results in molecular changes in any food component.
fermented, unspecified
LanguaL curation note: If salt, sugar or other food additive is used to aid in the modification process, index it by the appropriate term under *INGREDIENT ADDED*.
microbial/enzymatic modification process
LanguaL curation note: Used when the food product underwent mechanical, chemical or enzymatic modification that has affected the texture, flavor or other characteristic of the product.
food modification process
LanguaL curation note: With the exception of peanut (see *PEANUT OR PEANUT BUTTER ADDED*), used when a nut or seed ingredient is the second ingredient in order of predominance.
plant seed or nut food product
LanguaL curation note: Used for products in which either carbohydrates, proteins or fats were modified through microbial processes. Enzymatic or other biological processes may also be involved. If two or more of these components are modified in significant amounts, index under *FERMENTED/MODIFIED, MULTIPLE COMPONENT*.
single component food fermentation
alcohol fermentation
yeast leavened
carbohydrate fermentation
A fat or oil derived from vegetable material
This is a convenience class inherited from LanguaL
vegetable fat or oil
The methods contributing to the prevention or retardation of microbial, enzymatic or oxidative spoilage and thus to the extension of shelf life. Index all methods for which information is available, even if a corresponding descriptor has already been used in *H. TREATMENT APPLIED*. Preservation descriptors refer to the finished food as a whole with these exceptions: (1) if the components of a multi-component food, such as cream pie, are preservation by different methods, index all methods; (2) if chemical preservatives are declared on the label, always index them even if it is known that the preservative was introduced through or is only present in a component or ingredient of the food; and (3) if the preservation method for an ingredient is declared on the label (such as brie cheese made from pasteurized milk) index it. Also use *INGREDIENT preservation by THERMAL PROCESSING* or *INGREDIENT preservation by IRRADIATION* when ingredients have been pasteurized, ultrapasteurized, sterilized or irradiated.
food preservation process
A piece of animal meat which has been cut according to butchery practice.
A cut of meat may have an arbitrary boundary that does not conform to an anatomical part. For example, a steak can be taken from a variety of locations.
butchery cut of animal
Catalysis of the reaction: peptidyl-tRNA(1) + aminoacyl-tRNA(2) = tRNA(1) + peptidylaminoacyl-tRNA(2). This reaction is catalyzed by a ribozyme.
Peptide transfer from P-site tRNA to the A-site tRNA
A process that is carried out at the cellular level which results in the assembly, arrangement of constituent parts, or disassembly of cytoskeletal structures comprising microtubules and their associated proteins.
microtubule cytoskeleton organization and biogenesis
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of a polysaccharide, a polymer of many (typically more than 10) monosaccharide residues linked glycosidically.
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of a polysaccharide, a polymer of many (typically more than 10) monosaccharide residues linked glycosidically.
multicellular organismal polysaccharide catabolic process
Progression through the phases of the mitotic cell cycle, the most common eukaryotic cell cycle, which canonically comprises four successive phases called G1, S, G2, and M and includes replication of the genome and the subsequent segregation of chromosomes into daughter cells. In some variant cell cycles nuclear replication or nuclear division may not be followed by cell division, or G1 and G2 phases may be absent.
Note that this term should not be confused with 'GO:0140014 ; mitotic nuclear division'. 'GO:0000278 ; mitotic cell cycle represents the entire mitotic cell cycle, while 'GO:0140014 ; mitotic nuclear division' specifically represents the actual nuclear division step of the mitotic cell cycle.
The division of a cell nucleus into two nuclei, with DNA and other nuclear contents distributed between the daughter nuclei.
The formation of a syncytium, a mass of cytoplasm containing several nuclei enclosed within a single plasma membrane, by the fusion of the plasma membranes of two or more individual cells.
syncytium formation by plasma membrane fusion
The ordered and organized complex of DNA, protein, and sometimes RNA, that forms the chromosome.
Chromosomes include parts that are not part of the chromatin. Examples include the kinetochore.
A compact and highly condensed form of chromatin that is refractory to transcription.
The process whose specific outcome is the progression of the skeleton over time, from its formation to the mature structure. The skeleton is the bony framework of the body in vertebrates (endoskeleton) or the hard outer envelope of insects (exoskeleton or dermoskeleton).
The formation of bone or of a bony substance, or the conversion of fibrous tissue or of cartilage into bone or a bony substance.
Note that this term does not have a 'developmental process' parent because ossification isn't necessarily developmental, can also occur as part of bone remodeling. Instead use 'ossification involved in bone maturation ; GO:0043931'.
A process in which membrane potential cycles through a depolarizing spike, triggered in response to depolarization above some threshold, followed by repolarization. This cycle is driven by the flow of ions through various voltage gated channels with different thresholds and ion specificities.
Action potentials typically propagate across excitable membranes. This class covers both action potentials that propagate and those that fail to do so.
Cell motility due to movement of eukaryotic cilia or bacterial-type flagella or archaeal-type flagella.
ciliary or bacterial-type flagellar motility
Note that we deem eukaryotic cilia and microtubule-based flagella to be equivalent, while the bacterial- and archaeal-type flagella have a different structure. The former are microtubule-based structures that lash back and forth and are present only in eukaryotes, while the latter achieve motility by rotation. Bacterial- and archaeal-type flagella are superficially similar but have a different molecular composition and fine structure. These three structures never co-exist in the same organism. Therefore, GO:0001539 'cilium or flagellum-dependent cell motility' is in the subset of terms that should not be used for direct gene product annotation. Instead, select a child term. Direct annotations to GO:0001539 'cilium or flagellum-dependent cell motility' may be amended during annotation QC.
cilium or flagellum-dependent cell motility
A process that results in a parallel arrangement of microtubules.
A homeostatic process in which an organism modulates its internal body temperature.
Cell migration that is accomplished by extension and retraction of a pseudopodium.
Note that this term refers to a mode of migration rather than to any particular cell type.
The formation of the acrosome from the spermatid Golgi.
Formation of a complex between aminoacylated initiator methionine tRNA, GTP, and initiation factor 2 (either eIF2 in eukaryotes, or IF2 in prokaryotes). In prokaryotes, fMet-tRNA (initiator) is used rather than Met-tRNA (initiator).
translation initiation ternary complex assembly
formation of translation initiation ternary complex
The regulated release of gastric acid (hydrochloric acid) by parietal or oxyntic cells during digestion.
The process whose specific outcome is the progression of the embryo in the uterus over time, from formation of the zygote in the oviduct, to birth. An example of this process is found in Mus musculus.
The formation of the ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm during gastrulation.
The formation of ectoderm during gastrulation.
The formation of the endoderm during gastrulation.
The process that gives rise to the mesoderm. This process pertains to the initial formation of the structure from unspecified parts.
The process in which the anatomical structures of branches are generated and organized. A branch is a division or offshoot from a main stem. Examples in animals would include blood vessels, nerves, lymphatics and other endothelial or epithelial tubes.
A multicellular organismal process by which exposure to an activating factor such as a cellular or soluble ligand results in a change in the morphology or behavior of a cell.
The appearance of a cytokine due to biosynthesis or secretion following a cellular stimulus, resulting in an increase in its intracellular or extracellular levels.
Note that this term is in the subset of terms that should not be used for direct gene product annotation. Instead, select one of the 'regulation' children terms.
The regulated release of serotonin by a cell. Serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine, or 5-HT) is a monoamine synthesized in serotonergic neurons in the central nervous system, enterochromaffin cells in the gastrointestinal tract and some immune system cells.
The regulated release of histamine by a cell or tissue. It is formed by decarboxylation of histidine and it acts through receptors in smooth muscle and in secretory systems.
The morphogenesis of an embryonic epithelium into a tube-shaped structure.
The formation of a tube from the flat layer of ectodermal cells known as the neural plate. This will give rise to the central nervous system.
Direct ossification that occurs within mesenchyme or an accumulation of relatively unspecialized cells.
An instance of intramembranous ossification may also be classified as metaplastic; the former classifies based on tissue type location, and the latter based on mechanism/cell division.
The process in which hormones modulate the force with which blood passes through the circulatory system. A hormone is one of a group of substances formed in very small amounts in one specialized organ or group of cells and carried (sometimes in the bloodstream) to another organ or group of cells, in the same organism, upon which they have a specific regulatory action.
regulation of systemic arterial blood pressure by hormone
The regulation of blood pressure mediated by the signaling molecule vasopressin. Vasopressin is produced in the hypothalamus, and affects vasoconstriction, and renal water transport.
blood pressure regulation by vasopressin
regulation of systemic arterial blood pressure by vasopressin
The process in which the anatomical structures of epithelia are generated and organized. An epithelium consists of closely packed cells arranged in one or more layers, that covers the outer surfaces of the body or lines any internal cavity or tube.
Any process that modulates the frequency or rate of heart contraction.
The somatic process allowing for the production of immune receptors whose specificity is not encoded in the germline genomic sequences.
Note that this process covers somatic recombination, gene conversion, hypermutation, N-region addition, and alternate splicing processes of immune receptor diversification.
somatic diversification of immune receptors
The process in which immunoglobulin genes are formed through recombination of the germline genetic elements, also known as immunoglobulin gene segments, within a single locus following the induction of and contributing to an immune response.
somatic recombination of antibody genes during immune response
somatic recombination of immunoglobulin genes during immune response
somatic recombination of immunoglobulin genes involved in immune response
The somatic process that results in the generation of sequence diversity of immunoglobulins after induction, and contributes to an immune response.
somatic diversification of antibodies during immune response
somatic diversification of immunoglobulins during immune response
somatic diversification of immunoglobulins involved in immune response
The promotion of an immune response by natural killer cells through direct recognition of target cells or through the release of cytokines.
The process in which precursor cell type acquires the specialized features of a hematopoietic progenitor cell, a class of cell types including myeloid progenitor cells and lymphoid progenitor cells.
haematopoietic progenitor cell differentiation
haemopoietic progenitor cell differentiation
hemopoietic progenitor cell differentiation
hematopoietic progenitor cell differentiation
An immune response mediated by cells expressing specific receptors for antigens produced through a somatic diversification process, and allowing for an enhanced secondary response to subsequent exposures to the same antigen (immunological memory).
An immune response taking place in an organ or tissues such as the liver, brain, mucosa, or nervous system tissues.
organ or tissue specific immune response
Any process of the immune system that executes a component of an immune response. An effector immune process takes place after its activation.
The process of regulating the proliferation and elimination of myeloid cells such that the total number of myeloid cells within a whole or part of an organism is stable over time in the absence of an outside stimulus.
A change in the morphology or behavior of a cell resulting from exposure to an activating factor such as a cellular or soluble ligand, leading to the initiation or perpetuation of an immune response.
cell activation involved in immune response
A change in morphology and behavior of a lymphocyte resulting from exposure to a specific antigen, mitogen, cytokine, chemokine, cellular ligand, or soluble factor, leading to the initiation or perpetuation of an immune response.
lymphocyte activation during immune response
lymphocyte activation involved in immune response
The change in morphology and behavior of a mature or immature B cell during an immune response, resulting from exposure to a mitogen, cytokine, chemokine, cellular ligand, or an antigen for which it is specific.
B cell activation during immune response
B lymphocyte activation during immune response
B-cell activation during immune response
B-lymphocyte activation during immune response
B cell activation involved in immune response
The process in which transitional stage B cells acquire the specialized features of mature B cells in the spleen.
Note that immunologists typically use the word 'development' to refer to cells of B or T cell lineages undergoing the process that GO describes as 'cell differentiation'.
The synthesis or release of histamine following a stimulus as part of an inflammatory response, resulting in an increase in its intracellular or extracellular levels.
histamine production involved in acute inflammatory response
histamine production involved in inflammatory response
A change in morphology and behavior of a leukocyte resulting from exposure to a specific antigen, mitogen, cytokine, cellular ligand, or soluble factor, leading to the initiation or perpetuation of an immune response.
immune cell activation during immune response
leucocyte activation during immune response
leukocyte activation during immune response
leukocyte activation involved in immune response
Any process involved in the development or functioning of the immune system, an organismal system for calibrated responses to potential internal or invasive threats.
Note that this term is a direct child of 'biological_process ; GO:0008150' because some immune system processes are types of cellular process (GO:0009987), whereas others are types of multicellular organism process (GO:0032501).
The appearance of immunoglobulin due to biosynthesis or secretion following a cellular stimulus, resulting in an increase in its intracellular or extracellular levels.
The appearance of immunoglobulin due to biosynthesis or secretion following a cellular stimulus during an immune response, resulting in an increase in its intracellular or extracellular levels.
immunoglobulin production involved in immunoglobulin mediated immune response
immunoglobulin biosynthetic process involved in immune response
immunoglobulin secretion involved in immune response
antibody production during immune response
antibody secretion during immune response
immunoglobulin production during immune response
immunoglobulin production involved in immune response
immunoglobulin production involved in immunoglobulin-mediated immune response
An immune response taking place in the liver.
The synthesis or release of any molecular mediator of the immune response, resulting in an increase in its intracellular or extracellular levels.
production of cellular mediator of immune response
production of molecular mediator of immune response
Any process involved in the carrying out of an immune response by a leukocyte.
Any process involved in the carrying out of an immune response by a lymphocyte.
Any process involved in the carrying out of an immune response by a T cell.
An immune response mediated by lymphocytes expressing specific receptors for antigen produced through a somatic diversification process that includes somatic recombination of germline gene segments encoding immunoglobulin superfamily domains. Recombined receptors for antigen encoded by immunoglobulin superfamily domains include T cell receptors and immunoglobulins (antibodies) produced by B cells. The first encounter with antigen elicits a primary immune response that is slow and not of great magnitude. T and B cells selected by antigen become activated and undergo clonal expansion. A fraction of antigen-reactive T and B cells become memory cells, whereas others differentiate into effector cells. The memory cells generated during the primary response enable a much faster and stronger secondary immune response upon subsequent exposures to the same antigen (immunological memory). An example of this is the adaptive immune response found in Mus musculus.
adaptive immune response based on somatic recombination of immune receptors built from immunoglobulin superfamily domains
Tolerance induction dependent upon an immune response, typically a response by a mature T or B cell in the periphery resulting tolerance towards an antigen via induction of anergy, cellular deletion, or regulatory T cell activation.
immune response-dependent tolerance induction
tolerance induction dependent upon immune response
Tolerance induction in the peripheral lymphoid tissues: blood, lymph nodes, spleen, and mucosal-associated lymphoid tissues.
The process in which an antigen-presenting cell expresses antigen (peptide or polysaccharide) on its cell surface in association with an MHC class II protein complex.
peptide or polysaccharide antigen processing and presentation of via MHC class II
antigen processing and presentation of peptide or polysaccharide antigen via MHC class II
A process that directly activates any of the steps required for tolerance, a physiologic state in which the immune system does not react destructively against the components of an organism that harbors it or against antigens that are introduced to it.
The process whose specific outcome is the progression of an organismal system whose objective is to provide calibrated responses by an organism to a potential internal or invasive threat, over time, from its formation to the mature structure. A system is a regularly interacting or interdependent group of organs or tissues that work together to carry out a given biological process.
The process in which a relatively unspecialized hemopoietic precursor cell acquires the specialized features of a leukocyte. A leukocyte is an achromatic cell of the myeloid or lymphoid lineages capable of ameboid movement, found in blood or other tissue.
The synthesis or release of any molecular mediator of the inflammatory response following an inflammatory stimulus, resulting in an increase in its intracellular or extracellular levels.
production of molecular mediator involved in acute inflammatory response
production of cellular mediator of acute inflammation
production of molecular mediator involved in inflammatory response
The synthesis or release of products of arachidonic acid metabolism following a stimulus as part of an inflammatory response, resulting in an increase in their intracellular or extracellular levels.
arachidonic acid metabolite production involved in acute inflammatory response
production of arachidonic acid metabolites involved in acute inflammatory response
arachidonic acid metabolite production involved in inflammatory response
production of arachidonic acid metabolites involved in inflammatory response
arachidonate metabolite production involved in inflammatory response
The synthesis or release of any prostaglandin following a stimulus as part of an inflammatory response, resulting in an increase in its intracellular or extracellular levels.
prostaglandin production involved in acute inflammatory response
prostaglandin production involved in inflammatory response
The process in which immune receptor genes are diversified through recombination of the germline genetic elements within a single genetic locus.
somatic diversification of immune receptors via germline recombination within a single locus
The process in which a relatively unspecialized myeloid precursor cell acquires the specialized features of any cell of the myeloid leukocyte lineage.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate, or extent of tolerance induction.
Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate, or extent of tolerance induction.
positive regulation of tolerance induction
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate, or extent of tolerance induction dependent upon immune response.
regulation of immune response-dependent tolerance induction
regulation of tolerance induction dependent upon immune response
Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate, or extent of tolerance induction dependent upon immune response.
positive regulation of immune response-dependent tolerance induction
up regulation of tolerance induction dependent upon immune response
up-regulation of tolerance induction dependent upon immune response
upregulation of tolerance induction dependent upon immune response
activation of tolerance induction dependent upon immune response
stimulation of tolerance induction dependent upon immune response
positive regulation of tolerance induction dependent upon immune response
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate, or extent of peripheral tolerance induction.
regulation of peripheral tolerance induction
Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate, or extent of peripheral tolerance induction.
up regulation of peripheral tolerance induction
up-regulation of peripheral tolerance induction
upregulation of peripheral tolerance induction
activation of peripheral tolerance induction
stimulation of peripheral tolerance induction
positive regulation of peripheral tolerance induction
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate, or extent of an immune system process.
Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate, or extent of an immune system process.
down regulation of immune system process
down-regulation of immune system process
negative regulation of immune system process
Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate, or extent of an immune system process.
positive regulation of immune system process
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate, or extent of leukocyte migration.
Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate, or extent of leukocyte migration.
positive regulation of immune cell migration
positive regulation of leucocyte migration
positive regulation of leukocyte migration
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate, or extent of leukocyte chemotaxis.
Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate, or extent of leukocyte chemotaxis.
positive regulation of immune cell chemotaxis
positive regulation of leucocyte chemotaxis
positive regulation of leukocyte chemotaxis
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate, or extent of leukocyte activation.
The controlled release of a peptide from a cell or a tissue.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate, or extent of an adaptive immune response.
Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate, or extent of an adaptive immune response.
up regulation of adaptive immune response
up-regulation of adaptive immune response
upregulation of adaptive immune response
positive regulation of adaptive immune response
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate, or extent of an adaptive immune response based on somatic recombination of immune receptors built from immunoglobulin superfamily domains. An example of this process is found in the Gnathostomata.
regulation of adaptive immune response based on somatic recombination of immune receptors built from immunoglobulin superfamily domains
Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate, or extent of an adaptive immune response based on somatic recombination of immune receptors built from immunoglobulin superfamily domains. An example of this process is found in the Gnathostomata.
positive regulation of adaptive immune response based on somatic recombination of immune receptors built from immunoglobulin superfamily domains
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate, or extent of a type 2 immune response.
regulation of T-helper 2 type immune response
Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate, or extent of a type 2 immune response.
positive regulation of T-helper 2 type immune response
positive regulation of Th2 immune response
positive regulation of type 2 immune response
A developmental process in which a progressive change in the state of some part of an organism, germline or somatic, specifically contributes to its ability to form offspring.
developmental process involved in reproduction
A multicellular organismal process carried out by any of the organs or tissues in an organ system. An organ system is a regularly interacting or interdependent group of organs or tissues that work together to carry out a biological objective.
An organ system process carried out at the level of a muscle. Muscle tissue is composed of contractile cells or fibers.
An organ system process carried out by any of the organs or tissues of the circulatory system. The circulatory system is an organ system that moves extracellular fluids to and from tissue within a multicellular organism.
An organ system process carried out by any of the organs or tissues of the renal system. The renal system maintains fluid balance, and contributes to electrolyte balance, acid/base balance, and disposal of nitrogenous waste products. In humans, the renal system comprises a pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, urinary bladder, urethra, sphincter muscle and associated blood vessels; in other species, the renal system may comprise related structures (e.g., nephrocytes and malpighian tubules in Drosophila).
A circulatory system process carried out by the heart. The heart is a hollow, muscular organ, which, by contracting rhythmically, keeps up the circulation of the blood. The heart is a hollow, muscular organ, which, by contracting rhythmically, keeps up the circulation of the blood.
A process carried out by the organs or tissues of the respiratory system. The respiratory system is an organ system responsible for respiratory gaseous exchange.
The regulation of blood pressure mediated by biochemical signaling: hormonal, autocrine or paracrine.
blood pressure regulation mediated by a chemical signal
regulation of systemic arterial blood pressure mediated by a chemical signal
The process that modulates the force with which blood travels through the systemic arterial circulatory system. The process is controlled by a balance of processes that increase pressure and decrease pressure.
regulation of systemic arterial blood pressure
The process in which plasma is filtered through the glomerular membrane which consists of capillary endothelial cells, the basement membrane, and epithelial cells. The glomerular filtrate is the same as plasma except it has no significant amount of protein.
The directed, self-propelled movement of a cilium.
Note that we deem cilium and microtubule-based flagellum to be equivalent.
Any process that modulates the rate, frequency, or extent of cilium movement, the directed, self-propelled movement of a cilium.
regulation of microtubule-based flagellum movement
Any process that increases the rate, frequency, or extent of cilium movement, the directed, self-propelled movement of a cilium.
positive regulation of microtubule-based flagellum movement
positive regulation of flagellar movement
positive regulation of flagellum movement
A molecular process that can be carried out by the action of a single macromolecular machine, usually via direct physical interactions with other molecular entities. Function in this sense denotes an action, or activity, that a gene product (or a complex) performs.
Note that, in addition to forming the root of the molecular function ontology, this term is recommended for the annotation of gene products whose molecular function is unknown. When this term is used for annotation, it indicates that no information was available about the molecular function of the gene product annotated as of the date the annotation was made; the evidence code 'no data' (ND), is used to indicate this. Despite its name, this is not a type of 'function' in the sense typically defined by upper ontologies such as Basic Formal Ontology (BFO). It is instead a BFO:process carried out by a single gene product or complex.
Catalysis of a biochemical reaction at physiological temperatures. In biologically catalyzed reactions, the reactants are known as substrates, and the catalysts are naturally occurring macromolecular substances known as enzymes. Enzymes possess specific binding sites for substrates, and are usually composed wholly or largely of protein, but RNA that has catalytic activity (ribozyme) is often also regarded as enzymatic.
Combining with an extracellular or intracellular signal and transmitting the signal from one side of the membrane to the other to initiate a change in cell activity or state as part of signal transduction.
transmembrane signalling receptor activity
This term includes intracellular membrane receptors, e.g. IP3 triggered release of Ca2+ from intracellular stores.
transmembrane signaling receptor activity
Sphingomyelinase is activated by the NGF:p75NTR complex
Combining with an extracellular signal and transmitting the signal across the membrane by activating an associated G-protein; promotes the exchange of GDP for GTP on the alpha subunit of a heterotrimeric G-protein complex.
Epstein-Barr Virus-induced receptor activity
G-protein coupled receptor activity, unknown ligand
orphan G protein coupled receptor activity
orphan G-protein coupled receptor activity
super conserved receptor expressed in brain receptor activity
The high affinity receptor complex binds to G-protein
Enables the directed movement of substances (such as macromolecules, small molecules, ions) into, out of or within a cell, accross or in between cells.
Some transporters, such as certain members of the SLC family, are referred to as 'carriers'; however GO uses carrier with a different meaning: a carrier binds to and transports the substance (see GO:0140104 molecular carrier activity), whereas a transporter forms some pore that allows the passing of molecules.
A location, relative to cellular compartments and structures, occupied by a macromolecular machine. There are three types of cellular components described in the gene ontology: (1) the cellular anatomical entity where a gene product carries out a molecular function (e.g., plasma membrane, cytoskeleton) or membrane-enclosed compartments (e.g., mitochondrion); (2) virion components, where viral proteins act, and (3) the stable macromolecular complexes of which gene product are parts (e.g., the clathrin complex).
Note that, in addition to forming the root of the cellular component ontology, this term is recommended for the annotation of gene products whose cellular component is unknown. When this term is used for annotation, it indicates that no information was available about the cellular component of the gene product annotated as of the date the annotation was made; the evidence code 'no data' (ND), is used to indicate this.
The space external to the outermost structure of a cell. For cells without external protective or external encapsulating structures this refers to space outside of the plasma membrane. This term covers the host cell environment outside an intracellular parasite.
Note that this term is intended to annotate gene products that are not attached to the cell surface. For gene products from multicellular organisms which are secreted from a cell but retained within the organism (i.e. released into the interstitial fluid or blood), consider the cellular component term 'extracellular space ; GO:0005615'.
A highly soluble, elongated protein complex found in blood plasma and involved in clot formation. It is converted into fibrin monomer by the action of thrombin. In the mouse, fibrinogen is a hexamer, 46 nm long and 9 nm maximal diameter, containing two sets of nonidentical chains (alpha, beta, and gamma) linked together by disulfide bonds.
A protein complex consisting of three collagen chains assembled into a left-handed triple helix. These trimers typically assemble into higher order structures.
A collagen heterotrimer containing type IV alpha chains; [alpha1(IV)]2alpha2(IV) trimers are commonly observed, although more type IV alpha chains exist and may be present in type IV trimers; type IV collagen triple helices associate to form 3 dimensional nets within basement membranes.
A collagen-containing extracellular matrix consisting of a thin layer of dense material found in various animal tissues interposed between the cells and the adjacent connective tissue. It consists of the basal lamina plus an associated layer of reticulin fibers.
Note that this term has no relationship to 'membrane ; GO:0016020' because the basement membrane is not a lipid bilayer.
A type of extracellular matrix found in interstitial connective tissue, characterized by the presence of fibronectins, proteoglycans, and types I, III, V, VI, VII and XII collagens.
That part of a multicellular organism outside the cells proper, usually taken to be outside the plasma membranes, and occupied by fluid.
Note that for multicellular organisms, the extracellular space refers to everything outside a cell, but still within the organism (excluding the extracellular matrix). Gene products from a multi-cellular organism that are secreted from a cell into the interstitial fluid or blood can therefore be annotated to this term.
A component of a cell contained within (but not including) the plasma membrane. In eukaryotes it includes the nucleus and cytoplasm.
A membrane-bounded organelle of eukaryotic cells in which chromosomes are housed and replicated. In most cells, the nucleus contains all of the cell's chromosomes except the organellar chromosomes, and is the site of RNA synthesis and processing. In some species, or in specialized cell types, RNA metabolism or DNA replication may be absent.
A structure composed of a very long molecule of DNA and associated proteins (e.g. histones) that carries hereditary information.
A small, dense body one or more of which are present in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells. It is rich in RNA and protein, is not bounded by a limiting membrane, and is not seen during mitosis. Its prime function is the transcription of the nucleolar DNA into 45S ribosomal-precursor RNA, the processing of this RNA into 5.8S, 18S, and 28S components of ribosomal RNA, and the association of these components with 5S RNA and proteins synthesized outside the nucleolus. This association results in the formation of ribonucleoprotein precursors; these pass into the cytoplasm and mature into the 40S and 60S subunits of the ribosome.
The contents of a cell excluding the plasma membrane and nucleus, but including other subcellular structures.
A closed structure, found only in eukaryotic cells, that is completely surrounded by unit membrane and contains liquid material. Cells contain one or several vacuoles, that may have different functions from each other. Vacuoles have a diverse array of functions. They can act as a storage organelle for nutrients or waste products, as a degradative compartment, as a cost-effective way of increasing cell size, and as a homeostatic regulator controlling both turgor pressure and pH of the cytosol.
A membrane-bound cytoplasmic organelle of the endomembrane system that further processes the core oligosaccharides (e.g. N-glycans) added to proteins in the endoplasmic reticulum and packages them into membrane-bound vesicles. The Golgi apparatus operates at the intersection of the secretory, lysosomal, and endocytic pathways.
Note that the Golgi apparatus can be located in various places in the cytoplasm. In plants and lower animal cells, the Golgi apparatus exists as many copies of discrete stacks dispersed throughout the cytoplasm, while the Golgi apparatus of interphase mammalian cells is a juxtanuclear, often pericentriolar reticulum, where the discrete Golgi stacks are stitched together to form a compact and interconnected ribbon, sometimes called the Golgi ribbon.
An intracellular organelle, about 200 A in diameter, consisting of RNA and protein. It is the site of protein biosynthesis resulting from translation of messenger RNA (mRNA). It consists of two subunits, one large and one small, each containing only protein and RNA. Both the ribosome and its subunits are characterized by their sedimentation coefficients, expressed in Svedberg units (symbol: S). Hence, the prokaryotic ribosome (70S) comprises a large (50S) subunit and a small (30S) subunit, while the eukaryotic ribosome (80S) comprises a large (60S) subunit and a small (40S) subunit. Two sites on the ribosomal large subunit are involved in translation, namely the aminoacyl site (A site) and peptidyl site (P site). Ribosomes from prokaryotes, eukaryotes, mitochondria, and chloroplasts have characteristically distinct ribosomal proteins.
A cellular structure that forms the internal framework of eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells. The cytoskeleton includes intermediate filaments, microfilaments, microtubules, the microtrabecular lattice, and other structures characterized by a polymeric filamentous nature and long-range order within the cell. The various elements of the cytoskeleton not only serve in the maintenance of cellular shape but also have roles in other cellular functions, including cellular movement, cell division, endocytosis, and movement of organelles.
A cytoskeletal structure that forms a distinct elongated structure, characteristically 10 nm in diameter, that occurs in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells. Intermediate filaments form a fibrous system, composed of chemically heterogeneous subunits and involved in mechanically integrating the various components of the cytoplasmic space. Intermediate filaments may be divided into five chemically distinct classes: Type I, acidic keratins; Type II, basic keratins; Type III, including desmin, vimentin and others; Type IV, neurofilaments and related filaments; and Type V, lamins.
intermediate filament associated protein
type I intermediate filament associated protein
type II intermediate filament associated protein
A filamentous structure formed of a two-stranded helical polymer of the protein actin and associated proteins. Actin filaments are a major component of the contractile apparatus of skeletal muscle and the microfilaments of the cytoskeleton of eukaryotic cells. The filaments, comprising polymerized globular actin molecules, appear as flexible structures with a diameter of 5-9 nm. They are organized into a variety of linear bundles, two-dimensional networks, and three dimensional gels. In the cytoskeleton they are most highly concentrated in the cortex of the cell just beneath the plasma membrane.
The membrane surrounding a cell that separates the cell from its external environment. It consists of a phospholipid bilayer and associated proteins.
Thin cylindrical membrane-covered projections on the surface of an animal cell containing a core bundle of actin filaments. Present in especially large numbers on the absorptive surface of intestinal cells.
Note that this term refers to a projection from a single cell, and should not be confused with 'microvillus' as used to refer to a multicellular structure such as that found in the placenta.
A cell junction that forms a connection between two or more cells of an organism; excludes direct cytoplasmic intercellular bridges, such as ring canals in insects.
A specialized eukaryotic organelle that consists of a filiform extrusion of the cell surface and of some cytoplasmic parts. Each cilium is largely bounded by an extrusion of the cytoplasmic (plasma) membrane, and contains a regular longitudinal array of microtubules, anchored to a basal body.
Note that we deem cilium and microtubule-based flagellum to be equivalent. In most eukaryotic species, intracellular sub-components of the cilium, such as the ciliary base and rootlet, are located near the plasma membrane. In Diplomonads such as Giardia, instead, the same ciliary parts are located further intracellularly. Also, 'cilium' may be used when axonemal structure and/or motility are unknown, or when axonemal structure is unusual. For all other cases, please refer to children of 'cilium'. Finally, note that any role of ciliary proteins in sensory events should be captured by annotating to relevant biological process terms.
The chemical reactions and pathways involving carbohydrates, any of a group of organic compounds based of the general formula Cx(H2O)y.
The chemical reactions and pathways involving a polysaccharide, a polymer of many (typically more than 10) monosaccharide residues linked glycosidically.
multicellular organismal polysaccharide metabolic process
The chemical reactions and pathways involving glycogen, a polydisperse, highly branched glucan composed of chains of D-glucose residues in alpha-(1->4) glycosidic linkage, joined together by alpha-(1->6) glycosidic linkages.
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of glycogen, a polydisperse, highly branched glucan composed of chains of D-glucose residues.
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of glycogen, a polydisperse, highly branched glucan composed of chains of D-glucose residues.
The chemical reactions and pathways involving proteoglycans, any glycoprotein in which the carbohydrate units are glycosaminoglycans.
The chemical reactions and pathways involving organic acids, any acidic compound containing carbon in covalent linkage.
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of precursor metabolites, substances from which energy is derived, and any process involved in the liberation of energy from these substances.
generation of precursor metabolites and energy
The chemical reactions and pathways by which a cell derives energy from stored compounds such as fats or glycogen.
Any cellular metabolic process involving nucleobases, nucleosides, nucleotides and nucleic acids.
cellular nucleobase, nucleoside, nucleotide and nucleic acid metabolic process
cellular nucleobase, nucleoside, nucleotide and nucleic acid metabolism
nucleobase, nucleoside, nucleotide and nucleic acid metabolism
nucleobase, nucleoside and nucleotide metabolic process
nucleobase, nucleoside, nucleotide and nucleic acid metabolic process
nucleobase-containing compound metabolic process
Any cellular metabolic process involving deoxyribonucleic acid. This is one of the two main types of nucleic acid, consisting of a long, unbranched macromolecule formed from one, or more commonly, two, strands of linked deoxyribonucleotides.
Any process in which a new genotype is formed by reassortment of genes resulting in gene combinations different from those that were present in the parents. In eukaryotes genetic recombination can occur by chromosome assortment, intrachromosomal recombination, or nonreciprocal interchromosomal recombination. Interchromosomal recombination occurs by crossing over. In bacteria it may occur by genetic transformation, conjugation, transduction, or F-duction.
The chemical reactions and pathways involving tRNA, transfer RNA, a class of relatively small RNA molecules responsible for mediating the insertion of amino acids into the sequence of nascent polypeptide chains during protein synthesis. Transfer RNA is characterized by the presence of many unusual minor bases, the function of which has not been completely established.
The cellular metabolic process in which a protein is formed, using the sequence of a mature mRNA or circRNA molecule to specify the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain. Translation is mediated by the ribosome, and begins with the formation of a ternary complex between aminoacylated initiator methionine tRNA, GTP, and initiation factor 2, which subsequently associates with the small subunit of the ribosome and an mRNA or circRNA. Translation ends with the release of a polypeptide chain from the ribosome.
The process preceding formation of the peptide bond between the first two amino acids of a protein. This includes the formation of a complex of the ribosome, mRNA or circRNA, and an initiation complex that contains the first aminoacyl-tRNA.
The successive addition of amino acid residues to a nascent polypeptide chain during protein biosynthesis.
The process resulting in the release of a polypeptide chain from the ribosome, usually in response to a termination codon (UAA, UAG, or UGA in the universal genetic code).
A glycoprotein biosynthetic process starting with the covalent linkage of carbohydrate or carbohydrate derivative unit via a glycosidic bond to the oxygen atom of a serine, threonine, hydroxylysine, hydroxyproline or tyrosine side chain in a protein, which can be further elongated with the sequential addition of sugar units resulting in the formation of a protein O-linked glycan.
protein amino acid O-linked glycosylation
The hydrolysis of proteins into smaller polypeptides and/or amino acids by cleavage of their peptide bonds.
This term was intentionally placed under 'protein metabolic process ; GO:0019538' rather than 'protein catabolic process ; GO:0030163' to cover all processes centered on breaking peptide bonds, including those involved in protein processing.
The chemical reactions and pathways involving amino acids, carboxylic acids containing one or more amino groups.
cellular amino acid and derivative metabolic process
The chemical reactions and pathways involving compounds derived from amino acids, organic acids containing one or more amino substituents.
cellular amino acid derivative metabolic process
cellular amino acid derivative metabolism
cellular modified amino acid metabolic process
The formation of either of the compounds secreted by the thyroid gland, mainly thyroxine and triiodothyronine. This is achieved by the iodination and joining of tyrosine molecules to form the precursor thyroglobin, proteolysis of this precursor gives rise to the thyroid hormones.
Note that this term does not fall under the general GO definition for biosynthetic processes, which is 'The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of... ', because thyroid hormones can only be formed by the proteolysis of a larger molecule (see term definition). The word 'generation' is therefore used in place of biosynthesis.
The chemical reactions and pathways involving lipids, compounds soluble in an organic solvent but not, or sparingly, in an aqueous solvent. Includes fatty acids; neutral fats, other fatty-acid esters, and soaps; long-chain (fatty) alcohols and waxes; sphingoids and other long-chain bases; glycolipids, phospholipids and sphingolipids; and carotenes, polyprenols, sterols, terpenes and other isoprenoids.
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of steroids, compounds with a 1,2,cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene nucleus; includes de novo formation and steroid interconversion by modification.
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of bile acids, any of a group of steroid carboxylic acids occurring in bile.
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of glucocorticoids, hormonal C21 corticosteroids synthesized from cholesterol.
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of mineralocorticoids, hormonal C21 corticosteroids synthesized from cholesterol.
The directed movement of substances (such as macromolecules, small molecules, ions) or cellular components (such as complexes and organelles) into, out of or within a cell, or between cells, or within a multicellular organism by means of some agent such as a transporter or a transporter complex, a pore or a motor protein.
Note that this term should not be used for direct annotation. It should be possible to make a more specific annotation to one of the children of this term, for e.g. to transmembrane transport, to microtubule-based transport or to vesicle-mediated transport.
The directed movement of a monoatomic ion into, out of or within a cell, or between cells, by means of some agent such as a transporter or pore. Monatomic ions (also called simple ions) are ions consisting of exactly one atom.
Transport of inorganic cations/anions and amino acids/oligopeptides
The directed movement of serotonin into, out of or within a cell, or between cells, by means of some agent such as a transporter or pore. Serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine) is a monoamine neurotransmitter occurring in the peripheral and central nervous systems.
The directed movement of lipids into, out of or within a cell, or between cells, by means of some agent such as a transporter or pore. Lipids are compounds soluble in an organic solvent but not, or sparingly, in an aqueous solvent.
A vesicle-mediated transport process in which cells take up external materials or membrane constituents by the invagination of a part of the plasma membrane to form a new membrane-bounded vesicle.
The evagination of a membrane, resulting in formation of a vesicle.
The process in which vesicles are directed to specific destination membranes. Targeting involves coordinated interactions among cytoskeletal elements (microtubules or actin filaments), motor proteins, molecules at the vesicle membrane and target membrane surfaces, and vesicle cargo.
A vesicle-mediated transport process that results in the engulfment of external particulate material by phagocytes and their delivery to the lysosome. The particles are initially contained within phagocytic vacuoles (phagosomes), which then fuse with primary lysosomes to effect digestion of the particles.
A programmed cell death process which begins when a cell receives an internal (e.g. DNA damage) or external signal (e.g. an extracellular death ligand), and proceeds through a series of biochemical events (signaling pathway phase) which trigger an execution phase. The execution phase is the last step of an apoptotic process, and is typically characterized by rounding-up of the cell, retraction of pseudopodes, reduction of cellular volume (pyknosis), chromatin condensation, nuclear fragmentation (karyorrhexis), plasma membrane blebbing and fragmentation of the cell into apoptotic bodies. When the execution phase is completed, the cell has died.
The breakdown of structures such as organelles, proteins, or other macromolecular structures during apoptosis.
cellular component disassembly involved in apoptotic process
cellular component disassembly involved in apoptosis
cellular component disassembly involved in execution phase of apoptosis
The directed movement of a motile cell or organism, or the directed growth of a cell guided by a specific chemical concentration gradient. Movement may be towards a higher concentration (positive chemotaxis) or towards a lower concentration (negative chemotaxis).
A process in which force is generated within muscle tissue, resulting in a change in muscle geometry. Force generation involves a chemo-mechanical energy conversion step that is carried out by the actin/myosin complex activity, which generates force through ATP hydrolysis.
A process in which force is generated within striated muscle tissue, resulting in the shortening of the muscle. Force generation involves a chemo-mechanical energy conversion step that is carried out by the actin/myosin complex activity, which generates force through ATP hydrolysis. Striated muscle is a type of muscle in which the repeating units (sarcomeres) of the contractile myofibrils are arranged in registry throughout the cell, resulting in transverse or oblique striations observable at the level of the light microscope.
The formation of a syncytium, a mass of cytoplasm containing several nuclei enclosed within a single plasma membrane. Syncytia are normally derived from single cells that fuse or fail to complete cell division.
Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell or an organism (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of a disturbance in organismal or cellular homeostasis, usually, but not necessarily, exogenous (e.g. temperature, humidity, ionizing radiation).
Reactions, triggered in response to the presence of a foreign body or the occurrence of an injury, which result in restriction of damage to the organism attacked or prevention/recovery from the infection caused by the attack.
The immediate defensive reaction (by vertebrate tissue) to infection or injury caused by chemical or physical agents. The process is characterized by local vasodilation, extravasation of plasma into intercellular spaces and accumulation of white blood cells and macrophages.
Any immune system process that functions in the calibrated response of an organism to a potential internal or invasive threat.
A process that is carried out at the cellular level which results in the assembly, arrangement of constituent parts, or disassembly of an organelle within a cell. An organelle is an organized structure of distinctive morphology and function. Includes the nucleus, mitochondria, plastids, vacuoles, vesicles, ribosomes and the cytoskeleton. Excludes the plasma membrane.
Note that this term is in the subset of terms that should not be used for direct gene product annotation. Instead, select a child term or, if no appropriate child term exists, please request a new term. Direct annotations to this term may be amended during annotation QC.
A process that is carried out at the cellular level which results in the assembly, arrangement of constituent parts, or disassembly of the nucleus.
A process that is carried out at the cellular level which results in the assembly, arrangement of constituent parts, or disassembly of the plasma membrane.
plasma membrane organization and biogenesis
A process that is carried out at the cellular level which results in the assembly, arrangement of constituent parts, or disassembly of cytoskeletal structures.
cytoskeletal organization and biogenesis
cytoskeleton organization and biogenesis
Any cellular process that depends upon or alters the microtubule cytoskeleton, that part of the cytoskeleton comprising microtubules and their associated proteins.
A microtubule-based process that results in the movement of organelles, other microtubules, or other cellular components. Examples include motor-driven movement along microtubules and movement driven by polymerization or depolymerization of microtubules.
The progression of biochemical and morphological phases and events that occur in a cell during successive cell replication or nuclear replication events. Canonically, the cell cycle comprises the replication and segregation of genetic material followed by the division of the cell, but in endocycles or syncytial cells nuclear replication or nuclear division may not be followed by cell division.
A mitotic cell cycle in which chromosomes are replicated and sister chromatids separate, but spindle formation, nuclear membrane breakdown and nuclear division do not occur, resulting in an increased number of chromosomes in the cell.
Note that this term should not be confused with 'abortive mitotic cell cycle ; GO:0033277'. Although abortive mitosis is sometimes called endomitosis, GO:0033277 refers to a process in which a mitotic spindle forms and chromosome separation begins.
The second nuclear division of meiosis, in which the two chromatids in each chromosome are separated, resulting in four daughter nuclei from the two nuclei produced in meiosis II.
A cell cycle process by which the cell nucleus divides as part of a meiotic cell cycle in the male germline.
A cell cycle process comprising the steps by which a cell progresses through male meiosis II, the second meiotic division in the male germline.
A cell cycle process by which the cell nucleus divides as part of a meiotic cell cycle in the female germline.
Note that female germ lines can be found in female or hermaphroditic organisms, so this term can be used to annotate gene products from hermaphrodites such as those of C. elegans. See also the biological process term 'meiotic nuclear division; GO:0140013'.
Any process that mediates interactions between a cell and its surroundings. Encompasses interactions such as signaling or attachment between one cell and another cell, between a cell and an extracellular matrix, or between a cell and any other aspect of its environment.
The cellular process in which a signal is conveyed to trigger a change in the activity or state of a cell. Signal transduction begins with reception of a signal (e.g. a ligand binding to a receptor or receptor activation by a stimulus such as light), or for signal transduction in the absence of ligand, signal-withdrawal or the activity of a constitutively active receptor. Signal transduction ends with regulation of a downstream cellular process, e.g. regulation of transcription or regulation of a metabolic process. Signal transduction covers signaling from receptors located on the surface of the cell and signaling via molecules located within the cell. For signaling between cells, signal transduction is restricted to events at and within the receiving cell.
Note that signal transduction is defined broadly to include a ligand interacting with a receptor, downstream signaling steps and a response being triggered. A change in form of the signal in every step is not necessary. Note that in many cases the end of this process is regulation of the initiation of transcription. Note that specific transcription factors may be annotated to this term, but core/general transcription machinery such as RNA polymerase should not.
EGFR interacts with phospholipase C-gamma
The series of molecular signals initiated by a ligand binding to its receptor, in which the activated receptor promotes the exchange of GDP for GTP on the alpha-subunit of an associated heterotrimeric G-protein complex. The GTP-bound activated alpha-G-protein then dissociates from the beta- and gamma-subunits to further transmit the signal within the cell. The pathway begins with receptor-ligand interaction, and ends with regulation of a downstream cellular process. The pathway can start from the plasma membrane, Golgi or nuclear membrane.
G protein coupled receptor protein signaling pathway
G protein coupled receptor protein signalling pathway
G-protein coupled receptor protein signal transduction
G-protein coupled receptor protein signaling pathway
G-protein coupled receptor signalling pathway
G-protein-coupled receptor protein signalling pathway
G-protein coupled receptor signaling pathway via GPCR dimer
dimeric G-protein coupled receptor signaling pathway
dimeric G-protein coupled receptor signalling pathway
G protein-coupled receptor signaling pathway
Any process that mediates the transfer of information from one cell to another. This process includes signal transduction in the receiving cell and, where applicable, release of a ligand and any processes that actively facilitate its transport and presentation to the receiving cell. Examples include signaling via soluble ligands, via cell adhesion molecules and via gap junctions.
The vesicular release of classical neurotransmitter molecules from a presynapse, across a chemical synapse, the subsequent activation of neurotransmitter receptors at the postsynapse of a target cell (neuron, muscle, or secretory cell) and the effects of this activation on the postsynaptic membrane potential and ionic composition of the postsynaptic cytosol. This process encompasses both spontaneous and evoked release of neurotransmitter and all parts of synaptic vesicle exocytosis. Evoked transmission starts with the arrival of an action potential at the presynapse.
CREB1 phosphorylation through the activation of Adenylate Cyclase
CREB1 phosphorylation through the activation of CaMKII/CaMKK/CaMKIV cascasde
CREB1 phosphorylation through NMDA receptor-mediated activation of RAS signaling
Activation of Na-permeable kainate receptors
Activation of Ca-permeable Kainate Receptor
The biological process whose specific outcome is the progression of a multicellular organism over time from an initial condition (e.g. a zygote or a young adult) to a later condition (e.g. a multicellular animal or an aged adult).
Note that this term was 'developmental process'.
The generation and maintenance of gametes in a multicellular organism. A gamete is a haploid reproductive cell.
The process whose specific outcome is the progression of an immature germ cell over time, from its formation to the mature structure (gamete). A germ cell is any reproductive cell in a multicellular organism.
The developmental process by which male germ line stem cells self renew or give rise to successive cell types resulting in the development of a spermatozoa.
The process whose specific outcome is the progression of a spermatid over time, from its formation to the mature structure.
The assembly and organization of the sperm flagellar axoneme, the bundle of microtubules and associated proteins that forms the core of the eukaryotic sperm flagellum, and is responsible for movement.
The specialization of the spermatid nucleus during the development of a spermatid into a mature male gamete competent for fertilization.
See also the Cell Ontology term 'spermatid ; CL:0000018'.
Generation of the female gamete; specialised haploid cells produced by meiosis and along with a male gamete takes part in sexual reproduction.
The introduction of semen or sperm into the genital tract of a female.
A complex and coordinated series of cellular movements that occurs at the end of cleavage during embryonic development of most animals. The details of gastrulation vary from species to species, but usually result in the formation of the three primary germ layers, ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm.
The process whose specific outcome is the progression of the ectoderm over time, from its formation to the mature structure. In animal embryos, the ectoderm is the outer germ layer of the embryo, formed during gastrulation.
The process whose specific outcome is the progression of nervous tissue over time, from its formation to its mature state.
The process whose specific outcome is the progression of the endoderm over time, from its formation to the mature structure. The endoderm is the innermost germ layer that develops into the gastrointestinal tract, the lungs and associated tissues.
The process whose specific outcome is the progression of the mesoderm over time, from its formation to the mature structure. The mesoderm is the middle germ layer that develops into muscle, bone, cartilage, blood and connective tissue.
The set of physiological processes that allow an embryo or foetus to develop within the body of a female animal. It covers the time from fertilization of a female ovum by a male spermatozoon until birth.
The process of gaseous exchange between an organism and its environment. In plants, microorganisms, and many small animals, air or water makes direct contact with the organism's cells or tissue fluids, and the processes of diffusion supply the organism with dioxygen (O2) and remove carbon dioxide (CO2). In larger animals the efficiency of gaseous exchange is improved by specialized respiratory organs, such as lungs and gills, which are ventilated by breathing mechanisms.
respiratory gaseous exchange by respiratory system
The whole of the physical, chemical, and biochemical processes carried out by multicellular organisms to break down ingested nutrients into components that may be easily absorbed and directed into metabolism.
The elimination by an organism of the waste products that arise as a result of metabolic activity. These products include water, carbon dioxide (CO2), and nitrogenous compounds.
The controlled release of a fluid by a cell or tissue in an animal.
The regulated release of milk from the mammary glands and the period of time that a mother lactates to feed her young.
The sequential process in which the multiple coagulation factors of the blood interact, ultimately resulting in the formation of an insoluble fibrin clot; it may be divided into three stages: stage 1, the formation of intrinsic and extrinsic prothrombin converting principle; stage 2, the formation of thrombin; stage 3, the formation of stable fibrin polymers.
The stopping of bleeding (loss of body fluid) or the arrest of the circulation to an organ or part.
The series of events required for an organism to receive a sensory stimulus, convert it to a molecular signal, and recognize and characterize the signal. This is a neurological process.
The series of events required for an organism to receive a visual stimulus, convert it to a molecular signal, and recognize and characterize the signal. Visual stimuli are detected in the form of photons and are processed to form an image.
The series of events required for an organism to receive an auditory stimulus, convert it to a molecular signal, and recognize and characterize the signal. Sonic stimuli are detected in the form of vibrations and are processed to form a sound.
The series of events required for an organism to receive a sensory chemical stimulus, convert it to a molecular signal, and recognize and characterize the signal. This is a neurological process.
The series of events required for an organism to receive an olfactory stimulus, convert it to a molecular signal, and recognize and characterize the signal. Olfaction involves the detection of chemical composition of an organism's ambient medium by chemoreceptors. This is a neurological process.
The internally coordinated responses (actions or inactions) of animals (individuals or groups) to internal or external stimuli, via a mechanism that involves nervous system activity.
1. Note that this term is in the subset of terms that should not be used for direct gene product annotation. Instead, select a child term or, if no appropriate child term exists, please request a new term. Direct annotations to this term may be amended during annotation reviews. 2. While a broader definition of behavior encompassing plants and single cell organisms would be justified on the basis of some usage (see PMID:20160973 for discussion), GO uses a tight definition that limits behavior to animals and to responses involving the nervous system, excluding plant responses that GO classifies under development, and responses of unicellular organisms that has general classifications for covering the responses of cells in multicellular organisms (e.g. cell chemotaxis).
The acquisition and processing of information and/or the storage and retrieval of this information over time.
The activities involved in the mental information processing system that receives (registers), modifies, stores, and retrieves informational stimuli. The main stages involved in the formation and retrieval of memory are encoding (processing of received information by acquisition), storage (building a permanent record of received information as a result of consolidation) and retrieval (calling back the stored information and use it in a suitable way to execute a given task).
The behavioral interactions between organisms for the purpose of mating, or sexual reproduction resulting in the formation of zygotes.
The act of sexual union between male and female, involving the transfer of sperm.
The flow of blood through the body of an animal, enabling the transport of nutrients to the tissues and the removal of waste products.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of heart contraction. Heart contraction is the process in which the heart decreases in volume in a characteristic way to propel blood through the body.
Any process in which a protein is transported to, or maintained in, a specific location.
establishment and maintenance of asymmetric protein localization
establishment and maintenance of protein localization
A biological process is the execution of a genetically-encoded biological module or program. It consists of all the steps required to achieve the specific biological objective of the module. A biological process is accomplished by a particular set of molecular functions carried out by specific gene products (or macromolecular complexes), often in a highly regulated manner and in a particular temporal sequence.
Note that, in addition to forming the root of the biological process ontology, this term is recommended for the annotation of gene products whose biological process is unknown. When this term is used for annotation, it indicates that no information was available about the biological process of the gene product annotated as of the date the annotation was made; the evidence code 'no data' (ND), is used to indicate this.
A cellular process consisting of the biochemical pathways by which a living organism transforms chemical substances. This includes including anabolism (biosynthetic process) and catabolism (catabolic process). Metabolic processes includes the transformation of small molecules, as well macromolecular processes such as DNA repair and replication, protein synthesis and degradation.
Note that metabolic processes do not include single functions or processes such as protein-protein interactions, protein-nucleic acids, nor receptor-ligand interactions.
The chemical reactions and pathways involving steroids, compounds with a 1,2,cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene nucleus.
The chemical reactions and pathways involving bile acids, a group of steroid carboxylic acids occurring in bile, where they are present as the sodium salts of their amides with glycine or taurine.
The chemical reactions and pathways involving glucocorticoids, hormonal C21 corticosteroids synthesized from cholesterol. Glucocorticoids act primarily on carbohydrate and protein metabolism, and have anti-inflammatory effects.
The chemical reactions and pathways involving mineralocorticoids, hormonal C21 corticosteroids synthesized from cholesterol. Mineralocorticoids act primarily on water and electrolyte balance.
Any process that modulates the force with which blood travels through the circulatory system. The process is controlled by a balance of processes that increase pressure and decrease pressure.
Any biological process that results in permanent cessation of all vital functions of a cell. A cell should be considered dead when any one of the following molecular or morphological criteria is met: (1) the cell has lost the integrity of its plasma membrane; (2) the cell, including its nucleus, has undergone complete fragmentation into discrete bodies (frequently referred to as apoptotic bodies). The cell corpse (or its fragments) may be engulfed by an adjacent cell in vivo, but engulfment of whole cells should not be considered a strict criteria to define cell death as, under some circumstances, live engulfed cells can be released from phagosomes (see PMID:18045538).
This term should not be used for direct annotation, it is currently kept in GO as a placeholder for describing cell death phenotypes in uPHENO. When information is provided on a programmed cell death mechanism, annotations should be made to the appropriate descendant of 'cell death' (such as, but not limited to, GO:0097300 'programmed necrotic cell death' or GO:0006915 'apoptotic process'). Unintentional cell death, i.e. cell death caused by injury, ageing, or cell phenotypes observed as a result of a pathological mutation in an essential gene should NOT be annotated using GO terms.
The multiplication or reproduction of cells, resulting in the expansion of a cell population.
This term was moved out from being a child of 'cellular process' because it is a cell population-level process, and cellular processes are restricted to those processes that involve individual cells. Also note that this term is intended to be used for the proliferation of cells within a multicellular organism, not for the expansion of a population of single-celled organisms.
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of lipids, compounds soluble in an organic solvent but not, or sparingly, in an aqueous solvent.
The directed movement of carbohydrate into, out of or within a cell, or between cells, by means of some agent such as a transporter or pore. Carbohydrates are a group of organic compounds based of the general formula Cx(H2O)y.
The process in which hexose is transported across a membrane. Hexoses are aldoses with a chain of six carbon atoms in the molecule.
Note that this term is not intended for use in annotating lateral movement within membranes.
A cellular process consisting of the biochemical pathways by which a living organism breaks down substances. This includes the breakdown of carbon compounds with the liberation of energy for use by the cell or organism.
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of a macromolecule, any molecule of high relative molecular mass, the structure of which essentially comprises the multiple repetition of units derived, actually or conceptually, from molecules of low relative molecular mass.
multicellular organismal macromolecule catabolic process
cellular macromolecule catabolic process
A cellular process consisting of the biochemical pathways by which a living organism synthesizes chemical substances. This typically represents the energy-requiring part of metabolism in which simpler substances are transformed into more complex ones.
multicellular organismal biosynthetic process
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of a macromolecule, any molecule of high relative molecular mass, the structure of which essentially comprises the multiple repetition of units derived, actually or conceptually, from molecules of low relative molecular mass.
The chemical reactions and pathways involving glycoproteins, a protein that contains covalently bound glycose (i.e. monosaccharide) residues; the glycose occurs most commonly as oligosaccharide or fairly small polysaccharide but occasionally as monosaccharide.
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of glycoproteins, a protein that contains covalently bound glycose (i.e. monosaccharide) residues; the glycose occurs most commonly as oligosaccharide or fairly small polysaccharide but occasionally as monosaccharide.
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of glucans, polysaccharides consisting only of glucose residues.
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of glucans, polysaccharides consisting only of glucose residues.
The controlled release of proteins from a cell.
protein secretion during cell fate commitment
protein secretion resulting in cell fate commitment
Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell or an organism (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of an electromagnetic radiation stimulus. Electromagnetic radiation is a propagating wave in space with electric and magnetic components. These components oscillate at right angles to each other and to the direction of propagation.
response to electromagnetic radiation stimulus
Note that 'radiation' refers to electromagnetic radiation of any wavelength.
Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell or an organism (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of a light stimulus, electromagnetic radiation of wavelengths classified as infrared, visible or ultraviolet light.
The union of gametes of opposite sexes during the process of sexual reproduction to form a zygote. It involves the fusion of the gametic nuclei (karyogamy) and cytoplasm (plasmogamy).
The series of events in which an external stimulus is received by a cell and converted into a molecular signal.
The series of events in which an (non-living) abiotic stimulus is received by a cell and converted into a molecular signal.
The series of events in which a light stimulus (in the form of photons) is received and converted into a molecular signal.
The series of events in which a visible light stimulus is received by a cell and converted into a molecular signal. A visible light stimulus is electromagnetic radiation that can be perceived visually by an organism; for organisms lacking a visual system, this can be defined as light with a wavelength within the range 380 to 780 nm.
The series of events in which a chemical stimulus is received by a cell and converted into a molecular signal.
Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell or an organism (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of an external stimulus.
Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell or an organism (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of a biotic stimulus, a stimulus caused or produced by a living organism.
Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell or an organism (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of a stimulus indicating damage to the organism.
Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell or an organism (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of a mechanical stimulus.
Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell or an organism (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of an abiotic (not derived from living organisms) stimulus.
Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell or an organism (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of a toxic stimulus.
The process in which anatomical structures are generated and organized. Morphogenesis pertains to the creation of form.
The process whose specific outcome is the progression of an embryo from its formation until the end of its embryonic life stage. The end of the embryonic stage is organism-specific. For example, for mammals, the process would begin with zygote formation and end with birth. For insects, the process would begin at zygote formation and end with larval hatching. For plant zygotic embryos, this would be from zygote formation to the end of seed dormancy. For plant vegetative embryos, this would be from the initial determination of the cell or group of cells to form an embryo until the point when the embryo becomes independent of the parent plant.
Activation of HOX genes during differentiation
The process whose specific outcome is the progression of the organism over time, from the completion of embryonic development to the mature structure. See embryonic development.
The process whose specific outcome is the progression of an embryo over time, from zygote formation until the end of the embryonic life stage. The end of the embryonic life stage is organism-specific and may be somewhat arbitrary; for mammals it is usually considered to be birth, for insects the hatching of the first instar larva from the eggshell.
embryo development ending in birth or egg hatching
Morphogenesis of an animal organ. An organ is defined as a tissue or set of tissues that work together to perform a specific function or functions. Morphogenesis is the process in which anatomical structures are generated and organized. Organs are commonly observed as visibly distinct structures, but may also exist as loosely associated clusters of cells that work together to perform a specific function or functions.
The process whose specific outcome is the progression of a tissue over time, from its formation to the mature structure.
The directed movement of hormones into, out of or within a cell, or between cells, by means of some agent such as a transporter or pore.
Any process that is carried out at the cellular level, but not necessarily restricted to a single cell. For example, cell communication occurs among more than one cell, but occurs at the cellular level.
This term should not be used for direct annotation. It should be possible to make a more specific annotation to one of the children of this term.
A process that is carried out at the cellular level which results in the assembly, arrangement of constituent parts, or disassembly of the endomembrane system.
The multiplication or reproduction of cells, resulting in the expansion of a mesenchymal cell population. A mesenchymal cell is a cell that normally gives rise to other cells that are organized as three-dimensional masses, rather than sheets.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of mesenchymal cell proliferation. A mesenchymal cell is a cell that normally gives rise to other cells that are organized as three-dimensional masses, rather than sheets.
regulation of mesenchymal cell proliferation
The process in which a gene's sequence is converted into a mature gene product (protein or RNA). This includes the production of an RNA transcript and its processing, as well as translation and maturation for protein-coding genes.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of cell communication. Cell communication is the process that mediates interactions between a cell and its surroundings. Encompasses interactions such as signaling or attachment between one cell and another cell, between a cell and an extracellular matrix, or between a cell and any other aspect of its environment.
Any process that modulates the levels of hormone within an organism or a tissue. A hormone is any substance formed in very small amounts in one specialized organ or group of cells and carried (sometimes in the bloodstream) to another organ or group of cells in the same organism, upon which it has a specific regulatory action.
Any process in which a lipid is transported to, or maintained in, a specific location.
The cellular component assembly that is part of the initial shaping of the component during its developmental progression.
cellular component assembly involved in morphogenesis
The movement of organelles or other particles from one location in the cell to another along microtubules, driven by motor activity.
establishment of localization by movement along microtubule
A process which begins when a cell receives an internal or external signal and activates a series of biochemical events (signaling pathway). The process ends with the death of the cell.
Note that this term should be used to annotate gene products in the organism undergoing the programmed cell death. To annotate genes in another organism whose products modulate programmed cell death in a host organism, consider the term 'modulation by symbiont of host programmed cell death ; GO:0052040'. Also, note that 'programmed cell death ; GO:0012501' should be used to refer to instances of caspase-independent cell death mechanisms, in the absence of further indications on the process taking place. At present, caspase-independent cell death is not yet represented in GO due to the lack of consensus and in-depth research on the topic. 'programmed cell death ; GO:0012501' may also be used to annotate gene products in taxa where apoptosis as defined in GO:0006915 does not occur, such as plants. You may also consider these specific children: GO:0097468 'programmed cell death in response to reactive oxygen species' (with descendants GO:0010421 'hydrogen peroxide-mediated programmed cell death' and GO:0010343 'singlet oxygen-mediated programmed cell death'), and GO:0009626 'plant-type hypersensitive response' and its children.
A collection of membranous structures involved in transport within the cell. The main components of the endomembrane system are endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi bodies, vesicles, cell membrane and nuclear envelope. Members of the endomembrane system pass materials through each other or though the use of vesicles.
The lipid bilayer surrounding any membrane-bounded vesicle in the cell.
The directed movement of proteins into, out of or within a cell, or between cells, by means of some agent such as a transporter or pore.
Enables the transfer of bicarbonate from one side of a membrane to the other. Bicarbonate is the hydrogencarbonate ion, HCO3-.
hydrogencarbonate transmembrane transporter activity
bicarbonate transmembrane transporter activity
BESTs transport cytosolic HCO3- to extracellular region
The part of the cytoskeleton (the internal framework of a cell) composed of actin and associated proteins. Includes actin cytoskeleton-associated complexes.
The directed movement of substances that are gaseous in normal living conditions into, out of or within a cell, or between cells, by means of some agent such as a transporter or pore.
The directed movement of oxygen (O2) into, out of or within a cell, or between cells, by means of some agent such as a transporter or pore.
The directed movement of bicarbonate into, out of or within a cell, or between cells, by means of some agent such as a transporter or pore.
The directed movement of organic anions into, out of or within a cell, or between cells, by means of some agent such as a transporter or pore. Organic anions are atoms or small molecules with a negative charge which contain carbon in covalent linkage.
The directed movement of monocarboxylic acids into, out of or within a cell, or between cells, by means of some agent such as a transporter or pore.
The directed movement of bile acid and bile salts into, out of or within a cell, or between cells, by means of some agent such as a transporter or pore.
The process in which a monosaccharide is transported across a lipid bilayer, from one side of a membrane to the other. Monosaccharides are the simplest carbohydrates; they are polyhydric alcohols containing either an aldehyde or a keto group and between three to ten or more carbon atoms. They form the constitutional repeating units of oligo- and polysaccharides.
The directed movement of peptides, compounds of two or more amino acids where the alpha carboxyl group of one is bound to the alpha amino group of another, into, out of or within a cell, or between cells, by means of some agent such as a transporter or pore.
The directed movement of monoamines, organic compounds that contain one amino group that is connected to an aromatic ring by an ethylene group (-CH2-CH2-), into, out of or within a cell, or between cells, by means of some agent such as a transporter or pore.
The directed movement of organic acids, any acidic compound containing carbon in covalent linkage, into, out of or within a cell, or between cells, by means of some agent such as a transporter or pore.
The directed movement of an organic hydroxy compound (organic alcohol) into, out of or within a cell, or between cells, by means of some agent such as a transporter or pore. An organic hydroxy compound is an organic compound having at least one hydroxy group attached to a carbon atom.
The chemical reactions and pathways by which a cell derives energy from organic compounds; results in the oxidation of the compounds from which energy is released.
energy derivation by oxidation of organic compounds
A lipid bilayer along with all the proteins and protein complexes embedded in it and attached to it.
A process that results in the assembly, arrangement of constituent parts, or disassembly of a cellular component.
cellular component organisation at cellular level
cellular component organisation in other organism
cellular component organization at cellular level
cellular component organization in other organism
A process that is carried out at the cellular level which results in the assembly, arrangement of constituent parts, or disassembly of a vesicle.
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of carbohydrates, any of a group of organic compounds based of the general formula Cx(H2O)y.
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the breakdown of carbohydrates, any of a group of organic compounds based of the general formula Cx(H2O)y.
catabolic carbohydrate metabolic process
multicellular organismal carbohydrate catabolic process
single-organism carbohydrate catabolic process
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of organic acids, any acidic compound containing carbon in covalent linkage.
An immune response mediated by immunoglobulins, whether cell-bound or in solution.
The cellular chemical reactions and pathways involving RNA, ribonucleic acid, one of the two main type of nucleic acid, consisting of a long, unbranched macromolecule formed from ribonucleotides joined in 3',5'-phosphodiester linkage.
A cellular transport process in which transported substances are moved in membrane-bounded vesicles; transported substances are enclosed in the vesicle lumen or located in the vesicle membrane. The process begins with a step that directs a substance to the forming vesicle, and includes vesicle budding and coating. Vesicles are then targeted to, and fuse with, an acceptor membrane.
The process in which the anatomical structures of embryonic epithelia are generated and organized.
Recombination occurring within or between DNA molecules in somatic cells.
The somatic process that results in the generation of sequence diversity of immunoglobulins.
somatic diversification of immunoglobulins
The process in which immunoglobulin genes are formed through recombination of the germline genetic elements, as known as immunoglobulin gene segments, within a single locus.
somatic recombination of antibody gene segments
somatic recombination of immunoglobulin gene segments
The controlled self-propelled movement of a cell from one site to a destination guided by molecular cues.
Any protein maturation process achieved by the cleavage of a peptide bond or bonds within a protein. Protein maturation is the process leading to the attainment of the full functional capacity of a protein.
protein maturation by peptide bond cleavage
protein maturation by peptide bond hydrolysis
Catalysis of the transfer of a group, e.g. a methyl group, glycosyl group, acyl group, phosphorus-containing, or other groups, from one compound (generally regarded as the donor) to another compound (generally regarded as the acceptor). Transferase is the systematic name for any enzyme of EC class 2.
GSSeH combines with bGalNAc derivative to form GSSebGalNac
TRAF2 ubiquitinates cIAP1,2 in cIAP1,2:TRAF1:TRAF2:TRAF3:NIK
TSR3 transfers aminocarboxypropyl group from S-adenosylmethionine to N(1)-methylpseudouridine-1248 of 18SE rRNA yielding N(1)-methyl-N(3)-aminocarboxypropylpseudouridine-1248
Catalysis of the transfer of an acyl group from one compound (donor) to another (acceptor).
transferase activity, transferring acyl groups
Cytosolic chenodeoxycholoyl-CoA or choloyl-CoA are conjugated with glycine or taurine
Choloyl CoA reacts with glycine or taurine to form glycocholate or taurocholate
Chenodeoxycholoyl CoA reacts with glycine or taurine to form glycochenodeoxycholate or taurochenodeoxycholate
HRASLS transfer acyl group from PC to PE to form NAPE
Catalysis of the transfer of an amino-acyl group from one compound (donor) to another (acceptor).
transferase activity, transferring amino-acyl groups
The self-renewing division of a stem cell. A stem cell is an undifferentiated cell, in the embryo or adult, that can undergo unlimited division and give rise to one or several different cell types.
The chemical reactions and pathways involving a phenol, any compound containing one or more hydroxyl groups directly attached to an aromatic carbon ring.
Note that phenol metabolism is not included as a child of 'xenobiotic metabolism' because although it is synthesized industrially, phenol is also found naturally in animal wastes and other organic materials. It is often formed by the activity of microorganisms, which can chemically modify a variety of xenobiotic and naturally occurring phenolic compounds.
phenol-containing compound metabolic process
The specific behavior of an organism that is associated with reproduction.
reproductive behavior in a multicellular organism
multicellular organism reproductive behavior
The neurological system process in which a signal is transmitted through the nervous system by a combination of action potential propagation and synaptic transmission.
The chemical reactions and pathways involving a protein. Includes protein modification.
protein metabolic process and modification
multicellular organismal protein metabolic process
Any process involved with the carrying out of an immune response by a B cell, through, for instance, the production of antibodies or cytokines, or antigen presentation to T cells.
B lymphocyte mediated immune effector process
B-lymphocyte mediated immune effector process
The chemical reactions and pathways involving carboxylic acids, any organic acid containing one or more carboxyl (COOH) groups or anions (COO-).
Glyoxylate metabolism and glycine degradation
A protein complex that in its canonical form is composed of two identical immunoglobulin heavy chains and two identical immunoglobulin light chains, held together by disulfide bonds and sometimes complexed with additional proteins. An immunoglobulin complex may be embedded in the plasma membrane or present in the extracellular space, in mucosal areas or other tissues, or circulating in the blood or lymph.
Note that an immunoglobulin complex has the function of antigen binding if a suitable antigen is available.
An immunoglobulin complex that is present in the plasma membrane of B cells and that in its canonical form is composed of two identical immunoglobulin heavy chains and two identical immunoglobulin light chains and a signaling subunit, a heterodimer of the Ig-alpha and Ig-beta proteins.
B cell receptor accessory molecule complex
The process in which an antigen-presenting cell expresses antigen (peptide or lipid) on its cell surface in association with an MHC protein complex.
A type of reproduction that combines the genetic material of two gametes (such as a sperm or egg cell or fungal spores). The gametes have an haploid genome (with a single set of chromosomes, the product of a meiotic division) and combines with one another to produce a zygote (diploid).
Note that gametes may come from two organisms or from a single organism in the case of self-fertilizing hermaphrodites, e.g. C. elegans, or self-fertilization in plants. Note also that sexual reproduction may be seen as the regular alternation, in the life cycle of haplontic, diplontic and diplohaplontic organisms, of meiosis and fertilization which provides for the production offspring. In diplontic organisms there is a life cycle in which the products of meiosis behave directly as gametes, fusing to form a zygote from which the diploid, or sexually reproductive polyploid, adult organism will develop. In diplohaplontic organisms a haploid phase (gametophyte) exists in the life cycle between meiosis and fertilization (e.g. higher plants, many algae and Fungi); the products of meiosis are spores that develop as haploid individuals from which haploid gametes develop to form a diploid zygote; diplohaplontic organisms show an alternation of haploid and diploid generations. In haplontic organisms meiosis occurs in the zygote, giving rise to four haploid cells (e.g. many algae and protozoa), only the zygote is diploid and this may form a resistant spore, tiding organisms over hard times.
A developmental process, independent of morphogenetic (shape) change, that is required for an anatomical structure, cell or cellular component to attain its fully functional state.
The process whose specific outcome is the progression of the neural tube over time, from its formation to the mature structure. The mature structure of the neural tube exists when the tube has been segmented into the forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain and spinal cord regions. In addition neural crest has budded away from the epithelium.
The cellular process that ensures successive accurate and complete genome replication and chromosome segregation.
The initial attachment of a membrane or protein to a target membrane. Docking requires only that the proteins come close enough to interact and adhere.
A cellular process that results in the breakdown of a cellular component.
cellular component disassembly at cellular level
A process, occurring at the cellular level, that is involved in the reproductive function of a multicellular organism.
reproductive cellular process in multicellular organism
cellular process involved in reproduction in multicellular organism
A biological process that directly contributes to the process of producing new individuals by one or two organisms. The new individuals inherit some proportion of their genetic material from the parent or parents.
A physical, chemical, or biochemical process carried out by living organisms to break down ingested nutrients into components that may be easily absorbed and directed into metabolism.
The aggregation, arrangement and bonding together of a cellular component.
cellular component assembly at cellular level
A cellular process that results in the biosynthesis of constituent macromolecules, assembly, and arrangement of constituent parts of a complex containing RNA and proteins. Includes the biosynthesis of the constituent RNA and protein molecules, and those macromolecular modifications that are involved in synthesis or assembly of the ribonucleoprotein complex.
ribonucleoprotein complex biogenesis and assembly
The aggregation, arrangement and bonding together of proteins and RNA molecules to form a ribonucleoprotein complex.
Enables the transfer of a substance, usually a specific substance or a group of related substances, from one side of a membrane to the other.
substrate-specific transmembrane transporter activity
uptake transmembrane transporter activity
Egress of internalized antigen to the cytosol via sec61
Defective SLC2A9 does not transport Fru, Glc, urate
Fe3+ dissociates from SLC22A17:LCN2:2,5DHBA
An unknown carrier transports cytosolic glyoxylate to the peroxisome
An unknown carrier transports mitochondrial glyoxylate to the cytosol
NAASP translocates from mitochondrial matrix to cytosol
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of a signaling process.
The entirety of a process in which information is transmitted within a biological system. This process begins with an active signal and ends when a cellular response has been triggered.
Note that a signal is any variable property or parameter that serves to convey information, and may be a physical entity such as a gene product or small molecule, a photon, or a change in state such as movement or voltage change.
The process in which a signal is secreted or discharged into the extracellular medium from a cellular source.
The contractile element of skeletal and cardiac muscle; a long, highly organized bundle of actin, myosin, and other proteins that contracts by a sliding filament mechanism.
The repeating unit of a myofibril in a muscle cell, composed of an array of overlapping thick and thin filaments between two adjacent Z discs.
A process that is carried out at the cellular level which results in the assembly, arrangement of constituent parts, or disassembly of a prolongation or process extending from a cell, e.g. a flagellum or axon.
cell projection organization and biogenesis
cell surface structure organization and biogenesis
Formation of a prolongation or process extending from a cell, e.g. a flagellum or axon.
A cellular component that forms a specialized region of connection between two or more cells, or between a cell and the extracellular matrix, or between two membrane-bound components of a cell, such as flagella.
The regulated release of a peptide hormone from a cell.
The regulated release of proinsulin from secretory granules accompanied by cleavage of proinsulin to form mature insulin. In vertebrates, insulin is secreted from B granules in the B cells of the vertebrate pancreas and from insulin-producing cells in insects.
The process whose specific outcome is the progression of the myeloid and lymphoid derived organ/tissue systems of the blood and other parts of the body over time, from formation to the mature structure. The site of hemopoiesis is variable during development, but occurs primarily in bone marrow or kidney in many adult vertebrates.
The process in which a relatively unspecialized precursor cell acquires specialized features of a lymphocyte. A lymphocyte is a leukocyte commonly found in the blood and lymph that has the characteristics of a large nucleus, a neutral staining cytoplasm, and prominent heterochromatin.
The process in which a relatively unspecialized myeloid precursor cell acquires the specialized features of any cell of the myeloid leukocyte, megakaryocyte, thrombocyte, or erythrocyte lineages.
The regulated release of vasopressin from secretory granules into the blood.
A small subcellular vesicle, surrounded by a membrane, that is formed from the Golgi apparatus and contains a highly concentrated protein destined for secretion. Secretory granules move towards the periphery of the cell and upon stimulation, their membranes fuse with the cell membrane, and their protein load is exteriorized. Processing of the contained protein may take place in secretory granules.
Note that the term 'secretory vesicle' is sometimes used in this sense, but can also mean 'transport vesicle ; GO:0030133'.
The cellular developmental process in which a relatively unspecialized cell, e.g. embryonic or regenerative cell, acquires specialized structural and/or functional features that characterize a specific cell. Differentiation includes the processes involved in commitment of a cell to a specific fate and its subsequent development to the mature state.
The process in which a precursor cell type acquires the specialized features of a B cell. A B cell is a lymphocyte of B lineage with the phenotype CD19-positive and capable of B cell mediated immunity.
The chemical reactions and pathways involving melatonin (N-acetyl-5-methoxytryptamine).
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of melatonin (N-acetyl-5-methoxytryptamine).
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of blood coagulation.
Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of blood coagulation.
negative regulation of blood coagulation
The chemical reactions and pathways involving heparin proteoglycans, which consist of a core protein linked to a heparin glycosaminoglycan. The heparin chain is composed of the repeating disaccharide unit beta-(1,4)-N-acetyl-D-glucosamine-alpha-(1,4)-hexuronic acid, the former being either sulfated or deacetylated on its amino group as well as sulfated on one of its hydroxyl groups, and the latter being e a mixture of sulfated and nonsulfated D-glucuronic and L-iduronic acids. Heparin is similar to heparan sulfate but it contains more N-sulfate and O-sulfate groups. Heparin proteoglycans are stored selectively in the secretory granules of mammalian mast cells.
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of heparin proteoglycans, which consist of a core protein linked to a heparin glycosaminoglycan. The heparin chain is composed of the repeating disaccharide unit beta-(1,4)-N-acetyl-D-glucosamine-alpha-(1,4)-hexuronic acid, the former being either sulfated or deacetylated on its amino group as well as sulfated on one of its hydroxyl groups, and the latter being a mixture of sulfated and nonsulfated D-glucuronic and L-iduronic acids. Heparin is similar to heparan sulfate but it contains more N-sulfate and O-sulfate groups. Heparin chains are covalently linked to serine/threonine residues (O-linked) of the core protein via a tetrasaccharide linker sequence (xylose-galactose-galactose-glucuronate).
heparin proteoglycan biosynthetic process
The process in which a precursor cell type acquires characteristics of a more mature T-cell. A T cell is a type of lymphocyte whose definin characteristic is the expression of a T cell receptor complex.
Note that the term 'thymocyte differentiation' was merged into this term because thymocytes are T cells, and thus the term was essentially redundant. Note that immunologists typically use the word 'development' to refer to cells of B or T cell lineages undergoing the process that GO describes as 'cell differentiation'.
The process in which a myeloid precursor cell acquires specializes features of an erythrocyte.
The process in which a myeloid precursor cell acquires specializes features of a megakaryocyte.
The process in which a relatively unspecialized myeloid precursor cell acquires specialized features of a basophil cell.
The process in which a relatively unspecialized monocyte acquires the specialized features of a macrophage.
The regulated release of growth hormone from secretory granules into the blood.
The progressive compaction of dispersed interphase chromatin into threadlike chromosomes prior to mitotic or meiotic nuclear division, or during apoptosis, in eukaryotic cells.
Alterations undergone by nuclei at the molecular and morphological level as part of the execution phase of apoptosis.
The compaction of chromatin during apoptosis.
A structure that lies outside the plasma membrane and surrounds the entire cell or cells. This does not include the periplasmic space.
The outer membrane (of gram negative bacteria) or cell wall (of yeast or Gram positive bacteria) are defined as parts of this structure, see 'external encapsulating structure part'.
The directed, self-propelled movement of a cilium (aka flagellum) that contributes to the movement of a flagellated sperm.
sperm flagellum movement involved in flagellated sperm motility
sperm flagellum movement involved in flagellated sperm movement
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of cell migration.
Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of cell migration.
The movement of a leukocyte in response to an external stimulus.
The lipid bilayer surrounding a cytoplasmic vesicle.
The lipid bilayer surrounding a secretory granule.
The directed movement of substances along cytoskeletal fibers such as microfilaments or microtubules within a cell.
cytoskeleton-dependent intracellular transport
The process in which a myeloid precursor cell acquires the specialized features of a granulocyte. Granulocytes are a class of leukocytes characterized by the presence of granules in their cytoplasm. These cells are active in allergic immune reactions such as arthritic inflammation and rashes. This class includes basophils, eosinophils and neutrophils.
Transcriptional regulation of granulopoiesis
The process whose specific outcome is the progression of the mammary gland over time, from its formation to the mature structure. The mammary gland is a large compound sebaceous gland that in female mammals is modified to secrete milk. Its development starts with the formation of the mammary line and ends as the mature gland cycles between nursing and weaning stages.
A nonmembrane-bound oligomeric protein complex that participates in bidirectional transport of molecules (cargo) along axonemal microtubules.
Note that we deem cilia and microtubule-based flagella to be equivalent.
A structure lying external to one or more cells, which provides structural support, biochemical or biomechanical cues for cells or tissues.
A membrane that is one of the two lipid bilayers of an organelle envelope or the outermost membrane of single membrane bound organelle.
The regrowth of a lost or destroyed body part, such as an organ or tissue. This process may occur via renewal, repair, and/or growth alone (i.e. increase in size or mass).
A vesicle found in the cytoplasm of a cell.
The enclosed volume within a sealed membrane or between two sealed membranes. Encompasses the volume enclosed by the membranes of a particular organelle, e.g. endoplasmic reticulum lumen, or the space between the two lipid bilayers of a double membrane surrounding an organelle, e.g. nuclear envelope lumen.
The volume enclosed by the nuclear inner membrane.
Any small, fluid-filled, spherical organelle enclosed by membrane.
The assembly of a bleb, a cell extension caused by localized decoupling of the cytoskeleton from the plasma membrane and characterized by rapid formation, rounded shape, and scarcity of organelles within the protrusion. Plasma membrane blebbing occurs during apoptosis and other cellular processes, including cell locomotion, cell division, and as a result of physical or chemical stresses.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of a response to an external stimulus.
regulation of response to external stimulus
Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of a response to an external stimulus.
down regulation of response to external stimulus
down-regulation of response to external stimulus
downregulation of response to external stimulus
inhibition of response to external stimulus
negative regulation of response to external stimulus
Any process that activates, maintains or increases the rate of a response to an external stimulus.
up regulation of response to external stimulus
up-regulation of response to external stimulus
upregulation of response to external stimulus
activation of response to external stimulus
stimulation of response to external stimulus
positive regulation of response to external stimulus
The regulated release of a gonadotropin, any hormone that stimulates the gonads, especially follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone.
The regulated release of luteinizing hormone, a gonadotropic glycoprotein hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary.
An assembly of actin filaments that are on the same axis but may be oriented with the same or opposite polarities and may be packed with different levels of tightness.
Any biological process, occurring at the level of a multicellular organism, pertinent to its function.
A biological process whose specific outcome is the progression of an integrated living unit: an anatomical structure (which may be a subcellular structure, cell, tissue, or organ), or organism over time from an initial condition to a later condition.
The appearance of interferon-gamma due to biosynthesis or secretion following a cellular stimulus, resulting in an increase in its intracellular or extracellular levels. Interferon-gamma is also known as type II interferon.
The regulated release of bile acid, composed of any of a group of steroid carboxylic acids occurring in bile, by a cell or a tissue.
The chemical reactions and pathways involving monocarboxylic acids, any organic acid containing one carboxyl (COOH) group or anion (COO-).
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of any process in which a cell, a substance, or a cellular entity is transported to, or maintained in, a specific location.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of any cellular process that depends upon or alters the microtubule cytoskeleton.
The controlled release of a substance by a cell.
The controlled release of a substance by a tissue.
The disaggregation of a protein-containing macromolecular complex into its constituent components.
cellular macromolecule complex disassembly
The process in which a cellular entity is generated and organized. A cellular entity has granularity above the level of a protein complex but below that of an anatomical system.
cellular anatomical entity morphogenesis
A stable assembly of two or more macromolecules, i.e. proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates or lipids, in which at least one component is a protein and the constituent parts function together.
A protein complex in this context is meant as a stable set of interacting proteins which can be co-purified by an acceptable method, and where the complex has been shown to exist as an isolated, functional unit in vivo. Acceptable experimental methods include stringent protein purification followed by detection of protein interaction. The following methods should be considered non-acceptable: simple immunoprecipitation, pull-down experiments from cell extracts without further purification, colocalization and 2-hybrid screening. Interactions that should not be captured as protein complexes include: 1) enzyme/substrate, receptor/ligand or any similar transient interactions, unless these are a critical part of the complex assembly or are required e.g. for the receptor to be functional; 2) proteins associated in a pull-down/co-immunoprecipitation assay with no functional link or any evidence that this is a defined biological entity rather than a loose-affinity complex; 3) any complex where the only evidence is based on genetic interaction data; 4) partial complexes, where some subunits (e.g. transmembrane ones) cannot be expressed as recombinant proteins and are excluded from experiments (in this case, independent evidence is necessary to find out the composition of the full complex, if known). Interactions that may be captured as protein complexes include: 1) enzyme/substrate or receptor/ligand if the complex can only assemble and become functional in the presence of both classes of subunits; 2) complexes where one of the members has not been shown to be physically linked to the other(s), but is a homologue of, and has the same functionality as, a protein that has been experimentally demonstrated to form a complex with the other member(s); 3) complexes whose existence is accepted based on localization and pharmacological studies, but for which experimental evidence is not yet available for the complex as a whole.
Any process in which a macromolecule is transported to, or maintained in, a specific location.
The process in which immune receptor V, D, and J, or V and J gene segments, depending on the specific receptor, are recombined within a single locus utilizing the conserved heptamer and nonomer recombination signal sequences (RSS).
The process in which immunoglobulin gene segments are recombined within a single locus utilizing the conserved heptamer and nonomer recombination signal sequences (RSS). For immunoglobulin heavy chains V, D, and J gene segments are joined, and for immunoglobulin light chains V and J gene segments are joined.
A process that is carried out at the cellular level which results in the assembly, arrangement of constituent parts, or disassembly of a secretory granule. A secretory granule is a small subcellular vesicle, surrounded by a membrane, that is formed from the Golgi apparatus and contains a highly concentrated protein destined for secretion.
secretory granule organization and biogenesis
A process in which a protein is transported to, or maintained in, a location within an organelle.
A homeostatic process involved in the maintenance of an internal steady state of a carbohydrate within an organism or cell.
Any process of regulating the production and elimination of erythrocytes within an organism.
The process in which a carbohydrate is transported across a membrane.
A process in which a monoatomic ion is transported across a membrane. Monatomic ions (also called simple ions) are ions consisting of exactly one atom.
ATP hydrolysis coupled ion transmembrane transport
The assembly and organization of an axoneme, the bundle of microtubules and associated proteins that forms the core of cilia (also called flagella) in eukaryotic cells and is responsible for their movements.
Note that cilia and eukaryotic flagella are deemed to be equivalent.
Creation of the central hole of a tube in an anatomical structure through which gases and/or liquids flow.
lumen formation in an anatomical structure
The process in which the anatomical structures of a tube are generated and organized. Epithelial and endothelial tubes transport gases, liquids and cells from one site to another and form the basic structure of many organs and tissues, with tube shape and organization varying from the single-celled excretory organ in Caenorhabditis elegans to the branching trees of the mammalian kidney and insect tracheal system.
The process whose specific outcome is the progression of a tube over time, from its initial formation to a mature structure. Epithelial and endothelial tubes transport gases, liquids and cells from one site to another and form the basic structure of many organs and tissues including lung and trachea, kidney, the mammary gland, the vascular system and the gastrointestinal and urinary-genital tracts.
An immunoglobulin-like complex that is present in at least the plasma membrane of pre-B cells, and that is composed of two identical immunoglobulin heavy chains and two surrogate light chains, each composed of the lambda-5 and VpreB proteins, and a signaling subunit, a heterodimer of the Ig-alpha and Ig-beta proteins.
Despite its name, the pre-BCR is not a receptor complex, as it appears to provide a low level of signal not dependent on a ligand, but rather simply on correct assembly of the complex as a measure for correct Ig heavy chain recombination and folding. A significant proportion of pre-BCR complexes fail to reach the cell surface, and in some cases may provide their signaling function from the trans-Golgi network or lysosome.
The directed movement of a protein to a specific location within the extracellular region.
establishment of protein localisation in extracellular region
establishment of protein localization in extracellular region
establishment of protein localization to extracellular region
The bidirectional movement of large protein complexes along microtubules within a cilium that contributes to cilium assembly.
intraciliary transport involved in cilium morphogenesis
intraflagellar transport involved in cilium morphogenesis
intraciliary transport involved in cilium assembly
The regulated release of parathyroid hormone into the circulatory system.
The regulated release of any steroid that acts as a hormone into the circulatory system.
The regulated release of any corticosteroid hormone into the circulatory system.
The regulated release of any mineralocorticoid into the circulatory system. Mineralocorticoids are a class of steroid hormones that regulate water and electrolyte metabolism.
The regulated release of aldosterone into the circulatory system. Aldosterone is a pregnane-based steroid hormone produced by the outer-section (zona glomerulosa) of the adrenal cortex in the adrenal gland, and acts on the distal tubules and collecting ducts of the kidney to cause the conservation of sodium, secretion of potassium, increased water retention, and increased blood pressure. The overall effect of aldosterone is to increase reabsorption of ions and water in the kidney.
The formation of bone or of a bony substance, or the conversion of fibrous tissue or of cartilage into bone or a bony substance, that does not require the replacement of preexisting tissues.
The regulated release of a melanocyte-stimulating hormone, any of a group of peptide hormones that are produced by cells in the intermediate lobe of the pituitary gland, and stimulate the production of melanin to increase pigmentation.
melanocyte-stimulating hormone secretion
The regulated release of calcitonin, a peptide hormone that participates in calcium and phosphorus metabolism, from a cell.
The region of a neuron that includes the cell body (cell soma) and dendrite(s), but excludes the axon.
Receiving a signal and transmitting it in the cell to initiate a change in cell activity. A signal is a physical entity or change in state that is used to transfer information in order to trigger a response.
receptor activity involved in signal transduction
The increase in size or mass of an entire organism, a part of an organism or a cell.
See also the biological process term 'cell growth ; GO:0016049'.
Self-propelled movement of a cell or organism from one location to another.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of locomotion of a cell or organism.
The first few specialized divisions of an activated animal egg.
Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of locomotion of a cell or organism.
The series of events that restore integrity to a damaged tissue, following an injury.
The bidirectional movement of large protein complexes along microtubules within a cilium, mediated by motor proteins.
intraflagellar transport involved in cilium organization
intraflagellar transport involved in microtubule-based flagellum organisation
An immune response which is associated with resistance to extracellular organisms such as helminths and pathological conditions such as allergy, which is orchestrated by the production of particular cytokines, most notably IL-4, IL-5, IL-10, and IL-13, by any of a variety of cell types including T-helper 2 cells, eosinophils, basophils, mast cells, and nuocytes, resulting in enhanced production of certain antibody isotypes and other effects.
A protein complex that contains a disulfide-linked heterodimer of T cell receptor (TCR) chains, which are members of the immunoglobulin superfamily, and mediates antigen recognition, ultimately resulting in T cell activation. The TCR heterodimer is associated with the CD3 complex, which consists of the nonpolymorphic polypeptides gamma, delta, epsilon, zeta, and, in some cases, eta (an RNA splice variant of zeta) or Fc epsilon chains.
The change in morphology and behavior of a mature or immature T cell resulting from exposure to a mitogen, cytokine, chemokine, cellular ligand, or an antigen for which it is specific.
The change in morphology and behavior of a mature or immature B cell resulting from exposure to a mitogen, cytokine, chemokine, cellular ligand, or an antigen for which it is specific.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of cell proliferation.
regulation of cell population proliferation
Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell or an organism (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of a chemical stimulus.
The regrowth of lost or destroyed tissues.
The directed movement of a motile cell or organism in response to an external stimulus.
directed movement in response to stimulus
Any process that modulates the establishment or extent of a membrane potential, the electric potential existing across any membrane arising from charges in the membrane itself and from the charges present in the media on either side of the membrane.
The chemical reactions and pathways involving any of the compounds secreted by the thyroid gland, largely thyroxine and triiodothyronine.
The chemical reactions and pathways involving compounds that contain an indole (2,3-benzopyrrole) skeleton.
indole-containing compound metabolic process
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of compounds that contain an indole (2,3-benzopyrrole) skeleton.
indole-containing compound biosynthetic process
The chemical reactions and pathways involving any hormone, naturally occurring substances secreted by specialized cells that affects the metabolism or behavior of other cells possessing functional receptors for the hormone.
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of any hormone, naturally occurring substances secreted by specialized cells that affects the metabolism or behavior of other cells possessing functional receptors for the hormone.
The process whose specific outcome is the progression of a dentin-containing tooth over time, from its formation to the mature structure. A dentin-containing tooth is a hard, bony organ borne on the jaw or other bone of a vertebrate, and is composed mainly of dentin, a dense calcified substance, covered by a layer of enamel.
odontogenesis of dentine-containing teeth
odontogenesis of dentine-containing tooth
Note that placoid scales found in the cartilaginous fishes presumably develop through the same processes, but are found on the dermis, rather than in the mouth or pharynx. See Wikipedia:Placoid_scale#Placoid_scales.
odontogenesis of dentin-containing tooth
The process whose specific outcome is the progression of a tooth or teeth over time, from formation to the mature structure(s). A tooth is any hard bony, calcareous, or chitinous organ found in the mouth or pharynx of an animal and used in procuring or masticating food.
odontogenesis of calcareous or chitinous tooth
An immunoglobulin complex that is secreted into extracellular space and found in mucosal areas or other tissues or circulating in the blood or lymph. In its canonical form, a circulating immunoglobulin complex is composed of two identical heavy chains and two identical light chains, held together by disulfide bonds. Some forms of are polymers of the basic structure and contain additional components such as J-chain and the secretory component.
A membrane-bounded, cytoplasmic secretory granule found in enzyme-secreting cells and visible by light microscopy. Contain zymogen, an inactive enzyme precursor, often of a digestive enzyme.
The lipid bilayer surrounding a zymogen granule.
Any biological process involved in the maintenance of an internal steady state.
negative regulation of homeostatic process
positive regulation of homeostatic process
Any process involved in the maintenance of an internal steady state of glucose within an organism or cell.
A transmembrane protein complex composed of an MHC alpha chain and, in most cases, either an MHC class II beta chain or an invariant beta2-microglobin chain, and with or without a bound peptide, lipid, or polysaccharide antigen.
A transmembrane protein complex composed of an MHC class II alpha and MHC class II beta chain, and with or without a bound peptide or polysaccharide antigen.
The expulsion of seminal fluid, thick white fluid containing spermatozoa, from the male genital tract.
A process that solubilizes fibrin in the bloodstream of a multicellular organism, chiefly by the proteolytic action of plasmin.
The directed movement of an amide, any compound containing one, two, or three acyl groups attached to a nitrogen atom, into, out of or within a cell, or between cells, by means of some agent such as a transporter or pore.
A prolongation or process extending from a cell, e.g. a flagellum or axon.
A prolongation or process extending from a nerve cell, e.g. an axon or dendrite.
The process whose specific outcome is the progression of the embryo over time, from zygote formation through a stage including a notochord and neural tube until birth or egg hatching.
The portion of a neuron that includes the nucleus, but excludes cell projections such as axons and dendrites.
Note that 'cell body' and 'cell soma' are not used in the literature for cells that lack projections, nor for some cells (e.g. yeast with mating projections) that do have projections.
The modification of an amino acid to an active form, for incorporation into a peptide, protein or other macromolecule.
The chemical reactions and pathways by which the various amino acids become bonded to their corresponding tRNAs. The most common route for synthesis of aminoacyl tRNA is by the formation of an ester bond between the 3'-hydroxyl group of the most 3' adenosine of the tRNA and the alpha carboxylic acid group of an amino acid, usually catalyzed by the cognate aminoacyl-tRNA ligase. A given aminoacyl-tRNA ligase aminoacylates all species of an isoaccepting group of tRNA molecules.
The chemical reactions and pathways involving macromolecules, any molecule of high relative molecular mass, the structure of which essentially comprises the multiple repetition of units derived, actually or conceptually, from molecules of low relative molecular mass.
multicellular organismal macromolecule metabolic process
Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell or an organism (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of an external biotic stimulus, an external stimulus caused by, or produced by living things.
Organized structure of distinctive morphology and function. Includes the nucleus, mitochondria, plastids, vacuoles, vesicles, ribosomes and the cytoskeleton, and prokaryotic structures such as anammoxosomes and pirellulosomes. Excludes the plasma membrane.
Organized structure of distinctive morphology and function, bounded by a single or double lipid bilayer membrane. Includes the nucleus, mitochondria, plastids, vacuoles, and vesicles. Excludes the plasma membrane.
Organized structure of distinctive morphology and function, not bounded by a lipid bilayer membrane. Includes ribosomes, the cytoskeleton and chromosomes.
Organized structure of distinctive morphology and function, occurring within the cell. Includes the nucleus, mitochondria, plastids, vacuoles, vesicles, ribosomes and the cytoskeleton. Excludes the plasma membrane.
Organized structure of distinctive morphology and function, bounded by a single or double lipid bilayer membrane and occurring within the cell. Includes the nucleus, mitochondria, plastids, vacuoles, and vesicles. Excludes the plasma membrane.
intracellular membrane-enclosed organelle
intracellular membrane-bounded organelle
Organized structure of distinctive morphology and function, not bounded by a lipid bilayer membrane and occurring within the cell. Includes ribosomes, the cytoskeleton and chromosomes.
intracellular non-membrane-bounded organelle
intracellular non-membrane-enclosed organelle
The internal volume enclosed by the membranes of a particular organelle; includes the volume enclosed by a single organelle membrane, e.g. endoplasmic reticulum lumen, or the volume enclosed by the innermost of the two lipid bilayers of an organelle envelope, e.g. nuclear lumen.
Any protein complex that undergoes combination with a hormone, neurotransmitter, drug or intracellular messenger to initiate a change in cell function.
Fibers, composed of actin, myosin, and associated proteins, found in cells of smooth or striated muscle.
The chemical reactions and pathways involving any oxoacid; an oxoacid is a compound which contains oxygen, at least one other element, and at least one hydrogen bound to oxygen, and which produces a conjugate base by loss of positive hydrogen ion(s) (hydrons).
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of the process of gaseous exchange between an organism and its environment.
regulation of respiratory gaseous exchange
The chemical reactions and pathways involving an amide, any derivative of an oxoacid in which an acidic hydroxy group has been replaced by an amino or substituted amino group, as carried out by individual cells.
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of an amide, any derivative of an oxoacid in which an acidic hydroxy group has been replaced by an amino or substituted amino group.
Any process in which macromolecules aggregate, disaggregate, or are modified, resulting in the formation, disassembly, or alteration of a protein complex.
cellular macromolecular complex organization
cellular macromolecular complex subunit organisation
cellular macromolecular complex subunit organization
macromolecular complex subunit organisation
macromolecular complex subunit organization
protein-containing complex subunit organization
The chemical reactions and pathways involving glucans, polysaccharides consisting only of glucose residues.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of a system process, a multicellular organismal process carried out by any of the organs or tissues in an organ system.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of a digestive system process, a physical, chemical, or biochemical process carried out by living organisms to break down ingested nutrients into components that may be easily absorbed and directed into metabolism.
A process that results in the biosynthesis of constituent macromolecules, assembly, and arrangement of constituent parts of a cellular component. Includes biosynthesis of constituent macromolecules, and those macromolecular modifications that are involved in synthesis or assembly of the cellular component.
cellular component biogenesis at cellular level
The chemical reactions and pathways involving those compounds which are formed as a part of the normal anabolic and catabolic processes. These processes take place in most, if not all, cells of the organism.
The chemical reactions and pathways involving small molecules, any low molecular weight, monomeric, non-encoded molecule.
Small molecules in GO include monosaccharides but exclude disaccharides and polysaccharides.
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of small molecules, any low molecular weight, monomeric, non-encoded molecule.
The portion of a cell bearing surface projections such as axons, dendrites, cilia, or flagella that includes the nucleus, but excludes all cell projections.
Any process evolved to enable an interaction with an organism of a different species.
interspecies interaction between organisms
interspecies interaction with other organisms
biological process involved in interspecies interaction between organisms
The aggregation, arrangement and bonding together of a set of components to form a motile cilium.
A biological process that directly contributes to the process of producing new individuals, involving another organism.
A multicellular organism process which involves another multicellular organism of the same or different species.
A process that is carried out at the cellular level which results in the assembly, arrangement of constituent parts, or disassembly of a cilium, a specialized eukaryotic organelle that consists of a filiform extrusion of the cell surface. Each cilium is bounded by an extrusion of the cytoplasmic membrane, and contains a regular longitudinal array of microtubules, anchored basally in a centriole.
microtubule-based flagellum organization
The joining of the lipid bilayer membrane that surround a cell with that of another cell, producing a single cell.
The process in which T cells that express T cell receptors that are restricted by self MHC protein complexes and tolerant to self antigens are selected for further maturation.
Innate immune responses are defense responses mediated by germline encoded components that directly recognize components of potential pathogens.
A filament composed of acidic and basic keratins (types I and II), typically expressed in epithelial cells. The keratins are the most diverse classes of IF proteins, with a large number of keratin isoforms being expressed. Each type of epithelium always expresses a characteristic combination of type I and type II keratins.
Cytoskeletal structure made from intermediate filaments, typically organized in the cytosol as an extended system that stretches from the nuclear envelope to the plasma membrane. Some intermediate filaments run parallel to the cell surface, while others traverse the cytosol; together they form an internal framework that helps support the shape and resilience of the cell.
The directed movement of a protein to a specific location.
The switching of activated B cells from IgM biosynthesis to biosynthesis of other isotypes of immunoglobulin, accomplished through a recombination process involving an intrachromosomal deletion involving switch regions that reside 5' of each constant region gene segment in the immunoglobulin heavy chain locus.
Note that IgM and IgD can be coexpressed by B cells via an alternate splicing mechanism, but true recombinational isotype switching to IgD has been demonstrated as well. Note that this term is best used to annotate gene products which are involved in the mechanism of DNA recombination used in isotype switching, like the B cell specific Swap70 factor in the mouse, rather than gene products which promote isotype switching such as cytokines or co-stimulatory molecules, which should instead be annotated to 'regulation of isotype switching ; GO:0045191'.
The junction between an axon of one neuron and a dendrite of another neuron, a muscle fiber or a glial cell. As the axon approaches the synapse it enlarges into a specialized structure, the presynaptic terminal bouton, which contains mitochondria and synaptic vesicles. At the tip of the terminal bouton is the presynaptic membrane; facing it, and separated from it by a minute cleft (the synaptic cleft) is a specialized area of membrane on the receiving cell, known as the postsynaptic membrane. In response to the arrival of nerve impulses, the presynaptic terminal bouton secretes molecules of neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft. These diffuse across the cleft and transmit the signal to the postsynaptic membrane.
A change in morphology and behavior of a leukocyte resulting from exposure to a specific antigen, mitogen, cytokine, cellular ligand, or soluble factor.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of T cell differentiation.
regulation of T lymphocyte differentiation
regulation of T-lymphocyte differentiation
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of cell differentiation, the process in which relatively unspecialized cells acquire specialized structural and functional features.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of lymphocyte differentiation.
regulation of lymphocyte differentiation
The directed movement of the hexose monosaccharide D-glucose into a cell or organelle.
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of carboxylic acids, any organic acid containing one or more carboxyl (-COOH) groups.
The regulated release of saliva from the salivary glands. In man, the saliva is a turbid and slightly viscous fluid, generally of an alkaline reaction, and is secreted by the parotid, submaxillary, and sublingual glands. In the mouth the saliva is mixed with the secretion from the buccal glands. In man and many animals, saliva is an important digestive fluid on account of the presence of the peculiar enzyme, ptyalin.
A change in morphology and behavior of a lymphocyte resulting from exposure to a specific antigen, mitogen, cytokine, chemokine, cellular ligand, or soluble factor.
The controlled release of acid by a cell or a tissue.
The regulated release of hormones, substances with a specific regulatory effect on a particular organ or group of cells.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of the regulated release of a hormone from a cell.
The controlled release of a substance by a cell or a tissue.
The directed movement of substances within a cell.
The directed movement of carboxylic acids into, out of or within a cell, or between cells, by means of some agent such as a transporter or pore. Carboxylic acids are organic acids containing one or more carboxyl (COOH) groups or anions (COO-).
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of ketone bodies, any one of the three substances: acetoacetate, D-3-hydroxybutyrate (beta-hydroxybutyrate) or acetone. Biosynthesis involves the formation of hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA, which is cleaved to acetate and acetyl-CoA.
The self-renewing division of a somatic stem cell, a stem cell that can give rise to cell types of the body other than those of the germ-line.
The meiotic divisions undergone by the primary and secondary spermatocytes to produce haploid spermatids.
The directed movement of substances into, out of or within the Golgi apparatus, mediated by vesicles.
The process in which vesicles are directed to specific destination membranes during transport to, from or within the Golgi apparatus; mediated by the addition of specific coat proteins, including COPI and COPII proteins and clathrin, to the membrane during vesicle formation.
vesicle targeting, to, from or within dictyosome
vesicle targeting, to, from or within Golgi
Generation of the male gamete; specialised haploid cells produced by meiosis and along with a female gamete takes part in sexual reproduction.
A process required for sperm to reach fertilization competence. Sperm undergo an incompletely understood series of morphological and molecular maturational processes, termed capacitation, involving, among other processes, protein tyrosine phosphorylation and increased intracellular calcium.
Avian spermatozoa do not require a period of capacitation, since they are competent to fertilize the egg without a prolonged sojourn in the oviduct or in a capacitation medium in vitro. Therefore, sperm capacitation can only be applied to Aves to refer to gene products involved in processes that occur prior to sperm being deposited from the avian male. The term cannot apply to processes occurring in the avian female reproductive tract.
The creation of two or more organelles by division of one organelle.
The process in which the anatomical structures of the mesoderm are generated and organized.
The cellular developmental process in which a specific cell progresses from an immature to a mature state. Cell development start once cell commitment has taken place.
The cellular developmental process, independent of morphogenetic (shape) change, that is required for a specific cell to attain its fully functional state.
The complete process of formation and maturation of an ovum or female gamete from a primordial female germ cell. Examples of this process are found in Mus musculus and Drosophila melanogaster.
Development of a tissue or tissues that work together to perform a specific function or functions. Development pertains to the process whose specific outcome is the progression of a structure over time, from its formation to the mature structure. Organs are commonly observed as visibly distinct structures, but may also exist as loosely associated clusters of cells that work together to perform a specific function or functions.
The process whose specific outcome is the progression of a spermatid over time, from initial commitment of the cell to a specific fate, to the fully functional differentiated cell.
Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of a biological process. Biological processes are regulated by many means; examples include the control of gene expression, protein modification or interaction with a protein or substrate molecule.
positive regulation of physiological process
positive regulation of biological process
Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of a biological process. Biological processes are regulated by many means; examples include the control of gene expression, protein modification or interaction with a protein or substrate molecule.
negative regulation of physiological process
negative regulation of biological process
Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of a cellular process, any of those that are carried out at the cellular level, but are not necessarily restricted to a single cell. For example, cell communication occurs among more than one cell, but occurs at the cellular level.
positive regulation of cellular physiological process
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of a response to a stimulus. Response to stimulus is a change in state or activity of a cell or an organism (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of a stimulus.
Any process that activates, maintains or increases the rate of a response to a stimulus. Response to stimulus is a change in state or activity of a cell or an organism (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of a stimulus.
positive regulation of response to stimulus
Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of a response to a stimulus. Response to stimulus is a change in state or activity of a cell or an organism (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of a stimulus.
negative regulation of response to stimulus
The increase in size or mass of an entire organism, a part of an organism or a cell, where the increase in size or mass has the specific outcome of the progression of the organism over time from one condition to another.
The process in which anatomical structures are generated and organized during the embryonic phase. The embryonic phase begins with zygote formation. The end of the embryonic phase is organism-specific. For example, it would be at birth for mammals, larval hatching for insects and seed dormancy in plants.
embryonic anatomical structure morphogenesis
The process, occurring above the cellular level, that is pertinent to the reproductive function of a multicellular organism. This includes the integrated processes at the level of tissues and organs.
reproductive process in a multicellular organism
multicellular organismal reproductive process
The developmental process pertaining to the initial formation of an anatomical structure from unspecified parts. This process begins with the specific processes that contribute to the appearance of the discrete structure and ends when the structural rudiment is recognizable. An anatomical structure is any biological entity that occupies space and is distinguished from its surroundings. Anatomical structures can be macroscopic such as a carpel, or microscopic such as an acrosome.
formation of an anatomical structure involved in morphogenesis
Note that, for example, the formation of a pseudopod in an amoeba would not be considered formation involved in morphogenesis because it would not be thought of as the formation of an anatomical structure that was part of the shaping of the amoeba during its development. The formation of an axon from a neuron would be considered the formation of an anatomical structure involved in morphogenesis because it contributes to the creation of the form of the neuron in a developmental sense.
anatomical structure formation involved in morphogenesis
The process in which the anatomical structures of a tissue are generated and organized.
The process whose specific outcome is the progression of an organismal system over time, from its formation to the mature structure. A system is a regularly interacting or interdependent group of organs or tissues that work together to carry out a given biological process.
The process whose specific outcome is the progression of a gland over time, from its formation to the mature structure. A gland is an organ specialised for secretion.
The process in which the anatomical structures of branches in an epithelial tube are generated and organized. A tube is a long hollow cylinder.
branching morphogenesis of an epithelial tube
The biological process whose specific outcome is the progression of an anatomical structure from an initial condition to its mature state. This process begins with the formation of the structure and ends with the mature structure, whatever form that may be including its natural destruction. An anatomical structure is any biological entity that occupies space and is distinguished from its surroundings. Anatomical structures can be macroscopic such as a carpel, or microscopic such as an acrosome.
A biological process whose specific outcome is the progression of a cell over time from an initial condition to a later condition.
Any process involved in the controlled self-propelled movement of a cell that results in translocation of the cell from one place to another.
Any process involved in the maintenance of an internal steady state at the level of the multicellular organism.
multicellular organismal-level homeostasis
Any biological process involved in the maintenance of the steady-state number of cells within a population of cells.
Any biological process involved in the maintenance of an internal steady state of a chemical.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of the immune response, the immunological reaction of an organism to an immunogenic stimulus.
Immunoregulatory interactions between a Lymphoid and a non-Lymphoid cell
Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of the immune response, the immunological reaction of an organism to an immunogenic stimulus.
Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of the immune response, the immunological reaction of an organism to an immunogenic stimulus.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of a biological process. Biological processes are regulated by many means; examples include the control of gene expression, protein modification or interaction with a protein or substrate molecule.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of development, the biological process whose specific outcome is the progression of a multicellular organism over time from an initial condition (e.g. a zygote, or a young adult) to a later condition (e.g. a multicellular animal or an aged adult).
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of a cellular process, any of those that are carried out at the cellular level, but are not necessarily restricted to a single cell. For example, cell communication occurs among more than one cell, but occurs at the cellular level.
regulation of cellular physiological process
Any process involved in the maintenance of an internal steady state of monoatomic ions within an organism or cell. Monatomic ions (also called simple ions) are ions consisting of exactly one atom.
negative regulation of crystal formation
The process in which a fluid solution, or part of it, changes into a solid or semisolid mass.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of coagulation, the process in which a fluid solution, or part of it, changes into a solid or semisolid mass.
Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of coagulation.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of T cell activation.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of cell activation, the change in the morphology or behavior of a cell resulting from exposure to an activating factor such as a cellular or soluble ligand.
An organ system process carried out by any of the organs or tissues of the neurological system.
Any process that modulates the levels of body fluids.
Any physiological process involved in changing the position of a multicellular organism or an anatomical part of a multicellular organism.
The movement of an organism or part of an organism using mechanoreceptors, the nervous system, striated muscle and/or the skeletal system.
Any process that an organism uses to control its balance, the orientation of the organism (or the head of the organism) in relation to the source of gravity. In humans and animals, balance is perceived through visual cues, the labyrinth system of the inner ears and information from skin pressure receptors and muscle and joint receptors.
neuromuscular process controlling balance
The process that involves the secretion of or response to endocrine hormones. An endocrine hormone is a hormone released into the circulatory system.
The operation of the mind by which an organism becomes aware of objects of thought or perception; it includes the mental activities associated with thinking, learning, and memory.
Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell or an organism (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of a stimulus. The process begins with detection of the stimulus and ends with a change in state or activity or the cell or organism.
The movement of a leukocyte within or between different tissues and organs of the body.
Cell surface interactions at the vascular wall
Any process pertaining to the functions of the nervous and muscular systems of an organism.
The series of events involved in sensory perception in which a sensory stimulus is received and converted into a molecular signal.
sensory perception, sensory transduction of stimulus
detection of stimulus involved in sensory perception
The series of events in which a chemical stimulus is received and converted into a molecular signal as part of sensory perception.
sensory detection of chemical stimulus during sensory perception
sensory perception, sensory detection of chemical stimulus
sensory perception, sensory transduction of chemical stimulus
sensory transduction of chemical stimulus
sensory transduction of chemical stimulus during sensory perception
detection of chemical stimulus involved in sensory perception
The series of events involved in visual perception in which a light stimulus is received and converted into a molecular signal.
sensory detection of light during visual perception
sensory detection of light stimulus during visual perception
sensory transduction of light during visual perception
sensory transduction of light stimulus during visual perception
visual perception, detection of light stimulus
visual perception, sensory transduction during perception of light
visual perception, sensory transduction of light stimulus
detection of light stimulus involved in visual perception
The series of events required for an organism to receive a gustatory stimulus, convert it to a molecular signal, and recognize and characterize the signal. Gustation involves the direct detection of chemical composition, usually through contact with chemoreceptor cells. This is a neurological process.
The series of events involved in the perception of sound vibration in which the vibration is received and converted into a molecular signal.
perception of sound, detection of mechanical stimulus
perception of sound, sensory detection of mechanical stimulus
perception of sound, sensory transduction of mechanical stimulus
sensory detection of mechanical stimulus during perception of sound
sensory transduction of mechanical stimulus during perception of sound
detection of mechanical stimulus involved in sensory perception of sound
The series of events involved in the perception of smell in which an olfactory chemical stimulus is received and converted into a molecular signal.
perception of smell, detection of chemical stimulus
perception of smell, sensory detection of chemical stimulus
perception of smell, sensory transduction of chemical stimulus
sensory detection of chemical stimulus during perception of smell
sensory transduction of chemical stimulus during perception of smell
detection of chemical stimulus involved in sensory perception of smell
The series of events involved in the perception of taste in which a gustatory chemical stimulus is received and converted into a molecular signal.
perception of taste, detection of chemical stimulus
perception of taste, sensory detection of chemical stimulus
perception of taste, sensory transduction of chemical stimulus
sensory detection of chemical stimulus during perception of taste
sensory transduction of chemical stimulus during perception of taste
detection of chemical stimulus involved in sensory perception of taste
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of the directed movement of a motile cell or organism in response to a specific chemical concentration gradient.
Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of the directed movement of a motile cell or organism in response to a specific chemical concentration gradient.
The series of events required for an organism to receive a sensory light stimulus, convert it to a molecular signal, and recognize and characterize the signal. This is a neurological process.
The series of events required for an organism to receive a sensory mechanical stimulus, convert it to a molecular signal, and recognize and characterize the signal. This is a neurological process.
sensory perception of mechanical stimulus
The series of events required for an organism to receive an orientational stimulus, convert it to a molecular signal, and recognize and characterize the signal. Equilibrioception refers to a combination of processes by which an organism can perceive its orientation with respect to gravity. In animals, stimuli come from labyrinth system of the inner ears, monitoring the direction of motion; visual stimuli, with information on orientation and motion; pressure receptors, which tell the organism which body surfaces are in contact with the ground; and proprioceptive cues, which report which parts of the body are in motion.
sensory perception of orientation with respect to gravity
The series of events in which a light stimulus is received by a cell and converted into a molecular signal as part of the sensory perception of light.
sensory detection of light stimulus during sensory perception
sensory perception, sensory detection of light stimulus
sensory perception, sensory transduction of light stimulus
sensory transduction of light stimulus during sensory perception
detection of light stimulus involved in sensory perception
The series of events in which a mechanical stimulus is received and converted into a molecular signal as part of sensory perception.
sensory detection of mechanical stimulus
sensory detection of mechanical stimulus during sensory perception
sensory perception, sensory detection of mechanical stimulus
sensory perception, sensory transduction of mechanical stimulus
sensory transduction of mechanical stimulus
sensory transduction of mechanical stimulus during sensory perception
detection of mechanical stimulus involved in sensory perception
The series of events by which a mechanical stimulus is received and converted into a molecular signal.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of the controlled release of a substance from a cell or a tissue.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of the directed movement of substances (such as macromolecules, small molecules, ions) into, out of or within a cell, or between cells, by means of some agent such as a transporter or pore.
Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the rate or extent of development, the biological process whose specific outcome is the progression of an organism over time from an initial condition (e.g. a zygote, or a young adult) to a later condition (e.g. a multicellular animal or an aged adult).
down regulation of developmental process
down-regulation of developmental process
negative regulation of developmental process
Any process in which a cell, a substance, or a cellular entity, such as a protein complex or organelle, is transported, tethered to or otherwise maintained in a specific location. In the case of substances, localization may also be achieved via selective degradation.
establishment and maintenance of localization
establishment and maintenance of position
establishment and maintenance of cellular component location
establishment and maintenance of substance location
establishment and maintenance of substrate location
The process whose specific outcome is the progression of a cartilage element over time, from its formation to the mature structure. Cartilage elements are skeletal elements that consist of connective tissue dominated by extracellular matrix containing collagen type II and large amounts of proteoglycan, particularly chondroitin sulfate.
Any process that localizes a substance or cellular component. This may occur via movement, tethering or selective degradation.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of a multicellular organismal process, the processes pertinent to the function of a multicellular organism above the cellular level; includes the integrated processes of tissues and organs.
regulation of multicellular organismal process
Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of an organismal process, any of the processes pertinent to the function of an organism above the cellular level; includes the integrated processes of tissues and organs.
up regulation of multicellular organismal process
up-regulation of multicellular organismal process
upregulation of multicellular organismal process
activation of multicellular organismal process
stimulation of multicellular organismal process
positive regulation of multicellular organismal process
Any process that stops, prevents, or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of an organismal process, the processes pertinent to the function of an organism above the cellular level; includes the integrated processes of tissues and organs.
down regulation of multicellular organismal process
down-regulation of multicellular organismal process
downregulation of multicellular organismal process
inhibition of multicellular organismal process
negative regulation of multicellular organismal process
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of lymphocyte activation.
A process that is carried out at the cellular level that results in the assembly, arrangement of constituent parts, or disassembly of chromosomes, structures composed of a very long molecule of DNA and associated proteins that carries hereditary information. This term covers covalent modifications at the molecular level as well as spatial relationships among the major components of a chromosome.
The process resulting in division and partitioning of components of a cell to form more cells; may or may not be accompanied by the physical separation of a cell into distinct, individually membrane-bounded daughter cells.
Note that this term differs from 'cytokinesis ; GO:0000910' in that cytokinesis does not include nuclear division.
Progression through the phases of the meiotic cell cycle, in which canonically a cell replicates to produce four offspring with half the chromosomal content of the progenitor cell via two nuclear divisions.
Note that this term should not be confused with 'GO:0140013 ; meiotic nuclear division'. 'GO:0051321 ; meiotic cell cycle represents the entire mitotic cell cycle, while 'GO:0140013 meiotic nuclear division' specifically represents the actual nuclear division step of the mitotic cell cycle.
The regulated release of corticotropin by a cell. Corticotropin hormone is a polypeptide hormone synthesized and secreted from corticotropes in the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland in response to corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) released by the hypothalamus.
Any process leading to the attainment of the full functional capacity of a protein.
The series of events in which a stimulus is received by a cell or organism and converted into a molecular signal.
The directed movement of histamine into, out of or within a cell, or between cells, by means of some agent such as a transporter or pore. Histamine is a physiologically active amine, found in plant and animal tissue and released from mast cells as part of an allergic reaction in humans.
Any process in which an organelle is transported to, and/or maintained in, a specific location.
establishment and maintenance of organelle localization
A cellular localization process whereby a substance or cellular entity, such as a protein complex or organelle, is transported to, and/or maintained in, a specific location within a cell including the localization of substances or cellular entities to the cell membrane.
establishment and maintenance of cellular localization
establishment and maintenance of localization in cell or cell membrane
Any process in which a vesicle or vesicles are transported to, and/or maintained in, a specific location.
establishment and maintenance of vesicle localization
Any process, occurring in a cell, that localizes a substance or cellular component. This may occur via movement, tethering or selective degradation.
establishment of intracellular localization
establishment of localization within cell
The directed movement of a vesicle to a specific location.
The directed movement of an organelle to a specific location.
Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell or an organism (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of a stimulus from another living organism.
Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of a stimulus. The process begins with detection of the stimulus by a cell and ends with a change in state or activity or the cell.
Any process involved in the maintenance of an internal steady state of calcium ions within an organism or cell.
Any process involved in the maintenance of an internal steady state of monoatomic cations within an organism or cell. Monatomic cations (also called simple cations) are cations consisting of exactly one atom.
The process in which a solute is transported across a lipid bilayer, from one side of a membrane to the other.
ATP hydrolysis coupled transmembrane transport
Transmembrane transport is the transport of a solute across a lipid bilayer. Note that transport through the nuclear pore complex is not transmembrane because the nuclear membrane is a double membrane and is not traversed. For transport through the nuclear pore, consider instead the term 'nucleocytoplasmic transport ; GO:0006913' and its children. Note also that this term is not intended for use in annotating lateral movement within membranes.
Miscellaneous transport and binding events
An automatic response to a stimulus beginning with a nerve impulse from a receptor and ending with the action of an effector such as a gland or a muscle. Signaling never reaches a level of consciousness.
A reflex process in which a response to an angular or linear acceleration stimulus begins with an afferent nerve impulse from a receptor in the inner ear and ends with the compensatory action of eye muscles. Signaling never reaches a level of consciousness.
The multicellular organismal process in which the heart decreases in volume in a characteristic way to propel blood through the body.
Muscle contraction of cardiac muscle tissue.
The regulation of body fluids process in which parasympathetic nerves stimulate the bladder wall muscle to contract and expel urine from the body.
A compound molecular function in which an effector function is controlled by one or more regulatory components.
A reflex that occurs in response to suckling, beginning with a nerve impulse from a receptor in the mammary gland and ending with the ejection of milk from the gland. Signaling never reaches a level of consciousness.
The assembly of a cilium, a specialized eukaryotic organelle that consists of a filiform extrusion of the cell surface. Each cilium is bounded by an extrusion of the cytoplasmic membrane, and contains a regular longitudinal array of microtubules, anchored basally in a centriole.
Any process that modulates the rate, frequency or extent of the progression of the cell over time, from its formation to the mature structure. Cell development does not include the steps involved in committing a cell to a specific fate.
Cell motility due to the motion of one or more eukaryotic cilia. A eukaryotic cilium is a specialized organelle that consists of a filiform extrusion of the cell surface. Each cilium is bounded by an extrusion of the cytoplasmic (plasma) membrane, and contains a regular longitudinal array of microtubules, anchored basally in a centriole.
microtubule-based flagellar cell motility
Note that we deem eukaryotic cilia and microtubule-based flagella to be equivalent.
Movement of cilia mediated by motor proteins that contributes to the movement of a cell.
cilium movement involved in cell motility
Any process that modulates the rate frequency or extent of cilium movement involved in ciliary motility.
regulation of cilium movement involved in cell motility
The directed movement of a motile cell guided by a specific chemical concentration gradient. Movement may be towards a higher concentration (positive chemotaxis) or towards a lower concentration (negative chemotaxis).
Cell recruitment (pro-inflammatory response)
The process in which a relatively unspecialized myeloid precursor cell acquires the specialized features of a mast cell. A mast cell is a cell that is found in almost all tissues containing numerous basophilic granules and capable of releasing large amounts of histamine and heparin upon activation.
The process whose specific outcome is the progression of an epithelium over time, from its formation to the mature structure. An epithelium is a tissue that covers the internal or external surfaces of an anatomical structure.
The process in which the anatomical structures of a tube are generated and organized from an epithelium. Epithelial tubes transport gases, liquids and cells from one site to another and form the basic structure of many organs and tissues, with tube shape and organization varying from the single-celled excretory organ in Caenorhabditis elegans to the branching trees of the mammalian kidney and insect tracheal system.
Any process that modulates the rate, frequency, or extent of microtubule-based movement, the movement of organelles, other microtubules and other particles along microtubules, mediated by motor proteins.
regulation of microtubule-based movement
The regulated release of a hormone into the circulatory system.
A system process carried out by any of the organs or tissues of the hepaticobiliary system. The hepaticobiliary system is responsible for metabolic and catabolic processing of small molecules absorbed from the blood or gut, hormones and serum proteins, detoxification, storage of glycogen, triglycerides, metals and lipid soluble vitamins and excretion of bile. Included are the synthesis of albumin, blood coagulation factors, complement, and specific binding proteins.
A process which results in the assembly, arrangement of constituent parts, or disassembly of a membrane. A membrane is a double layer of lipid molecules that encloses all cells, and, in eukaryotes, many organelles; may be a single or double lipid bilayer; also includes associated proteins.
The membrane organization process that joins two lipid bilayers to form a single membrane.
Any process that modulates the rate, frequency, or extent of cartilage development, the process whose specific outcome is the progression of the cartilage over time, from its formation to the mature structure. Cartilage is a connective tissue dominated by extracellular matrix containing collagen type II and large amounts of proteoglycan, particularly chondroitin sulfate.
Any process that decreases the rate, frequency, or extent of cartilage development, the process whose specific outcome is the progression of the cartilage over time, from its formation to the mature structure. Cartilage is a connective tissue dominated by extracellular matrix containing collagen type II and large amounts of proteoglycan, particularly chondroitin sulfate.
negative regulation of cartilage development
Any process that modulates the rate, frequency, or extent of the series of events that restore integrity to a damaged tissue, following an injury.
Any process that decreases the rate, frequency, or extent of the series of events that restore integrity to a damaged tissue, following an injury.
The process in which the anatomical structures of a branched epithelium are generated and organized.
The progression of a connective tissue over time, from its formation to the mature structure.
A process in which a protein is transported to, or maintained in, a location within a cilium.
A process that coontributes to the second meiotic division. The second meiotic division separates chromatids resulting in a haploid number of chromosomes.
The aggregation, arrangement and bonding together of a set of macromolecules to form a protein-containing complex.
cellular protein-containing complex assembly
Any process that modulates a measurable attribute of any biological process, quality or function.
Any process that modulates a qualitative or quantitative trait of a biological quality. A biological quality is a measurable attribute of an organism or part of an organism, such as size, mass, shape, color, etc.
An organelle lumen that is part of an intracellular organelle.
The regulated release of glucagon from secretory granules in the A (alpha) cells of the pancreas (islets of Langerhans).
A cell junction that mechanically attaches a cell (and its cytoskeleton) to neighboring cells or to the extracellular matrix.
The regulated release of somatostatin from secretory granules in the D cells of the pancreas.
The regulated release of mucus by the mucosa. Mucus is a viscous slimy secretion consisting of mucins and various inorganic salts dissolved in water, with suspended epithelial cells and leukocytes. The mucosa, or mucous membrane, is the membrane covered with epithelium that lines the tubular organs of the body. Mucins are carbohydrate-rich glycoproteins that have a lubricating and protective function.
The regulated release of prolactin, a peptide hormone that stimulates lactation, from secretory granules in the anterior pituitary.
Any process that results in a change in state or activity of a cell (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of a chemical stimulus.
The aggregation, arrangement and bonding together of a set of components to form an organelle. An organelle is an organized structure of distinctive morphology and function. Includes the nucleus, mitochondria, plastids, vacuoles, vesicles, ribosomes and the cytoskeleton. Excludes the plasma membrane.
The process of biting and mashing food with the teeth prior to swallowing.
Any process in which a protein is transported from one specific location in the extracellular region to another, or maintained in a specific extracellular location.
protein localisation in extracellular region
protein localization in extracellular region
protein localization to extracellular region
A developmental process, independent of morphogenetic (shape) change, that is required for an anatomical structure to attain its fully functional state.
The directed movement of nitrogen-containing compounds into, out of or within a cell, or between cells, by means of some agent such as a transporter or pore.
The process in which immunoglobulin heavy chain V, D, and J gene segments are recombined within a single locus utilizing the conserved heptamer and nonomer recombination signal sequences (RSS).
immunoglobulin heavy chain V-D-J recombination
The process in which immunoglobulin light chain V and J gene segments are recombined within a single locus utilizing the conserved heptamer and nonomer recombination signal sequences (RSS).
immunoglobulin light chain V-J recombination
A protein complex composed of two identical immunoglobulin heavy chains of the IgD isotype and two identical immunoglobulin light chains, held together by disulfide bonds. An IgD immunoglobulin complex may be embedded in the plasma membrane or present in the extracellular space, in mucosal areas or other tissues, or circulating in the blood or lymph.
Note that an IgD immunoglobulin complex has the function of antigen binding if a suitable antigen is available.
A protein complex composed of two identical immunoglobulin heavy chains of the IgM isotype and two identical immunoglobulin light chains, held together by disulfide bonds, and in its circulating form complexed with J chain in polymeric forms. An IgM immunoglobulin complex may be embedded in the plasma membrane or present in the extracellular space, in mucosal areas or other tissues, or circulating in the blood or lymph.
Note that an IgM immunoglobulin complex has the function of antigen binding if a suitable antigen is available.
Any process in which macromolecules aggregate, disaggregate, or are modified, resulting in the formation, disassembly, or alteration of a ribonucleoprotein complex.
RNA-protein complex subunit organization
protein-RNA complex subunit organization
ribonucleoprotein complex subunit organisation
ribonucleoprotein complex subunit organization
A process that results in the biosynthesis of constituent macromolecules, assembly, arrangement of constituent parts, or disassembly of a cellular component.
cellular component organisation or biogenesis
cellular component organisation or biogenesis at cellular level
cellular component organization or biogenesis at cellular level
cellular component organization or biogenesis
The broad region around and including the plasma membrane of a cell, encompassing the cell cortex (inside the cell), the plasma membrane, and any external encapsulating structures.
An supramolecular fiber that consists of an insoluble core of polymerized tropoelastin monomers and a surrounding mantle of microfibrils. Elastic fibers provide elasticity and recoiling to tissues and organs, and maintain structural integrity against mechanical strain.
The aggregation, arrangement and bonding together of a set of components to form an extracellular vesicular exosome, a membrane-bounded vesicle that is released into the extracellular region by fusion of the limiting endosomal membrane of a multivesicular body with the plasma membrane. Exosomes are defined by their size, which generally ranges from 30 nm to 100 nm.
extracellular vesicular exosome assembly
The developmental process pertaining to the initial formation of an epithelial tube.
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of monocarboxylic acids, any organic acid containing one carboxyl (-COOH) group.
monocarboxylic acid biosynthetic process
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of a response to stress. Response to stress is a change in state or activity of a cell or an organism (in terms of movement, secretion, enzyme production, gene expression, etc.) as a result of a disturbance in organismal or cellular homeostasis, usually, but not necessarily, exogenous (e.g. temperature, humidity, ionizing radiation).
Any cellular metabolic process involving nucleic acids.
The process whose specific outcome is the formation of tooth enamel, occurring in two stages: secretory stage and maturation stage.
The series of molecular signals which triggers the apoptotic death of a cell. The pathway starts with reception of a signal, and ends when the execution phase of apoptosis is triggered.
induction of apoptosis by extracellular signals
This term can be used to annotate gene products involved in apoptotic events happening downstream of the cross-talk point between the extrinsic and intrinsic apoptotic pathways. The cross-talk starts when caspase-8 cleaves Bid and truncated Bid interacts with mitochondria. From this point on it is not possible to distinguish between extrinsic and intrinsic pathways.
Cell death signalling via NRAGE, NRIF and NADE
A stage of the apoptotic process that starts with the controlled breakdown of the cell through the action of effector caspases or other effector molecules (e.g. cathepsins, calpains etc.). Key steps of the execution phase are rounding-up of the cell, retraction of pseudopodes, reduction of cellular volume (pyknosis), chromatin condensation, nuclear fragmentation (karyorrhexis), plasma membrane blebbing and fragmentation of the cell into apoptotic bodies. When the execution phase is completed, the cell has died.
A renal system process in which fluid circulating through the body is filtered through a barrier system.
The elimination of substances from peritubular capillaries (or surrounding hemolymph in invertebrates) into the renal tubules to be incorporated subsequently into the urine. Substances that are secreted include organic anions, ammonia, potassium and drugs.
Any vesicle that is part of the intracellular region.
The docking of a cytosolic centriole/basal body to the plasma membrane via the ciliary transition fibers. In some species this may happen via an intermediate step, by first docking to the ciliary vesicle via the ciliary transition fibers. The basal body-ciliary vesicle then relocates to the plasma membrane, followed by the ciliary vesicle fusing with the plasma membrane, effectively attaching the basal body to the plasma membrane.
anchoring of the basal body to the plasma membrane
Basal bodies in jawed vertebrates appear to first attach to a ciliary vesicle. It is unclear how specific this is to jawed vertebrates or if other organisms also employ this sequence. Some species like Giardia intestinalis do not relocate their basal bodies to the plasma membrane, but have their axonemes extend through the cytosol to then protrude out of the cell to form flagella.
ciliary basal body-plasma membrane docking
The process in which vesicles formed at the trans-Golgi network are directed to the plasma membrane surrounding the base of the cilium, including the ciliary pocket, mediated by molecules at the vesicle membrane and target membrane surfaces.
vesicle targeting, trans-Golgi to periciliary membrane compartment
Any process involved in the controlled movement of a sperm cell.
The assembly and secretion of an extracellular exosome, a membrane-bounded vesicle that is released into the extracellular region by fusion of the limiting endosomal membrane of a multivesicular body with the plasma membrane.
Reactions triggered in response to the presence of another organism that act to protect the cell or organism from damage caused by that organism.
defence response incompatible interaction
defence response to pathogen, incompatible interaction
defense response, incompatible interaction
The lipid bilayer that forms the outer-most layer of an organelle.
Examples include the outer membranes of double membrane bound organelles such as mitochondria as well as the bounding membranes of single-membrane bound organelles such as lysosomes.
A membrane that is a (regional) part of the plasma membrane.
Note that this term should not be used for direct manual annotation as it should always be possible to choose a more specific subclass.
A secretory granule that contains mucin.
A supramolecular assembly of fibrillar collagen complexes in the form of a long fiber (fibril) with transverse striations (bands).
A complex of collagen trimers such as a fibril or collagen network.
A supramolecular complex that consists of collagen triple helices associated to form a network.
The directed movement of some substance from outside of a cell into a cell. This may occur via transport across the plasma membrane or via endocytosis.
Any process that reduces or removes the toxicity of a toxic substance. These may include transport of the toxic substance away from sensitive areas and to compartments or complexes whose purpose is sequestration of the toxic substance.
Any process involved in the maintenance of an internal steady state of inorganic ions within an organism or cell.
Any protein complex that is part of a membrane.
Any protein complex that is part of the plasma membrane.
Any protein complex that is part of the plasma membrane and which functions as a signaling receptor.
plasma membrane signaling receptor complex
A cell projection supported by an assembly of actin filaments, and which lacks microtubules.
Cell-cell signaling from pre to post-synapse, across the synaptic cleft.
A cellular component that consists of an indeterminate number of proteins or macromolecular complexes, organized into a regular, higher-order structure such as a polymer, sheet, network or a fiber.
A microtubule-based process that results in the transport of organelles, other microtubules, or other cellular components. Examples include motor-driven movement along microtubules and movement driven by polymerization or depolymerization of microtubules.
A cytoplasmic, membrane bound vesicle that is capable of fusing to the plasma membrane to release its contents into the extracellular space.
A polymer consisting of an indefinite number of protein or protein complex subunits that have polymerised to form a fiber-shaped structure.
A component of the cytoskeleton consisting of a homo or heteropolymeric fiber constructed from an indeterminate number of protein subunits.
Cell-cell signaling to, from or within a synapse.
Cell-cell signaling in either direction across the synaptic cleft.
A part of a cellular organism consisting of a material entity with granularity above the level of a protein complex but below that of an anatomical system. Note that cellular organisms exclude viruses.
A prolongation or process extending from a cell and that is bounded by plasma membrane, e.g. a cilium, lamellipodium, or axon.
Formation of a prolongation or process extending and that is bounded by plasma membrane, e.g. a cilium, lamellipodium, or axon.
plasma membrane bounded cell projection assembly
A process that is carried out at the cellular level which results in the assembly, arrangement of constituent parts, or disassembly of a plasma membrane bounded prolongation or process extending from a cell, e.g. a cilium or axon.
plasma membrane bounded cell projection organization
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of any steroid hormone, naturally occurring substances secreted by specialized cells that affects the metabolism or behavior of other cells possessing functional receptors for the hormone.
The assembly and organization of the sperm flagellum, the microtubule-based axoneme and associated structures that are part of a sperm flagellum (or cilium).
One of the two nuclear divisions that occur as part of the meiotic cell cycle.
A mitotic cell cycle process comprising the steps by which the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell divides; the process involves condensation of chromosomal DNA into a highly compacted form. Canonically, mitosis produces two daughter nuclei whose chromosome complement is identical to that of the mother cell.
The process by which an organelle membrane interacts with another membrane via molecular tethers that physically bridge the two membranes and attach them to each other.
organelle localization by membrane tethering
Catalytic activity that acts to modify a protein.
Catalytic activity that acts to modify RNA.
Catalytic activity that acts to modify a tRNA.
Note that this term excludes activities for which a charged tRNA acts as an amino acid donor.
The assembly and secretion a set of components to form an extracellular vesicule, a membrane-bounded vesicle that is released into the extracellular region. Extracellular vesicles include exosomes, microvesicles and apoptotic bodies, based on the mechanism by which they are released from cells and differentiated based on their size and content.
The solid compartment of the basement membrane ECM, including a specific subset of basement membrane collagens and basement membrane glycoproteins like laminins or nidogens.
Collagenous component of basement membrane ECMs, including collagen IV and other types of collagen specifically expressed in basement membrane.
collagenous component of basement membrane
The solid compartment of the interstitial matrix, including interstitial collagens such as fibrillar and fibril-associated collagens and non-collagenous glycoproteins like fibronectin and elastin.
Main components of the interstitial matrix solid phase, including fibrillar and fibril-associated collagens.
collagenous component of interstitial matrix
Network-forming collagens can either form a chicken-wire-like network or a hexagonal network. Collagen type IV forms a chicken-wire-like structure and is found in the basement membrane.
A cellular process in which two or more cells combine together, their plasma membrane fusing, producing a single cell. In some cases, nuclei fuse, producing a polyploid cell, while in other cases, nuclei remain separate, producing a syncytium.
The directed movement of some substance from a cell, into the extracellular region. This may occur via transport across the plasma membrane or via exocytosis.
The directed movement of a lipid from a cell, into the extracellular region.
Reactions triggered in response to the presence of a symbiont that act to protect or prevent damage to the host.
Catalytic activity that acts to modify a nucleic acid.
catalytic activity, acting on a nucleic acid
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of protein.
A glycoprotein biosynthetic process starting with the covalent linkage of a xylose via a beta-glycosidic bond to the oxygen atom of a serine or a threonine side chain in a protein, which can be further elongated with the sequential addition of sugar units resulting in the formation of a protein O-linked glycan.
protein O-linked glycosylation via xylose
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of hemostasis.
Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of hemostasis.
The chemical reactions and pathways involving carbohydrate derivative.
carbohydrate derivative metabolic process
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of carbohydrate derivative.
carbohydrate derivative biosynthetic process
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of flagellated sperm motility.
regulation of flagellated sperm motility
The chemical reactions and pathways involving fatty acid derivative.
The chemical reactions and pathways resulting in the formation of fatty acid derivative.
fatty acid derivative biosynthetic process
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of cilium-dependent cell motility.
regulation of cilium-dependent cell motility
Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of flagellated sperm motility.
positive regulation of flagellated sperm motility
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of leukocyte differentiation.
regulation of immune cell differentiation
The chemical reactions and pathways involving ketone body.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of response to wounding.
regulation of physiological response to wounding
Any process that stops, prevents or reduces the frequency, rate or extent of response to wounding.
down regulation of physiological response to wounding
down-regulation of physiological response to wounding
downregulation of physiological response to wounding
negative regulation of physiological response to wounding
inhibition of physiological response to wounding
negative regulation of response to wounding
A process that is part of the meiotic cell cycle.
A process that is part of the mitotic cell cycle.
The process in which a relatively unspecialized cell acquires the specialized features of a mononuclear cell.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of blood circulation.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of secretion by cell.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of hemopoiesis.
An example of this is Atg7 in mouse (UniProt symbol, Q9D906) in PMID:20080761, inferred from mutant phenotype.
The process in which D-glucose is transported across a membrane.
The aggregation, arrangement and bonding together of a set of components to form a ciliary transition zone.
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of multicellular organismal development.
regulation of multicellular organismal development
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of cell motility.
Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of cell motility.
positive regulation of movement of a cell
Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of cilium-dependent cell motility.
positive regulation of ciliary cell motility
positive regulation of cilium-dependent cell motility
Any process that modulates the frequency, rate or extent of reproductive process.
Any process that activates or increases the frequency, rate or extent of reproductive process.
positive regulation of reproductive process
Root of all terms in the Human Phenotype Ontology.
Deviation from the norm of height with respect to that which is expected according to age and gender norms.
An abnormality of the female internal genitalia.
Abnormality of female internal genitalia
Abnormal morphology of female internal genitalia
Diverticulum (sac or pouch) in the wall of the urinary bladder.
An abnormality of the ureter. The ureter is the duct by which urine passes from the kidney to the bladder.
The kidney is a paired organ whose primary function is the production of urine.
This is the root of the phenotypic abnormality subontology of the HPO.
The presence of any abnormality of the genitourinary system.
The presence of a leiomyoma of the uterus.
Leiomyoma is a benign neoplasm derived from smooth muscle cells.
The nervous system comprises the neuraxis (brain, spinal cord, and ventricles), the autonomic nervous system, the enteric nervous system, and the peripheral nervous system.
An abnormality of the urethra, i.e., of the tube which connects the urinary bladder to the outside of the body.
An anomaly of the adnexa, uterus, and vagina (in female) or seminal tract and prostate (in male).
The endocrine system is composed of glands that secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream and includes the following glands: thyroid, parathyroids, adrenals, pancreas, gonads (testicles and ovaries), and pituitary. Many other organs, such as the kidney, liver, and heart, have secondary endocrine functions.
A group of abnormalities characterized by hyperglycemia and glucose intolerance.
The presence of chronic increased pressure in the systemic arterial system.
Hypertension is sustained elevation of resting systolic BP (140 mm Hg or higher), diastolic BP (90 mm Hg or higher), or both.
A seizure is an intermittent abnormality of nervous system physiology characterized by a transient occurrence of signs and/or symptoms due to abnormal excessive or synchronous neuronal activity in the brain.
A type of electrographic seizure has been proposed in neonates which does not have a clinical correlate, it is electrographic only. The term epilepsy is not used to describe recurrent febrile seizures. Epilepsy presumably reflects an abnormally reduced seizure threshold.
Accumulation of substantial excess body fat.
An abnormality of the integument, which consists of the skin and the superficial fascia.
Any abnormality of the cardiovascular system.
Abnormality of the cardiovascular system
The cardiovascular system consists of the heart, vasculature, and the lymphatic system.
A disorder of the foot that can either be congenital or acquired. Such deformities can include hammer toe, club foot deformity, flat feet, pes cavus, congenital vertical talus (rocker bottom foot), and many others.
Lateral deviation of the great toe (i.e., in the direction of the little toe).
This term applies for all abnormalities of the big toe, also called hallux.
An abnormality of the hematopoietic system.
Abnormality of blood and blood-forming tissues
Abnormality of the haematopoietic system
The hematopoietic system comprises the organs that are involved in the production of blood, primarily the bone marrow, spleen, tonsils, and lymph nodes.
The formation of a blood clot inside a blood vessel that subsequently travels through the blood stream from the site where it formed to another location in the body, generally leading to vascular occlusion at the distant site.
Body temperature elevated above the normal range.
Fever has been defined as a state of elevated core temperature, which is often, but not necessarily, part of the defensive responses of multicellular organisms (host) to the invasion of live (microorganisms) or inanimate matter recognized as pathogenic or alien by the host. The febrile response (of which fever is a component) is a complex physiologic reaction to disease, involving a cytokine-mediated rise in core temperature, generation of acute phase reactants, and activation of numerous physiologic, endocrinologic, and immunologic systems. The rise in temperature during fever is to be distinguished from that occurring during episodes of hyperthermia. Unlike fever, hyperthermia involves an unregulated rise in body temperature in which pyrogenic cytokines are not directly involved and against which standard antipyretics are ineffective. It represents a failure of thermoregulatory homeostasis, in which there is uncontrolled heat production, inadequate heat dissipation, or defective hypothalamic thermoregulation.
Presence of elevated levels of ketone bodies in the body.
Ketone bodies are formed from acetyl-CoA in the liver by ketogenesis when the liver glycogen stores are depleted. Ketone bodies are acidic, and ketoacidosis ensues if the compensatory mechanisms are overloaded. The predominant ketones being acetoacetate, acetone, and beta-hydroxybutyrate.
Glucose intolerance (GI) can be defined as dysglycemia that comprises both prediabetes and diabetes. It includes the conditions of impaired fasting glucose (IFG) and impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) and diabetes mellitus (DM).
Venous or arterial thrombosis (formation of blood clots) of spontaneous nature and which cannot be fully explained by acquired risk (e.g. atherosclerosis).
A structural abnormality of the central nervous system.
Abnormality of the central nervous system
Morphological abnormality of the central nervous system
Morphological central nervous system abnormality
An abnormality of the viscera of the abdomen.
The abdominal organs comprise the stomach, small and large intestines, liver, pancreas, bile tract, and spleen.
A structural abnormality of the esophagus.
An abnormaltiy of the rectum, the final segment of the large intestine that stores solid waste until it passes through the anus.
An abnormality of the respiratory system, which include the airways, lungs, and the respiratory muscles.
A structural abnormality of the spinal cord (myelon).
An embolus (that is, an abnormal particle circulating in the blood) located in the pulmonary artery and thereby blocking blood circulation to the lung. Usually the embolus is a blood clot that has developed in an extremity (for instance, a deep venous thrombosis), detached, and traveled through the circulation before becoming trapped in the pulmonary artery.
An abnormality of the intestine. The closely related term enteropathy is used to refer to any disease of the intestine.
A structural abnormality of the small intestine.
Meckel's diverticulum is a congenital diverticulum located in the distal ileum.
The large intestine comprises the cecum and colon.
The stomach is the hollow, muscular organ of the gastrointestinal tract between the esophagus and the small intestine.
Low Blood Pressure, vascular hypotension.
Abnormal outpouching or sac-like dilatation in the wall of an artery, vein or the heart.
Aneurysm is considered a severe form of dilatation.
An organ or organ-system abnormality that consists of uncontrolled autonomous cell-proliferation which can occur in any part of the body as a benign or malignant neoplasm (tumor).
The World Health Organization (WHO) classifies neoplasms into four main groups: (i) benign neoplasm, (ii) in situ neoplasm, (iii) malignant neoplasm, and (iv) neoplasm of uncertain or unknown behavior. A malignant neoplasm is also known as cancer.
The immune system is composed of organs and interdependent cell types that collectively protect the body from infections and from the growth of tumor cells. The organs of the immune system comprise the bone marrow, the spleen, the thymus,the lymph nodes, and the cell types comprise B cells, T cells, natural killer cells, granulocytes,dendritic cells, and macrophages.
Abnormal function of the respiratory system.
Any abnormality of bones of the arms or legs.
A kind of neoplasm of the liver that originates from immature liver precursor cells and macroscopically is composed of tissue resembling fetal or mature liver cells or bile ducts.
Hepatoblastoma occurs nearly exclusively in infants and children.
A tumor (abnormal growth of tissue) of the liver.
An increased concentration of glucose in the blood.
Pathological deposition of calcium salts in one or more arteries.
Most individuals aged over 60 years have progressively enlarging deposits of calcium mineral in their major arteries. This vascular calcification reduces aortic and arterial elastance, which impairs cardiovascular hemodynamics, resulting in substantial morbidity and mortality in the form of hypertension, aortic stenosis, cardiac hypertrophy, myocardial and lower-limb ischemia, congestive heart failure, and compromised structural integrity.The severity and extent of mineralization reflect atherosclerotic plaque burden and strongly and independently predict cardiovascular morbidity and mortality. (From PMID:18519861).
An abnormal increase or decrease of weight or an abnormal distribution of mass in the body.
An abnormality of temperature homeostasis.
The formation of a blood clot inside an artery.
An abnormality of the renal collecting system.
Abnormality of the renal collecting system
Abnormal renal collecting system morphology
Abnormal calcification of the vasculature.
Formation of a blood clot (thrombus) inside a vein, causing the obstruction of blood flow.
Any structural abnormality of a cardiac atrium.
Abnormality of cardiac atrium morphology
A discrete abnormal tissue mass that protrudes into the lumen of the intestine and is attached to the intestinal wall either by a stalk, pedunculus, or a broad base.
A localized outpouching of ventricular cavity that is generally associated with dyskinesia and paradoxical expansion during systole.
Aneurysm is considered a severe form of dilatation. Ventricular aneurysms may have rim of calcium in the affected regions of the ventricular wall (which can become fibrotic). Thromboembolism is a potential complication. Ventricular aneurysms can be diagnosed by ventriculography.
A tumor (abnormal growth of tissue) of the stomach.
A tumor (abnormal growth of tissue) of the gastrointestinal tract.
A tumor (abnormal growth of tissue) of the genitourinary system.
The presence of a diverticulum (sac or pouch) in the wall of the urethra.
Displacement of the big toe from its normal position.
Any abnormality of the spinal meninges, the system of membranes (dura mater, the arachnoid mater, and the pia mater) which envelops the spinal cord.
Abnormality of the female genital system.
Abnormality of the female internal or external genitalia.
A tumor (abnormal growth of tissue) of the skeleton.
An abnormality of the Meninges, including any abnormality of the Dura mater, the Arachnoid mater, and the Pia mater.
Deposition of calcium salts in a tissue or location in which calcification does not normally occur.
A tumor (abnormal growth of tissue) of the uterus.
The presence of a neoplasm of the urinary system.
A tumor (abnormal growth of tissue) of the genital system.
An abnormality of the upper urinary tract.
The upper urinary tract is a subdivision of urinary system which consists of the kidney and the ureters.
An abnormality of the lower urinary tract.
The lower urinary tract is a subdivision of urinary system which consists of the urinary bladder and the urethra.
A functional abnormality of the immune system.
An abnormality of the systemic arterial tree, which consists of the aorta and other systemic arteries.
Abnormality of the systemic arterial tree
An abnormality of any process involved in the maintenance of an internal steady state of glucose within an organism or cell.
An abnormality of the concentration of glucose in the blood.
Abnormality of blood glucose concentration
An abnormality of the gastrointestinal tract.
Abnormality of the gastrointestinal tract
Abnormal functionality of the cardiovascular system.
Abnormality of cardiovascular system physiology
Abnormal cardiovascular system physiology
An abnormality of the regulation of body fluids.
Any abnormality of the physiological function of the skin.
The presence of inflammation of the skin. That is, an abnormality of the skin resulting from the local accumulation of fluid, plasma proteins, and leukocytes.
Abnormal tendency to infections of the skin
A morphological abnormality of a digit, i.e., of a finger or toe.
An abnormality of the coronary sinus, which is formed by the union of the great cardiac vein and the left marginal vein and terminates in the right atrium. The coronary sinus functions to o collect deoxygenated blood from the myocardium of the heart and drain it into the right atrium.
A venous pouch within the left ventricular wall, with a neck opening into the coronary sinus.
Neoplasm categorized according to type of histological abnormality.
Neoplasm categorized according to the anatomical site of origin of the neoplasm.
An abnormality of the form, structure, or size of the skeletal system.
An abnormality of the appendicular skeletal system, consisting of the of the limbs, shoulder and pelvic girdles.
Abnormal appendicular skeleton morphology
Abnormal calcification in the cardiovascular system.
A structural or developmental anomaly of any of the tissues involved in the genital system.
A structural anomaly of the respiratory system.
An anomaly in the processes involved in the maintenance of an internal equilibrium.
A functional anomaly of the nervous system.
Abnormality of nervous system physiology
A structural anomaly of the nervous system.
Abnormality of nervous system morphology
Any anomaly of the inflammatory response, a response to injury or infection characterized by local vasodilation, extravasation of plasma into intercellular spaces and accumulation of white blood cells and macrophages.
A abnormal increase in the inflammatory response to injury or infection.
Abnormal structure of the gastrointestinal tract.
Morphological abnormality of the GI tract
Morphological abnormality of the gastrointestinal tract
Morphological anomaly of the digestive system
Abnormal gastrointestinal tract morphology
A discrete abnormal tissue mass that protrudes into the lumen of the small intestine and is attached to the intestinal wall either by a stalk, pedunculus, or a broad base.
Polyp is a morphological description rather than a histological diagnosis. morphologic description, not a specific histologic diagnosis. Polyps can be neoplastic (e.g., adenoma, carcinoma) or non-neoplastic (e.g., hyperplastic, inflammatory, or hamartomatous).
An anomaly of the neck of the uterus (lower part of the uterus), called the uterine cervix.
Any anomaly of the digestive system, a collection of organs that is made up of the gastrointestinal tract and the liver, pancreas, and gallbladder. The gastrointestinal tract is a series of hollow organs joined in a long, twisting tube from the mouth to the anus, including the mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine and anus.
A structural anomaly of the digestive system.
Abnormality of digestive system morphology
A growth protruding from the mucous membrane of the ureter. Ureteral polyps can be attached to the ureter by a broad base or a thin stalk.
Abnormal growth of tissue projecting from a mucous membrane of the endocervix.
The presence of multiple polyps in the large intestine.
Any structural anomaly of the heart and blood vessels.
Abnormality of cardiovascular system morphology
Abnormal cardiovascular system morphology
A functional anomaly of that portion of the cardiosvascular system that carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs and returns oxygenated blood back to the heart.
A chronic deviation from normal pressure in the systemic arterial system.
Any anomaly of the structure of the breast.
Any anomaly of the structure of the uterus
Abnormal increase in blood pressure. An individual measurement of increased blood pressure does not necessarily imply hypertension. In practical terms, multiple measurements are recommended to diagnose the presence of hypertension.
Pulmonary bullae are rounded focal regions of emphysema with a thin wall which measure more than 1 cm in diameter. They are often subpleural in location and are typically larger in the apices. In some cases, bullae can be very large and result in compression of adjacent lung tissue. A giant bulla is arbitrarily defined as one that occupies at least one third of the volume of a hemithorax. When large, bullae can simulate pneumothorax. The most common cause is paraseptal emphysema but bullae may also be seen in association with centrilobular emphysema.
Blebs and bullae are commonly subpleural and are mostly seen in both upper lobes in patients with coexisting centrilobular and paraseptal emphysema.
A neoplasm that affects the female reproductive system.
An anomaly of the musculoskeletal system, which consists of the bones of the skeleton, muscles, cartilage, tendons, ligaments, joints, and other connective tissue. The musculoskeletal system supports the weight of the body, maintains body position and produces movements of the body or of parts of the body.
Abnormality of the musculoskeletal system
Any structural anomaly of a blood vessel (artery, arteriole, capillary, venule, or vein).
A tumor (abnormal growth of tissue) of the digestive system.
A tumor (abnormal growth of tissue) of the breast.
Osteomas are bony growths found most commonly on the skull and mandible; however, they may occur in any bone of the body. Osteomas do not usually cause clinical problems and do not become malignant.
The presence of a neoplasm of the ureter.
A cardiac diverticulum is a rare congenital malformation which is either fibrous or muscular.
A fibrous cardiac diverticulum refers to an aneurysm and usually appears as an isolated congenital anomaly.
The presence of a diverticulum of the esophagus.
A diverticulum is a blind ended outpouching through the wall of a tubular organ or bounded cavity.
Gastric diverticulum may be asymptomatic or may present with a vague sensation of fullness or discomfort in the upper abdomen, or with acute upper gastrointestinal bleed or perforation.
The presence of a neoplasm of the small intestine.
An estimated 40% of small bowel cancers are adenocarcinomas, 40% are carcinoids, 15% are sarcomas (GI stromal tumors), and less than 5% are lymphomas.
The presence of a neoplasm of the large intestine.
Cystic, urine-containing intrarenal cavities lined with transitional cell epithelium that communicate through a narrow channel with the collecting system.
The presence of multiple polyps in the intestine.
Multiple abnormal growths that arise from the lining of the large intestine (colon or rectum) and protrude into the intestinal lumen.
A clinically prescribed procedure, therapy, intervention, or recommendation.
medical action
All manners of treatment, be they pharmaceuticals, invasive procedures, etc. to relieve illness and injury in attempts to bring the body back to its normal state.
An action or administration of therapeutic agents to produce an effect that is intended to alter or stop a pathologic process.
therapeutic procedure
Any procedure or test to diagnose a disease or disorder.
diagnostic procedure
A diagnostic or treatment procedure performed by manual and/or instrumental means, often involving an incision and the removal or replacement of a diseased organ or tissue; of or relating to or involving or used in surgery or requiring or amenable to treatment by surgery.
surgical procedure
Any technology or method that aids in the visualization of any biological process, cell, tissue or organ for use in screening, diagnosis, surgical procedures or therapy.
clinical imaging procedure
Any procedure that involves testing or manipulating a sample of blood, urine, or other body substance in a laboratory setting for diagnosis, treatment, or therapy.
clinical laboratory procedure
A test that involves the administration of contrast dye and X-ray imaging in order to be able to see soft tissue within the body. Dye can be added intravenously, ingested, or other methods.
radiograph imaging with contrast dye
Behavioral or regulatory nutritional interventions aim at modifying nutritional intake which have an impact on health outcomes.
nutrition intervention
Cognitive and behavioral interventions are therapies that are designed to decrease symptoms and foster the belief that one has control over thoughts, beliefs, attitudes, and skills to facilitate coping.
cognitive and behavioral intervention
The treatment of deformity or disease through mechanical force and movement, including both active and passive exercises, intended to ameliorate injury, increase mobility, and improve overall function.
physical therapy
A surgery performed on specific region of the body.
Complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) or “complementary health approaches” are a group of diverse medical and health care practices and products that are not presently considered to be part of conventional medicine.
complementary or alternative medical procedure
complementary and alternative medical therapy
Treatment of a disease by means of exposure of the target or the whole body to radiation. Radiation therapy is often used as part of curative therapy and occasionally as a component of palliative treatment for cancer. Other uses include total body irradiation prior to transplantation.
radiation therapy
A type of treatment that uses substances derived from or made by living organisms to treat disease; this includes both naturally occurring and synthetic products.
biologic therapy
Cell therapy is therapy in which cellular material is injected into a patient.
cellular therapy
A therapy or action designed to prevent disease or ailment.
preventative therapy
A broad subcategory of medical signs or objective indications of medical state which can be measured accurately and reproducibly.
biomarker analysis
A radiographic examination of the esophagus in which the esophagusis made visible by barium or a water-soluble contrast administered orally prior to the examination.
esophography with contrast
A behavioral modification or implementation of a behavior designed to prevent disease or ailment.
behavioral preventative care
An approach that improves the quality of life of patients and their families facing the problems associated with life-threatening illness, through the prevention and relief of suffering by means of early identification and impeccable assessment and treatment of pain and other problems, physical, psychosocial, and spiritual’.
palliative care
A service delivery system that provides palliative care/medicine when life expectancy is 6 months or less and when curative or life-prolonging therapy is no longer indicated.
hospice care
Treatment with an agent that can alter brain chemistry leading to mood and/or behaviorial changes.
mood and behavior-altering agent therapy
Any surgical procedure conducted on the camera-type eye.
Care for patients with a progressive life-limiting disease with a prognosis of months or less.
end-of life care
The production of heat in a body part by high-frequency electrical currents to stimulate circulation, relieve pain, cauterization, or destroy tissue.
diathermy
A therapy using microwaves to focus on and heat up tissue with high water content, such as muscle.
microwave diathermy
A deep heating modality that uses high-frequency acoustic vibrations within body tissues for the treatment of certain medical conditions, such as the alleviation of pain, muscle spasms, and joint contractures.
ultrasound therapy
Quantification of cell characteristics, including morphological or physiological parameter of one or more cells in order to determine the health of the patient and/or detect disease.
cell measurement
A form of deep heat therapy can induce vasodilatation, elevation of pain threshold, reduction in muscle spasm, acceleration of cellular metabolism, increased soft tissue extensibility, increase blood flow, decrease joint pain and stiffness, reduce inflammation, faster resolution of edema, and accelerate wound healing.
short wave diathermy
Any medical procedure used to sustain the life of a patient in critical condition.
life support care
obsolete therapeutic avoidance of behavior
A measurement of the shape, structure, form, and size of cells from a patient to determine if there is disease and/or infection.
cell morphology assessment
All manners of treatment to relieve illness and injury of a particular body site or system.
therapeutic procedure by site
obsolete therapeutic mental or psychological behavior avoidance
A clinical recommendation to avoid preventable diseases by vaccination or otherwise lowering risk for certain diseases.
preventable disease avoidance recommendation
Avoidance of an illness or infection that can be spread from person to person, animal to person, animal to animal or person to animal by taking precautionary measures, such as good hygiene practices or vaccines.
communicable disease avoidance
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding or preventing Dehydration.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding or preventing Hypertension.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding or preventing Obesity.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding or preventing Inflammatory abnormality of the skin.
Inflammatory abnormality of the skin avoidance
avoid Inflammatory abnormality of the skin recommendation
inflammation of the skin prevention recommendation
Recommendation by a clinician to avoid exercise or physical activity.
avoidance of physical activity recommendation
avoidance of physical activity therapeutic recommendation
physical activity avoidance recommendation
A recommendation by a clinician or therapist to avoid any impact activities to prevent medical issues or help the physical wellbeing of a patient.
therapeutic recommendation to avoid impact activities
impact activities avoidance recommendation
A recommendation by a clinician or therapist to avoid isometric exercises to prevent medical issues or help the physical wellbeing of a patient.
therapeutic recommendation to avoid isometric exercise
isometric exercise avoidance recommendation
A clinical recommendation to avoid or refrain from certain environmental exposures in order to maintain health or ameliorate symptoms.
therapeutic avoidance of environmental exposure
A clinical recommendation to avoid or refrain from unnecessary radiation exposure.
radiation exposure avoidance
A clinical recommendation to avoid or refrain from unnecessary sulight exposure.
sunlight avoidance
A clinical recommendation to avoid the process of taking in of nutrients, especially by eating or drinking, considered in relation to the body’s dietary needs.
nutrition intake avoidance
Use of a substance introduced into a living organism with therapeutic or diagnostic purpose.
Use of a drug to treat or prevent bacterial infections.
treatment with an anti-bacterial medication
treatment with an anti-bacterial therapy
treatment with an antibacterial medication
Use of a substance that inhibits or prevents the proliferation of neoplasms.
treatment with anti-neoplastic medication
treatment with antineoplastic medication
Sustained exercise that places an increased oxygen demand on the cardiovascular system and promotes an increased efficiency of the body's use of oxygen.
A medical recommendation of sustained exercise that places an increased oxygen demand on the cardiovascular system and promotes an increased efficiency of the body's use of oxygen.
aerobic exercise therapy
The administration of oxygen to an individual, usually to aid in respiration.
Inhalation of oxygen aimed at restoring toward normal any pathophysiologic alterations of gas exchange in the cardiopulmonary system, as by the use of a respirator, nasal catheter, tent, chamber, or mask. (From Dorland, 27th ed & Stedman, 25th ed)
supplemental oxygen therapy
A procedure designed to help you breathe easier when your lungs have been damaged by disease. The goal of the surgery is to remove the area of the lung most affected by disease, allowing the remaining lung to function more efficiently, and improve your breathing ability and quality of life.
lung volume reduction surgery
Transference of a tissue or organ within an individual, between individuals of the same species, or between individuals of different species.
transplantation procedure
obsolete lung transplantation surgical procedure
A clinical recommendation to avoid or refrain from unnecessary chemical exposure.
chemical exposure avoidance
The use of ultrasound to produce images of structures in the human body.
2D ultrasounds produce a flat image of the organs. 3D images show three-dimensional external images of organs or fetus. 4D ultrasounds generates an image that is continuously updated, like amoving image.
A procedure that uses high-energy sound waves to look at tissues and organs inside the body. The sound waves make echoes that form pictures of the tissues and organs on a computer screen (sonogram). Ultrasound may be used to help diagnose diseases, such as cancer. It may also be used during pregnancy to check the fetus (unborn baby) and during medical procedures, such as biopsies. Also called ultrasonography.
ultrasonography procedure
A procedure to measure pancreatic secretion to discriminate between pancreatic and nonpancreatic causes of malabsorption.
pancreatic function testing
The quantitative measurement of digestive system tests to diagnose or treat a digestive disorder using clinical laboratory procedures, imaging tests, endoscopic or other procedures.
digestive system testing
The act of receiving professional guidance in resolving personal conflicts and emotional problems.
behavioral counseling
Counseling designed to guide and support an individual to overcome alcohol dependence.
alcoholism counseling
The process whereby an expert in hereditary disorders provides information about risk and clinical burden of a disorder or disorders to patients or relatives in families with genetic disorders as an aid to making informed and responsible decisions about marriage, children, early diagnosis, and handling disability.
genetic counseling
A wide range of techniques and psychotherapies aimed at controlling a person's level of stress.
stress management therapy
A process by which a health professional provides education, recommendations, or interventions to help clients stop using tobacco products. (ACC)
tobacco cessation counseling
The practice of piercing specific points on the body with very thin sterile needles in order to relieve pain or induce regional anesthesia.
acupuncture therapy
Continuous and profound contemplation or musing on a subject or series of subjects of a deep or abstruse nature; contemplation of spiritual matters
meditation therapy
An ancient system of practices used to balance the mind and body through exercise, meditation (focusing thoughts), and control of breathing and emotions. Yoga is being studied as a way to relieve stress and treat sleep problems.
yoga therapy
An alternative medical system that focuses on the relationship between bodily structure (primarily that of the spine) and function, and how that relationship affects the preservation and restoration of health. Chiropractors use manipulative therapy as an integral treatment tool.
chiropractic therapy
A therapeutic method of manipulation, methodical pressure, friction, and kneading of the body. (from Taber's)
massage therapy
Any alteration or treatment in an individual's diet with a planned goal, usually designed to improve the individual's overall health.
dietary intervention
The restriction of energy (calorie) intake below the amount required for weight maintenance.
primarily food‐based low‐calorie diet intake
calorie restrictive diet intake
Delivery of enteral nutrition via a tube placed into the stomach, duodenum, or jejunum.
enteral nutrition intake
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of large amounts of alcohol.
excessive alcohol avoidance
A clinical recommendation to avoid foods with high concentrations of estrogen.
Some processed foods and soy contain large amounts of estrogen.
estrogen-containing food avoidance
obsolete excessive iron consumption avoidance
A clinical recomendation to avoid high-protein diets which may worsen kidney function.
excessive protein consumption avoidance
Clinical recommendation to avoid fasting due to health risks.
fasting avoidance
Abstinence from all or some kinds of food or drink, particularly for religious observance, medical nutrition therapy, or prior to a medical procedure.
fasting intervention
The addition of one or more elements and/or chemical compounds that are either absent or deficient in an individual's daily diet.
nutritional supplementation
Addition of multivitamin preparation to a diet for complete nutrition support.
dietary supplementation of multivitamin preparation
multivitamin preparation supplemental intake
supplementation of multivitamin preparation
A dietary supplement containing all or most of the vitamins that may not be readily available in the diet. Vitamins may be classified according to their solubility either in lipids (vitamins A, D, E, K, F) or in water (vitamins C, B-complex). Present in minute amounts in various foods, vitamins are essential to maintaining normal metabolism and biochemical functions.
Addition of iron atom to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Oral iron supplementation is an effective and well‐studied option to replenish iron stores.
Addition of vitamin C to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of vitamin D to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of food antioxidant to a diet for adequate and complete nutrition.
antioxidant therapy
dietary supplementation of food antioxidant
Treatment with antioxidants in order to protect cells against damage caused by oxygen-free radicals.
Administration of nutritional support by means of a tube passed into the stomach.
gavage nutrition intake
Total parenteral nutrition formulated for intravenous administration in patients who cannot eat or cannot get enough nutrients from the foods they eat. It is a liquid mixture of proteins, carbohydrates, fats, vitamins, minerals and other nutrients.
total parenteral nutrition intake
Any action taken for the purpose of improving or maintaining an individual's memory.
memory intervention
A behavioral modification or implementation of a behavior designed to prevent smoking.
smoking prevention
The prevention of conception or impregnation by the use of devices or drugs or surgery.
contraceptive pregnancy prevention
Immunization is the process whereby a person is made immune or resistant to an infectious disease, typically by the administration of a vaccine.
preventative immunization
Active immunity refers to the process of exposing the body to an antigen to generate an adaptive immune response: the response takes days/weeks to develop but may be long lasting—even lifelong.
active immunization
Passive immunity refers to the process of providing IgG antibodies to protect against infection; it gives immediate, but short-lived protection.
passive immunization
The intentional exposure to a disease in order to achieve immunization.
disease exposure immunization
The use of any device, marker, or other means for the purpose of detecting the presence of disease, usually in asymptomatic individuals.
disease screening
Testing conducted utilizing a manual or microprocessor audiometer to test for hearing loss.
audiometric testing
The use of any device, marker, or other means for the purpose of detecting the presence Neoplasm, usually in asymptomatic individuals.
The process of isolating and testing the DNA of an embryo or a person to detect the presence of genetic alterations or defects that may predispose to the future development of a disease or disorder.
genetic testing
A diagnostic or therapeutic procedure in which an endoscope is inserted in a tubular organ to examine the structural architecture and/or remove abnormal tissues.
endoscopic procedure
A diagnostic or therapeutic procedure in which an endoscope is inserted in a tubular portion of a specific body part or body location.
endoscopy by site
A diagnostic or therapeutic procedure in which an endoscope is inserted in a tubular organ using a specific endoscopic technique.
specific technique endoscopy
An endoscopic technique that allows deep intubation of the small intestine while using a standard endoscope. An inflatable balloon attached to the endoscope's tip acts as a stabilizer and a second balloon that is advanced ahead of the endoscope acts as a pulling device.
balloon-guided endoscopic procedure
Endoscopy that employs the use of tissue stains to increase tissue contrast, and enhance the ability to identify various tissue dysplasia and other abnormalities.
chromoendoscopy
A low-cost, high-resolution imaging tool consisting of a 1-mm diameter fiber-optic bundle that produces subcellular imaging at 1,000x magnification and 4 micrometer resolution, allowing for minimally invasive bioimaging.
high-resolution microendoscopy
A technique for measuring the gamma radiation produced by collisions of electrons and positrons (anti-electrons) within living tissue. In positron emission tomography (PET), a subject is given a dose of a positron-emitting radionuclide attached to a metabolically active substance (for example, 2-fluoro-2-deoxy-D-glucose (FDG), which is similar to a naturally occurring sugar, glucose, with the addition of a radioactive fluorine atom). When living tissue containing the positron emitter is bombarded by electrons, gamma radiation produced by collisions of electrons and positrons is detected by a scanner, revealing in fine detail the tissue location of the metabolically-active substance administered.
positron emission tomography procedure
Ultrasound imaging following the administration of a microbubble contrast agent.
contrast-enhanced ultrasound procedure
A postmortem examination of the body that includes an examination of the internal organs and structures after dissection to determine the cause of death and the nature of pathological changes.
autopsy procedure
A procedure to examine and define cellular anatomy or function. The test results are often used by a clinician to diagnose disease or disordered function.
clinical cytological testing
A biospecimen collection and staining procedure in which secretions and superficial cells of the cervix are collected and stained with the Papanicolaou stain followed by microscopic examination to identify the presence of abnormal cells.
pap smear examination
A diagnostic technique for lung cancer detection. Looks for abnormal cell cytology in sputum.
sputum cytology examination
urine cytology examination
Technique or procedure used for the study of the microanatomy of tissues and their cellular structure; usually involves microscopic examination of tissue slices.
histological examination
A procedure to determine the number of cells in a clinical sample.
clinical cell count
A procedure to measure hematopoietic components and investigate hematologic disorders in a blood sample.
hematology testing
The determination of the maximum amount of oxygen that can be combined chemically with hemoglobin in a volume of blood.
oxygen capacity assessment
A measure of the volume of red blood cells expressed as a percentage of the total blood volume. Normal in males is 43-49%, in females 37-43%.
hematocrit assessment
A medical recommendation to avoid a particular therapy, intervention, medication, or procedure.
therapeutic avoidance intervention
Administration of intravenous infusions of alpha-1 proteinase inhibitor at regular schedules is a specific therapy for individuals with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency (AATD) with pulmonary involvement.
augmentation therapy
Treatment with a drug used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease.
Use of a substance used to treat or prevent parasitic infections.
treatment with anti-parasitic medication
A therapy capable of relieving pain without the loss of consciousness or without producing anaesthesia. In addition, analgesic is a role played by a compound which is exhibited by a capability to cause a reduction of pain symptoms.
analgesic pharmacotherapeutic agent therapy
Treatment with a mood-stimulating drug used primarily in the treatment of affective disorders and related conditions.
Use of a substance that attaches to and blocks cell receptors.
Use of any agent that can alter adrenal gland functions.
treatment with adrenal modifying medication
adrenal-modifying, hormonal agent therapy
Treatment with a drug that alleviates anxiety, tension, and anxiety disorders, promote sedation, and have a calming effect without affecting the clarity of consciousness or neurologic conditions.
Pharmaceutical Anti-gout Preparations such as colchicine, allopurinol, probenecid, and sulfinpyrazone contain natural or synthetic agents against gout, a condition characterized by increased uric acid accumulation. Anti-gout agents may reduce inflammation, stimulate elimination of uric acid, or increase production of uric acid. (NCI04)
treatment with gout suppressant medication
Therapy using an agent that promotes the excretion of urine through its effects on kidney function
Treatment with an agent that control agitated psychotic behavior, alleviate acute psychotic states, reduce psychotic symptoms, and exert a quieting effect.
Treatment with a drug used to prevent seizures or reduce their severity.
treatment with anticonvulsant medication
Treatment with a substance used in the prophylaxis or therapy of virus diseases.
Use of a compound that has anti-inflammatory effects.
anti-inflammatory agent treatment therapy
A therapy utilizing a substance which produces loss of feeling or sensation.
Treatment with medications to improve cognition and function for patients with dementia.
antidementia agent therapy
A grouping of agents that are used as antidotes, deterrents, or to counteract the effects of a toxic agents on the body.
therapeutic antidotes, deterrents, and toxicologic agent therapy
Treatment with a drug used to prevent nausea or vomiting.
Use of a drug to prevent or treat fungal infections in humans or animals.
treatment with an anti-fungal medication
Any drug that works to lower abnormally high glucose (sugar) levels in the blood, which are characteristic of the endocrine system disorder known as diabetes mellitus.
Treatment with an agent that regulates blood glucose levels.
blood glucose regulator therapy
Use of a drug that acts on blood and blood-forming organs and those that affect the hemostatic system.
Treatment with a drug that promotes coagulation.
coagulant agent therapy
Use of an agent that prevents blood clotting.
Treatment with an agent that stimulates formation of blood cells.
blood formation agent therapy
Use of a drug which antagonizes or impairs any mechanism leading to blood platelet aggregation, whether during the phases of activation and shape change or following the dense-granule release reaction and stimulation of the prostaglandin-thromboxane system.
platelet aggregation inhibitor agent treatment
treatment with platelet aggregation antagonist
treatment with platelet aggregation blocker
treatment with platelet aggregation inhibitor
Use of a drug that affects the rate or intensity of cardiac contraction, blood vessel diameter or blood volume.
agent affecting cardiovascular system therapy
treatment with cardiovascular medication
Treatment with a drug that acts on an alpha-adrenergic receptor.
alpha adrenergic receptor drug treatment
alpha-adrenergic modifying agent therapy
alpha-adrenergic receptor drug treatment
treatment with alpha adrenergic medication
treatment with alpha-adrenergic medication
treatment with alpha-adrenergic receptor agent
treatment with alpha-adrenergic receptor drug
treatment with alpha-adrenergic receptor medication
Treatment with an agent that selectively binds to and activates alpha-adrenergic receptors.
alpha adrenergic agonist agent drug treatment
alpha adrenergic receptor agonist therapy
alpha adrentergic receptor agonist agent therapy
alpha-adrenergic receptor agonist drug therapy
alpha-adrenergic receptor agonist treatment
alpha-adrenoceptor agonist agent therapy
Treatment with an agent that binds to but does not activate alpha-adrenergic receptors thereby blocking the actions of endogenous or exogenous alpha-adrenergic agonists.
a-adrenergic receptor antagonist drug treatment
alpha adrenergic antagonist drug therapy
alpha-adrenergic antagonist agent treatment
alpha-adrenergic antagonist drug therapy
alpha-adrenergic antagonist drug treatment
alpha-adrenergic antagonist medication therapy
alpha-adrenergic receptor antagonist agent therapy
alpha-adrenergic receptor antagonist drug therapy
alpha-adrenergic receptor blockader therapy
alpha-adrenergic receptor blocker therapy
treatment with alpha-adrenergic antagonist
treatment with alpha-adrenergic antagonist drug
treatment with alpha-adrenergic antagonist medication
Treatment with a drug for prevention of cardiac arrhythmias. Anti-arrhythmia drugs may affect the polarisation-repolarisation phase of the action potential, its excitability or refractoriness, or impulse conduction or membrane responsiveness within cardiac fibres.
treatment with anti-arrhythmia medication
treatment with anti-arrhythmic medication
treatment with antiarrhythmic medication
Treatment with a drug that acts on beta-adrenergic receptors.
beta adrenergic receptor agent treatment
beta-adrenergic modifying drug treatment
treatment with beta-adrenergic medication
Treatment with an agent that binds to but does not activate beta-adrenergic receptors thereby blocking the actions of endogenous or exogenous beta-adrenergic agonists.
b-adrenergic receptor antagonist therapy
beta adrenergic antagonist agent treatment
beta adrenergic antagonist drug treatment
beta adrenergic receptor antagonist therapy
beta-adrenergic antagonist agent treatment
beta-adrenergic receptor antagonist drug treatment
beta-adrenergic receptor antagonist therapy
beta-adrenergic receptor blockader therapy
treatment with beta-adrenergic antagonist
treatment with beta-adrenergic antagonist agent
treatment with beta-adrenergic antagonist drug
treatment with beta-adrenergic antagonist medication
obsolete calcium channel blocker agent therapy
Therapy using an agent that reduces plasma lipids, such as cholesterol or low density lipoproteins (LDL), acting systemically or locally (intestines) to decrease fat digestion, absorption, production, and accumulation in the plasma and reducing pathogenic atherosclerosis and thrombosis.
treatment with anti-lipidemic medication
Treatment with Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) inhibitors, a group of drugs that act by inhibiting the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and include angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs), and direct renin inhibitors
renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system inhibitor therapy
treatment with renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system inhibitor
RAAS inhibitor therapy
A therapy using a drug to cause dilation of the blood vessels.
vasodilator agent therapy
obsolete other cardiovascular agent therapy
Use of a drug that has principally analgesic, antipyretic and anti-inflammatory actions. Non-narcotic analgesics do not bind to opioid receptors.
non-narcotic analgesic medication treatement
non-opioid analgesics medication therapy
non-opioid analgesics medication treatment
Use of a narcotic or opioid substance, synthetic or semisynthetic agent producing profound analgesia, drowsiness, and changes in mood.
Treatment with any member of a group of drugs that reversibly inhibit the propagation of signals along nerves. Wide variations in potency, stability, toxicity, water-solubility and duration of action determine the route used for administration, e.g. topical, intravenous, epidural or spinal block.
An antibacterial substance with aminoglycoside structure.
aminoglycoside agent therapy
Use of a class of beta-lactam antibiotics differing from the penicillins in having a 6-membered, rather than a 5-membered, side ring.
cephalosporin antibacterial agent therapy
treatment with cephalosporin antibacterial drug
treatment with cephalosporin antibacterial medication
treatment with cephalosporin antibiotic drug
treatment with cephalosporin antibiotic medication
Although cephalosporins are among the most commonly used antibiotics in the treatment of routine infections, and their use is increasing over time, they can cause a range of hypersensitivity reactions, from mild, delayed-onset cutaneous reactions to life-threatening anaphylaxis in patients with immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated allergy.
Use of an antibacterial substance with penicillin structure.
treatment with penicillin antibacterial drug
treatment with penicillin antibacterial medication
treatment with penicillin antibiotic agent
treatment with penicillin antibiotic drug
treatment with penicillin antibiotic medication
treatment with penicillin antibiotic therapy
Use of a drug with a macrocyclic lactone with a ring of twelve or more members which exhibits antibiotic activity.
Treatment with a macrolide antibacterial agent
Treatment with a macrolide antibacterial drug
Treatment with a macrolide antibacterial medication
Treatment with a macrolide antibiotic agent
Treatment with a macrolide antibiotic drug
Treatment with a macrolide antibiotic medication
Use of an organonitrogen heterocyclic antibiotic whose structure contains a quinolone or quinolone-related skeleton.
treatment with quinolone antibacterial agent
treatment with quinolone antibacterial drug
treatment with quinolone antibacterial medication
treatment with quinolone antibiotic agent
treatment with quinolone antibiotic drug
treatment with quinolone antibiotic medication
Use of a class of sulfonamides whose members generally have bacteriostatic antibiotic properties.
treatment with a sulfonamide antibacterial drug
treatment with a sulfonamide antibacterial medication
treatment with a sulfonamide antibiotic agent
treatment with a sulfonamide antibiotic drug
treatment with a sulfonamide antibiotic medication
treatment with a sulfonamide antibiotic therapy
Treatment with a broad-spectrum polyketide antibiotic produced by the Streptomyces genus of actinobacteria.
treatment with a tetracycline antibacterial agent
treatment with a tetracycline antibacterial drug
treatment with a tetracycline antibacterial medication
treatment with a tetracycline antibacterial therapy
treatment with a tetracycline antibiotic agent
treatment with a tetracycline antibiotic drug
treatment with a tetracycline antibiotic medication
treatment with a tetracycline antibiotic therapy
Treatment with a drug that can regulate intracellular calcium levels.
treatment with calcium channel modifying agent
treatment with calcium channel modifying medication
treatment with calcium channel modulator
Treatment with a substance, such as agonists, antagonists, degradation or uptake inhibitors, depleters, precursors, and modulators of receptor function, used for its pharmacological actions on GABAergic systems.
gamma-aminobutyric acid modulating agent therapy
treatment with gamma-aminobutyric acid augmenting agent
treatment with gamma-aminobutyric acid augmenting drug
treatment with gamma-aminobutyric acid augmenting medication
Treatment with an agent which decreases glutamate.
glutamate reducing agent therapy
Use of a drug that inhibits sodium influx through cell membranes.
treatment with sodium channel antagonist
They are a group of drugs that block the normal breakdown of acetylcholine (ACh) into acetate and choline and thereby increase both the levels and duration of actions of acetylcholine found in the central and peripheral nervous system.
cholinesterase inhibitor medication therapy
treatment with EC 3.1.1.8 (cholinesterase) inhibitor
Neurogenerative diseases such as Alzheimer disease, Parkinson disease, and Lewy body dementia are indications for cholinesterase inhibitor therapy.
Treatment with an agent which modifies glutamate.
glutamate pathway modifying drug treatment
glutamatergic pathway modifying agent therapy
A drug that acts as an inhibitor that interferes with the action of monoamine oxidase (EC 1.4.3.4).
treatment with EC 1.4.3.4 (monoamine oxidase) inhibitor
Any substance that inhibits monoamine oxidase (MAO), an enzyme that catalyzes the oxidative deamination of monoamines and plays a role in the inactivation of neurotransmitters.
Treatment with a medication that increases the extracellular level of the neurotransmitter serotonin (5-HT) and norepinephrine by inhibiting their reuptake into the presynaptic cell.
serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor agent therapy
serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor drug therapy
serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor drug treatment
serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor therapy
serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor agent therapy
serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor drug treatment
serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor drug treatment
serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor agent therapy
Treatment with mood-stimulating agents which contain a tricyclic structure and are used primarily in the treatment of affective disorders and related conditions.
tricyclic antidepressant agent therapy
Treatment with a therapeutic substance used to counteract the toxic action(s) of a specified xenobiotic.
antidote agent therapy
Medication given to prevent or deter a patient from using a substance.
abuse deterrent agent therapy
An agent used to treat a toxicologic agent.
toxicologic agent therapy
Treatment with a class of steroid hormones that regulate a variety of physiological processes, in particular control of the concentration of glucose in blood.
treatment with a glucocorticoid medication
Treatment with an anti-inflammatory drug that is not a steroid. In addition to anti-inflammatory actions, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs have analgesic, antipyretic, and platelet-inhibitory actions. They act by blocking the synthesis of prostaglandins by inhibiting cyclooxygenase, which converts arachidonic acid to cyclic endoperoxides, precursors of prostaglandins.
non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medication treatment
treatment with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug
treatment with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medication
Treatment with medications to alleviate symptoms and occurrence of migraine headaches.
antimigraine agent therapy
Use of medication to treat migraine headache symptoms acutely.
abortive anti migraine medication therapy
treatment with abortive antimigraine agent
abortive antimigraine agent therapy
Use of medication to decrease the occurrence of migraine headaches.
prophylactic migraine headache treatment
prophylactic treament of migraine headache
treatment with prophylactic antimigraine agent
prophylactic antimigraine agent therapy
Medication given by mouth or by injection to treat myasthenia gravis.
antimyasthenic agent therapy
Treatment with a drug to activate the parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS). They can act as direct agonists of acetylcholine receptors (ACh) or indirect agonists of ACh. While direct agonists act by binding directly to muscarinic or nicotinic ACh receptors, indirect agonists prolong the action of endogenous acetylcholine by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase.
treatment with cholinomimetic medication
treatment with parasympathomimetic agent
treatment with parasympathomimetic medication
Direct agonists of ACh are used topically in ophthalmology to induce miosis, while indirect agonists are used to treat, e.g., postoperative ileus or urinary retention and myasthenia gravis.
parasympathomimetic therapy
Use of a treat or prevent infections caused by Mycobacteria, a genus of actinobacteria.
treatment with an anti-mycobacterial agent
treatment with an anti-mycobacterial drug
treatment with an anti-mycobacterial medication
treatment with an anti-mycobacterial therapy
treatment with an antimycobacterial agent
treatment with an antimycobacterial drug
treatment with an antimycobacterial medication
Use of a substance that kills or slows the growth of Mycobacterium tuberculosis and is used in the treatment of tuberculosis.
treatment with an anti-tubercular medication
treatment with an anti-tubercular therapy
treatment with an antitubercular medication
Use of a substance that suppresses Mycobacterium leprae, ameliorates the clinical manifestations of leprosy, and/or reduces the incidence and severity of leprous reactions.
An antineoplastic agent that replaces hydrogen atom(s) in nucleophilic moieties with alky radical(s), hindering proper function. Alkylating agents exhibit cytotoxic effects through the alkylation of DNA, resulting in strand cross-linking, ultimately inhibiting DNA replication and cancer cell growth.
anti-neoplastic alkylating agent therapy
Use of an agent or endogenous substance that inhibits the formation of capillaries from existing blood vessels.
treatment with angiogenesis antagonist agent
treatment with angiogenesis antagonist drug
treatment with angiogenesis antagonist medication
treatment with angiogenesis blocker agent
treatment with angiogenesis blocker drug
treatment with angiogenesis blocker medication
treatment with angiogenesis inhibitor agent
treatment with angiogenesis inhibitor drug
treatment with angiogenesis inhibitor medication
treatment with anti-angiogenic medication
treatment with antiangiogenic medication
Treatment of cancer that utilizes antimetabolite substances to disrupt DNA, RNA, or protein synthesis.
treatment with anti-metabolite medication
treatment with antimetabolite medication
antimetabolite agent therapy
Treatment with an EC 1.14.14.* (oxidoreductase acting on paired donors, incorporating of 1 atom of oxygen, with reduced flavin or flavoprotein as one donor) inhibitor which interferes with the action of aromatase (EC 1.14.14.14) and so reduces production of estrogenic steroid hormones.
treatment with EC 1.14.14.14 (aromatase) inhibitor
treatment with aromatase inhibitor agent
treatment with aromatase inhibitor medication
treatment with estrogen synthetase inhibitor agent
treatment with estrogen synthetase inhibitor drug
treatment with estrogen synthetase inhibitor medication
treatment with estrogen synthetase inhibitor therapy
treatment with oestrogen synthetase inhibitor agent
treatment with oestrogen synthetase inhibitor drug
treatment with oestrogen synthetase inhibitor medication
A treatment that uses drugs to target specific genes and proteins that are involved in the growth and survival of cancer cells.
antineoplastic molecular target inhibitor drug treatment
cancer targeted inhibitor drug treatment
treatment with targeted cancer medication
antineoplastic molecular target inhibitor agent therapy
Treatment with a biological agent (monoclonal antibody) that target factors responsible for deregulated cell proliferation as in cancer.
antineoplastic monoclonal antibodies therapy
antineoplastic monoclonal antibody drug treatment
antineoplastic monoclonal antibody agent therapy
Use of any of a group of agents that includes retinol (Vitamin A) and related compounds with potential antineoplastic and/or chemopreventive activities.
A retinoic acid agent binds to and/or activates specific nuclear retinoic acid receptors (RARs) and retinoid X receptors (RXRs), thereby modulating transcription of genes responsible for cell differentiation and proliferation. A retinoic acid agent may exhibit immunomodulatory and anti-inflammatory properties and may inhibit ornithine decarboxylase, resulting in a decrease in polyamine synthesis and keratinization.
retinoid agent therapy
Substance intended to kill parasitic worms (helminths).
anthelmintic agent therapy
Treatment with an antimicrobial drug which is used to treat or prevent protozoal infections.
treatment with an antiprotozoal medication
An agent used to as a treament of ectoparasitic infestations.
ectoparasiticide agent therapy
Treatment with an antiviral drug used for treatment of cytomegalovirus infection.
anti-cytomegalovirus medication treatment
antiviral treatment of cytomegalovirus therapy
anti-cytomegalovirus agent therapy
Treatment with a drug which can have different modes of action but which tend to be less likely than first generation antipsychotics to cause extrapyramidal motor control disabilities such as body rigidity or Parkinson's disease-type movements.
second generation antipsychotic agent therapy
second generation antipsychotic drug treatment
treatment with second generation antipsychotic
Treatment with a drug which can have different modes of action but which tend to be more likely than second generation antipsychotics to cause extrapyramidal motor control disabilities such as body rigidity or Parkinson's disease-type movements; such body movements can become permanent even after treatment has ceased.
conventional antipsychotic drug treatment
first generation antipsychotic agent treatment
first generation antipsychotic drug treatment
treatment with conventional antipsychotic
treatment with first generation antipsychotic
conventional antipsychotic agent therapy
Treatment with an agent that suppresses muscle spasms.
treatmeant with antispasticity medication
treatment with a antispasmodic medication
antispasticity agent therapy
Use of a drug for the treatment and prophylaxis of infection with hepatitis virus(es).
treatment with anti-hepatitis medication
antihepatitis agent therapy
antiherpetic agent therapy
Treatment with an antiviral agent that destroys or inhibits the replication of the human immunodeficiency virus.
treatment with anti-human immunodeficiency virus agent
treatment with anti-human immunodeficiency virus drug
treatment with anti-human immunodeficiency virus medication
Treatment with a drug which interferes with the binding, fusion and entry of an HIV virion to a human cell. By blocking this step in HIV's replication cycle, such agents slow the progression from HIV infection to AIDS.
anti-HIV theraoym fusion inhibitor drug treatment
treatment with HIV fusion inhibitor agent
treatment with HIV fusion inhibitor drug
treatment with HIV fusion inhibitor medication
treatment with HIV fusion inhibitor therapy
Treatment with a substance structurally unlike a nucleoside molecule that is capable of inhibiting the function of a reverse transcriptase. These compounds do not bind to the active site of the polymerase but in a less conserved pocket near the active site, causing a distortion in the shape of the active site and resulting in inhibition of enzymatic function, chain termination, and inhibition of viral replication.
anti-HIV non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drug therapy
anti-HIV non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drug treatment
treatment with anti-HIV therapy, non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor agent
treatment with anti-HIV therapy, non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drug
treatment with anti-HIV therapy, non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor medication
non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor therapy
Treatment with nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) which block reverse transcriptase (an HIV enzyme).
anti-HIV nucleoside and nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor drug treatment
treatment with nucleoside and nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor medication
treatment with nucleoside-nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor drug
treatment with nucleoside-nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor medication
treatment with nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor drug
treatment with nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor medication
nucleoside and nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor therapy
Use of an inhibitor of HIV protease, an enzyme required for production of proteins needed for viral assembly.
treatment with HIV protease inhibitor agent
treatment with HIV protease inhibitor drug
treatment with HIV protease inhibitor medication
Treatment with a drug used for the treatment and prophylaxis of infection with influenza viruses.
treatment with anti-influenza medication
anti-influenza agent therapy
Treatment with an antidepressant that can be used to treat anxiety.
antidepressant anxiolytics
Treatment with used to treat bipolar disorders or mania associated with other affective disorders.
Treatment with any agent that treats or prevents diabetes or diabetes symptoms.
antidiabetic agent therapy
Treatment with any drug or agent taken that maintains ando/or regulates blood glucose levels.
glycemic agent therapy
A synthetic or animal-derived form of insulin used in the treatment of diabetes mellitus. Therapeutic insulin is formulated to be short-, intermediate- and long-acting in order to individualize an insulin regimen according to individual differences in glucose and insulin metabolism. Therapeutic insulin may be derived from porcine, bovine or recombinant sources. Endogenous human insulin, a pancreatic hormone composed of two polypeptide chains, is important for the normal metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and fats and has anabolic effects on many types of tissues.
therapeutic insulin preparations treatment
Treatment with drugs producing both physiological and psychological effects through a variety of mechanisms involving the central nervous system.
treatment with central nervous system drug
Treatment with a class of central nervous system stimulants based on the structure of the parent amphetamine 1-phenylpropan-2-amine.
Use of non-stimulant (non-amphetamine) medication for treatment of Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD).
non-stimulant Attention Deficient Hyperactivity Disorder agent therapy
non-stimulant ADHD agent therapy
Any agent or drug used to treat oral diseases.
dental and oral agent therapy
Use of a drug to treat or prevent skin disorders or for the routine care of skin.
obsolete enzyme replacements and modifier agent therapy
Use of a drug for its effects on the gastrointestinal system, e.g. controlling gastric acidity, regulating gastrointestinal motility and water flow, and improving digestion.
treatment with gastrointestinal medication
Treatment to regulate muscle contractions in the gastrointestinal tract.
gastrointestinal anti-spasmodic agent therapy
gastrointestinal antispasmodic agent therapy
gastrointestinal antispasmodic drug treatment
gastrointestinal antispasmodic treatment therapy
gastrointestinal antispasmodics agent therapy
H2-receptor antagonists are the drugs that selectively bind to but do not activate histamine H2 receptors, thereby blocking the actions of endogenous histamine.
H2 receptor antagonist treatment therapy
histamine H2 receptor antagonist therapy
histamine H2 receptor antagonist treatment
H2-receptor antagonist agent therapy
Treatment with any agent that helps treat irritable bowel syndrome.
irritable bowel syndrome agent therapy
Treatment with medications that coat the ulcerated surfaces of gastrointestinal lining and are used mainly for peptic ulcer disease.
gastrointestinal protectant drug treatment
gastrointestinal protectant treatment therapy
gastrointestinal protectant agent therapy
Any one of the substituted benzimidazole compounds with anti-ulcer activity. A proton pump inhibitor is orally administered in the neutrally charged, inactive form and, upon entering the acidic environment of the parietal cell, gets protonated and converted into its active form. The active form will covalently and irreversibly bind to the proton pump, the H+/K+-ATPase, located on the surface of parietal cells. This leads to an inhibition of the transport of hydrogen ions, in exchange for potassium ions, into the gastric lumen and results in an inhibition of gastric acid secretion.
proton pump inhibitor agent therapy
Use of a drug to treat conditions of the reproductive organs and excretory system or urinary tract.
genitourinary agent therapy
Treatment to inhibit involuntary detrusor muscle contractions.
urinary antispasmodic agent therapy
Treatment with agent to increase urine flow in patients with an enlarged prostate.
benign prostate hypertrophy agent therapy
Treatment with agents used to reduce the absorption of dietary phosphate
phosphate binders agent therapy
Treatments that are anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive.
glucocorticoids/ mineralocorticoids therapy
Treatment with an agent or medication that regulates hormones released by the pituitary.
treatment with pituitary modifying agent
treatment with pituitary modifying medication
pituitary-modifying, hormonal agent therapy
Treatment with an agent regulating protaglandins.
treatment with prostaglandin modifying agent
treatment with prostaglandin modifying drug
treatment with prostaglandin modifying medication
prostaglandin-modifying, hormonal agent therapy
Treatment with any agent or medication that modifies androgen, estrogens, and/or progestogens.
sex hormone modifying agent therapy
Use of any agent that can alter hormone levels or modulate hormone effects.
hormone modifying therapy
Treatment with an agent or medication that regulates hormones released by the thyroid.
treatment with thyroid modifying medication
thyroid-modifying hormonal agent therapy
Use of a compound which stimulates anabolism and inhibits catabolism. Anabolic agents stimulate the development of muscle mass, strength, and power.
anabolic steroid modifying drug treatment
anabolic steroid modifying agent therapy
Treatment with an agent to modify androgen action.
androgen modifying agent therapy
A drug which acts to modulates estrogenic activity in the body, either by modulating the amount of estrogen or by modulating the activity of whatever estrogen is present.
treatment with estrogen receptor modulator
treatment with estrogent modifying medication
treatment with oestrogen modifying medication
Treatment with an agent to modify progestin action.
treatment with progestin modifying agent
treatment with progestin modifying medication
progestin modifying agent therapy
Treatment with an agent to that selectively modifies estrogen receptor action.
selective-estrogen receptor modifying agent therapy
Use of a drug to treat hyperparathyroidism by reducing the excessive production of parathyroid hormones.
treatment with antiparathyroid medication
treatment with parathyroid-suppressant agent
treatment with parathyroid-suppressant drug
treatment with parathyroid-suppressant medication
Use of a compound which increases or activates the biosynthesis or actions of androgens.
androgen stimulant agent therapy
Use of a compound which inhibits or antagonizes the biosynthesis or actions of androgens.
treatment with androgen suppressant agent
androgen suppressant hormone agent therapy
Treatment with an agent or medication that stimulates hormones released by the thyroid.
treatment with thyroid stimulating agent
treatment with thyroid stimulating medication
treatment with thyroid-stimulating agent
thyroid-stimulating hormonal agent therapy
Use of a drug to treat hyperthyroidism by reducing the excessive production of thyroid hormones.
antithyroid agent therapy
Use of a drug that induces, enhances, restores or suppresses the host's immune system, or an agent that utilizes or is derived from a component of the immune system.
immunomodulating agent treatment therapy
immunomodulatory agent treatment therapy
immunotherapeutic agent treatment therapy
treatment with immunomodifying medication
Use of a substance that augments, stimulates, activates, potentiates, or modulates the immune response at either the cellular or humoral level.
immunological adjuvant treatment therapy
A classical agent (Freund's adjuvant, BCG, Corynebacterium parvum, et al.) contains bacterial antigens. It could also be endogenous (e.g., histamine, interferon, transfer factor, tuftsin, interleukin-1). Its mode of action is either non-specific, resulting in increased immune responsiveness to a wide variety of antigens, or antigen-specific, i.e., affecting a restricted type of immune response to a narrow group of antigens. The therapeutic efficacy is related to its antigen-specific immunoadjuvanticity.
Use of an agent that suppresses immune function by one of several mechanisms of action.
immunosuppressive agent treatment therapy
Classical cytotoxic immunosuppressants act by inhibiting DNA synthesis. Others may act through activation of T-cells or by inhibiting the activation of helper cells. In addition, an immunosuppressive agent is a role played by a compound which is exhibited by a capability to diminish the extent and/or voracity of an immune response.
Treatment with antibodies to a disease to provide a temporary immunity.
passive immunizing agent therapy
The drug treatment of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), which may include the use of anti-inflammatory agents and agents that reduce the symptoms associated with IBD.
anti-inflammatory bowel disease drug treatment
inflammatory bowel disease agent therapy
The salts or esters of salicylic acids, or salicylate esters of an organic acid. Some of these have analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory activities by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis.
salicylate agent therapy
Treatment with drug or agent to treat or prevent deformities or abnormalities of the bone caused by a metabolic disorder.
metabolic bone disease agent therapy
Use of a drug to treat eye conditions or eye diseases.
Treatment with medication delivered directly to the eye to treat allergies or allergy symptoms.
ophthalmic anti-allergy agent therapy
Use of a drug which can be used to prevent or alleviate glaucoma, a disease in which the optic nerve is damaged, resulting in progressive, irreversible loss of vision.
Treatment with an agent or medication formulated to be applied in the eyes, to reduce pain or to treat inflammation, especially used after eye surgery to relieve pain.
ophthalmic anti-inflammatory agent therapy
Treatment with an agent applied directly to the eye to treat elevated intraocular pressure (IOP) via regulating prostaglandin and prostamide.
ophthalmic prostaglandin and prostamide agent therapy
Treatment with a substance intended for administration either on the outer ear or into the auditory canal.
otic agent therapy
An agent that exerts a physiologic effect on any anatomic entity that is part of the respiratory tract and airways.
agent affecting respiratory system treatment
respiratory tract drug treatment therapy
treatment with respiratory tract medication
respiratory tract agent therapy
Use of drugs that bind to but do not activate histamine receptors, thereby blocking the actions of histamine or histamine agonists.
histamine receptor blocker drug treatment
Treatment with an inhaled agent that reduces inflammation and mucus in the airways that carry air to the lungs.
inhaled corticosteroid agent therapy
Use of a drug designed to prevent leukotriene synthesis or activity by blocking binding at the receptor level.
treatment with antileukotriene medication
Use of an agent that causes an increase in the expansion of a bronchus or bronchial tubes.
Treatment with an agent that blocks the effect of acetylcholine in airways and nasal passages to keep the airways from constricting during asthma and allergy-related brathing issues.
anticholinergic bronchodilator drug treatment
anticholinergic bronchodilator agent therapy
Treatment with a phosphodiesterase (PDE) inhibitor that decreases mean pulmonary arterial pressure.
phosphodiesterase inhibitor bronchodilator drug treatment
phosphodiesterase inhibitor bronchodilator agent therapy
Treatment with an agent for reversible airway obstruction in diseases such as asthma and COPD. These agents produce bronchodilation by stimulating beta2 adrenergic receptors on airway smooth muscle.
adrenergic bronchiodilator agent therapy
adrenergic bronchiodilator agent treatment
sympathomimetic bronchodilator drug therapy
treatment with adrenergic bronchiodilator agent
sympathomimetic bronchodilator agent therapy
Treatment with an agent that block mast cell degranulation, stabilizing the cell and thereby preventing the release of histamine and other factors thereby preventing or regulating allergic disorders.
mast cell stabilizer agent therapy
Treatment with an agent that decreases pulmonary hypertension.
pulmonary antihypertensive drug treatment
pulmonary antihypertensive agent therapy
obsolete respiratory tract agents, other
Treatment with a central nervous system depressant used to induce drowsiness or sleep or to reduce psychological excitement or anxiety.
Use of a drug used to produce muscle relaxation (excepting neuromuscular blocking agents). Its primary clinical and therapeutic use is the treatment of muscle spasm and immobility associated with strains, sprains, and injuries of the back and, to a lesser degree, injuries to the neck. Also used for the treatment of a variety of clinical conditions that have in common only the presence of skeletal muscle hyperactivity, for example, the muscle spasms that can occur in multiple sclerosis.
Use of a substance for the prophylaxis or therapy of infectious diseases.
treatment with anti-infective medication
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from head for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from abdomen for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from adipose for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from adrenal cortex for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from adrenal gland for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from anal canal for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from anus for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from aorta for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from the uterus for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from the calcified bone for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from bone marrow for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from bone tissue for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from brain for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from brainstem for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from breast for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from bronchus for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from caecum for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from cardiac ventricle for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from cerebellum for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from cerebral cortex for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from chest wall for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from chordate pharynx for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from choroid plexus for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from cochlea for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from colon for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from colorectum for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from dermis for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from diaphragm for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from the thalamus for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from duodenum for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from endocardium for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from endocrine pancreas for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from endometrium for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from esophagus for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from eye for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from fallopian tube for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from frontal lobe for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from gallbladder for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from genitourinary system for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from gonad for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from heart for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from hypopharynx for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from hypothalamus for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from intestine for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from the jaw bone for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from lacrimal apparatus for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from large intestine for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from larynx for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from limb for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from lip for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from liver for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from lower respiratory tract for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from lower urinary tract for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from the lumbar spine for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
lumbar region of vertebral column biopsy
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from lung for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from lymph node for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from the lymphatic system for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
lymphatic part of lymphoid system biopsy
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from the vulva for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from medulla oblongata for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from mouth for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from muscle tissue for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from nasolacrimal duct for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from nasopharynx for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from neck for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from ovary for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from pancreas for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from penis for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from perianal skin for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from peritoneum for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from pituitary gland for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from pleura for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from rectum for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from retina for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from the salivary gland for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from scrotum for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from sebaceous gland for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from small intestine for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from spinal cord for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from spleen for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from stomach for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from subglottis for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from submandibular gland for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from testis for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from thymus for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from thyroid gland for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from tongue for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from tonsil for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from trachea for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from upper digestive tract for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from upper respiratory tract for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from ureter for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from urethra for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from the bladder for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from uterine cervix for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from vagina for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from the appendix for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from the skin for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
Imaging that uses radiofrequency waves and a strong magnetic field rather than x-rays to provide amazingly clear and detailed pictures of internal organs and tissues. The technique is valuable for the diagnosis of many pathologic conditions, including cancer, heart and vascular disease, stroke, and joint and musculoskeletal disorders.
clinical magnetic resonance imaging procedure
medical magnetic resonance imaging procedure
nuclear magnetic resonance imaging for medical therapy
magnetic resonance imaging procedure
A medical examination performed using of magnetic resonance imaging to image the head.
Nuclear magnetic resonance imaging of the head
A medical examination performed using of magnetic resonance imaging to image the abdomen.
Nuclear magnetic resonance imaging of the abdomen
A medical examination performed using of magnetic resonance imaging to image the brain.
Nuclear magnetic resonance imaging of the brain
A medical examination performed using of magnetic resonance imaging to image the chest.
Nuclear magnetic resonance imaging of the chest
Radiation therapy in which high-energy beams are delivered to a body part and/or tumor from outside of the body.
external beam radiation therapy
A type of radiation therapy in which radioactive material is placed inside the body, into a tumor or body cavity.
internal radiation therapy
A medical examination performed using of magnetic resonance imaging to image the breast.
Nuclear magnetic resonance imaging of the breast
Use of an organonitrogen heterocyclic antibiotic that contains a beta-lactam ring.
beta-lactam antibacterial drug treatment
treatment with a beta-lactam antibacterial drug
treatment with a beta-lactam antibacterial medication
treatment with a beta-lactam antibacterial therapy
treatment with a beta-lactam antibiotic agent
treatment with a beta-lactam antibiotic drug
treatment with a beta-lactam antibiotic medication
treatment with a beta-lactam antibiotic therapy
Treatment with a pharmaceutical agent that inhibits the movement of calcium across through calcium channels in the cell membrane, preventing or decreasing the amount of calcium able to enter the cell. These drugs are used for their chronotropic, antihypertensive and vasodilatory effects.
treatment with calcium channel blocker drug
treatment with calcium channel blocker medication
treatment with calcium channel blocking drug
treatment with calcium channel blocking medication
Treatment with a drug that inhibits the action of N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptors.
N-methyl-D-aspartate receptor antagonist therapy
They tend to induce a state known as dissociative anesthesia, marked by catalepsy, amnesia, and analgesia, while side effects can include hallucinations, nightmares, and confusion. Due to their psychotomimetic effects, many NMDA receptor antagonists are used as recreational drugs.
Use of medication for the treatment of Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD).
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder drug therapy
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder drug treatment
ADHD agent therapy
Use of stimulant medication (usually amphetamines) for treatment of Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD).
stimulant Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder agent therapy
stimulant Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder drug treatment
stimulant ADHD agent therapy
Any agent that increases the extracellular level of the neurotransmitter serotonin (5-HT) by inhibiting its reuptake into the presynaptic cell. Increased level in the synaptic cleft prolongs the action of 5-HT on the postsynaptic receptor. This type of agent is typically used as an antidepressant and in the treatment of anxiety disorders and some personality disorders. They are also typically effective and used in treating some cases of insomnia.
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor drug therapy
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor drug treatment
treatment with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor agent
treatment with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor drug
treatment with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor medication
treatment with serotonin uptake inhibitor
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor therapy
Glycoprotein growth factors produced by monocytes, macrophages, or activated lymphocytes that stimulate the proliferation of bone marrow cells and differentiation of stem cells into colonies of granulocytes, monocytes, or macrophages. These substances act in either paracrine or autocrine fashion on marrow cells, appear to act synergistically in complex and poorly understood ways. Each appears to exert actions on several lines of progenitor cells and to influence end cell function. Treatment with colony-stimulating factors (CSF) can help the blood-forming tissue recover from the effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy. These factors include interleukin-3 (IL-3), granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF), macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF), and granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF).
recombinant colony stimulating factor drug therapy
recombinant colony-stimulating factor treatment
recombinant hematopoietic colony-stimulating factor drug treatment
colony stimulating factor agent therapy
Treatment with an agent that stimulate the proliferation of bone marrow cells and differentiation of stem cells into colonies of granulocytes.
granulocyte-colony stimulating factor treatment therapy
recombinant colony-stimulating factor 3 treatment therapy
recombinant granulocyte colony stimulating factor agent therapy
recombinant granulocyte colony-stimulating factor drug treatment
granulocyte colony stimulating factor agent therapy
Treatment with agents or medications which modulate the bone marrow's production of red blood cells.
erythropoietin regulating agent therapy
Use of a recombinant therapeutic agent which is chemically identical to or similar to the endogenous glycoprotein erythropoietin (Epo). Epo promotes the differentiation and maturation of hematopoietic progenitors into erythrocytes; is a mitogen and a chemoattractant for endothelial cells; stimulates activated and differentiated B-cells and enhances B-cell immunoglobulin production and proliferation; and is hypoxia-inducible.
erythrocyte colony stimulating factor agent therapy
treatment with erythropoietin stimulating agent
treatment with erythropoietin stimulating medication
erythropoietin stimulating agent therapy
Use of a drug that inhibits erythropoietin, a glycoprotein hormone that controls erythropoiesis (red blood cell production).
A drug that prevents fibrinolysis or lysis of a blood clot or thrombus.
antifibrinolytic agent therapy
A synthetic analogue of vasopressin in which 3-mercaptopropionic acid replaces the cysteine residue at position 1 and D-arginine replaces the residue at position 8. An antidiuretic, it increases urine concentration and decreases urine production, and is used (usually as the trihydrate of the acetic acid salt) to prevent and control excessive thirst, urination, and dehydration caused by injury, surgery, and certain medical conditions. It is also used in the diagnosis and treatment of cranial diabetes insipidus and in tests of renal function.
1-(3-mercaptopropionic acid)-8-D-arginine-vasopressin, 1-deamino-8-D-arginine vasopressin drug treatment
1-deamino-8-D-arginine vasopressin agent therapy
1-desamino-8-D-arginine vasopressin agent therapy
desmopressin agent therapy
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of a structure or organ.
surgical excision
Surgical removal (cutting out or off) without replacement of all of a body part or structure.
surgical resection
Taking or cutting out solid matter from a body part. The solid matter contained in the definition may be an abnormal byproduct of a biological function or a foreign body. It may be embedded in a body part, or in the lumen of a tubular body part. The solid matter may or may not have been previously broken into pieces.
surgical extirpation
A surgical procedure that places something in the human body.
implantation
The removal of material from the surface of an object by vaporization, chipping, or other erosive process.
ablation therapy
Removal, separation, detachment, extirpation, or eradication of a body part, pathway, or function by light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation.
laser ablation therapy
Removal, separation, detachment, extirpation, or eradication of a body part, pathway, or function by chemical means.
chemical ablation
The use of extreme cold to damage or destroy a body part, pathway, or function. The procedure is performed using small cryogenic probes during surgery, and has recently been applied to solitary sporadic renal tumor lesions.
cryosurgery
Thermal ablation refers to the destruction of tissue by extreme hyperthermia or hypothermia.
thermal ablation therapy
The management of pain by interventional procedures, pharmacotherapy, physical therapy, psychological counseling, or complementary and alternative medical therapies designed to treat or alleviate pain.
pain management
Hydrotherapy is the external or internal use of water in any of its forms (water, ice, steam) for health promotion or treatment of various diseases with various temperatures, pressure, duration, and site.
hydrotherapy
Thermal hydrotherapy uses external or internal use of water in any of its forms (water, ice, steam) at temperatures above or below room temperature for health promotion or treatment of various diseases with various temperatures, pressure, duration, and site.
thermal hydrotherapy
Washing out a hollow organ (especially the stomach) by flushing with a fluid.
therapeutic irrigation
Therapy where a substantial part of the body is immersed in warm water to produce a variety of therapeutic effects.
warm water immersion therapy
Therapy where a substantial part of the body is immersed in cold water to produce a variety of therapeutic effects.
cold water immersion therapy
A form of treatment where a limb or significant portion of the body is immersed in hot water immediately followed by the immersion into cold water. This procedure is repeated several times.
contrast water therapy
Therapy occuring in a pool or bath which is a low-impact activity and takes the pressure off your bones, joints, and muscles.
aquatic exercise therapy
A minimally-invasive procedure that permits sampling of breast ductal fluids for cytopathologic analysis.
breast duct lavage
Washing out the bronchi and alveoli by flushing with a fluid.
bronchoaveolar lavage
A minimally invasive procedure that permits sampling of peritoneal fluid for cytopathologic analysis.
peritoneal lavage
The process in which the nasal cavity is washed to flush out mucus and debrise from the nose and sinuses with water or saline.
nasal lavage
Avoid the administration or use of therapeutic procedure.
Avoid the administration or use of diagnostic procedure.
Avoid the administration or use of preventative therapy.
The implantation of a piece of mechanical or electronic equipment that is useful for prevention, diagnosis, monitoring, or treatment of disease or other conditions.
medical device implantation
Implantation of a battery-powered device that is placed under the skin (typically in the left upper chest) with electrode wires that lead into the heart (typically lodging in the apex or septum of the right ventricle). The device can detect abnormal heart rhythms and deliver low-energy or high-energy shocks to interrupt malignant arrhythmia and thereby prevent sudden death.
automated implantable cardioverter defibrillator placement
implantable cardioverter-defibrillator implantation
implantable cardioverter-defibrillator placement
The resection or complete surgical removal of a nerve.
surgical denervation
Left cardiac sympathetic denervation (LCSD) is a surgical antiadrenergic intervention with a strong antiarrhythmic effect. LCSD consists in the removal of the left thoracic sympathetic chain and paravertebral ganglia from T1 to T4.
left cardiac sympathetic denervation
Any procedure relating to the branch of medicine dealing with the correction of deformities of bones or muscles.
orthopedic procedure
Assessment by a surgeon who focuses on the preservation, investigation and restoration of the form and function of the extremities, spine and associated structures by medical, surgical and physical means. This specialist is involved with the care of patients whose musculoskeletal problems include congenital deformities, trauma, infections, tumors, metabolic disturbances of the musculoskeletal system, deformities, injuries and degenerative diseases of the spine, hands, feet, knee, hip, shoulder and elbow in children and adults. An orthopaedic surgeon is also concerned with primary and secondary muscular problems and the effects of central or peripheral nervous system lesions of the musculoskeletal system.
orthopedic surgeon evaluation
Any surgical procedure conducted on the skeletal system.
Orthotic services provide prescription insoles, braces, splints, callipers, footwear, spinal jackets and helmets which help people recover from or avoid injury, or live with lifelong conditions.
orthotic services
The recommendation of the use of an orthosis or multiple orthoses, which are externally applied device used to modify the structural and functional characteristics of the neuromuscular and skeletal system.
orthotic device usage
A procedure where a healthcare provider, who was not previously involved in a patient's treatment, reviews a patient's medical history, examines the patient, and makes recommendations as to care and treatment.
An appraisal or evaluation of a patient's condition by a clinician that is based on a physical exam, medical history, and the patient's account of symptoms.
medical professional evaluation
Increase in the longest dimension of a bone to correct anatomical deficiencies, congenital, traumatic, or as a result of disease. The lengthening is not restricted to long bones. The usual surgical methods are internal fixation and distraction.
bone lengthening procedure
A bone fixation technique using an external fixator for lengthening limbs, correcting pseudarthroses and other deformities, and assisting the healing of otherwise hopeless traumatic or pathological fractures and infections, such as chronic osteomyelitis.
Ilizarov procedure
Bone lengthening by gradual mechanical distraction. An external fixation device produces the distraction across the bone plate. The technique was originally applied to long bones but in recent years the method has been adapted for use with mandibular implants in maxillofacial surgery.
distraction osteogenesis
A measurement performed in a clinical setting using clinician's observations and instrument data to inform patient care and research.
clinical assessment
body temperature measurement
The act of assessing an individual's current temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, pulse oxygenation, and blood pressure.
vital signs measurement
An assessment of the number of heartbeats per unit time, usually expressed as beats per minute.
heart rate measurement
Assessment and recording of arterial pulses in any of a number of locations. The observer should note its intensity, rate, rhythm, and if any blood vessel tenderness, tortuosity, or nodularity exists.
pulse assessment
The rate of breathing (inhalation and exhalation) measured within in a unit time, usually expressed as breaths per minute.
respiratory rate assessment
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the cardiovascular system.
cardiovascular system diagnostic procedure
diagnostic procedure of cardiovascular system
Measurement of the pressure on the walls of the vessels as blood moves around the body. Systolic blood pressure is the pressure when the heart beats – while the heart muscle is contracting (squeezing) and pumping oxygen-rich blood into the blood vessels. Diastolic blood pressure is the pressure on the blood vessels when the heart muscle relaxes. The diastolic pressure is always lower than the systolic pressure.
blood pressure measurement
Monitoring blood pressure with a sphygmomanometer and a stethoscope to hear blood flow.
ausculatory sphygmomanometer blood pressure measurement
auscultatory blood pressure measurement process
Although the auscultatory method using mercury sphygmomanometer is regarded as the ‘gold standard’ for office blood pressure measurement, widespread implementation of the ban in use of mercury sphygmomanometers continues to diminish the role of this technique.
auscultatory blood pressure measurement
A blood pressure measurement using a sphygmomanometer and an electronic pressure sensor (transducer) that detects blood flow by the presence of oscillations in the cuff pressure.
oscillometric blood pressure measurement
A method for monitoring blood pressure without requiring instruments introduced into the body.
noninvasive blood pressure measurement
An intra-arterial method of monitoring blood pressure.
invasive blood pressure measurement
All manners of treatment to bring respiratory system back to its normal state.
respiratory system therapeutic procedure
therapeutic procedure of respiratory system
A set of maneuvers or medical procedures performed to prevent and relieve airway obstruction. This ensures an open pathway for gas exchange between a patient's lungs and the atmosphere.
airway management
Removal of an endotracheal tube from the patient.
endotracheal extubation
A procedure involving placement of a tube into the trachea through the mouth or nose in order to provide a patient with oxygen and anesthesia.
endotracheal intubation
Any method of artificial breathing that employs mechanical or non-mechanical means to force the air into and out of the lungs. Artificial respiration or ventilation is used in individuals who have stopped breathing or have respiratory insufficiency to increase their intake of oxygen (O2) and excretion of carbon dioxide (CO2).
artificial respiration
Surgical formation of an opening into the trachea through the neck, or the opening so created.
Tracheostomy and tracheotomy are sometimes used interchangeably, but tracheotomy is simply a surgical incision of the trachea.
A manual method for maintaining oxygenation using a mask.
mask ventilation
Techniques for administering artificial respiration without the need for intratracheal intubation.
noninvasive ventilation
Ventilatory support system using frequencies from 60-900 cycles/min or more. Three types of systems have been distinguished on the basis of rates, volumes, and the system used.
high frequency positive pressure ventilation
high-frequency ventilation
A technique of mechanical ventilation in which the lungs are insufflated with an oxygenated perfluorochemical liquid rather than an oxygen-containing gas mixture.
liquid ventilation
A method of mechanical ventilation in which pressure is maintained to increase the volume of gas remaining in the lungs at the end of expiration, thus reducing the shunting of blood through the lungs and improving gas exchange.
positive end expiratory pressure technique
positive controlled ventilation
Assisted ventilation by applying intermittent subatmospheric pressure around the thorax, abdomen, or airway and periodically expand the chest wall and inflate the lungs.
negative-pressure respiration
obsolete bilevel positive airway pressure ventilation
A form of non-invasive mechanical pressure support ventilation that uses a continuous positive airway pressure level to support spontaneous breathing activity.
nasal continuous positive airway pressure ventilation
continuous positive airway pressure ventilation
A rehabilitation therapy for removal of copious mucus secretion from the lung of patients with diseases. The patient's head is placed in a downward incline (so the trachea is inferior to the affected area) for 15 to 20 minute sessions.
postural drainage
A respiratory support system used to remove mucus and clear airway by oscillating pressure on the chest.
chest wall oscillation
Application of a life support system that circulates the blood through an oxygenating system, which may consist of a pump, a membrane oxygenator, and a heat exchanger.
extracorporeal membrane oxygenation
Chest physical therapy (CPT or Chest PT) is an airway clearance technique (ACT) to drain the lungs, and may include percussion (clapping), vibration, deep breathing, and huffing or coughing.
chest physiotherapy
The insertion of a cannula or tube into a hollow body organ.
intubation procedure
The removal of a previously inserted tube from a hollow organ or passageway, often from the airway.
extubation procedure
Use of medical ultrasonography in pregnancy where sound waves are used to create a real-time visual image of the developing fetus in the uterus. Imaging can include the mother's ovaries and uterus as well.
fetal ultrasonography
A clinical recommendation to avoid or refrain from certain behaviors in order to maintain health or ameliorate symptoms.
behavior avoidance for therapeutic purposes
cognitive and behavioral intervention avoidance
A direct assessment of a patient's condition by a clinical health professional that is based on a physical exam, medical history, and the patient's account of symptoms.
examination by clinical professional
A systemic evaluation of the body and its functions using visual inspection, palpation, percussion and auscultation. The purpose is to determine the presence or absence of physical signs of disease or abnormality for an individual's health assessment.
physical examination
A test or diagnostic examination to assess the health status of the mother and well being of the fetus.
prenatal examination
Testing of fetal DNA during pregnancy to determine if the fetus has chromosomal aberrations, fetal aneuploidy, or other detectable genetic disorders.
prenatal genetic testing
A genetic test to whether a healthy person harbors a recessive mutation in one of their copies of a gene or genes.
genetic carrier screening
A test that analyzes small fragments of DNA that are circulating in a pregnant woman’s blood to determine the risk that the fetus will be born with genetic abnormalities.
noninvasive prenatal testing
obsolete prenatal molecular genetic testing
A diverse set of techniques used to identify the molecular basis of genetic disease. Examples of molecular genetic tests include: genotyping to detect specific pathogenic variants; sequencing of a gene to detect pathogenic variants; amplification or hybridization methods (e.g., qPCR, array CGH, MLPA) to detect copy number variants involving one or more genes; methylation-specific techniques to detect epigenetic changes that influence gene expression; and exome and genome sequencing.
molecular genetic testing
A prenatal diagnostic procedure in which a small sample of amniotic fluid is removed from the uterus by a needle inserted into the abdomen. This procedure is used to detect various genetic abnormalities in the fetus and/or the sex of the fetus.
amniocentisis
Procedure using suction, usually with a thin needle and syringe, to remove bodily fluid or tissue.
surgical aspiration procedure
A prenatal test in which a sample of chorionic villi is removed from the placenta for testing. The sample can be taken through the cervix (transcervical) or the abdominal wall (transabdominal). Mayo Clinic
The biopsy of placental tissue containing the chorionic villi from the maternal uterus in early pregnancy to diagnose fetal genetic defects.
A procedure conducted during pregnancy for the presence of Gardnerella vaginalis, Ureaplasma urealyticum, Mycoplasma hominis, Mobiluncus, Prevotella and anaerobic bacteria.
bacterial vaginosis screening
A test for the presence of fetal fibronectin in the cervico-vaginal area that is used to predict preterm birth.
fetal fibronectin testing
Screening with a swab from the vaginal and rectal areas in late pregnancy to test for the presence of Group B streptococcal infection.
broup B Beta-hemolytic streptococcus screening
prenatal group B streptococcus screening
An ultrasonic examination of the fetus in the late first trimester to measure the clear space at the back of the fetal neck to assess risk of genetic or cardiac abnormalities.
nuchal translucency ultrasound screening
ultrasonographic nuchal translucency exam
nuchal translucency screening
A screening measurement in which the maternal blood levels of alpha-fetoprotein, unconjugated estriol, human chorionic gonadotrophin and Inhibin A are calculated. These are then evaluated in relation to the mother's age, weight and fetal gestational age.
quad test assessment
A determination of the number of eosinophil in a blood sample.
A determination of the number of granulocyte in a blood sample.
A determination of the number of basophil in a blood sample.
A determination of the number of lymphocyte in a blood sample.
A procedure by which biological material is obtained from a subject for testing, diagnostic, treatment, or research purposes.
clinical biospecimen collection
obsolete swab-based biospecimen collection
Measuring a person's own body temperature usually at home using any of a number of types of thermometers.
self body temperature measurement
A characteristic that can be objectively measured and serves as an indicator for the inflammatory response. It could be used to indicate the normal inflammatory processes, pathogenic processes, state of health or disease, the risk for disease development and/or prognosis, or responsiveness to a particular therapeutic intervention.
inflammatory biomarker assessment
Assay based assessment of a serum sample for detection and concentration (mg/L) C-reactive protein.
C-reactive protein (CRP) measurement is a measurement of the level of C-reactive protein in the blood. Levels are known to rise in response to inflammation, CRP is therefore used as a clinical measure of inflammation. The measurement is used in the process of clinical diagnosis as high levels of CRP are associated with cardiovascular disease, diabetes and hypertension and in some cancers.
C-reactive protein biomarker assessment
Detection of circultating interleukin-6, which stimulates the inflammatory and auto-immune processes in many diseases.
A quantification of interleukin-6, a pro-inflammatory and anti-inflammatory cytokine.
interleukin-6 biomarker measurement
A chemokine that can be objectively measured and serves as an indicator for the inflammatory response.
Cytokines are small, nonstructural proteins, including interleukins, chemokines, interferons, and tumor necrosis factors, which have a multitude of pleiotropic effects in various organs [1]. They are released in a number of paracrine, autocrine, or endocrine pathways and have been implicated in a variety of infections and immune system-affecting disorders by both proinflammatory and anti-inflammatory mechanisms.
Macrophages and T lymphocytes (T-cells) are the primary producers of cytokines which may have predominantly pro-inflammatory (inflammation-promoting)(IL-1alpha, IL-1beta, IL-2, IL-6, Il-8, IL-12, TNF-alpha, IFN-gamma) or anti-inflammatory (inflammation-suppressive)(IL-4, IL-5, IL-10, TGF-beta) abilities.
cytokine biomarker assessment
Detection of interleukin-1 beta levels, an IL-1 cytokine family protein, secreted by macrophages and a mediator of inflammatory response.
interleukin-1 beta biomarker measurement
Detection of interleukin-1 alpha, a mediator of the inflammatory response.
interleukin-1 alpha biomarker measurement
Detection of interleukin-2, a mediator of inflammatory response.
interleukin-2 biomarker measurement
Detection of interleukin-8 levels, a mediator of inflammatory response.
interleukin-8 biomarker measurement
Detection of interleukin-12 levels, an inflammatory cytokine.
interleukin-12 biomarker measurement
Detection of TNF-alpha levels, a cytokine involved in systemic inflammation.
tumor necrosis factor-alpha biomarker measurement
Detection of interferon-gamma, a cytokine that indicates an inflammatory response.
interferon-gamma biomarker measurement
Detection of interleukin-4, a cytokine identified as an inflammation suppressant.
interleukin-4 biomarker measurement
Detection of interleukin-5, a cytokine identified as an inflammation suppressant.
interleukin-5 biomarker measurement
Detection of interleukin-10, a cytokine identified as an inflammation suppressant.
Interleukin-10 biomarker measurement
Detection of tumor necrosis factor-beta (TNF-beta), a cytokine identified as an inflammation suppressant.
tumor necrosis factor-beta biomarker measurement
Detection of serum levels of amyloid A (SAA) in response to inflammation.
serum amyloid A biomarker assessment
A clinical laboratory procedure designed for the quantification of an organic or inorganic chemical within a biological specimen required for diagnostics or monitoring of treatments.
clinical chemistry assessment
A quantitative measurement for assessing the amount of glucose present in a blood sample.
blood glucose assessment
Glucose Plasma Concentration (GPC) measurement is an essential diagnostic modality for different types of carbohydrate metabolism derangements including diabetes mellitus.
Glucose Plasma Concentration (GPC) measurement is an essential diagnostic modality for different types of carbohydrate metabolism derangements including diabetes mellitus. The disordered carbohydrate metabolism that underlies diabetes manifests as hyperglycemia. Plasma glucose concentrations in healthy individuals vary with age. Normal fasting plasma glucose intervals (in the morning after an overnight fast) in children are 3.3 - 5.6 mmol/L (60-100 mg/dL); adult range - 4.1- 5.9 mmol/L (74-106 mg/dL). GPCs are approximately 11% higher than whole blood if the hematocrit is normal. Glucose concentrations in heparinized plasma are reported to be 5% lower than in serum.
plasma glucose assessment
A quantitative measurement of the amount of glucose present in a sample of blood, obtained from a source that has abstained from nutrition, typically at least 8 hours prior to the sample collection time.
fasting blood glucose assessment
A technique to collect sputum by inhaling hypertonic saline through an oxygen mask in order to induce sputum.
induced sputum collection
A method of examining structures within the body by scanning them with X rays and using a computer to construct a series of cross-sectional scans along a single axis.
computed tomography procedure
Use of a drug that lower the level of glucose in the blood.
Treatment of retroviral infections with medications that target the virus directly, limiting the ability of infected cells to produce new virus particles.
treatment with an anti-retroviral medication
treatment with an antiretroviral medication
antiretroviral therapy
The process of gathering information regarding a person's medical history.
medical history taking
Determination if a patient's background or demographic characteristics makes the patient susceptible to disease.
patient demographic characteristics assessment
Determination if patient's travel history may impact current health.
patient travel risk assessment
A questionnaire designed to determine if patient's travel history may impact current health.
patient travel risk questionnaire
Determination if the patient may have been exposed to something which would impact the health of the patient.
patient environmental exposure assessment
A test that measures the amount of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood. It may also be used to determine the pH of the blood.
pH and blood gas measurements are used to detect and monitor ventilation, oxygenation, and acid-base disturbances.
blood gas assessment
The determination of the unmeasured anions (those other than the chloride and bicarbonate anions) present in a sample.
anion gap assessment
A quantitative measurement of the amount of calcium present in a sample, usually serum or urine.
calcium assessment
A quantitative measurement of the amount of an electrolyte present in urine or serum.
electrolyte assessment
A quantitative measurement of the amount of an electrolyte present in serum.
serum electrolyte assessment
A quantitative measurement of the amount of an electrolyte present in urine.
urine eletrolyte assessment
Any laboratory procedure for growing microorganisms.
microbial culture procedure
A type of mechanical ventilation using endotracheal intubation.
invasive ventilation
A time-triggered, pressure-limited, inverse-ratio mode of ventilation that provides continuous distending airway pressure with intermittent release phases
airway pressure release ventilation
A technique that detects a particular nucleic acid sequence in order to identify a pathogen (organism or virus) in blood, tissue, urine, or other bodily fluids.
clinical nucleic acid testing for pathogens
A tecnique that uses an amplification of nucleic acids to detect a pathogen. Some amplification methods include polymerase chain reaction (PCR), strand displacement assay (SDA), or transcription mediated assay (TMA) to detect a virus, bacteria or other pathogen.
Any of various amplification and detection strategies applied to detection of virus contamination in donor blood. Specifically designed to detect recently infected individuals during the latency period before seroconversion.
nucleic acid amplification testing
A type of nucleic acid amplification test in which sample DNA is exposed to a single temperature in the presence of multiple sets of primers and a polymerase with replication and high strand displacement activity. This test negates the need for thermal cyclers and may be a low cost alternative to PCR.
loop-mediated isothermal amplification procedure
loop-mediated isothermal amplification testing
A technique that detects a particular DNA sequence in order to identify a pathogen (organism or virus) in blood, tissue, urine, or other bodily fluids.
clinical DNA detection testing
A technique that detects a particular RNA sequence in order to identify a pathogen (organism or virus) in blood, tissue, urine, or other bodily fluids.
clinical RNA detection testing
A clinical assay that amplifies and quantifies a specific DNA molecule based on in tissue, blood, sputum, urine, or any other bodily fluid to detect the presence of a pathogen. It enables both detection and quantification of one or more specific sequences in a DNA sample.
real-time PCR procedure for clinical use
clinical real-time PCR testing
A method to measure very small amounts of RNA transcripts as cDNA targets from tissue, blood, sputum or other body fluids.
clinical quantitative reverse transcription PCR procedure
clinical quantitative reverse transcription PCR testing
A procedure producing an image on a radiosensitive surface by x-ray radiation that has penetrated and passed through a structure in order to diagnose or treat a patient.
The process of taking a thorough history and physical exam to determine if a patient has been exposed to an infectious disease. Close attention is paid to travel history, environmental exposures, and vaccination history.
infectious disease screening
The administration of oxygen to an individual, usually to aid in respiration by means of a mask.
supplemental oxygen therapy with mask
The administration of oxygen to an individual, usually to aid in respiration by means of a nasal cannula.
oxygen support therapy with nasal cannula
supplemental oxygen therapy with nasal cannula
Therapy using a substance used in the treatment of hypotension. A vasopressor agent increases reduced blood pressure.
treatment with antihypotensive medication
Treatments that substitute for the blood-filtering function of the kidneys.
It includes dialysis (hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis), hemofiltration, and hemodiafiltration. Kidney transplant may also be considered a renal replacement therapy.
renal replacement therapy
A procedure to remove toxic substances from the blood that is used in patients with end-stage chronic kidney disease or acute kidney failure. This includes hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis.
renal dialysis
A therapeutic procedure used in patients with kidney failure. It involves the extracorporeal removal of harmful wastes and fluids from the blood using a dialysis machine. Following the dialysis, the blood is returned to the body.
hemodialysis
A form of dialysis that uses the peritoneum as a membrane across which the infused diasylate exchanges nutrients for waste products that are removed when the fluid is exchanged.
peritoneal dialysis
A laboratory procedure that tests the function of an endocrine organ and measures the amount of a hormone present in a sample.
endocrine testing
The determination of the amount of protein present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of procalcitonin (human) present in the sample.
A substance produced in response to bacterial infections and tissue injury.
The determination of the amount of D-dimer (human) present in the sample.
A quantification of a fibrin degradation product in blood used in the diagnosis of thrombosis.
A quantitative measurement of the amount of phosphate present in a sample of serum.
serum phosphate assessment
Testing blood serum for the presence of specifc antibody or antibodies to a specific antigen. Often used when an infection is suspected.
serology testing
A highly sensitive technique for detecting and measuring antigens or antibodies in a solution; the solution is run over a surface to which immobilized antibodies specific to the substance have been attached, and if the substance is present, it will bind to the antibody layer, and its presence is verified and visualized with an application of antibodies that have been tagged in some way. (BioTech Life Science Dictionary)
enzyme linked immunosorbent assay testing
clinical ELISA testing
A type of lateral flow assay that qualitatively detect IgG and IgM antibodies of an infectious disease within human serum, plasma or whole blood in vitro.
rapid IgM-IgG combined antibody testing
A procedure using a paper-based platform for the detection and quantification of analytes in complex mixtures, where the sample is placed on a test device for clinical use.
clinical lateral flow assay testing
Any of several immunoassay methods that use an enzyme covalently linked to an antigen or antibody as a label and are typically used for diagnostics or disease progression.
clinical immunoassay
Immunofluorescence staining used in a pathology or clinical lab to diagnose diseases of the skin, kidney, heart, cilia and other organ systems.
clinical immunofluorescence assay testing
A technique for analyzing or identifying proteins immobilized on a filter by complementary reaction with specific antibodies.
clinical immunoblot assay testing
The measurement of the ratio of oxygenated hemoglobin to total hemoglobin in the blood.
oxygen saturation measurement
A non-invasive method that provides estimates of arterial oxyhemoglobin saturation by utilizing selected wavelengths of light to determine the saturation of oxyhemoglobin.
pulse oximetry
A therapy of replenishing bodily fluids lost through sweating, bleeding, fluid shifts or other pathological processes, such as sepsis.
fluid replacement therapy
Prone positioning improves ventilation-perfusion matching (transferring delivered oxygen into the bloodstream more efficiently) and keeps alveolar units open and evenly distributed at end-expiration (improving gas exchange and preventing ventilator-induced lung injury).
ventilation with proning
A procedure of surgical placement of a catheter, which lumen is usually occupied by a trocar, into the central vein (internal jugular, subclavian, and femoral often used) or veins, to provide vascular access for measurement of hemodynamic variables that cannot be measured accurately by noninvasive means. It also can be used to deliver medications that were too potent or too toxic to be administered through peripheral access, for parenteral nutrition delivery; and for placing wires and pulmonary artery catheters. Central veins are usually cannulated percutaneously. The procedure is associated with many adverse events and has to be performed or supervised by an experienced physician.
central venous access catheter insertion
central venous cannula insertion
A thin catheter inserted into an artery to monitor blood pressure directly and obtain blood samples.
arterial catheter line insertion
Allows delivery of positive-pressure ventilation with a tight-fitting nasal or facial mask that is attached to a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) or a bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP) machine.
non-invasive positive pressure ventilation
noninvasive positve-pressure ventilation
Nutrition intervention for nutrition counseling is a supportive process, characterized by a collaborative counselor–patient/client relationship to establish food, nutrition and physical activity priorities, goals, and individualized action plans that acknowledge and foster responsibility for self-care to treat an existing condition and promote health.
nutrition counseling
Reference: Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics. Nutrition Terminology Reference Manual (eNCPT): Dietetics Language for Nutrition Care 2014, Nutrition Intervention/Terms and Definitions/Nutrition Counseling (C), page-064, http://ncpt.webauthor.com
An in-depth evaluation of an individual's food and nutrient intake, lifestyle, and medical history designed to help the individual either maintain their health status or attain a healthier status.
nutrition assessment
A therapy utilizing an inhaled substance that produces loss of consciousness.
inhalation anaesthetic medication therapy
inhalation anesthetic medication therapy
A therapy utilizing an intravenous substance that produces loss of consciousness.
intravenous anesthetic medication therapy
Treatment with an agent that causes a superficial loss of sensation in conjunctiva, mucous membranes, or skin, produced by direct application of local anesthetic solutions, ointments, gels or sprays.
Use of an agent that modulates the physiologic angiogenesis process.
angiogenesis modulating medication therapy
treatment with angiogenesis modulating agent
obsolete angiogenesis inducing agent therapy
Use of a compound that promotes the growth of new blood vessels from pre-existing vessels.
A therapy used to neutralize stomach acidity.
A therapy used to treat or ameliorate peptic ulcer or irritation of the gastrointestinal tract.
Treatment of allergic reactions with medications.
Treatment with a drug which acts to reduce estrogenic activity in the body, either by reducing the amount of estrogen or by reducing the activity of whatever estrogen is present.
treatment with anti-oestrogen medication
Use of a compound which can be used to treat or alleviate the symptoms of dyskinesia.
treatment with anti-dyskinesia medication
treatment with anti-dyskinetic medication
treatment with antidyskinesia medication
treatment with antidyskinetic medication
Treatment with an antiviral agent that destroys or inhibits the replication of the herpes simplex virus.
Treatment of herpes simplex virus with medication
Treatment with anti-herpes simplex virus drug
Treatment with anti-herpes simplex virus medication
anti-herpes simplex virus drug treatment
anti-herpes simplex virus medication therapy
Treatment with an antiviral agent that destroys or inhibits the replication of the herpes simplex virus-1.
anti-herpes simplex virus 1 drug therapy
anti-herpes simplex virus 1 medication treatment
Treatment with an antiviral agent that destroys or inhibits the replication of the herpes simplex virus-2.
anti-herpes simplex virus 2 drug therapy
anti-herpes simplex virus 2 medication treatment
Use of a natural or synthetic analog of the hormones secreted by the adrenal gland as a type of anti-inflammatory treatment.
treatment with corticosteroid medication
corticosteroid agent therapy
Treatment to induce vomiting and nausea usually administered in emergency situations after ingestion of a toxin.
Treatment with a drug to alleviate rheumatoid arthritis and its symptoms.
treatment with anti-rheumatic medication
Treatment with an agent that modifies a particular molecular pathway.
molecular pathway modifying agent therapy
Use of an inhibitor that interferes with the action of enzyme acetylcholinesterase, which helps breaking down of acetylcholine into choline and acetic acid
acetylcholinesterase inhibitor agent therapy
acetylcholinesterase inhibitor drug therapy
treatment with EC 3.1.1.7 (acetylcholinesterase) inhibitor
Treatment that uses drugs to stop the growth of cancer cells, either by killing the cells or by stopping them from dividing. Chemotherapy may be given by mouth, injection, or infusion, or on the skin, depending on the type and stage of the cancer being treated. It may be given alone or with other treatments, such as surgery, radiation therapy, or biologic therapy.
cytotoxic antineoplastic medication therapy
treatment with cancer chemotherapeutic agent
treatment with cancer chemotherapeutic drug
treatment with cancer chemotherapeutic medication
Although this term is used to describe any therapy involving the use of chemical-based agents, it is particularly used to refer to the use of chemical-based agents to treat cancer. Antineoplastic chemotherapy works by arresting or killing the growth and spread of cancer cells. Chemotherapy may also include agents that enhance immune function or alter hormonal activity.
cancer chemotherapy
The use of synthetic or naturally-occurring chemicals for the treatment of diseases.
treatment with a chemotherapeutic medication
chemotherapy
A therapy using a compound or agent that combines with an enzyme in such a manner as to prevent the normal substrate-enzyme combination and the catalytic reaction.
treatment with enzyme inhibitor medication
Use of a drug which increases blood glucose level.
Treatment with a cardiovascular drug that prevents atherogenesis, the accumulation of lipid-containing plaques on the innermost layers of the arteries.
treatment with anti-atherogenic medication
treatment with antiatherogenic medication
Treatment with a cardiovascular drug that prevents atherosclerosis, a disease in which the inside of an artery narrows due to the build-up of plaque.
treatment with anti-atherosclerosis drug
treatment with anti-atherosclerosis medication
treatment with anti-atherosclerosis therapy
treatment with anti-atherosclerotic agent
treatment with anti-atherosclerotic drug
treatment with anti-atherosclerotic medication
treatment with antiatherosclerotic agent
treatment with antiatherosclerotic medication
Use of a drug that inhibits angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), an enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Inhibition of ACE results in a reduction in angiotensin II and angiotensin II-induced aldosterone secretion, causing vasodilation and natriuresis.
Treatment with angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor therapy
ACE inhibitor therapy
Treatment with a class of agents that act by selectively inhibiting angiotensin II receptor activation in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
treatment with angiotensin II receptor antagonist
treatment with angiotensin II receptor blocker
treatment with angiotensin receptor antagonist
A pharmaceutical agent that selectively inhibits angiotensin II receptor activation in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system reducing production and secretion of aldosterone, amongst other actions. The combined effects result in reduction of blood pressure. It is primarily used for the reduction of proteinuria and the treatment of hypertension in cases where the patient is intolerant of ACE inhibitor therapy.
Angiotensin II receptor antagonists bind to and block the activation of angiotensin II type 1 (AT1) receptors, thereby reducing production and secretion of aldosterone, amongst other actions. The combined effects result in reduction of blood pressure. Although this class of agents is also used in diabetic nephropathy (kidney damage due to diabetes) and congestive heart failure, it is primarily used for the treatment of hypertension in cases where the patient is intolerant of ACE inhibitor therapy.
Treatment with a group of pharmaceutical drugs used primarily in treatment of essential hypertension. These drugs inhibit the first and rate-limiting step of the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system, namely the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.
renin inhibitor therapy
Use of a drug that inhibits angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) 1, an enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
angiotensin-converting enzyme-1 inhibitor therapy
peptidyl-dipeptidase A inhibitor therapy
treatment with EC 3.4.15.1 (peptidyl-dipeptidase A) inhibitor
treatment with angiotensin I-converting enzyme inhibitor
Use of a drug that inhibits angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) 2, an enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
angiotensin-converting enzyme-2 inhibitor therapy
treatment with EC 3.4.17.23 (angiotensin-converting enzyme 2) inhibitor
Use of a drug that selectively binds to and inhibits metabotropic glutamate receptors.
treatment with metabotropic glutamate receptor antagonist
treatment with metabotropic glutamate receptor blockade
treatment with metabotropic glutamate receptor blocker
metabotropic glutamate receptor antagonist therapy
Use of a drug that modulates the action of N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptors.
NMDA receptor modulator agent therapy
Treatment with an agent which regulates AMPA recepter signaling.
AMPA-targeting agent therapy
Use of a drug that selectively binds to and regulates metabotropic glutamate receptors (mGluR).
treatment with metabotropic glutamate receptor modulator
metabotropic glutamate receptor–targeting agent therapy
Use of a drug that activates the action of N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptors.
Use of a drug that selectively binds to and activates AMPA receptors.
Use of a drug that selectively binds to and inhibits AMPA receptors.
Treatment with an agent that is used to prevent or inhibit diarrhea.
A procedure where a physician reviews a patient's medical history, examines the patient, and makes recommendations as to care and treatment.
specialty medical professional consultation
specialty medical professional evaluation
medical specialist evaluation
An assessment by an allergologist who diagnoses and manages disorders involving allergies, asthma, and related conditions.
allergy and immunologist doctor consultation
allergy and immunologist doctor evaluation
allergy and immunology specialist consultation
consultation with allergy and immunologist
allergologist evaluation
An assessment by a physician who provides anesthesia for patients undergoing surgical, obstetric, diagnostic or therapeutic procedures while monitoring the patient's condition and supporting vital organ functions. The anesthesiologist also diagnoses and treats acute, chronic and/or cancer pain as well as provides resuscitation and medical management for patients with critical illnesses and severe injuries.
anesthesiology specialist evaluation
An evaluation by an anesthesiologist who specializes in Pediatric Anesthesiology. This specialist provides anesthesia for neonates, infants, children and adolescents undergoing surgical, diagnostic or therapeutic procedures as well as appropriate pre- and post-operative care, advanced life support, and acute pain management.
consultation with pediatric anesthesiologist
pediatric anesthesiology specialist consultation
pediatric anesthesiology specialist evaluation
An assessment by a colon and rectal surgeon who diagnoses and treats various diseases of the small intestine, colon, rectum, anal canal and perianal area including the organs and tissues related with primary intestinal diseases (liver, urinary and female reproductive system). This specialist treats conditions such as hemorrhoids, fissures (painful tears in the anal lining), abscesses and fistulas (infections located around the anus and rectum). A colon and rectal surgeon diagnoses and treats problems of the intestine and colon such as cancer, polyps (precancerous growths) and inflammatory conditions.
colon and rectal surgery specialist consultation
consultation with colon and rectal surgeon
consultation with colon and rectal surgery specialist
colon and rectal surgery specialist evaluation
An assessment by a physician with training and expertise in the diagnosis and medical/surgical management of diseases of the skin, hair and nails, and mucous membranes.
dermatology specialist evaluation
An assessment by a physician who specializes in immediate decision making and action necessary to prevent death or any further disability both in the pre-hospital setting by directing emergency medical technicians and in the emergency department. This specialist provides immediate recognition, evaluation, care, stabilization and disposition of a generally diversified population of adult and pediatric patients in response to acute illness and injury.
assessment by emergency medicine specialist
emergency department physician examination
emergency medicine specialist assessment
examination by emergency medicine specialst
emergency medicine specialist evaluation
An assessment by a physician who provides front-line health care that is accessible, high quality, comprehensive and continuous over time for people of all ages, life stages, backgrounds and conditions. The specialists care for individuals and for entire families, from birth through the end of life, including a broad range of preventive care; healthy lifestyle counseling; mental health care; care of acute illnesses; management of chronic diseases, including patients with multi-morbidity. When needed, they also provide referral and coordination of care with other specialists.
consultation with family medicine specialist
examination by family medicine specialist
family medicine specialist evaluation
An assessment by a physician with special knowledge of the aging process and special skills in the diagnostic, therapeutic, preventive and rehabilitative aspects of illness in the elderly. This specialist cares for geriatric patients in the patient’s home, the office, long-term care settings such as nursing homes, and the hospital.
assessment by geriatric medicine specialist
consultation with geriatric medicine specialist
evaluation by geriatric medicine specialist
geriatric medicine specialist consultation
referral to geriatric medicine specialist
geriatric medicine specialist evaluation
An assessment by a physician who specializes in Hospice and Palliative Medicine who provides care to prevent and relieve the suffering experienced by patients with life-limiting illnesses. This specialist works with an interdisciplinary hospice or palliative care team to optimize quality of life while addressing the physical, psychological, social and spiritual needs of both patient and family.
consultation with hospice and palliative medicine specialist
hospice and palliative medicine specialist consultation
referral to hospice and palliative medicine specialist
assessment by palliative care specialist
consultation with palliative care specialist
evaluation by palliative care specialist
hospice and palliative medicine specialist evaluation
An assessment by a physician who diagnoses and treats patients experiencing problems with acute or chronic pain, or pain related to cancer, in both hospital and outpatient settings and coordinates care needs with other specialists.
consultation with pain medicine specialist
pain medicine specialist evaluation
An assesment a specialist focuses on preventing, diagnosing, and treating injuries related to participating in sports and/or exercise. In addition to the study of those fields that focus on prevention, diagnosis, treatment, and management of injuries, Sports Medicine specialists also deal with illnesses and diseases that might have effects on health and physical performance.
consultation with sports medicine specialist
referral to a sports medicine specialist
sports medicine specialist evaluation
An assessment with a specialist who has expertise in the diagnosis and management of clinical conditions that occur during sleep, that disturb sleep, or that are affected by disturbances in the wake-sleep cycle. This specialist is skilled in the analysis and interpretation of comprehensive polysomnography, and well versed in emerging research and management of a sleep laboratory.
consultation with sleep medicine specialist
sleep medicine specialist evaluation
An assessment by a personal physician who provides long-term, comprehensive care in the office and in the hospital, managing both common and complex illnesses of adolescents, adults and the elderly. Internists are trained in the diagnosis and treatment of cancer, infections and diseases affecting the heart, blood, kidneys, joints and the digestive, respiratory and vascular systems. Internists are also trained in the essentials of primary care internal medicine, which incorporates an understanding of disease prevention, wellness, substance abuse, mental health and effective treatment of common problems of the eyes, ears, skin, nervous system and reproductive organs.
consultation with internal medicine specialist
internal medicine specialist consultation
referral to an internal medicine specialist
internal medicine specialist evaluation
An assessment with a multidisciplinary health care specialist trained in the unique physical, psychological and social characteristics of adolescents, their health care problems and needs.
adolescent medicine specialist consultation
adolescent medicine specialist evaluation
assessment by adolescent medicine specialist
consultation with adolescent medicine specialist
evaluation by adolescent medicine specialist
referral to adolescent medicine specialist
An assessment by an internist who specializes in diseases of the heart and blood vessels and manages complex cardiac conditions, such as heart attacks and life-threatening, abnormal heartbeat rhythms.
cardiovascular disease internist consultation
cardiovascular disease internist evaluation
consultation with cardiovascular disease internist
consultation with internal medicine cardiovascular disease specialist
internal medicine cardiovascular disease specialist consultation
referral to cardiovascular disease internist
cardiologist evaluation
An assessment by a specialist who specializes in intricate technical procedures to evaluate heart rhythms and determine appropriate treatment.
consultation with clinical cardiac electrophysiologist
consultation with clinical cardiac electrophysiology specialist
internal medicine clinical cardiac electrophysiologist consultation
internal medicine clinical cardiac electrophysiology specialist consultation
internal medicine clinical cardiac electrophysiology specialist evaluation
referral to a clinical electrophysiologist
clinical cardiac electrophysiologist evaluation
An assessment with an internist trained in critical care medicine who has expertise in the diagnosis, treatment and support of critically ill and injured patients, particularly trauma victims and patients with multiple organ dysfunction.
consultation with critical care medicine internist
consultation with internal medicine critical care medicine specialist
internal medicine critical care medicine consultation
internal medicine critical care medicine evaluation
critical care medicine internist evaluation
An assessment with an internist who specializes in the diagnosis and management of disorders of hormones and their actions, metabolic disorders, and neoplasia of the endocrine glands. This specialist cares for patients with diabetes mellitus, thyroid disorders, disorders of calcium and bone, hyperlipidemia, obesity and nutritional disorders, pituitary disorders, reproductive and gonadal disorders, adrenal diseases, and endocrine hypertension.
consultation with endocrinology, diabetes and metabolism specialist
endocrinology, diabetes and metabolism specialist consultation
endocrinology, diabetes and metabolism specialist evaluation
endocrinologist evaluation
An evaluation with an internist who specializes in diagnosis and treatment of diseases of the digestive organs including the stomach, bowels, liver and gallbladder. This specialist treats conditions such as abdominal pain, ulcers, diarrhea, cancer and jaundice and performs complex diagnostic and therapeutic procedures using endoscopes to visualize internal organs.
consultation with gastroenterology specialist
gastroenterologist evaluation
An assessment by an internist with additional training who specializes in diseases of the blood, spleen and lymph. This specialist treats conditions such as anemia, clotting disorders, sickle cell disease, hemophilia, leukemia and lymphoma.
hematologist evaluation
An assessment by an internist who deals with infectious diseases of all types and in all organ systems. Infectious disease specialists may also have expertise in preventive medicine and travel medicine.
consultation with infectious disease specialist
infectious disease specialist consultation
infectious disease specialist evaluation
referral to infectious disease internist
infectious disease internist evaluation
An assessment by an internist who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of all types of cancer and other benign and malignant tumors. This specialist decides on and administers therapy for these malignancies, as well as consults with surgeons and radiotherapists on other treatments for cancer.
consultation with medical oncology internist
medical oncologist evaluation
An assessment by an internist who treats disorders of the kidney, high blood pressure, fluid and mineral balance, and dialysis of body wastes when the kidneys do not function. This specialist consults with surgeons about kidney transplantation.
nephrologist evaluation
An assessment by an internist who treats diseases of the lungs and airways. The specialist diagnoses and treats cancer, pneumonia, pleurisy, asthma, occupational and environmental diseases, bronchitis, sleep disorders, emphysema and other complex disorders of the lungs.
consultation with pulmonary disease internist
consultation with pulmonary disease specialist
pulmonary disease internist consultation
pulmonologist evaluation
An assessment by an internist who treats diseases of joints, muscle, bones and tendons. This specialist diagnoses and treats arthritis, back pain, muscle strains, common athletic injuries and collagen diseases.
consultation with rheumatology internist
rheumatologist evaluation
An assessment with a specialist who directs and interprets a wide range of specialized, laboratory biochemical genetic analyses relevant to the diagnosis and management of inherited metabolic disorders. The specialist acts as a consultant regarding laboratory diagnosis on a broad range of inborn errors of metabolism.
clinical biochemical geneticist consultation
consultation with clinical biochemical geneticist
referral to a clinical biochemical geneticist
clinical biochemical geneticist evaluation
An assessment with a specialist who provides comprehensive diagnostic, management, therapeutic, and counseling services for individuals and families at risk for clinical disorders with a genetic basis. The specialist is trained to evaluate individuals of all ages for hereditary conditions.
clinical genetics and genomics specialist consultation
consultation with clinical genetics and genomics specialist
clinical genetics and genomics specialist evaluation
An assessment or consultation by a diplomate certified in Laboratory Genetics and Genomics who directs and interprets both clinical cytogenetic and molecular genetic analyses relevant to the diagnosis and management of human genetic disease. This specialist acts as a consultant in laboratory diagnoses for a broad range of molecular and chromosomal-based disorders, including both inherited and acquired conditions.
clinical laboratory geneticist evaluation
An assessment by this specialist provides care for adult and pediatric patients in the treatment of pain or pathological processes that may modify the function or activity of the central nervous system (e.g., brain, hypophysis, and spinal cord), the peripheral nervous system (e.g., cranial, spinal, and peripheral nerves), the autonomic nervous system, the supporting structures of these systems (e.g., meninges, skull & skull base, and vertebral column), and their vascular supply (e.g., intracranial, extracranial, and spinal vasculature).
consultation with neurological surgery specialist
neurological surgery specialist consultation
neurological surgery specialist evaluation
An evaluation by a specialist that uses molecular tracers (usually labeled with radioactive atoms) for diagnosis and therapy.
consultation with nuclear medicine specialist
nuclear medicine specialist consultation
These labeled tracers are most often used to produce images that provide information about organ function, as well as cellular function on a molecular level (molecular imaging). Molecular imaging can be combined with anatomical imaging by using specialized cameras. The most common diagnostic applications of Nuclear Medicine include the early detection of coronary artery disease, cancer diagnosis and staging and the evaluation of the effect of cancer treatment. The fusion of molecular and anatomical information increases diagnostic accuracy and changes medical management. Radioactive materials are also used to treat a variety of health problems, including thyroid disorders and cancer.
nuclear medicine specialist evaluation
An evaluation with a specialist who focuses on the health of women before, during and after childbearing years, diagnosing and treating conditions of the reproductive system and associated disorders.
consultation with obstetrics and gynecology specialist
obstetrics and gynecology specialist consultation
obstetrics/gynecology specialist consultation
obstetrics/gynecology specialist evaluation
obstetrics and gynecology specialist evaluation
An evaluation by a specialist focused on the medical and surgical care of the eyes. Ophthalmologists are the only physicians medically trained to manage the complete range of the eye and vision care. They can prescribe glasses and contact lenses, dispense medications, diagnose and treat eye conditions and diseases and perform surgeries.
ophthalmologist evaluation
An evaluation by a specialist who has expertise in the surgical and medical care for all structures of the musculoskeletal system directly affected by participation in sporting activity. This specialist is proficient in areas including conditioning, training and fitness, athletic performance and the impact of dietary supplements, pharmaceuticals, and nutrition on performance and health, coordination of care within the team setting utilizing other health care professionals, field evaluation and management, soft tissue biomechanics and injury healing and repair. Knowledge and understanding of the principles and techniques of rehabilitation, athletic equipment and orthotic devices enables the specialist to prevent and manage athletic injuries.
consultation with sports medicine orthopedic surgeon
referral to sports medicine orthopedic surgeon
sports medicine orthopedic surgeon consultation
sports medicine orthopedic surgeon evaluation
sports medicine orthopedist consultation
sports medicine orthopedist evaluation
An assessment by a specialist with expertise in the surgical, medical and rehabilitative care of patients with diseases, injuries, and disorders affecting the hand, wrist and forearm.
consultation with orthopedic hand surgeon
Common conditions treated by a hand surgeon include carpal tunnel syndrome, trigger fingers, ganglia (lumps), sports injuries to the hand and wrist, and hand injuries involving cut tendons, nerves and arteries. Hand Surgeons may be General Surgeons, Orthopedic Surgeons or Plastic Surgeons who have received additional training in this area.
hand surgeon evaluation
An assessment by a specialist who provides medical and/or surgical therapy or prevention of diseases, allergies, neoplasms, deformities, disorders and/or injuries of the ears, nose, sinuses, throat, respiratory and upper alimentary systems, face, jaws and the other head and neck systems.
consultation by otolaryngology specialist
Head and neck oncology, facial plastic and reconstructive surgery and the treatment of disorders of hearing and voice are fundamental areas of expertise.
otolaryngologist evaluation
An assessment by a specialist concerned with the physical, emotional, and social health of children from birth to young adulthood.
Pediatric care encompasses a broad spectrum of health services ranging from preventive health care to the diagnosis and treatment of acute and chronic diseases. Pediatricians understand the many factors that affect the growth and development of children. They understand that children are not simply small adults. Children change rapidly, and they must be approached with an appreciation for their stage of physical and mental development.
pediatrician evaluation
An evaluation with a specialist who possesses special skills, training and experience to foster understanding and promotion of optimal development of children and families through research, education, clinical care and advocacy efforts. This physician assists in the prevention, diagnosis and management of developmental difficulties and problematic behaviors in children and in the family dysfunctions that compromise children’s development.
consultation with developmental-behavior pediatrician
developmental-behavior pediatrician consultation
developmental-behavior pediatrician referral
referral to developmental-behavior pediatrician
developmental-behavior pediatrician evaluation
An evaluation by a specialist who provides expert care to infants, children and adolescents who have diseases that result from an abnormality in the endocrine glands (glands which secrete hormones). These diseases include diabetes mellitus, growth failure, unusual size for age, early or late pubertal development, birth defects, the genital region and disorders of the thyroid, the adrenal and pituitary glands.
consultation with pediatric endocrinologist
pediatric endocrinologist evalutation
Evaluation by a specialist who provides comprehensive care to patients with cardiovascular problems. This specialist is skilled in selecting, performing, and evaluating the structural and functional assessment of the heart and blood vessels, and the clinical evaluation of cardiovascular disease.
consultation with pediatric cardiologist
pediatric cardiologist evaluation
Assessment by a specialist who treats patients with disorders or disabilities in the muscles, bones, and nervous system, including neck or back pain, sports and work injuries, stroke, brain injury, spinal cord injury, spasticity, and any other disability or disorder that affects function.
assessment by physical medicine and rehabilitation specialist
consultation with physical medicine and rehabilitation specialist
evaluation by physical medicine and rehabilitation specialist
examination by physical mediciane and rehabilitation specialist
physical medicine and rehabilitation specialist assessment
physical medicine and rehabilitation specialist consultation
physical medicine and rehabilitation specialist evaluation
physical medicine and rehabilitation specialist referral
Treatment modalities by a physiatrist may include medications, injections, therapeutic exercise, electrodiagnosis, and any equipment required for daily activities.
physiatrist evaluation
An assessment with a specialist who focuses on the repair, reconstruction or replacement of physical defects of form or function involving the skin, musculoskeletal system, craniomaxillofacial structures, hand, extremities, breast and trunk and external genitalia or cosmetic enhancement of these areas of the body.
plastic surgeon evaluation
Evaluation by a physician who specializes in the evaluation and treatment of mental, addictive and emotional disorders.
psychiatrist evaluation
Evaluation by a physician who specializes in the evaluation and treatment of mental, addictive and emotional disorders in children and adolescence.
assessment by child and adolescent psychiatrist
child and adolescent psychiatrist assessment
child and adolescent psychiatrist consultation
child and adolescent psychiatrist referral
consultation with child and adolescent psychiatrist
evaluation by child and adolescent psychiatrist
referral to child and adolescent psychiatrist
child and adolescent psychiatrist evaluation
An evaluation a specialist who treats all types of disease or impaired function of the brain, spinal cord, peripheral nerves, muscles and autonomic nervous system, as well as the blood vessels that relate to these structures.
neurologist evaluation
Evaluation with a specialist who diagnose and treat all types of disease or impaired function of the brain, spinal cord, peripheral nerves, muscles and autonomic nervous system, as well as the blood vessels that relate to these structures in infants, children, and adolescents. They also have special competence in genetic and metabolic problems, malformation, retardation and other neurodevelopmental problems of childhood.
child neurologist evaluation
Evaluation by a specialist who uses imaging methodologies to diagnose and manage patients and provide therapeutic options.
radiologist evaluation
Evaluation by an expert in the diagnosis and care of patients with diseases and disorders affecting the abdomen, digestive tract, endocrine system, breast, skin and blood vessels. A general surgeon is also trained in the treatment of patients who are injured or critically ill, and in the care of pediatric and cancer patients. General surgeons are skilled in the use of minimally invasive techniques and endoscopies.
general surgeon evaluation
An evaluation by a specialist who performs preoperative, operative, and postoperative management of patients with disorders of the arterial, venous and lymphatic systems, excluding vessels of the brain and the heart.
vascular surgeon evaluation
Evaluation by a specialist who focuses on the operative, perioperative, and surgical critical care of patients with acquired and congenital pathologic conditions within the chest.
assessment by thoracic and cardiac surgeon
consultation with thoracic and cardiac surgeon
evaluation by thoracic and cardiac surgeon
referral to thoracic and cardiac surgeon
thoracic and cardiac surgeon consultation
thoracic and cardiac surgeon evaluation
An evaluation by a specialist that focuses on diagnosing and treating disorders of the urinary tracts of males and females, and on the reproductive system of males. This specialist manages non-surgical problems such as urinary tract infections and benign prostatic hyperplasia, as well as surgical problems such as the surgical management of cancers, the correction of congenital abnormalities, and correcting stress incontinence.
urologist evaluation
Evaluation by a physician who specializes in the evaluation and treatment of of the brain.
psychiatry and neurology specialist evaluation
Assessment by a specialist who has expertise in the diagnosis and preoperative, operative, and postoperative management of patient care.
surgeon evaluation
A procedure, also known as sonohysterography or saline infusion sonography, using a minimally invasive ultrasound technique to view the inside of the uterus. Sterile saline is injected into the endometrial cavity thereby distending the endometrial cavity, providing good visualization of the anatomic structures within.
hysterosonography
An invasive procedure in which sound waves (called ultrasound) are bounced off of vascular tissues from within the vessel and the echoes produce a picture (sonogram).
intravascular ultrasonography
A technique in which sound waves are sent out by an ultrasound probe that has been inserted in the vagina and a computer uses the ultrasound echoes to create an image of the female genital tract. The test can be performed to evaluate women with infertility problems, abnormal bleeding, sources of unexplained pain, congenital malformations of the uterus and ovaries, and possible tumors and infection.
transvaginal ultrasonography
A procedure that uses sound waves to create a video image of the pelvic organs and tissues. A small, lubricated probe placed into the rectum releases sound waves, which create echoes as they enter a pelvic organ. The echoes that bounce back are sent to a computer that translates the pattern of echoes into a picture of the specific organ under examination. This procedure is most often used to evaluate the prostate gland.
transrectal ultrasonography
A procedure where a allied health care provider who was not previously involved in a patient's treatment, reviews a patient's medical history, examines the patient, and makes recommendations as to care and treatment. This is care provided by health care practitioners who are distinct providers from dentistry, nursing, medicine, and pharmacy health care professionals.
assessment by allied health professional
consulationat with allied health professional
consultation with allied health practitioner
evaluation by allied health professional
evaluation managed by allied health professional
allied health professional evaluation
An initial evaluation or assessment by a health professional trained to help people who are ill or disabled learn to manage their daily activities.
occupational therapist evaluation
An initial assessment by a professional who works to prevent, assess, diagnose, and treat speech, language, social communication, congnitive-communication, and swallowing disorders.
evaluation by speech and language therapist
speech and language pathologist evaluation
speech and language therapist evaluation
speech-language pathologist evaluation
A first assessment by a trained non-medical health professional who specializes in the identification, testing, habilitation and rehabilitation of hearing loss and other auditory and balance disorders. Particularly, an audiologist may be involved in diagnostic and screening procedures to determine hearing deficits, as well as in assessment of amplification devices and instruction in their care, training in speechreading, and may serve as consultant to government and industry on issues concerning environmental, noise-induced hearing loss.
audiologist evaluation
A therapy derived from fibric acid that lowers serum LDL cholesterol levels by activating peroxisome proliferator activated receptor alpha (PPARa).
fibrate antilipidemic agent therapy
Therapy using a highly charged polymeric agent to bind bile acids in the gastrointestinal tract and prevent their reabsorption from the gut. The bound bile acids are excreted with the feces and plasma cholesterol is converted to bile acid to reestablish normal bile acid levels, resulting in a lowering of plasma cholesterol concentrations.
bile acid sequestrant therapy
Therapy that inhibits HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor.
hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA reductase inhibitor therapy
treatment with EC 1.1.1.34/EC 1.1.1.88 (hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA reductase) inhibitor
Treatment with an agent that works through, or mimics, the action of niacin.
An antilipidemic agent that works through, or mimics, the action of niacin to increase HDL-C levels by blocking hepatic uptake of apolipoprotein A-1 and decreasing HDL clearance. The use of free niacin is limited by its side effects of skin flushing (i.e., redness, itching, burning, and paresthesias)
nicotinic acid agent therapy
Treatment with a diuretic agent that produces diuresis without increasing potassium excretion.
treatment with potassium-sparing diuretic
Potassium sparing diuretics are generally either aldosterone antagonists and thus prevent the aldosterone-mediated promotion of sodium and water retention, or are epithelial sodium channel blockers and prevent the exchange of potassium for sodium in the distal convoluted tubule. These agents cause diuresis without increasing potassium secretion and thus do not cause hypokalemia.
potassium-sparing diuretic agent therapy
Treatment with a benzothiadiazide derivative or other thiazide-like agent with diuretic and anti-hypertensive activity.
Thiazide diuretics inhibit the sodium-chloride transporter in the distal tubule in the kidneys, thereby suppressing sodium and chloride reabsorption from the distal convoluted tubules (DCT) and increasing the excretion of sodium, chloride, potassium and water. In addition, thiazide diuretics decrease excretion of calcium and uric acid. These agents cause vasodilation possibly by activating calcium-activated potassium channels in vascular smooth muscle and inhibiting various carbonic anhydrases in vascular tissue.
thiazide diuretic agent therapy
Treatment with sulfonamide urea derivatives with antihyperglycemic activity.
Sulphonylurea antidiabetic agents bind to sulfonylurea receptor type 1 (SUR1), the subunit of ATP-sensitive inwardly-rectifier potassium (IKATP) channels on the membranes of pancreatic beta cells, thereby blocking the inward current flow (influx) of positively charged K+ ions into the cell. This results in tonic membrane depolarization, and induces a calcium ion influx through voltage-sensitive calcium channels; increased intracellular calcium ion levels trigger exocytosis of insulin-containing granules. This eventually induces secretion of insulin. The IKATP channels found in pancreatic islets are complexes of four IKATP 6.2 and four SUR1 subunits. In addition, some sulfonylureas of larger molecular size may increase the sensitivity of peripheral tissues to insulin mediated through peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPARgamma).
sulfonylurea agent therapy
Treatment with estrogens or estrogen/progesterone after menopause or ovariectomy to prevent pathological effects of decreased estrogen production.
menopausal hormone therapy
Techniques for analysis of chromosomal and subchromosomal properties and structures, such as those to diagnose, classify, screen for, or manage genetic diseases and abnormalities.
cytogenetic analysis
A test to detect chromosomal breakage or aberrations (breaks, gaps, rearrangements, radials, exchanges, endoreduplications) in peripheral blood cells after culture with a T-cell mitogen and a DNA clastogenic (cross-linking) agent, such as diepoxybutane (DEB) or mitomycin C (MMC).
chromosomal breakage analysis
Transfer of multipotent hematopoietic stem cells, usually derived from bone marrow, peripheral blood, or umbilical cord blood into the body.
hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
The transplantation of fecal bacteria, via enema, colonoscopy, or other method, from a healthy individual to a recipient.
fecal microbiota transplantation
The removal of T-cells from the donor's hematopoietic stem cell specimen prior to its transfusion into the recipient.
T cell-depleted hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
Administration of high doses of chemotherapy or radiation therapy, as well as immunosuppressive therapy, to a transplant recipient prior to a bone marrow or hematopoietic stem cell transplant. Conditioning destroys the patient's abnormal blood cells or cancer, as well as slows the patient's immune response against the donor bone marrow (graft rejection).
transplant conditioning
The systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of health data on an ongoing basis.
clinical surveilance
Removal of a small amount of liquid bone marrow through a needle.
bone marrow aspiration
The pathologic analysis of samples of bone marrow obtained by bone marrow biopsy and bone marrow aspiration.
bone marrow examination
The determination of the amount of degree, quality or condition of cells present in a sample.
cellularity measurement
The sampling and analysis of non-solid biological tissue often through rapid and non-invasive methods, which allows the assessment in real-time of the evolving landscape of cancer.
liquid biopsy
The injection of whole blood or a blood component directly into the bloodstream.
blood transfusion
Any form of treatment that is introduced into the body via a blood vessel, a muscle, or the spinal cord.
infusion procedure
Avoid sexual intercourse without the use of precautions to prevent conception or the transmission of sexually transmitted diseases.
avoid unprotected sexual intercourse
Vaccination against human papillomavirus infection.
human papillomavirus vaccination
Addition of vitamin B12 to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of B vitamin to a diet for complete nutrition support.
parenteral nutrition intake
Intake of nutrients intravenously as well as enterically.
partial parenteral nutrition intake
Intravenous nutrition intake administered via vein access in a limb.
peripheral parenteral nutrition intake
Intravenous nutrition administration via the central vein.
central venous nutrition intake
A recommendation to alter dietary intake where 30% or less of the calories come from fat.
low fat diet intake
Recommendation of a specific diet to adhere to prevent, relieve, or alleviate symptoms.
prescriptive dietary intake
A recommendation to alter a standard diet from 2-3 large meals per day to many frequent smaller meals throughout the day.
small meal size recommendation
A recommendation to maintain a vegetarian diet for health reasons.
prescriptive vegetarian diet intake
Dietary recommendation to closely control the amount of carbohydrates consumed.
Very low-carbohydrate (< 10% carbohydrates) or 20-50 gm/day Low-carbohydrate (<26% carbohydrates) or less than < 130 gm/day Moderate-carbohydrate (26%-44%) High-carbohydrate (45% or greater)
carbohydrate controlled diet intake
A dietary recommendation to restrict the amount of carbohydrates consumed.
carbohydrate-restricted diet intake
A recommendation to consume food low in purine content.
low purine diet intake
A recommendation to adhere to Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) diet. The diet promotes consumption of vegetables and fruits, lean meat and dairy products, and the inclusion of micronutrients and the reduction of sodium in the diet to about 1500 mg/day.
dietary approaches to stop hypertension diet intake
DASH diet intake
Exclusively feeding an infant formula in efforts to prevent allergic reactions, intolerances, or communication of diseases (i.e. HIV) through feeding human milk.
exclusive formula feeding
A diet low in poorly absorbed, fermentable, short chain carbohydrates including fermentable oligosaccharides, disaccharides, monosaccharides, and polyols (FODMAPs) intended to reduce bloating, abdominal pain, excessive flatus and altered bowel habit.
low FODMAP diet intake
Addition of iron to the diet by taking ferrous sulfate supplements.
ferrous sulfate supplementation
The quantitative measurement of liver enzymes in the blood, which is useful in assessing the functional state of a patient's liver. Liver function tests include the measurement of albumin, alanine transaminase, aspartate transaminase, alkaline phosphatase, bilirubin, and gamma glutamyl transferase.
liver function testing
Treatment with growth hormone or analog.
human growth hormone replacement therapy
Any procedure associated with female reproductive organs in their pregnant and non-pregnant states.
obstetrics and gynecology procedure
Any examination performed to assess if a female is gravid (pregnant).
pregnancy test
A quantitative measurement of the amount of human chorionic gonadotropin present in urine or serum.
human chorionic gonadotropin measurement
HCG measurement
A quantitative measurement of the amount of human chorionic gonadotropin present in a sample of serum.
serum human chorionic gonadotropin measurement
serum HCG measurement
A quantitative measurement of the amount of human chorionic gonadotropin present in a sample of urine.
urine human chorionic gonadotropin measurement
urine HCG measurement
The determination of the measured concentrations of chemical constituents of the blood by assay in a clinical laboratory.
blood chemistry measurement
A quantitative measurement of a particular substance present in a sample of serum.
serum chemistry measurement
A quantitative measurement of a particular substance present in a sample of urine.
urine chemistry measurement
A systemic evaluation of the breast using visual inspection, palpation, and percussion. The purpose is to determine the presence or absence of physical signs of disease or abnormality for an individual's health assessment.
An exam of the breast performed by a health care provider to check for lumps or other changes. [ NCI ]
Procedure where the individual examines their own breasts for lumps and other changes.
breast self-examination
A systemic evaluation of the abdomen using visual inspection, palpation, and percussion. The purpose is to determine the presence or absence of physical signs of disease or abnormality for an individual's health assessment.
A systemic evaluation of the pelvic region of trunk using visual inspection, palpation, and percussion. The purpose is to determine the presence or absence of physical signs of disease or abnormality for an individual's health assessment.
physical examination of pelvic region of trunk
A measurement generally defined as the distance in centimeters from the pubic bone to the top of the uterus to determine fetal growth.
fundal height measurement
Determination of the uterine size by ultrasound or other measurement.
uterine size measurement
The act of observing and recording the fetal heart rate for determining the baseline values or other abnormal findings.
External fetal heart rate monitoring is performed using a hand-held Doppler ultrasound probe to auscultate and count the FHR during a uterine contraction and for 30 seconds thereafter to identify fetal response. It may also be performed using an external transducer, which is placed on the maternal abdomen and held in place by an elastic belt or girdle.
fetal heart rate monitoring
A technique that utilizes a wire attached to the fetal scalp to monitor fetal heart rate. The wire detects fetal cardiac electrical activity to determine the baseline fetal heart rate and variability.
internal fetal heart rate monitoring
Recommendation for specific nutrients, vitamin supplementation, and food avoidance while pregnant.
pregnancy diet intake
A clinical recommendation to avoid or refrain from excessively hot environments in order to maintain health or ameliorate symptoms.
avoid excessive heat
A recommendation to avoid infection with toxoplasmosis especially when pregnant due to serious risk of passing the infection on to the baby.
Cats play an important role in the spread of toxoplasmosis. They become infected by eating infected rodents, birds, or other small animals. The parasite is then passed in the cat’s feces. Kittens and cats can shed millions of parasites in their feces for as long as 3 weeks after infection. Mature cats are less likely to shed Toxoplasma if they have been previously infected. Cats and kittens prefer litter boxes, garden soils, and sandboxes for elimination, and you may be exposed unintentionally by touching your mouth after changing a litter box, or after gardening without gloves. Fruits and vegetables may have contact with contaminated soil or water also, and you can be infected by eating fruits and vegetables if they are not cooked, washed, or peeled.
Risk is most profound by a pregnant mother passing toxoplasmosis to their infant. Infected infants do not have symptoms at birth but can develop serious symptoms later in life, such as blindness or mental disability.
avoid toxoplasmosis exposure
Clinical recommendation to avoid strenuous exercise that may increase heart rate and temperature.
avoid excessive exercise
A clinical recommendation to avoid or refrain from lifting heavy items in order to maintain health or ameliorate symptoms.
avoid heavy lifting activities
Limit activities where a great deal of balance may be required to prevent issues or help the wellbeing of a patient.
avoid destabilizing activities
Education by care providers about nutrition, health issues, and resources for prenatal and postnatal care.
pregnancy education counseling
A measurement of the amount of sugar (glucose) in a urine sample.
urine glucose measurement
Testing for sexually transmitted disease syphilis. Syphilis is a contagious bacterial infection caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum.
syphilis screening
Testing to determine whether a patient has sufficient antibodies to be protected from rubella virus or to verify infection.
rubella antibody titer testing
Testing to diagnose primary VZV infection (varicella) as well as reactivation (herpes zoster).
varicella testing
Screening for hepatitis B antibodies to determine if a patient has immunity to hepatitis B.
hepatitis B assessement
Testing to detect hepatitis B viral antigens and an active hepatitis B infection.
hepatitis B surface antigen testing
Testing a patient for the antibodies to the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
HIV screening
Testing to determine if the patient has a chlamydia bacterial infection.
chlamydia screening
Testing for the sexually transmitted disease gonorrhea.
gonorrhea testing
Screening for hepatitis C antibodies to determine if a patient has immunity to hepatitis C.
hepatitis C screening
A procedure to tell what a patient's blood type and cell surface markers are.
blood typing procedure
A procedured performed to determine the antigens patient's red blood cells (RBCs) that correspond to the four main blood groups: A, B, O, and AB.
ABO blood typing procedure
Testing to determine whether the protien Rhesus (Rh) factor is present on patient's red blood cells. If the protein is present, the patient is said to be Rh positive. If the protein is not present, the patient is Rh negative.
Rh factor blood typing procedure
A quantitative measurement of the amount of hemoglobin present in a sample.
hemoglobin measurement
A determination of the number of reticulocyte in a blood sample.
A quantitative measurement of the amount of iron in serum.
serum iron measurement
A quantitative measurement determining the amount of ferritin in serum as an indicator of iron metabolism.
serum ferritin measurement
The determination of the saturation of iron binding sites on serum transferrin proteins.
total iron binding capacity measurement
A measurement of size, shape, number, or other parameter of blood cells in order to diagnose or treat a patient.
blood cell measurement
A determination of the structure of erythrocyte.
A procedure taking a thin layer of blood smeared on a glass microscope slide and stained to allow blood cells to be examined with a microscope.
blood smear test
A quantitative measurement of the amount of creatinine present in a sample of serum.
Serves to assist in the evaluation of renal function.
serum creatinine measurement
The determination of the amount of thyroid stimulating hormone present in blood.
thyroid stimulating hormone blood assessment
Determination of thyroxine (T4) levels in the blood as an indicator of thyroid health.
T4 thyroid hormone test
Determination of triiodothyronine (T3) levels in blood as an indicator of thyroid health.
T3 thyroid hormone test
A measure of a patient's ability to clot, and how long it takes to clot.
blood coagulation test
A measurement of the length of time that it takes for clotting to occur when reagents are added to a plasma specimen. The test is partial due to the absence of tissue factor (Factor III) from the reaction mixture.
activated partial thromboplastin time test
partial thromboplastin time test
The determination of the ratio of the prothrombin time in a subject's specimen compared to a control sample. The measurement may be expressed as a ratio or percentage.
prothrombin time actual/control measurement
prothrombin time/international normalized ratio measurement
A measurement of the time it takes a plasma sample to clot after adding the active enzyme thrombin.
thrombin time measurement
The determination of the amount of alanine aminotransferase (human) present in the sample.
alanine aminotransferase (human) assessment
serum glutamic-pyruvic transaminase test
Alanine aminotransferase is an enzyme produced mainly in the liver. When serum activity is measured, it provides a marker of hepatic disease.
The determination of the amount of aspartate aminotransferase (human) present in the sample.
aspartate aminotransferase (human) assessment
serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase test
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT), aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) are enzymes measured in serum or plasma to investigate liver disease.
The determination of the amount of gamma-glutamyltranspeptidase present in the sample.
Determination of gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) present in the sample as a measurement of liver function.
gamma glutamyl transpeptidase measurement
The determination of the amount of albumin (human) present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of alkaline phosphatase present in the sample.
The measurement of the total amount of bilirubin present in a particular substrate. The substrate most often tested is blood, but other fluids extracted from the body may be used periodically depending on the purpose of the test.
total bilirubin measurement
The determination of the amount of lactate dehydrogenase present in the sample.
lactate dehydrogenase measurement
The determination of the amount of 5'-nucleotidase present in the sample.
The measurement of bilirubin present in a particular sample.
bilirubin measurement
A measurement of the unconjugated or non-water-soluble bilirubin in a biological specimen.
indirect bilirubin measurement
A quantitative measurement of total protein present in the sample, usually serum or urine.
total protein measurement
The determination of the amount of protein present in urine.
The measurement of the total protein present in a urine sample that was collected over a period of 24 hours.
24-hour urine collection
A quantitative measurement of the total amount of protein present in a sample of serum.
serum total protein measurement
The determination of the amount of haptoglobin present in the sample.
Determination of the types of normal or abnormal types of hemoglobin in the blood. Some types of hemoglobin are associated with sickle cell disease or anemia.
hemoglobin electrophoresis test
Determination of serum levels of pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). Maternal levels of PAPP-A increase throughout the pregnancy. Low levels during pregnancy are associated with Down syndrome and trisomy 18.
pregnancy-associated plasma protein A test
serum PAPP-A measurement
A test that involves administration of a know quantity of glucose as a means of screening for glucose intolerance or diabetes mellitus. Typically a baseline (fasting plasma or serum glucose) is drawn prior to the administration of the glucose bolus. Serial plasma glucose levels are obtained (e.g. 30min, 1hr, 2hr, 3hr) and a plot of plasma glucose versus time is created. Comparison of these values against standardized results can be used in establishing the diagnosis of glucose intolerance or diabetes mellitus.
glucose tolerance test
A test or diagnostic examination to assess the health status and well being of the fetus.
fetal examination
A series of maneuvers to determine the position and presenting part of the fetus with respect to the maternal pelvic canal in preparation for labor and the birth process.
assessment of fetal presentation
The use of pharmacological and/or mechanical methods to initiate labor, including spontaneous rupture of membranes without contractions. Examples of methods include: artificial rupture of membranes, balloons, oxytocin, prostaglandin, laminaria, or other cervical ripening agents. (adapted from reVITALize)
labor induction
A method to assess fetal oxygenation status during labor and delivery using a noninvasive reflectance pulse oximeter.
fetal pulse oximetry
The determination of the amount of protein present in blood.
A systemic evaluation of the abdomen using visual inspection, palpation, and percussion during pregnancy to determine the health of the mother and fetus.
obstetric abdominal examination
A quantitative measurement of the amount of human chorionic gonadotropin present in urine or serum for the purpose of determining whether the patient is pregnant.
pregnancy HCG test
A systemic evaluation of the cervix during pregnancy to determine dilation and effacement of the cervix, cervical position and consistancy, and fetal position.
obstetric cervical examination
An evaluation of the breast using visual inspection, palpation, and percussion for the specific purpose of identifying breast changes which may be cancer.
cancer screening breast examination
A test that evaluates of the sensitivity of a person's sense of hearing and is used to determine a person's hearing sensitivity at different frequencies.
hearing examination
The determination of the amount of albumin (human) present in the sample in order to assess the liver's function.
albumin test for liver function assessment
albumin test for liver function
The determination of the amount of 5'-nucleotidase present in the sample to assess liver function.
5'-nucleotidase test for liver function assessment
liver function 5'-nucleotidase measurement
5'-nucleotidase measurement for liver function
The determination of the amount of alkaline phosphatase present in the sample for assessment of liver function.
alkaline phosphatase measurement for liver function assessment
liver function alkaline phosphatase measurement
alkaline phosphatase measurement for liver function
A quantitative measurement of the amount of calcium present in a sample, usually serum or urine for the assessment of liver function.
calcium test for liver function assessement
calcium assessment for liver function
The determination of the amount of lactate dehydrogenase present in the sample to assess liver function.
lactate dehydrogenase measurement for liver assessment
The measurement of the total amount of bilirubin present in a particular substrate in order to assess liver function. The substrate most often tested is blood, but other fluids extracted from the body may be used periodically depending on the purpose of the test.
total bilirubin measurement for assessment of liver function
A measurement of the unconjugated or non-water-soluble bilirubin in a biological specimen to assess liver function.
indirect bilirubin measurement for assessment of liver function
The use of operant conditioning, including rewards and punishments, in helping a person create an atmosphere where he or she does not contribute to painful stimuli.
behavioral intervention
A type of psychotherapy utilized to treat different forms of mental disorders.The treatment involves the identification of unhelpful or destructive patterns of thinking and behaviors and the subsequent replacement with behaviors that are beneficial and constructive.
cognitive behavior therapy
The use of operant conditioning to alter a person's dietary choices and behaviors.
behavioral dietary intervention
A surgical procedure that leads to the removal of body part or body fluid.
surgical removal procedure
A laboratory procedure that evaluates the kidney function.
kidney function testing
A measurement of the volume of fluid filtered from the renal glomerular capillaries into the Bowman's capsule per unit time.
glomerular filtration rate test
An estimated rate of glomerular filtration is calculated from blood creatinine test, age, body size and gender.
estimated glomerular filtration rate calculation
Removal of hard deposits made of minerals and salts also called 'kidney stones' or 'renal calculi' by any of a number of methods.
renal calculi removal
Removal of hard deposits made of minerals and salts also called 'stones' or 'calculi' by any of a number of methods. Stones can be found in the kidney, gallbladder, urethra, salivary gland or other ducts.
calculi removal
A procedure to break a stone into small particles that can be more easily cleared from the body.
lithotripsy
A treatment to remove kidney snotes by sending ultrasonic energy/shock waves directly to the stone.
renal lithotripsy
A scope is inserted in the urinary tract to locate the stone. Using an optical fiber, laser light is directly emitted to the stone causing stone fragmentation.
laser lithotripsy
Using a lithotripter to aim sound waves directly at stones through the body, the shock waves break down stones or calculi which are then able to pass.
extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy
A small cut is made through the patient's back and a nephroscope is inserted to locate and remove the kidney stone.
percutaneous nephrolithotomy
A ureteroscope is inserted into the ureter and a wire basket inserted through the tube to remove the stone(s). In addition, a laser or other mechanical device can be used to break up the stone(s).
ureteroscopic stone removal
Treatment with an antimetabolite that affects the metabolism and utilization of purines.
purine antagonist agent therapy
A procedure that displays the electrical activity of the heart.
electrocardiography
Treatment with acetylsalicylic acid. It is often a treatment for pain, fever, inflammation or to reduce risk of heart attack.
aspirin therapy
Treatment with an inhibitor that inteferes with the action of alpha-glucosidase.
alpha-glucosidase inhibitor therapy
Treatment with one of a group of heterocyclic compounds with a core structure containing a benzene ring fused to a diazepine ring. It is often used to treat anxiety.
benzodiazepine agent therapy
Treatment with a pharmaceutical agent that inhibits T-type calcium channels.
T-type calcium channel antagonist therapy
T-type calcium channel blocking agent therapy
Treatment with a pharmaceutical agent that inhibits L-type calcium channels.
L-type calcium channel antagonist therapy
L-type calcium channel blocking agent therapy
Treatment with a phosphodiesterase (PDE) inhibitor.
phosphodiesterase inhibitor therapy
An agent or drug used to reduce or control weight.
weight loss pharmacotherapy
Treatment with an agent or drug to reduce or control weight in obese patients.
anti-obesity agent therapy
The management of pain by interventional procedures, pharmacotherapy, physical therapy, psychological counseling, or complementary and alternative medical therapies designed to treat or alleviate pain specifically for patients receiving palliative care treatment.
pain management for palliative care
A measurement or assessment to determine if a patient's sleep is disrupted.
assessment for sleep disturbance
A questionnaire designed to determine sleep quality, daytime sleepiness, or other issues related to having restful sleep.
sleep assessment questionnaire
Use of a portable device (actigraph) to study sleep-wake patterns and circadian rhythms by assessing movement.
actigraphy
A group of tests (usually central electroencephalogram (EEG) (C3 or C4), reference occipital EEG (O1 or O2), right and left electro-oculogram (EOG), mental or submental electromylogram (EMG), thoracic effort, abdominal effort, nasal and oral airflow, a microphone to record snoring, pulse oxygen saturation, EKG, and video recording to document body positions during sleep) taken during sleep.
polysomnography
Insertion of a tube into a blocked passageway, such as a blood vessel, to keep it open.
placement of a stent
A tube-shaped medical device is inserted into the nasal passage to prevent obstruction of the airway.
insertion of a nasopharyngeal stent
An initial evaluation by a professional trained and qualified to provide nutritional services at individual, institutional and community levels in term of assessing nutritional needs.
dietician evaluation
An initial evaluation by a trained and certified individual who applies knowledge of the concepts, principles, and practices of physical therapy for the treatment or prevention of physical disability or disease.
physical therapist evaluation
An initial assessment by a professional trained and qualified to perform technical work concerned with administering therapeutic and diagnostic respiratory care and life support to patients with cardiopulmonary deficiencies and abnormalities.
respiratory therapist evaluation
An initial assessment by a professionally trained person who is employed in the administration of charity, social service, and welfare. The assistance this professional provides helps disadvantaged individuals and families adjust themselves to the community.
social worker evaluation
A general assessment of the overall health of a newborn.
newborn examination
newborn behavior examination
A test conducted at 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth to determine the overall health of the newborn.
Apgar testing
Any method used to elicit a fetal heart rate acceleration response during labor.
intrapartum fetal stimulation
Determination of the newborn's heart rate.
newborn heart rate measurement
A procedure during labor in which the occiput is manually rotated from posterior to anterior.
manual fetal rotation
A manual method of maneuvering the fetus from outside the mother's abdomen to convert a breech into a cephalic presentation.
external fetal rotation
The treatment of communication disorders (speech disorders and language disorders), cognitive-communication disorders, voice disorders, and swallowing disorders.
speech therapy
An initial assessment by a person who specializes in the study of mind and behavior or in the treatment of mental, emotional, and behavioral disorders.
psychologist evaluation
The neurophysiologic exploration of the electrical activity of the brain by the application of electrodes to the scalp. The resulting traces are known as an electroencephalogram (EEG). This test is used to assess brain damage, epilepsy and other problems.
electroencephalography
Treatment with a synthetic enzyme or mixture of enzymes used to replace or supplement enzymes to treat enzyme deficiency.
enzyme replacement or supplementation therapy
Detection of phosphoethanolamine in urine.
urine phosphoethanolamine measurement
The determination of the amount of bone specific alkaline phosphatase present in a sample.
bone specific alkaline phosphatase measurement
Measurement of alkaline phosphatase enzamatic activity in a biological sample.
alkaline phosphatase enzyme activity test
The determination of the amount of inorganic pyrophosphate present in a sample.
inorganic pyrophosphate measurement
Open brain surgery to remove part of the brain causing seizures.
resective brain surgery
Procedure to arouse the body or parts to increase functional activity.
stimulation procedure
Placement of a stimulator electrode in the part of the brain causing seizures.
responsive neurostimulation
Stimulation of the nerves that are outside of the heart.
extracardiac nerve stimulation
A procedure that uses a device to stimulate the vagus nerve with electrical impulses.
vagus nerve stimulation
A neurosurgical procedure involving the placement of a medical device called a neurostimulator (sometimes referred to as a "brain pacemaker"), which sends electrical impulses, through implanted electrodes, to specific targets in the brain (brain nuclei) for the treatment of movement disorders, including Parkinson's disease, essential tremor, and dystonia.[1] and other conditions such as obsessive-compulsive disorder and epilepsy.
deep brain stimulation
The use of skin electrodes to pass a low intensity, pulsed electrical current through the scalp and into the brain. This procedure is used to treat a variety of illnesses including anxiety, depression, and chronic pain.
cranial electrical stimulation
An invasive procedure to stimulate the spinal cord to aid in the management of chronic, intractable pain of the trunk and/or limbs, including unilateral or bilateral pain.
spinal cord stimulation
Any surgical procedure conducted on the nervous system.
Surgery performed on any part of the brain.
brain surgery
Surgical creation of an opening of the skull.
craniotomy
Treatment with a hormone that is naturally produced in the thyroid. When calcitonin given to patients with osteoporosis, calcitonin produces modest increases in bone mass because it slows the rate at which osteoclasts absorb bone.
calcitonin treatment
Supportive therapy involves the teaching of such life skills as managing medication, learning to socialize, handling finances, and getting a job.
supportive care
Therapeutic care designed to maintain the natural processes of the body and return to a more normal state of health.
physiological support therapy
Delivery of fluids to the body by any methods necessary.
hydration therapy
saline hydration
Treatment with a set of compounds that allow osteoblasts (bone building cells) to work more effectively, improving bone mass. Bisphosphonates are used in the treatment of osteoporosis, Paget's disease of bone, and may be used to lower high calcium levels.
bisphosphonate agent therapy
Bi-level positive airway pressure (or trade name BiPAP) delivers, by mask, two levels of pressure in response to patient flow. It is intended to support ventilation in a nonin-vasive way in spontaneously but insufficiently breathing patients in the home care environment.
Two new ventilatory techniques with almost identical names have been developed for adults: BiPAP(trademark) and BIPAP. BiPAP is a trade name derived from 'bi-level positive airway pressure'. BiPAP delivers, by mask, two levels of pressure in response to patient flow. It is intended to support ventilation in a nonin-vasive way in spontaneously but insufficiently breathing patients in the home care environment. In contrast, BIPAP (biphasic positive airway pressure) is a mode of ventilation developed for full ventilatory support in intensive care settings with the use of an endotracheal tube.
bi-level positive airway pressure ventilation
Biphasic positive airway pressure ventilation (BIPAP) is a mode of ventilation developed for full ventilatory support in intensive care settings with the use of an endotracheal tube.
Recently two new ventilatory techniques with almost identical names have been developed for adults: BiPAP(trademark) and BIPAP. BiPAP is a trade name derived from 'bi-level positive airway pressure'. BiPAP delivers, by mask, two levels of pressure in response to patient flow. It is intended to support ventilation in a nonin-vasive way in spontaneously but insufficiently breathing patients in the home care environment. In contrast, BIPAP (biphasic positive airway pressure) is a mode of ventilation developed for full ventilatory support in intensive care settings with the use of an endotracheal tube.
biphasic positive airway pressure ventilation
A procedure where filtering membrane is created for fluid to move out of the front chamber of the eye to underneath the superficial tissues around it (conjunctiva) and thus lowering the presure of the eye.
deep sclerectomy
Canaloplasty is a modification of viscocanalostomy, in which an additional intracanalicular stent is inserted to maintain canal patency and enhance the circumferential flow.
canaloplasty
A procedure that is a variation of a deep sclerectomy procedure. This procedure involves unroofing and dilation of the Schlemm’s canal without penetrating the trabecular meshwork or anterior chamber. A high-viscosity viscoelastic solution is injected to dilate the canal and create a passage from the canal to a scleral reservoir, thereby reducing intraocular pressure.
viscocanalostomy
A procedure to reduce intraocular pressure by enhancing the natural aqueous outflow channels, while reducing outflow resistance located in the inner wall of the Schlemm's canal and the juxtacanalicular trabecular meshwork.
non-penetrating glaucoma surgery
The surgery creates an alternative pathway for fluid to leave the eye. A small channel, or 'bleb' is created to allow fluid to drain from the eye.
glaucoma filtration surgery
The construction of a passage between a cavity or hollow organ to the surface of the body often to help drain bodily fluid.
ostomy surgical procedure
This technique surgically creates the patient’s anus within the sphincter muscle.
posterior sagittal anorectoplasty
A diagnostic procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the eye and visual system.
ophthalmic diagnostic procedure
A noninvasive imaging technique that provides high-resolution, cross-sectional images of the retina, retinal nerve fiber layer and the optic nerve head.
optical coherence tomography
An examination of the anterior chamber of the eye with a lens that is placed against the eye as a part of a slit-lamp examination.
gonioscopy
A test to assess the ability to focus on and discern objects, colors, depth, etc.
vision assessment
Assessment of the parameters of eye movement, including horizontal and vertical rotations of the eye, opening or closing of the eyes in response to stimuli, pupil response to light, and blink reflex.
eye movement measurement
A test performed by an ophthalmologist or optometrist assessing vision and ability to focus on and discern objects, as well as other tests and examinations pertaining to the eyes.
slit-lamp examination
A method in which pressure is applied to the surface of the cornea in order to flatten a prespecified area of the membrane, which is used to calculate intraocular pressure.
tonometry
A method in which a constant pressure is applied to the surface of the cornea in order to flatten a prespecified area of the membrane, which is used to calculate intraocular pressure.
applanation tonometry
A method in which a probe is bounced off of the surface of the cornea, creating an induction current that is used to calculate intraocular pressure.
rebound tonometry
The surgeon makes small incisions in the abdomen in order to insert an endoscope into the body. The endoscope can either clear the blockage, or remove the portion of intestines without nerves. The healthy portions of intestines are then reconnected in order to allow stool to pass through.
transanal endorectal pull-through procedure
This is also referred to as 'Hirschsprung disease surgery' as it is used for patients with 'Hirschsprung disease'.
pull-through procedure
A techniqhe which positions the neorectum accurately inside the sphincter complex without dividing any of these muscles.
laparoscopic-assisted anorectoplasty
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of a particular by part or system.
diagnostic procedure by site
The use of computed tomography to produce images of structures of a particular body site.
computed tomography procedure by body location
CT by site
A specimen collection from a particular body site used for diagnostic purposes.
clinical biopsy by site
A procedure to take off or remove part or entire nail.
removal of nail
Reduction in the thickness and length of the nail. Often used to remove thickened nails due to fungal infection.
Debridement can be done by filing or drilling or other methods.
debridement of nail
Removal or elimination of a portion of skin for therapeutic use.
removal of skin
Removal of dead (necrotic) or infected skin to help a wound heal.
debridement of skin
desloughing of skin
Addition of a softening or soothing agent to the skin.
application of emollient to skin
Determination of shape of body or body parts. This may be used to assess symmetry, number, size, and shape of a patient's body or body parts.
body shape assessment
Determination of shape, symmetry, and/or size of face.
facial morphology assessment
Determination of shape, symmetry, and/or size of head.
head morphology assessment
The principle of functional MRI imaging is to take a series of images of an organ in quick succession and to statistically analyze the images for differences among them. Most commonly used in studies of brain function.
functional magnetic resonance imaging procedure
Gene therapy involves the use of nucleic acids (DNA or RNA) for the treatment, cure or prevention of human disorders.
gene therapy
The goal of immunotherapy is to induce anti-disease (usually tumor) responses by reprogramming and augmenting immune surveillance, and reducing immune suppression.
immunotherapy procedure
Treatment with a drug that deters or encourages the cessation of drinking alcohol.
alcohol deterrent agent therapy
Treatment with a drug that deters smoking or encourages the cessation of smoking tobacco.
smoking cessation agent therapy
An agent that binds to but does not activate an opioid receptor thereby blocking the actions of endogenous or exogenous opioid receptor agonists.
opioid antagonist agent therapy
A determination of the number of erythrocyte in a blood sample.
A determination of the number of platelet in a blood sample.
A determination of the number of neutrophil in a blood sample.
A determination of the number of leukocyte in a blood sample.
body measurement
Measuring the distance around (circumference) a patient's waist.
waist measurement
A measurement of circumference around the hip.
hip measurement
A recommendation of abstaining or avoiding any medical action that might normally be clinically prescribed.
medical action avoidance
Avoid the administration or use of aerobic exercise therapy.
Inoculating an individual with either killed or live agents to prevent contraction of a disease.
vaccination
Nutrition intake is the process of taking in of nutrients, especially by eating or drinking, considered in relation to the body’s dietary needs.
nutrition intake
Addition of vitamin supplement, prenatal to a diet for complete nutrition support.
dietary supplementation of vitamin supplement, prenatal
supplementation of vitamin supplement, prenatal
vitamin supplement, prenatal supplemental intake
A vitamin enriched supplement containing higher doses for specific nutrients such as folic acid, intended for women before, during and after pregnancy and also during their lactating phase.
A therapy utilizing a substance that produces loss of consciousness.
Use of a drug or therapy to treat or prevent microbial infections.
treatment with an anti-microbial medication
treatment with an antimicrobial medication
Use of a loosely defined grouping of drugs that have effects on psychological function.
A ratio determined by waist measurement divided by hip measurement.
waist to hip ratio calculation
Therapy using any agent that acts on an adrenergic receptor or affects adrenergic signal transduction.
Treatment with an agent that selectively binds to and activates beta-adrenergic receptors.
treatment with beta-adrenergic agonist agent
treatment with beta-adrenergic agonist drug
treatment with beta-adrenergic agonist medication
Determination of shape, symmetry, and/or size of face using a particular method.
facial morphology assessment by type
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of pharyngeal tonsil.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of adrenal gland.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of tooth root.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of vermiform appendix.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of skeletal joint.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of ear.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of synovial bursa.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of cardia of stomach.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of head.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of uterine cervix.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of gallbladder.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of optic choroid.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of clitoris.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of colon.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of cranium.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of urinary bladder.
Can mean the removal of the urinary bladder or the surgical removal of a cyst.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of bony vertebral centrum.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of intervertebral disk.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of digestive tract diverticulum.
digestive tract diverticulum surgical removal
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of thyroid diverticulum.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of hepatic diverticulum.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of duodenum.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of sympathetic nerve trunk.
sympathetic nerve trunk surgical removal
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of esophagus.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of stomach.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of tongue.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of gonad.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of liver.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of pituitary gland.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of uterus.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of iris.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of cornea.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of vertebra.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of larynx.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of lymph node.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of breast.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of kidney.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of nerve.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of ovary.
removal of female reproductive system gonada
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of testis.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of bone tissue.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of pancreas.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of panniculus adiposus.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of parathyroid gland.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of pineal body.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of lung.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of skin of prepuce of penis.
skin of prepuce of penis surgical removal
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of fallopian tube.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of spleen.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of synovial membrane of synovial joint.
synovial membrane of synovial joint surgical removal
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of thymus.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of thyroid gland.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of palatine tonsil.
A surgical procedure aimed at lowering the intraocular pressure by producing an outflow of aqueous humour through a drainage passage created in the sclera between the anterior chamber and the subconjunctival space.
eye trabecular meshwork surgical removal
The filtering procedure involves full thickness penetration of sclera to remove a small portion of the trabecular meshwork or surrounding tissue; it bypasses the natural outflow system by diverting aqueous humor from the anterior chamber into a subconjunctival reservoir with a filtering bleb on the eye. Antifibrotic agents, such as mitomycin-C and 5-fluorouracil, may be used intraoperatively and postoperatively to reduce scarring and prevent closure of the new channel.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of vagina.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of vas deferens.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of vitreous humor.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of mammalian vulva.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of penis.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Pulmonary bulla.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Hallux valgus.
Computer aided analysis of 3D facial images to detect abnormal facial phenotypes that assist in diagnosis, treatment monitoring and surgical planning.
3D facial analysis
Surgical removal of an abnormal pouch of the lining of the small intestine (bowel).
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Cardiac diverticulum.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Esophageal diverticulum.
Esophageal diverticulum surgical removal
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Gastric diverticulum.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Renal diverticulum.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Bladder diverticulum.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Urethral diverticulum.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Fibrous cardiac diverticulum.
Fibrous cardiac diverticulum surgical removal
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Muscular cardiac diverticulum.
Muscular cardiac diverticulum surgical removal
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Spinal meningeal diverticulum.
Spinal meningeal diverticulum surgical removal
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Coronary sinus diverticulum.
Coronary sinus diverticulum surgical removal
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Thromboembolism.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Pulmonary embolism.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Arterial calcification.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Neoplasm of the breast.
Surgery to remove abnormal tissue or cancer from the breast and a small amount of normal tissue around it. It is a type of breast-sparing surgery. NCIT:C15755
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Uterine leiomyoma.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Arterial thrombosis.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Venous thrombosis.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Abnormal thrombosis.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Neoplasm.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of gland.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding or preventing abnormal physiologic state.
prevent physiologic state recommendation
prevention of abnormal physiologic state
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding or preventing Ketosis.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding or preventing Diabetes mellitus.
Diabetes mellitus prevention recommendation
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding or preventing Fever.
Recommendation to avoid triggers known to cause seizures or take medicine to avoid seizures.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding or preventing Hypotension.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding or preventing Hyperglycemia.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding or preventing Weight loss.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from kidney for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
The use of computed tomography to produce images of structures of the kidney.
Addition of potassium atom to a diet for complete nutrition support.
dietary supplementation of potassium atom
Treatment with any agent that lowers cholesterol.
Therapy with an agent that inhibits the function of the sodium-potassium-chloride (Na+, K+, Cl-) cotransporter system in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, thereby inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium, potassium, and chloride ions. This leads to an increase in the excretion of sodium, potassium, chloride, calcium, magnesium, ammonium and water.
Avoid the administration or use of blood transfusion.
Avoid the administration or use of radiograph imaging procedure.
Addition of folic acid to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of vitamin (role) to a diet for adequate and complete nutrition.
dietary supplementation of vitamin (role)
Addition of nicotinic acid to a diet for complete nutrition support.
dietary supplementation of nicotinic acid
Addition of pyridoxine to a diet for complete nutrition support.
obsolete dietary purine intake avoidance
Addition of ascorbic acid to a diet for complete nutrition support.
dietary supplementation of ascorbic acid
Addition of sodium pyruvate to a diet for complete nutrition support.
dietary supplementation of sodium pyruvate
Addition of fat-soluble vitamin (role) to a diet for adequate and complete nutrition.
dietary supplementation of fat-soluble vitamin (role)
fat-soluble vitamin (role) supplemental intake
supplementation of fat-soluble vitamin (role)
supplementation with fat-soluble vitamin
Addition of S-adenosyl-L-methionine to a diet for complete nutrition support.
S-adenosyl-L-methionine supplemental intake
dietary supplementation of S-adenosyl-L-methionine
supplementation of S-adenosyl-L-methionine
Addition of isoleucine to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of valine to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of calcium atom to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of calcium carbonate to a diet for complete nutrition support.
dietary supplementation of calcium carbonate
Addition of glucose to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of docosahexaenoic acid to a diet for complete nutrition support.
dietary supplementation of docosahexaenoic acid
docosahexaenoic acid supplemental intake
Addition of omega-3 fatty acid to the diet for complete nutrition.
dietary supplementation of omega-3 fatty acid
Addition of lutein to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of ribose to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of fluoride to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of dietary supplement, fibre to a diet for complete nutrition support.
dietary supplement, fibre supplemental intake
dietary supplementation of dietary supplement, fibre
supplementation of dietary supplement, fibre
Addition of fish oil to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of magnesium atom to a diet for complete nutrition support.
dietary supplementation of magnesium atom
A systemic evaluation of the head using visual inspection, palpation, and percussion. The purpose is to determine the presence or absence of physical signs of disease or abnormality for an individual's health assessment.
A systemic evaluation of the neck using visual inspection, palpation, and percussion. The purpose is to determine the presence or absence of physical signs of disease or abnormality for an individual's health assessment.
A systemic evaluation of the chest using visual inspection, palpation, and percussion. The purpose is to determine the presence or absence of physical signs of disease or abnormality for an individual's health assessment.
A systemic evaluation of the uterus using visual inspection, palpation, and percussion. The purpose is to determine the presence or absence of physical signs of disease or abnormality for an individual's health assessment.
A systemic evaluation of the uterine cervix using visual inspection, palpation, and percussion. The purpose is to determine the presence or absence of physical signs of disease or abnormality for an individual's health assessment.
A systemic evaluation of the eye using visual inspection, palpation, and percussion. The purpose is to determine the presence or absence of physical signs of disease or abnormality for an individual's health assessment.
A systemic evaluation of the multicellular organism using visual inspection, palpation, and percussion. The purpose is to determine the presence or absence of physical signs of disease or abnormality for an individual's health assessment.
physical examination of multicellular organism
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of fish steak (raw).
avoiding dietary fish steak (raw) intake
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of cow milk (raw).
Collection biological material from within the endocervix with a cotton swab for use in clinical tests.
Collecting of amniotic fluid for clinical use.
Collecting of respiratory system mucus for clinical use.
collection of respiratory system mucus specimen
respiratory system mucus specimen collection
Collecting of nasal mucus for clinical use.
Collecting of bodily fluid for clinical use.
Collecting of cerebrospinal fluid for clinical use.
collection of cerebrospinal fluid specimen
The use of ultrasound to produce images of structures in the venous blood vessel.
venous blood vessel diagnostic sonography
venous blood vessel ultrasound examination
venous blood vessel ultrasound imaging procedure
venous blood vessel ultrasound procedure
The use of ultrasound to produce images of structures in the testis.
The determination of the amount of insulin hormone present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of albumin (human) present in urine.
The determination of the amount of protein present in blood serum.
The surgical transfer of some or all of a(n) liver from a donor to a patient.
liver transplantation surgical procedure
Treatment with drug or agent that regulates potassium channels.
treatment with potassium channel modulator
potassium channel modulator agent therapy
Treatment with a drug or agent that inhibits potassium channels.
treatment with potassium channel blocker
Treatment with a drug or agent that inhibits xanthine oxidase.
treatment with EC 1.17.3.2 (xanthine oxidase) inhibitor
xanthine oxidase inhibitor agent therapy
Treatment with a drug or agent that inhibits purinergic P2 receptor.
treatment with purinergic receptor P2 antagonist
purinergic receptor P2 antagonist agent therapy
Treatment with a drug or agent that inhibits P2Y12 receptor.
treatment with P2Y12 receptor antagonist
The determination of the amount of alkaline phosphatase present in blood serum.
alkaline phosphatase blood serum assessment
Inspection of skeletal joint using an endoscope.
Inspection of urinary bladder using an endoscope.
Inspection of small intestine using an endoscope.
Inspection of uterus using an endoscope.
Inspection of abdomen using an endoscope.
Inspection of larynx using an endoscope.
Inspection of mediastinum using an endoscope.
mediastinoscopy
Inspection of sigmoid colon using an endoscope.
Inspection of pleural cavity using an endoscope.
thoracoscopy
Inspection of upper digestive tract using an endoscope.
Inspection of ureter using an endoscope.
Inspection of lower digestive tract using an endoscope.
Inspection of rectum using an endoscope.
Inspection of fallopian tube using an endoscope.
Inspection of esophagus using an endoscope.
Inspection of tracheobronchial tree using an endoscope.
The use of any device, marker, or other means for the purpose of detecting the presence Neoplasm of the breast, usually in asymptomatic individuals.
The use of any device, marker, or other means for the purpose of detecting the presence Venous thrombosis, usually in asymptomatic individuals.
The use of any device, marker, or other means for the purpose of detecting the presence Colorectal polyposis, usually in asymptomatic individuals.
The use of any device, marker, or other means for the purpose of detecting the presence Intestinal polyp, usually in asymptomatic individuals.
The use of any device, marker, or other means for the purpose of detecting the presence Ureteral polyp, usually in asymptomatic individuals.
The use of any device, marker, or other means for the purpose of detecting the presence Cervical polyp, usually in asymptomatic individuals.
The use of any device, marker, or other means for the purpose of detecting the presence Small intestinal polyp, usually in asymptomatic individuals.
The use of any device, marker, or other means for the purpose of detecting the presence Multiple gastric polyps, usually in asymptomatic individuals.
The use of any device, marker, or other means for the purpose of detecting the presence Hepatoblastoma, usually in asymptomatic individuals.
Visualization of a particular body system, organ, or cell type using a variety of imaging techniques for use in screening, diagnosis, surgical procedures or therapy.
clinical imaging procedure by system
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of colorectal polyps.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Intestinal polyp.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Ureteral polyp.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Cervical polyp.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Small intestinal polyp.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Osteoma.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of Multiple gastric polyps.
Multiple gastric polyps surgical removal
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of lens of camera-type eye.
lens of camera-type eye surgical removal
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of colorectum.
The determination of the amount of alpha-fetoprotein present in blood serum.
alpha-fetoprotein (human) blood serum assessment
blood serum alpha-fetoprotein (human) test
Use of a chemical compound that binds tightly to metal ions. Often used to remove toxic metals from the body.
Treatrment with an agent that binds excess amounts of copper to keep it from accumulating in some parts of the body, particularly the liver.
Use of a compound which binds tightly to iron molecules.
Treatment with a sequestering agent that can envelop multiple ions at a time.
The determination of the amount of beta-carotene present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of creatine present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of N-phosphocreatine present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of folic acid present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of carnitine present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of choline present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of glycerylphosphorylcholine present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of phosphocholines present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of pyridoxal 5'-phosphate present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of chemical entity present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of vitamin A present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of B vitamin present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of vitamin B complex present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of vitamin B1 present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of vitamin B2 present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of vitamin B3 present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of vitamin B5 present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of vitamin B6 present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of vitamin B7 present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of vitamin B9 present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of vitamin B12 present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of vitamin D present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of vitamin C present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of vitamin E present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of vitamin K present in the sample.
The determination of the amount of folates present in the sample.
Use of an imaging test that uses small amounts of radiation to produce pictures of pelvic region of trunk.
pelvic region of trunk radiogram procedure
Use of an imaging test that uses small amounts of radiation to produce pictures of skull.
Addition of cholic acid to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of vitamin K to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of vitamin E to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of vitamin A to a diet for complete nutrition support.
A medical imaging technique used to visualize the inside, or lumen, of blood vessels and organs of the body, with particular interest in the arteries, veins, and the heart chambers.
angiography
Addition of water-soluble vitamin (role) to a diet for adequate and complete nutrition.
dietary supplementation of water-soluble vitamin (role)
supplementation of water-soluble vitamin (role)
water-soluble vitamin (role) supplemental intake
Addition of macronutrient to a diet for adequate and complete nutrition.
dietary supplementation of macronutrient
Addition of micronutrient to a diet for adequate and complete nutrition.
dietary supplementation of micronutrient
The surgical transfer of some or all of a(n) face from a donor to a patient.
The surgical transfer of a whole pair of lungs from a donor to a patient.
The surgical transfer of some or all of a(n) lobe of lung from a donor to a patient.
Transplantation of some or all of the liver, small intestine, and other abdominal organs (for example, the stomach and pancreas) at the same time.
Addition of selenium atom to a diet for complete nutrition support.
dietary supplementation of selenium atom
Food supplementation with selenium should be carried out in a careful and controlled way, to avoid causing the opposite effect than intended, because selenium is one of the most toxic elements in relatively small quantities being at the same time an essential micronutrient with an important biological role. The range between the necessary quantity of selenium and toxic dose is very narrow. PMID:27171069
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of selenium atom.
A specimen collection from a patient that is used for diagnostic purposes.
Use of computed tomography assisted biopsy to removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from a patient purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
A needle biopsy guided by real-time computed tomography (CT) scan images. OBI:0002652
clinical computed tomography assisted biopsy
Use of core needle biopsy to removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from a patient purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
A biopsy that uses a hollow tube to collect a core of tissue. OBI:0002656
Use of fine needle aspiration biopsy to removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from a patient purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
A biopsy that uses a thin needle to extract cells. OBI:0002655
Use of image guided biopsy to removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from a patient purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
A biopsy which uses an imaging procedure to guide a needle biopsy. OBI:0002651
Use of needle biopsy to removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from a patient purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
A biopsy that uses a hollow needle to extract cells. OBI:0002654
Use of surgical biopsy to removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from a patient purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
A biopsy involving a surgical incision into an organism to access the biopsy material. OBI:0002657
Use of ultrasound-guided needle biopsy to removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from a patient purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
An ultrasound-guided needle biopsy uses sound waves to help locate a nodule or abnormality within the thyroid. OBI:0002653
clinical ultrasound-guided needle biopsy
A surgery that fixes or mends coronary artery.
A surgery that fixes or mends cardiac valve.
A surgery that fixes or mends tricuspid valve.
A surgery that fixes or mends pulmonary valve.
A surgery that fixes or mends endocrine gland.
A surgery that fixes or mends fallopian tube.
A surgery that fixes or mends digestive tract.
A surgery that fixes or mends bone tissue.
A medically necessary surgery performed to restore function and conventional appearance of ear. The surgery can correct deformities created by birth defects, trauma or medical conditions and is performed by a plastic surgeon.
A medically necessary surgery performed to restore function and conventional appearance of cranium. The surgery can correct deformities created by birth defects, trauma or medical conditions and is performed by a plastic surgeon.
A medically necessary surgery performed to restore function and conventional appearance of face. The surgery can correct deformities created by birth defects, trauma or medical conditions and is performed by a plastic surgeon.
A medically necessary surgery performed to restore function and conventional appearance of manus. The surgery can correct deformities created by birth defects, trauma or medical conditions and is performed by a plastic surgeon.
A medically necessary surgery performed to restore function and conventional appearance of nasal septum. The surgery can correct deformities created by birth defects, trauma or medical conditions and is performed by a plastic surgeon.
nasal septum surgical plastic reconstruction
A medically necessary surgery performed to restore function and conventional appearance of bronchus. The surgery can correct deformities created by birth defects, trauma or medical conditions and is performed by a plastic surgeon.
bronchus surgical plastic reconstruction
A medically necessary surgery performed to restore function and conventional appearance of iris. The surgery can correct deformities created by birth defects, trauma or medical conditions and is performed by a plastic surgeon.
iridoplasty can be performed despite corneal clouding, whereas iridotomy cannot
A surgery that fixes or mends cardiovascular system.
surgical repair of cardiovascular system
A treatment that helps someone feel better, grow stronger, etc., especially after an illness.
therapy
A surgery that fixes or mends pericardium.
A medical examination performed using of magnetic resonance imaging to image the placenta.
Nuclear magnetic resonance imaging of the placenta
A medical examination performed using of magnetic resonance imaging to image the heart.
Nuclear magnetic resonance imaging of the heart
A medical examination performed using of magnetic resonance imaging to image the vertebral column.
Nuclear magnetic resonance imaging of the vertebral column
vertebral column magnetic resonance imaging
A medical examination performed using of magnetic resonance imaging to image the kidney.
Nuclear magnetic resonance imaging of the kidney
A medical examination performed using of magnetic resonance imaging to image the liver.
Nuclear magnetic resonance imaging of the liver
A medical examination performed using of magnetic resonance imaging to image the whole body.
A medical examination performed using of magnetic resonance imaging to image the cervical region of vertebral column.
Nuclear magnetic resonance imaging of the cervical region of vertebral column
cervical region of vertebral column magnetic resonance imaging
A medical examination performed using of magnetic resonance imaging to image the adrenal gland.
Nuclear magnetic resonance imaging of the adrenal gland
adrenal gland magnetic resonance imaging
A medical examination performed using of magnetic resonance imaging to image the pancreas.
Nuclear magnetic resonance imaging of the pancreas
A medical examination performed using of magnetic resonance imaging to image the limb.
Nuclear magnetic resonance imaging of the limb
The transfer of a whole organ from one body to another.
An X-ray imaging technique that involves visualization of the pulmonary vasculature after fluoroscopy-guided catheter placement and injection of an iodinated contrast medium into the pulmonary circulation.
X-ray pulmonary angiography procedure
The X-ray examination of the blood vessels in and around the brain.
X-ray cerebral angiography procedure
Use of an imaging test that uses small amounts of radiation to produce pictures of teeth.
Imaging of small blood or lymphatic vessels less than 200 micrometers in diameter.
microangiography
Radiography of small blood or lymphatic vessels of an organ less than 200 micrometers in diameter.
X-ray microangiography
This test consists of injecting indocyanine green dye (ICG) through a peripheral intravenous line. The ICG subsequently binds to blood lipoproteins and travels to where there is blood flow. Using a near-infrared laser coupled with a camera, one can then visualize blood flow within 3–5 millimeters of the skin surface.
This technique can be used as a bedside diagnosis for frostbite
fluorescent microangiography
The X-ray examination of the blood vessels of the heart.
X-ray coronary angiography procedure
Use of a drug or agent that inhibits GABA signaling.
Use of a small amount of radioactive chemical called a tracer that can aid in imaging a target organ. The tracer emits gamma rays which are detected by a gamma radiation camera and analyzed by a computer to form the image of the desired region.
nuclear medicine imaging procedure
Use of a drug or agent that does not act as agonist or antagonist but does affect GABA-ionophore complex signaling.
Treatment with a drug or agent that modifies cholinergic signaling.
Treatment with drug or agent that activates cholinergic signaling.
Treatment with drug or agent to activate muscarinic signaling.
Use of a drug or agent that activates nicotinic acetylcholine receptor signaling.
treatment with nicotinic acetylcholine receptor agonist
nicotinic acetylcholine receptor agonist therapy
Treatment with a drug or agent that inhibits cholinergic signaling.
Treatment with a drug or agent to inhibit muscarinic signaling.
Use of a drug or agent that inhibits nicotinic signaling.
Use of a drug or agent that modulates parasympatholytic signaling.
Use of a drug or agent that modulates dopamine signaling.
Use of a drug or agent that activates dopamine signaling.
Use of a drug or agent that activates dopamine D1 receptor signaling.
treatment with dopamine receptor D1 agonist
Use of a drug or agent that inhibits dopamine neurotransmitter reuptake.
treatment with dopamine uptake inhibitor
Use of a drug or agent that inhibits dopamine signaling.
Use of a drug or agent that modulates neurotransmitter signaling.
Use of a drug or agent that activates GABA signaling.
Treatment with a drug or agent that activates GABAA receptor signaling.
Treatment with a drug or agent that activates GABAB receptor signaling.
Treatment with a drug or agent that inhibits GABAA receptor signaling.
treatment with GABAA receptor antagonist
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of sclera.
The surgical formation of an external opening from the colon through the abdominal wall.
Surgical creation of an external opening into the anterior bladder wall. [ NCI ]
The surgical formation of an external opening from the small intestines through the abdominal wall.
A surgically created connection between the ureter and the skin, which drains urine from the ureter in individuals with urinary obstruction or other issues that prevent normal urination.
The creation of an artificial external opening into the stomach for nutritional support or gastric decompression.
The surgical formation of an external opening from the duodenum through the abdominal wall.
The surgical formation of an external opening from the ileum through the abdominal wall.
The surgical formation of an external opening from the jejunum through the abdominal wall.
The surgical formation of an external opening from the kidney through the abdominal wall.
An assessment and intervention to develop, recover, or maintain life activies or occupations.
occupational therapy
A surgery that fixes or mends anorectum.
A surgery that fixes or mends large intestine.
A surgery that fixes or mends intestine.
A surgery that fixes or mends small intestine.
A determination of the structure of hematopoietic cell.
hematopoietic cell morphology assessment
hematopoietic cell morphology measurement
A determination of the structure of lymphocyte.
A determination of the structure of reticulocyte.
A psychological intervention that applies empirical approaches based upon the principles of respondent and operant conditioning to change behavior of social significance.
applied behavior analysis therapy
A determination of the structure of granulocyte.
A determination of the structure of basophil.
A determination of the structure of neutrophil.
A determination of the structure of platelet.
A determination of the structure of sperm.
A determination of the structure of T cell.
A determination of the structure of B cell.
A determination of the number of sperm in a blood sample.
A determination of the number of helper T cell in a blood sample.
A determination of the number of T cell in a blood sample.
A determination of the number of B cell in a blood sample.
A determination of the number of natural killer cell in a blood sample.
A determination of the number of echinocyte in a blood sample.
A determination of the number of plasma cell in a blood sample.
A determination of the number of dendritic cell in a blood sample.
A determination of the number of regulatory T cell in a blood sample.
A determination of the structure of natural killer cell.
natural killer cell morphology assessment
natural killer cell morphology measurement
A determination of the structure of echinocyte.
A determination of the structure of Langerhans cell.
A determination of the structure of mast cell.
A determination of the structure of Schwann cell.
A determination of the structure of myeloid cell.
A determination of the structure of germ cell.
A determination of the structure of glial cell.
A determination of the structure of kidney glomerular epithelial cell.
kidney glomerular epithelial cell morphology assessment
kidney glomerular epithelial cell morphology measurement
A determination of the structure of oocyte.
A determination of the structure of myeloid leukocyte.
myeloid leukocyte morphology measurement
A determination of the structure of bone marrow cell.
Assessing and providing skills to eat better. Therapy is focused on tongue movements, chewing, swallowing, as well as other behaviors.
feeding therapy
The use or insertion of a catheter which is a flexible tube inserted through a narrow opening into a body cavidy for removing fluid.
Treatment with a drug to inhibit or suppress adrenal hormone production.
A drug or agent therapy regimen that closely mimics the physiological diurnal cortisol secretion pattern, tailored to the patient's daily needs.
A procedure to drain the bladder and collect urine via a flexible tube.
Method a drug, fluid, or other substance is taken into the body.
A route of administration whereby a substance is taken through the mouth, swallowed, and then processed via the digestive system.
A procedure that uses radio waves to create heat to destroy tissue.
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the digestive system.
diagnostic procedure of digestive system
All manners of treatment to bring visual system back to its normal state.
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the circulatory system.
diagnostic procedure of circulatory system
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the excretory system.
diagnostic procedure of excretory system
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the exocrine system.
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the genitourinary system.
genitourinary system diagnostic procedure
diagnostic procedure of genitourinary system
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the hematopoietic system.
hematopoietic system diagnostic procedure
diagnostic procedure of hematopoietic system
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the integumental system.
integumental system diagnostic procedure
diagnostic procedure of integumental system
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the skin of body.
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the musculoskeletal system.
musculoskeletal system diagnostic procedure
diagnostic procedure of musculoskeletal system
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the nervous system.
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the reproductive system.
reproductive system diagnostic procedure
diagnostic procedure of reproductive system
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the respiratory system.
diagnostic procedure of respiratory system
All manners of treatment to bring digestive system back to its normal state.
therapeutic procedure of digestive system
All manners of treatment to bring cardiovascular system back to its normal state.
cardiovascular system therapeutic procedure
therapeutic procedure of cardiovascular system
All manners of treatment to bring circulatory system back to its normal state.
circulatory system therapeutic procedure
therapeutic procedure of circulatory system
All manners of treatment to bring excretory system back to its normal state.
therapeutic procedure of excretory system
All manners of treatment to bring exocrine system back to its normal state.
therapeutic procedure of exocrine system
All manners of treatment to bring genitourinary system back to its normal state.
genitourinary system therapeutic procedure
therapeutic procedure of genitourinary system
All manners of treatment to bring hematopoietic system back to its normal state.
hematopoietic system therapeutic procedure
therapeutic procedure of hematopoietic system
All manners of treatment to bring integumental system back to its normal state.
integumental system therapeutic procedure
therapeutic procedure of integumental system
All manners of treatment to bring skin of body back to its normal state.
All manners of treatment to bring musculoskeletal system back to its normal state.
musculoskeletal system therapeutic procedure
therapeutic procedure of musculoskeletal system
All manners of treatment to bring nervous system back to its normal state.
All manners of treatment to bring reproductive system back to its normal state.
reproductive system therapeutic procedure
therapeutic procedure of reproductive system
Treatment with a drug that softens, separates, and causes desquamation of the cornified epithelium or horny layer of skin.
Keratolytic drugs are used to expose mycelia of infecting fungi or to treat corns, warts, and certain other skin diseases.
All manners of treatment to bring vestibulo-auditory system back to its normal state.
vestibulo-auditory system therapeutic procedure
therapeutic procedure of vestibulo-auditory system
All manners of treatment to bring immune system back to its normal state.
All manners of treatment to bring organism substance back to its normal state.
organism substance therapeutic procedure
therapeutic procedure of organism substance
All manners of treatment to bring amniotic fluid back to its normal state.
All manners of treatment to bring blood clot back to its normal state.
All manners of treatment to bring excreta back to its normal state.
All manners of treatment to bring feces back to its normal state.
All manners of treatment to bring urine back to its normal state.
All manners of treatment to bring interstitial fluid back to its normal state.
interstitial fluid therapeutic procedure
therapeutic procedure of interstitial fluid
All manners of treatment to bring ocular refractive media back to its normal state.
ocular refractive media therapeutic procedure
therapeutic procedure of ocular refractive media
All manners of treatment to bring aqueous humor of eyeball back to its normal state.
aqueous humor of eyeball therapeutic procedure
therapeutic procedure of aqueous humor of eyeball
All manners of treatment to bring vitreous humor back to its normal state.
All manners of treatment to bring pus back to its normal state.
All manners of treatment to bring reproductive gland secretion back to its normal state.
reproductive gland secretion therapeutic procedure
therapeutic procedure of reproductive gland secretion
All manners of treatment to bring female reproductive gland secretion back to its normal state.
female reproductive gland secretion therapeutic procedure
therapeutic procedure of female reproductive gland secretion
All manners of treatment to bring male reproductive gland secretion back to its normal state.
male reproductive gland secretion therapeutic procedure
therapeutic procedure of male reproductive gland secretion
All manners of treatment to bring respiratory system fluid/secretion back to its normal state.
respiratory system fluid/secretion therapeutic procedure
therapeutic procedure of respiratory system fluid/secretion
All manners of treatment to bring sputum back to its normal state.
All manners of treatment to bring secretion of exocrine gland back to its normal state.
secretion of exocrine gland therapeutic procedure
therapeutic procedure of secretion of exocrine gland
All manners of treatment to bring bile back to its normal state.
All manners of treatment to bring gastric juice back to its normal state.
All manners of treatment to bring organ back to its normal state.
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the visual system.
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the vestibulo-auditory system.
vestibulo-auditory system diagnostic procedure
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the immune system.
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the organism substance.
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the amniotic fluid.
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the blood clot.
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the excreta.
diagnostic procedure of excreted substance
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the feces.
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the urine.
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the interstitial fluid.
diagnostic procedure of interstitial fluid
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the ocular refractive media.
ocular refractive media diagnostic procedure
diagnostic procedure of ocular refractive media
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the aqueous humor of eyeball.
aqueous humor of eyeball diagnostic procedure
diagnostic procedure of aqueous humor of eyeball
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the vitreous humor.
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the pus.
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the reproductive gland secretion.
reproductive gland secretion diagnostic procedure
diagnostic procedure of reproductive gland secretion
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the female reproductive gland secretion.
female reproductive gland secretion diagnostic procedure
diagnostic procedure of female reproductive gland secretion
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the male reproductive gland secretion.
male reproductive gland secretion diagnostic procedure
diagnostic procedure of male reproductive gland secretion
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the respiratory system fluid/secretion.
respiratory system fluid/secretion diagnostic procedure
diagnostic procedure of respiratory system fluid/secretion
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the sputum.
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the secretion of exocrine gland.
secretion of exocrine gland diagnostic procedure
diagnostic procedure of exocrine gland secretion
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the bile.
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the gastric juice.
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the semen.
Procedure to evaluate the structure and/or function of the organ.
The surgical removal (cutting out) of part or all of zone of skin.
Use of a drug or agent that inhibits farnesyltransferase.
treatment with EC 2.5.1.58 (protein farnesyltransferase) inhibitor
farnesyltransferase inhibitor agent therapy
Use of a drug or agent that inhibits matrix metalloprotease inhibitor.
treatment with matrix metalloproteinase inhibitor
Treatment with a topical cream that is used to treat psoriasis.
A therapeutic surgical procedure to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease and hiatus hernia. It involves the wrapping of the fundus of the stomach around the lower esophagus to strengthen the lower esophageal sphincter.
Treatment with a diuretic to treat hypertension or edema.
Treatment with thyroid hormone or drugs replicating thyroid hormone to maintain a normally functioning thyroid.
Treatment with a class of medicines inhibit sodium-glucose cotransporter-2. Drugs are used with diet and exercise to lower blood sugar in adults with type 2 diabetes.
treatment with sodium-glucose transport protein subtype 2 inhibitor
sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 inhibitor therapy
Treatment with an activator to the somatostatin receptor.
treatment with somatostatin receptor agonist
A surgery to move a testical from growin to scrotum. The procedure permanently fixes the testical to the scrotum.
Orchiopexy corrects undescended testicles that have not dropped into the scrotum or testicular torsion where testicular blood supply twists and cuts off blood flow to the testicle.
Magnetic resonance imaging of the developing fetus in utero.
A type of hematopoietic stem cell transplantation in which stem cells are obtained from a donor other than the recipient.
allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
Intravenous administration of Immune globulin antibodies) derived from the plasma of donors.
A type of biologic therapy that is designed to inhibit the activity of IgE immunoglobulins.
A type of biologic therapy that is designed to modulate helper 2 (Th2) T cell activity
Use of a drug or substance that inhibits complement 5.
treatment with complement component 5 inhibitor
A molecular genetic produce to alter a target gene sequence with the intention of repairing or altering the activity of a gene product that is related to a disease.
Therapeutic administration of interferon alpha.
Therapeutic administration of interferon gamma
Therapeutic administration of an inhibitor of interleukin 1
interleukin-1 receptor inhibitor therapy
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding vaccination with live (ative) agents
The infusion of thrombocytes directly into the bloodstream
Therapeutic administration of an analog of somatostatin.
Ongoing clinical investigations targeted at the early identification or return of cancer.
Therapeutic administration of an inhibitor of tumor necrosis factor.
obsolete ophthalmological diagnostic procedure
Administration of drugs or other substances by routes other than the digestive tract.
Avoid the administration or use of serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor agent therapy.
avoid serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor agent therapy
avoiding serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor agent therapy
serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor agent therapy avoidance
Avoid the administration or use of antidepressant agent therapy.
A pharmaceutical substance that is biologically inactive, but it is metabolized by the body to produce a drug.
A drug or pharmaceutical agent tht is used to attempt to prevent or reverse neuronal damage, thereby retaining physiological function.
A drug or pharmaceutical agent that is developed to treat a rare medical condition.
A drug or substance used as therapy to inhibit 4-hydroxyphenylpyruvate hydroxylase.
treatment with EC 1.13.11.27 (4-hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase) inhibitor
4-hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase inhibitor therapy
A drug or substance that inhibits the metabolism of tyrosine.
Any surgical procedure conducted on the digestive system.
Any surgical procedure conducted on the alimentary part of gastrointestinal system.
alimentary part of gastrointestinal system surgical procedure
surgical procedure on alimentary part of gastrointestinal system
Gross motor therapy is designed to help individuals improve their use of large muscles and the coordination of the arms, legs, and the entire body.
Any surgical procedure conducted on the circulatory system.
surgical procedure on circulatory system
Any surgical procedure conducted on the genitourinary system.
surgical procedure on genitourinary system
Any surgical procedure conducted on the musculoskeletal system.
musculoskeletal system surgical procedure
surgical procedure on musculoskeletal system
A determination of the number of blood cell in a blood sample.
Any surgical procedure conducted on the pancreatic system.
Any surgical procedure conducted on the renal collecting system.
renal collecting system surgical procedure
surgical procedure on renal collecting system
Any surgical procedure conducted on the reproductive system.
surgical procedure on reproductive system
Any surgical procedure conducted on the zone of skin.
Any surgical procedure conducted on the respiratory system.
surgical procedure on respiratory system
Any surgical procedure conducted on the vascular system.
Therapy aids in the development and use of the small muscles of the hands for tasks such as grasping objects, writing, cutting with scissors, shoe-tying, and fastening buttons.
Drug or substance administration by placing it under the tongue where it is dissolved and absorbed into blood.
A method of appliying medication to skin or mucous membranes for local or systemic treatment.
Administration of drug or other substance by way of the ear.
A method of drug delivery that uses drug formulations that are designed to penetrate through the skin and exert effects on deeper or more distant tissues.
Administration of medicine or other substance through the nasal cavity often by inhalation.
Administration of medication, fluid, or other substance to the eye.
Administration of medication or other fluids into the rectal cavity whcih are absorbed by the rectum's blood vessels.
A method of delivering medication, fluids, or other substances into the vaginal cavity to produce local or systemic pharmacological effects.
Administration directly into the vein using needle or tube.
intravenous fluid route of administration
A route of administration that is injected in the intravitreal region, the vitreous chamber of the eye.
A method of allowing drops of fluid onto the eye.
A method that delivers fluid, drug, or other substance through the gastrointestinal tract.
Drug or substance administration by placing it between gums and cheek where it is dissolved and absorbed into blood.
Administration of medication via the skin.
Any procedure to help or ameliorate problems with the mouth
Use of a hearing aid equiped with frequency modulation.
hearing aid with FM amplification system usage
Usage of an appliance used as an artificial or prosthetic replacement for missing teeth and/or adjacent tissues.
Implantation of artificial tooth roots that are surgically placed into the jawbone to replace missing teeth and support artifician teeth.
Implantation of a bridge or prosthesis to bridge the gap between 2 healthy teeth where one or more teeth are missing.
A diagnostic procedure that involves taking a small amount of blood from a fetus's umbilical cord during pregnancy.
Treatment with an agent such as levodopa that is converted in the body to dopamine.
A procedure that involves inserting a hollow tube into a fetus's lung to drain excess fluid from the chest cavity into the amniotic sac.
shunt placement for fetal pleural effusion
A minimally invasive procedure that can treat twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome when identical twins share placenta and have unequal blood flow.
fetoscopic laser photocoagulation procedure
laser ablation for twin twin transfusion syndrome
Surgical procedure that closes a spinal defect in a fetus during pregnancy.
Surgical procedure to treat severe congenital diaphragmatic hernia by using a a fetoscope into the amniotic cavity and using a latex balloon to temporarily block fetus's trachea.
fetal endoscopic tracheal occlusion for congenital diaphragmatic hernia
fetoscopic tracheal occlusion for congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Treatment with a recombinant human parathyroid hormone to stimulate bone formation, increase bone mass, and reduce risk of vertebral and nonbertebral fractures.
recombinant human parathyroid hormone treatment
Treatment with a group of drugs which reversibly deplete one or more monoamine neurotransmitters.
A recommendation or requirement for a diet change that limits the amount of fluids a person can consume each day.
Treatment that uses chelating agents to remove manganese from the body to reverse its neurotoxic effects.
A recommendation to alter dietary intake such that a high proportion of the calories come from fat.
A type of intubation where the tube is placed through the nose, past the throat, and down into the stomach.
Use of a tube that is inserted through the nose, down the throat, and into the stomach.
Use of a flexible endoscope with a tracheal tube loaded along its length is passed through the glottis.
A type of intubation where the tube goes through the oral cavity into the trachea.
Intubation where teh tube goes through the nasal cavity into the trachea.
The use of a cortiicosteioid that is applied topically.
Any of a number of different type of eye drop therapy that can reduce eye pressure either by draining fluid from your eye or by lowering the amount of fluid your eye makes.
A canaloplasty where the surgeon creates partial-thickness flap in the sclera to insert the catheter.
Canaloplasty where the surgeon makes a small incision in the cornea and uses a goniotomy to access the canal.
A surgical technique that combines canaloplasty and suprachoroidal drainage to improve uveoscleral outflow and trabecular facility.
canaloplasty with suprachoroidal drainage outflow
canaloplasty with suprachoroidal drainage
A modified canaloplasty without preparing the classic trabeculo-Descemet's membrane.
Canaloplasty using different techniques without microcathetor and creation of a canal.
Pprocedures that use small incisions and microscopic instruments to reduce eye pressure (IOP). MIGS can involve less tissue manipulation than traditional glaucoma surgeries, such as trabeculectomy or tube-shunt surgery. MIGS can be safer and have a faster recovery time than traditional surgery, but it may not lower IOP as much.
A type of minimally invasive glaucoma surgery that increases trabecular outflow.
A MIGS with increased uveoscleral, suprachoroidal or subraciliary outflow.
MIGS increase uveoscleral/ suprachoroidal/ supraciliary outflow
A MIGS that leads to increased subconjunctival outflow
A type of MIGs using iStent medicxal device that is made of a heparin-coated titanium and inserted into Schlemm's canal using an ab interno surgical technique to create a permanent bypass channel for aqueous outflow from the anterior chamber to the collector channels.
GATT is a procedure for ab interno circumferential trabeculotomy using a 360 degree suture or microcatheter in Schlemm’s canal (i.e., opening the trabecular meshwork pathway without removing tissue.
gonioscopy-assisted transluminal trabeculotomy
A type of MIGS that uses trabectome surgical device to perform ab interno trabectulectomy.
A surgical procedure that involves making a small incision in the cornea and then using a specialized viewing lens to insert a device into the eye.
A type of MIGS where a Kahook dual blade single-use instrument is used to perform an ab interno trabeculectomy.
A MIGS using a small flexible tube that is implanted into the eye.
A MIGS where a tube made of gelatin and glutaraldehyde is implanted. It is insterted ab internally inot the anterior chamber, then through the sclera into subconjunctival space forming a bleb.
A MIGS where flexible micro shunt composed of polystyrene block isobutylene block styrene inserted ab externally ino the anterior chamber through subconjunctival space forming a bleb.
Treatment with a type of cholinergic agonist.
The use of any drug or chemical treatment applied to the surface of the body.
Topical administration of a cream, gel, or lubricant that softens the skin.
Treatment with a class of steroid hormones.
A combination drug used as topical treatment for skin disorders.
Us of a substance or drug that acts as a wetting agent and promotes soft bowel movements.
A surgical procedure that uses the cutting power of a laser beam to make bloodless cuts in tissue.
A type of excimer laser eye surgery used to treat various corneal disorders by reshaping the cornea and removing superficial corneal opacities or irregularities.
Wearing of any contact lens used to relieve pain and help protect or heal the cornea and nearby tissues.
A surgery that uses a fine needle ormicro-punctures in the anterior (front) part of the corneal stroma. This procedure aims to promote better adhesion between the corneal epithelium and the underlying basement membrane, thus reducing the risk of recurrent erosions.
A procedure that involves applying 20% alcohol to the surface of the eye to treat roughened corneal surfaces, such as those caused by scarring. The alcohol loosens the surface cells' attachment, making them easier to remove.
alcohol delamination of corneal epithelium
Removal of the eye's clear protective outer layer of corneal surface.
A surgical procedure where eye is rubbed with a device to polish the undersurface.
corneal epithelial debridement with diamond burr polishing
Eye drops used to lubricate dry eyes and keep moisture on the outer surface of eyes.
High salinity ophthalmic ointment used for reducing the swelling of the front surface of your eye known as the cornea. This swelling can be caused by surgery, infection, trauma, or other eye conditions.
sodium chloride hypertonicity ophthalmic ointment therapy
A mechanical treatment that blocks the tear drainiage system to preserve natural tears on ocular surface.
Use of eye drops made from patient's own blood to lubricate surface of they eye.
Transplantation of the innermost layer of the placenta graft.
Use of amniotic membrane transplantation to reconstruct ocular surface or as bandage to promote healing.
amniotic membrane transplantation for ophthalmology
Ointments that are appliend to the inside of lower eyelid to lubricate and protect eyes while sleeping.
Specific RNA molecules are used to induce sequence-specific inhibition of target gene expression or translation for the purpose of therapy.
Treatment with an antisense oligonucleotide that inhibits mRNA translation of a specific messenager RNA.
antisense oligonucleotide inhibitor therapy
Obtaining information about the health of directly related individuals.
Obtaining information about a patient's reproductive experiences.
Obtaining information about the onset of menarch, the beginning of the first menstrual cycle.
Obtaining information about the age of menopause of a patient.
A method of female sterilization where the fallopian tubes are surgically ligated to prevent conception.
Note: cystectomy can refer to removal of bladder OR removal of a cyst.
The surgical removal of an ovarian cyst.
The surgical removal of a cyst from the kidney.
A test to detect streptococcus, either Group A or Group B, in a patient.
A rapid antigen detection test to diagnose bacterial pharyngitis caused by group A streptococci.
A diagnostic procedure used to evaluate an individual's ability to perceive and judge the relative distances of objects in the three-dimensional world.
Therapy that helps with processing, integrating or organizing sensory information of the body.
Collection of stratum corneum samples by applying adhesive tape to the skin.
An intervention, e.g. a breathing or oral device, to help keep a person's airways open while they sleep.
Transplantation of fetal tissue into a person to treat disease.
A non invasive procedure that uses magnetic fields to stimulate nerve cells in the brain.
Examining chromosomes to identify abnormalities.
A genetic test that compares DNA sample to normal control to look for genetic alterations.
Assessing specific variants within a gene or genes that thave been associated with a condition.
Testing a single gene for genetic sequence changes.
A diagnostic procedure that analyzes multiple genes at once to idenify genetic variants associated with specific diseases or conditions.
Examination of methylation patheway genes.
A laboratory method that involves analyzing free (i.e., non-cellular) DNA contained within a biological sample. Most often, clinicians are looking for genomic variants associated with hereditary disorders.
Procedures and treatments that are used to aid in achieving pregnancy conception in individuals who are having difficulty doing so spontaneously.
assisted reproductive technology procedure
Use of an ophthalmic agent therapy that is delivered in the form of an eye drop.
Treatment by a class of drugs that treat erythropoietic protoporphyria.
alpha-melanocyte-stimulating hormone therapy
A drug or substance given to inhibit VMAT2 for therapeutic uses.
vesicular monoamine-transporter-2 inhibitor agent therapy
Treatment with any coagulating factors that promote clotting.
Treatment with any drug or agent that regulates coenzymes.
Treatment with the drug mevalonolactone.
Any drug or agent that lessens or prohibits myopathy.
Any drug or agent that inhibits carbonic anhydrase.
treatment with EC 4.2.1.1 (carbonic anhydrase) inhibitor
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor agent therapy
Any drug or agent that inhibits adrenergic uptake.
treatment with adrenergic uptake inhibitor
adrenergic uptake inhibitor agent therapy
Avoid the administration or use of thalidomide agent therapy.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding cannabis consumption.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding tobacco consumption.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding smoking behavior.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding consumption of an addictive substance.
avoid consumption of an addictive substance
cessation of consumption of an addictive substance
consumption of an addictive substance avoidance
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding agitation behavior.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding fear/anxiety related behavior.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding sexual activity.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding copulation.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding stress related behavior.
Genetic testing of one or more cells removed from early embryos conceived by in vitro fertilization and transferring to the mother's uterus only those embryos determined not to have the pathogenic variant(s)/chromosome anomaly(ies) of concern.
preimplantation genetic testing
A procedure that can determine the DNA sequence for all of the exons (protein coding region) in an individual.
Clinical Exome Sequencing is a test for identifying disease-causing DNA variants within the 1% of the genome which codes for proteins (exons) or flanks the regions which code for proteins (splice junctions).
Sequence analysis of the exons of protein-coding genes in the genome typically performed by target enrichment or capture of exons followed by next-generation sequencing.
clinical whole-exome sequencing
The removal of the large intestine and rectum followed by making a pouch of the last part of the small intestine for solid material storage. The pouch is then sewn to the anus.
restorative proctocolectomy with ileal pouch-anal anastomosis
proctocolectomy with ileal pouch anal anastomosis
A procedure that can determine the DNA sequence for coding and non-coding regions in an individual.
Sequence analysis of the genome including coding and noncoding regions typically performed by next-generation sequencing (NGS) of sheared genomic DNA.
clinical whole genome sequencing
Fetal echocardiography is a test that uses sound waves (ultrasound) to evaluate the structure and function of the fetus's heart.
fetal echocardiography
An application of diagnostic ultrasound used to detect moving blood cells or other moving structures and measure their direction and speed of movement. The Doppler effect is used to evaluate movement by measuring changes in frequency of the echoes reflected from moving structures.
Doppler ultrasonography
The use of ultrasound on a pregnant person to produce images of structures in the kidney of the fetus.
prenatal renal ultrasonography
A surgical procedure where the whole colon is removed and the ileum is joined directly to the rectum.
colectomy with ileorectal anastomosis
Surgical removal of part of the pancreas, duodenum, and distal part of the bile duct. Sometimes, the lower portion of the stomach and the gallbladder are also removed. This procedure is performed for pancreatic, ampullary, duodenal and distal bile duct cancers.
pancreaticoduodenectomy
Infusion of red blood cells into a fetus through the umbilical code.
intrauterine fetal transfusion
Use of a drug or therapy that block neuromuscular transmission, causing paralysis of the affected skeletal muscles.
neuromuscular blocking agent therapy
Treatment with a neuromuscular blocking agent and inhibitor of acetyl choline release at motor terminals. It can be used to treat certain ailments like cervical dystonia and sialorrhea.
botulinum toxin type B therapy
Treatment with Botulinum toxin, a neurotoxic protein which blocks release of acetylcholine at neuromuscular junctions causing muscle paralysis. This therapy has many therapeutic uses including chronic migraine, spastic disorders, cervical dystonia, and detrusor hyperactivity.
botulinum toxin therapy
Treatment with Botulinum toxin type A which can treat certain conditions. Currently it is used to smoothed wrinkles. It is also called Botox treatment.
botulinum toxin type A therapy
A set of tests or assessments to determine congnitive abilities of a patient.
cognitive assessment
Evaluation for cognitive impairment by assessing the neuropsychological domains.
neuropsychological assessment
Evaluation of patient's cominucation involving naming, reading, writing, and repeating words.
language assessment
Evaluation of organizing and planning ability, as well as working memory, mental flexibility, list-making, and execution of tasks.
executive function assessment
Evaluation of a patient's ability to analyze information, detect patterns, detect relationships, or problem solveing abilities on an intangible level.
abstract reasoning assessment
Evaluation of short-term and long-term emory in a patient.
memory assessement
Evaluation of a patient's concentration or attention to a prompt or test.
attention and concentration assessment
Evaluation of a person’s ability to conceptualize and manipulate two- and three-dimensional objects.
visuospatial skill assessment
Surgical implantation of a device for the treatment of severe to profound sensorineural hearing loss. It works by transducing acoustic energy into an electrical signal, which is used to stimulate surviving spiral ganglion cells of the auditory nerve.
surgical introduction of cochlear implant
cochlear device implantation
A procedure where a substance or object is inserted into the body.
introduction procedure
A procedure to place an electrode in some part of the body for therapeutic purposes.
electrode implantation
The surgical implantation of a central neural auditory prosthesis for treatment of profound sensorinerual hearing loss in patients who are not cochlear implant candidates due to a lack of anatomically intact cochlear nerves or implantable cochleae.
auditory brainstem implantation
hearing therapy
hearing aid usage
Assessment and management of hearing loss.
auditory rehabilitation
Hearing therapy to help children born with hearing loss that have not learned to listen and talk.
child audiologic habilitation
A medical device inserted into the body to help control or monitor the heart and/or cardiovascular system.
cardiac implantable electronic device insertion
cardiac device implantation
Surgical insertion of an adjustable artificial electrical pulse generators into the body to interrogate and control the he pacing rate, the pulse width, and the voltage in order to a person's heart function.
pacemaker implantation
Insertion of a pacemaker that attaches one lead to the upper or lower heart chamber.
implantation of a single chamber pacemaker
single chamber pacemaker implantation
The implantation of a pacemaker that uses two leads, one for the upper and one for lower chamber of the heart.
implantation of a dual-chamber pacemaker
dual-chamber pacemaker implantation
Surgical insertion of a pacemaker that is used in cardiac resynchronization therapy.
biventricular pacemaker implantion
Expandable tubular metallic devices inserted into coronary arteries.
coronary angioplasty with stent placement
coronary stent insertion
Insertion of a medical device that delivers fluids, such as nutrients and medications, into a patient's body in controlled amounts.
infusion pump implantation
Insertion of a continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion to regulate insulin levels in a patient.
continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion pump implantation
insulin pump implantation
A therapy used in patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) to improve glucose control and/or reduce the risk of hypoglycaemia.
continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion therapy
Use of a medical device that delivers fluids, such as nutrients and medications, into a patient's body in controlled amounts.
infusion pump therapy
Surgical removal of the opacified lens and implantation of an artificial intraocular lens (IOL).
cataract extraction with IOL implantation
cataract removal with intraocular lens insertion
cataract surgery with artificial intraocular lens insertion
cataract extraction with intraocular lens insertion
Surgical incision into the eardrum to relieve pressure or drain fluid with placement of tympanostomy tubes to allow fluid to pass through the ear canal into the middle ear.
myringotomy and insertion of tympanic ventilation tube
myringotomy with placement of tympanostomy tube
Surgical placement of a prosthetic device to replace a joint.
implantation of joint prosthesis
Surgical procedure to replace the weight-bearing surfaces of the knee joint.
total knee replacement
A reconstructive proceder that surgically replaces the hip joint with an artificial prosthesis.
hip replacement
Placement of a intrauterine contraceptive device that prevents pregnancy.
insertion of intrauterine contraceptive device
Surgical removal of a mass without cutting into or dissecting it.
enucleation
Surgical procedure that involves removal of the entire globe and its intraocular contents, with preservation of all other periorbital and orbital structures.
enucleation of the eye
Surgical removal of tumor cells without removing surrounding tissue or organs.
enucleation of a tumor
A procedure that uses very small amounts of radioactive materials to examine organ function and structure.
nuclear medicine procedure
obsolete medical specialist examination
A direct assessment of a patient's condition by an immunologist that is based on a physical exam, medical history, and the patient's account of symptoms.
immunologist evaluation
obsolete examination by dermatologist
obsolete examination by emergency medicine specialst
obsolete examination by family medicine specialist
A direct assessment of a patient's condition by a neurologist that is based on a physical exam, medical history, and the patient's account of symptoms.neurologist.
obsolete examination by a neurologist
obsolete examination by ob/gyn specialist
obsolete examination by ophthalmologist
obsolete examination by otolaryngologist
obsolete examination by orthopedist
obsolete examination by pediatrician
obsolete examination by physiatrist
A test that involves the administration of intravenous contrast and X-ray imaging of the urinary tract. The iodinated contrast flows through the renal vasculature and filtered into the collecting system highlighting the anatomic structures on the X-ray image.
intravenous pyelogram
obsolete examination by psychiatrist
obsolete examination by urologist
A direct appraisal of a patient's condition by an allied health professional specialist that is based on a physical exam, medical history, and the patient's account of symptoms.
examination by allied health professional
allied health professional examination
The determination of the type and/or amount of vitamins in a sample.
vitamin measurement
Delivery of a gamma-emitting radioisotope (a radionuclide) into the patient, normally through injection into the bloodstream and detected by gamma camera The radioisotope could be is a simple soluble dissolved ion, such as an isotope of gallium(III), or a marker radioisotope is attached to a specific ligand to create a radioligand targeting a place of interest in the body.
single-photon emission computed tomography
Surgeical procedure to restore or replace physical defects of form or function. Physical defects could be a consequence of birth defects, trauma, or medical conditions.
surgical repair
Elective surgeries to improve or correct patients body imperfections or appearance. These surgeries can address imperfections due to preference, congenital, acquired, illness, or traumatic or para-physiological events such as aging.
cosmetic plastic surgery
A procedure for increasing the size of the breast using a prosthetic implant.
breast augmentation surgery
A surgical procedure to remove excess skin and fat from the abdomen.
abdominoplasty
A medically necessary surgery performed to restore function and conventional appearance of the body part. The surgery can correct deformities created by birth defects, trauma or medical conditions and is performed by a plastic surgeon.
reconstructive plastic surgery
A surgical procedure that is performed for therapeutic or cosmetic reformation of tissue.
plastic surgery
A medically necessary surgery performed to restore function and conventional appearance of lip. The surgery can correct deformities created by birth defects, trauma or medical conditions and is performed by a plastic surgeon.
A medically necessary surgery performed to restore function and conventional appearance of secondary palate. The surgery can correct deformities created by birth defects, trauma or medical conditions and is performed by a plastic surgeon.
secondary palate surgical plastic reconstruction
A medically necessary surgery performed to restore function and conventional appearance of breast. The surgery can correct deformities created by birth defects, trauma or medical conditions and is performed by a plastic surgeon.
Surgery using incisional, excisional, or use of local/regional flaps to repair burned areas.
reconstructive burn surgery
Surgical reconstruction or replacement of all or part of a malformed, diseased, degenerated, or otherwise damaged joint. NCIT:C51691
A surgery that fixes or mends knee joint.
A surgery that fixes or mends hip joint.
Surgical replacement of part or all of a damaged knee joint with an artificial joint.
knee replacement surgery
Surgical replacement of all parts of a damaged knee joint with an artificial joint.
total knee replacement surgery
The surgery to correct a torn knee ligament involves replacing the ligament with a piece of healthy tendon.
repair of knee ligament
A procedure that delivers a single, highly concentrated dose of ionizing radiation from an external source to a small, precise target using 3-D computerized imaging to focus beams. There is no incision, but this technique distorts and destroys the DNA of tumor cells in a highly directed fashion.
stereotactic radiosurgery
A type of stereotactic surgery that uses specialized equipment to focus approximately 200 beams of radiation on a tumor or other target with submillimeter accuracy.
stereotactic radiosurgery using Gamma Knife
A type of sterotactic radiosurgery using photons to treat cancerous and noncancerous abnormalities via a linear accelerator (LINAC) machine.
stereotactic radiosurgery using Linear Accelerator
External radiation therapy that is directed at a specific body part/tumor over a fractionated treatment schedule.
stereotactic radiation therapy
A method of external beam radiotherapy (EBRT) that accurately delivers a high irradiation dose to an extracranial target in one or few treatment fractions
stereotactic body radiation therapy
A type of stereotactic radiosurgery that uses prroton beams.
stereotactic radiosurgery using proton beam therapy
Treatment with zinc (typically a zinc salt, like zinc acetate or zinc sulfate) with an expected therapeutic benefit.
Use of a drug that inhibits Janus kinases.
Janus kinase (JAK) Inhibitors are the latest drug class of disease-modifying medication to emerge for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). They are a small molecule-targeted treatment and are the first oral option to compare favourably to existing biologic disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs).
Janus kinase inhibitor therapy
Treatment with a substance that inhibits GABA trasaminase.
treatment with EC 2.6.1.19 (4-aminobutyrate--2-oxoglutarate transaminase) inhibitor
GABA transaminase inhibitor agent therapy
Use of a swab as the collection device to obtain clinical specimens.
clinical biospecimen swab collection
Assistance provided by clinicians and public health practitioners to enhance an individual and/or their family’s self-efficacy in managing one or more conditions. This assistance can include activities such as patient education, support for lifestyle modifications, and support to help individuals develop the skills needed for effective chronic disease management.
patient health-management support and education
Services and supports provided to babies and young children with developmental delays and disabilities and their families. These may include speech therapy, physical therapy, and other types of services based on the needs of the child and family. They can have a significant impact on a child’s ability to learn new skills and overcome challenges and can increase success in school and life.
A range of targeted services and supports that are available to babies and young children with developmental delays or specific health conditions. [ NCI ]
early intervention services
An education and support system that addresses the comprehensive blend of clinical, educational, psychosocial, and behavioral aspects of care needed for daily self-management and provides the foundation to help all people with diabetes navigate their daily self-care with confidence and improved outcomes.
diabetes self-management support and education
diabetes self health-management support and education
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of gluten.
Intake may interfere with disease treatment, prolong the recovery phase, or cause complications.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of liquid chemical food component.
avoid liquid chemical food component intake
avoiding dietary liquid chemical food component intake
liquid chemical food component consumption avoidance
liquid chemical food component restricted diet intake
liquid chemical food component restriction
dietary liquid chemical food component intake avoidance
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of protein extract, concentrate or isolate.
avoid protein extract, concentrate or isolate intake
avoiding dietary protein extract, concentrate or isolate intake
protein extract, concentrate or isolate consumption avoidance
protein extract, concentrate or isolate restricted diet intake
protein extract, concentrate or isolate restriction
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of fat or oil.
Addition of amino-acid betaine to a diet for complete nutrition support.
dietary supplementation of amino-acid betaine
Addition of folates to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of carnitine to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of methionine to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of creatine to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of arginine to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of biotins to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of chenodeoxycholic acid to a diet for complete nutrition support.
chenodeoxycholic acid supplemental intake
dietary supplementation of chenodeoxycholic acid
supplementation of chenodeoxycholic acid
Addition of coenzyme Q10 to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of glycine to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of N-acetyl-L-cysteine to a diet for complete nutrition support.
dietary supplementation of N-acetyl-L-cysteine
Addition of ornithine to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of riboflavin to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of vitamin B6 to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of citrulline to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of vitamin B1 to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of amino acid to a diet for complete nutrition support.
A concentrated dietary supplement for injection containing the essential amino acids leucine, isoleucine, lysine, valine, phenylalanine, histidine, threonine, methionine and tryptophan as well as the non-essential amino acids alanine, arginine, glycine, proline, serine and tyrosine, with potential anabolic and anti-catabolic activities. Upon dilution and intravenous infusion of the amino acid nutritional supplement, the amino acids serve as protein building blocks, promote protein synthesis in muscle cells and prevent protein breakdown. NCIT:C15509
Addition of L-serine to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of uridine to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of medium-chain fatty acid to a diet for complete nutrition support.
dietary supplementation of medium-chain fatty acid
medium-chain fatty acid supplemental intake
supplementation of medium-chain fatty acid
Addition of essential fatty acid to a diet for complete nutrition support.
dietary supplementation of essential fatty acid
essential fatty acid supplemental intake
Addition of cholesterol to a diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of elemental zinc to a diet for complete nutrition support.
dietary supplementation of elemental zinc
Addition of zinc to a the diet for complete nutrition support.
Addition of hydroxocobalamin to a diet for complete nutrition support.
dietary supplementation of hydroxocobalamin
Addition of cyanocob(III)alamin to a diet for complete nutrition support.
dietary supplementation of cyanocob(III)alamin
Addition of methylcobalamin to a diet for complete nutrition support.
dietary supplementation of methylcobalamin
The surgical transfer of some or all of a(n) bone marrow from a donor to a patient.
The surgical transfer of some or all of a(n) bone tissue from a donor to a patient.
The surgical transfer of a whole heart from a donor to a patient.
The surgical transfer of some or all of a(n) umbilical cord blood from a donor to a patient.
The surgical transfer of a whole cornea from a donor to a patient.
The surgical transfer of some or all of a(n) dura mater from a donor to a patient.
The surgical transfer of some or all of a(n) intestine from a donor to a patient.
The surgical transfer of some or all of a(n) small intestine from a donor to a patient.
The surgical transfer of a whole lung from a donor to a patient.
whole lung transplantation surgical procedure
The transfer of an organ, or organ subpart, from one body to another.
The surgical transfer of a whole ovary from a donor to a patient.
The surgical transfer of some or all of a(n) zone of skin from a donor to a patient.
The surgical transfer of a whole thymus from a donor to a patient.
The surgical transfer of a whole kidney from a donor to a patient.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of alcoholic beverage.
alcoholic beverage consumption avoidance
alcoholic beverage restricted diet intake
avoiding dietary alcoholic beverage intake
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of broad bean.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of mammalian meat food product.
avoid mammalian meat food product intake
avoiding dietary mammalian meat food product intake
mammalian meat food product consumption avoidance
mammalian meat food product restricted diet intake
dietary mammalian meat food product intake avoidance
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of nut food product.
avoiding dietary nut food product intake
dietary nut food product intake avoidance
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of saffron food product.
avoiding dietary saffron food product intake
saffron food product consumption avoidance
saffron food product restricted diet intake
dietary saffron food product intake avoidance
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of animal seafood product.
animal seafood product consumption avoidance
animal seafood product restricted diet intake
avoiding dietary animal seafood product intake
dietary animal seafood product intake avoidance
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of mussel food product.
avoiding dietary mussel food product intake
mussel food product consumption avoidance
mussel food product restricted diet intake
dietary mussel food product intake avoidance
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of clove food product.
avoiding dietary clove food product intake
clove food product consumption avoidance
clove food product restricted diet intake
dietary clove food product intake avoidance
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of dark chocolate.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of pumpkin seed (shell off).
avoiding dietary pumpkin seed (shell off) intake
pumpkin seed (shell off) consumption avoidance
pumpkin seed (shell off) restricted diet intake
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of sesame seed.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of sunflower seed (whole kernel, raw).
avoid sunflower seed (whole kernel, raw) intake
avoiding dietary sunflower seed (whole kernel, raw) intake
sunflower seed (whole kernel, raw) consumption avoidance
sunflower seed (whole kernel, raw) restricted diet intake
sunflower seed (whole kernel, raw) restriction
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of liver (raw).
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of egg or egg component.
avoiding dietary egg or egg component intake
egg or egg component consumption avoidance
egg or egg component restricted diet intake
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of kidney (raw).
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of peas (rehydrated, canned).
avoiding dietary peas (rehydrated, canned) intake
peas (rehydrated, canned) consumption avoidance
peas (rehydrated, canned) restricted diet intake
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of bean food product.
avoiding dietary bean food product intake
bean food product restricted diet intake
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of peanut.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of soybean refined food product.
avoid soybean refined food product intake
avoiding dietary soybean refined food product intake
soybean refined food product consumption avoidance
soybean refined food product restricted diet intake
soybean refined food product restriction
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of 010 brassica (cole or cabbage) vegetables, head cabbage, flowerhead brassicas (vb) (ccpr).
010 brassica (cole or cabbage) vegetables, head cabbage, flowerhead brassicas (vb) (ccpr) consumption avoidance
010 brassica (cole or cabbage) vegetables, head cabbage, flowerhead brassicas (vb) (ccpr) restricted diet intake
010 brassica (cole or cabbage) vegetables, head cabbage, flowerhead brassicas (vb) (ccpr) restriction
avoid 010 brassica (cole or cabbage) vegetables, head cabbage, flowerhead brassicas (vb) (ccpr) intake
avoiding dietary 010 brassica (cole or cabbage) vegetables, head cabbage, flowerhead brassicas (vb) (ccpr) intake
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of brussels sprout food product.
avoid brussels sprout food product intake
avoiding dietary brussels sprout food product intake
brussels sprout food product consumption avoidance
brussels sprout food product restricted diet intake
brussels sprout food product restriction
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of broccoli food product.
avoiding dietary broccoli food product intake
broccoli food product consumption avoidance
broccoli food product restricted diet intake
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of cabbage head food product.
avoiding dietary cabbage head food product intake
cabbage head food product consumption avoidance
cabbage head food product restricted diet intake
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of cauliflower food product.
avoiding dietary cauliflower food product intake
cauliflower food product consumption avoidance
cauliflower food product restricted diet intake
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of rapeseed food product.
avoiding dietary rapeseed food product intake
rapeseed food product consumption avoidance
rapeseed food product restricted diet intake
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of rapeseed oil.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of rapeseed meal.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of cephalopod.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of crustacean.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of barley malt beer beverage.
avoiding dietary barley malt beer beverage intake
barley malt beer beverage consumption avoidance
barley malt beer beverage restricted diet intake
dietary barley malt beer beverage intake avoidance
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of corn syrup (high fructose).
avoiding dietary corn syrup (high fructose) intake
corn syrup (high fructose) consumption avoidance
corn syrup (high fructose) restricted diet intake
dietary corn syrup (high fructose) intake avoidance
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of sorbitol syrup.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of human milk based food product.
avoid human milk based food product intake
avoiding dietary human milk based food product intake
human milk based food product consumption avoidance
human milk based food product restricted diet intake
human milk based food product restriction
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of cow milk based food product.
avoid cow milk based food product intake
avoiding dietary cow milk based food product intake
cow milk based food product consumption avoidance
cow milk based food product restricted diet intake
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of fruit (raw).
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of chicken egg (shell off, raw).
avoid chicken egg (shell off, raw) intake
avoiding dietary chicken egg (shell off, raw) intake
chicken egg (shell off, raw) consumption avoidance
chicken egg (shell off, raw) restricted diet intake
chicken egg (shell off, raw) restriction
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of fruit juice food product.
avoiding dietary fruit juice food product intake
fruit juice food product consumption avoidance
fruit juice food product restricted diet intake
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of sugar cane juice (pure).
avoiding dietary sugar cane juice (pure) intake
sugar cane juice (pure) consumption avoidance
sugar cane juice (pure) restricted diet intake
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of animal organ by physiological system.
animal organ by physiological system consumption avoidance
animal organ by physiological system restricted diet intake
animal organ by physiological system restriction
avoid animal organ by physiological system intake
avoiding dietary animal organ by physiological system intake
dietary animal organ by physiological system intake avoidance
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of isoleucine.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of arginine.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of lysine.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of methionine.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of glycine.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of phenylalanine.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of tyrosine.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of sodium atom.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of galactose.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of cholesterol.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of iron atom.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of ascorbic acid.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of branched-chain amino acid.
avoid branched chain amino acids ingestion
avoiding dietary branched-chain amino acid intake
branched chain amino acid intake avoidance
branched-chain amino acid consumption avoidance
branched-chain amino acid restricted diet intake
dietary branched-chain amino acid intake avoidance
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of trimethylamine.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of choline.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of trimethylamine N-oxide.
avoiding dietary trimethylamine N-oxide intake
trimethylamine N-oxide consumption avoidance
trimethylamine N-oxide restricted diet intake
dietary trimethylamine N-oxide intake avoidance
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of lecithin.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of sterol.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of purine.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of fructose.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of lactose.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of leucine.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of oxalate.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of phosphate.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of saturated fatty acid.
avoiding dietary saturated fatty acid intake
saturated fatty acid consumption avoidance
saturated fatty acid restricted diet intake
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of calcium atom.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of sucrose.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of triglyceride.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of riboflavin.
A medical requirement or recommendation of avoiding the consumption of phytanic acid.
Use of agent or drug to regulate reproduction.
treatment with reproductive control drug
The use of an agent or drug to interupt pregnancy after implantation.
Use of drug or agent to suppress uterine contractions thereby suppressing premature labor and birth.
Use of a drug or agent to prevent or reduce probability of contraception.
Use of drug or agent with contraceptive activity in females.
treatment with female contraceptive drug
Use of a compound or agent to block ovulation and prevent occurance of pregnancy.
The use of these drugs or agents have many other uses beyond pregnancy control.
Collection biological material from within the tongue with a cotton swab for use in clinical tests.
A method of ultrasound imaging in which the ultrasound probe is pressed against the skin of the abdomen in order to create an image of the abdominal organs.
The use of ultrasound to produce images of structures in the body of uterus.
body of uterus ultrasound imaging procedure
The use of ultrasound to produce images of structures in the breast.
The use of ultrasound to produce images of structures in the heart.
The use of ultrasound to produce images of structures in the liver.
The use of ultrasound to produce images of structures in the lung.
The use of ultrasound to produce images of structures in the lymph node.
The use of ultrasound to produce images of structures in the musculoskeletal system.
musculoskeletal system diagnostic sonography
musculoskeletal system medical ultrasound
musculoskeletal system ultrasound examination
musculoskeletal system ultrasound imaging procedure
musculoskeletal system ultrasound procedure
ultrasonography of musculoskeletal system
The use of ultrasound to produce images of structures in the neck.
The use of ultrasound to produce images of structures in the pancreas.
The use of ultrasound to produce images of structures in the rectum.
The use of ultrasound to produce images of structures in the scrotum.
The use of ultrasound to produce images of structures in the spleen.
The use of ultrasound to produce images of structures in the stomach.
The use of ultrasound to produce images of structures in the thyroid gland.
thyroid gland ultrasound imaging procedure
The use of ultrasound to produce images of structures in the urinary bladder.
urinary bladder ultrasound imaging procedure
The use of ultrasound to produce images of structures in the vagina.
The use of ultrasound to produce images of structures in the kidney.
The use of ultrasound to produce images of structures in the carotid artery segment.
carotid artery segment diagnostic sonography
carotid artery segment medical ultrasound
carotid artery segment ultrasound examination
carotid artery segment ultrasound imaging procedure
carotid artery segment ultrasound procedure
ultrasonography of carotid artery segment
The use of ultrasound to produce images of structures in the pelvic region of trunk.
pelvic region of trunk diagnostic sonography
pelvic region of trunk medical ultrasound
pelvic region of trunk ultrasound examination
pelvic region of trunk ultrasound imaging procedure
pelvic region of trunk ultrasound procedure
ultrasonography of pelvic region of trunk
The use of ultrasound to produce images of structures in the prostate gland.
prostate gland ultrasound imaging procedure
The use of ultrasound to produce images of structures in the brain.
Collection biological material from within the rectum with a cotton swab for use in clinical tests.
Collection biological material from within the vagina with a cotton swab for use in clinical tests.
Collection biological material from within the buccal mucosa with a cotton swab for use in clinical tests.
Collection biological material from within the nasal turbinal with a cotton swab for use in clinical tests.
Collection biological material from within the nasopharynx with a cotton swab for use in clinical tests.
Collection biological material from within the zone of skin with a cotton swab for use in clinical tests.
Collection biological material from within the oropharynx with a cotton swab for use in clinical tests.
Collection biological material from within the external naris with a cotton swab for use in clinical tests.
Collection biological material from within the throat with a cotton swab for use in clinical tests.
The use of computed tomography to produce images of structures of the abdomen.
The use of computed tomography to produce images of structures of the head.
The use of computed tomography to produce images of structures of the liver.
The use of computed tomography to produce images of structures of the lung.
The use of computed tomography to produce images of structures of the neck.
The use of computed tomography to produce images of structures of the brain.
The use of computed tomography to produce images of structures of the chest.
The use of computed tomography to produce images of structures of the skull.
The use of computed tomography to produce images of structures of the blood vasculature.
blood vasculature computerized axial tomography
The use of computed tomography to produce images of structures of the pulmonary vascular system.
pulmonary vascular system CT examination
pulmonary vascular system computed tomography
pulmonary vascular system computerized axial tomography
Avoid the administration or use of computed tomography procedure.
Avoid the administration or use of ketogenic diet intake.
Use of an imaging test that uses small amounts of radiation to produce pictures of abdomen.
Use of an imaging test that uses small amounts of radiation to produce pictures of head.
Use of an imaging test that uses small amounts of radiation to produce pictures of liver.
Use of an imaging test that uses small amounts of radiation to produce pictures of lung.
Use of an imaging test that uses small amounts of radiation to produce pictures of neck.
Use of an imaging test that uses small amounts of radiation to produce pictures of chest.
The X-ray examination of the lower limbs of the body.
obsolete pulmonary angiography procedure
The radiographic examination of the tracheobronchial tree following the injection of a radiopaque material.
tracheobronchial tree radiogram procedure
The radiographic examination of the bile ducts after a contrast medium has been injected.
A radiographic procedure to obtain an image of the urinary bladder by filling the bladder with contrast medium.
A type of radiography used specifically to examine breast tissue. The procedure utilizes a low-dose of x-rays or radiation to generate an image. A mammography exam or mammogram, is used as a screening tool to detect early breast cancer in women experiencing no symptoms and to detect and diagnose breast disease.
The radiographic examination of the spinal cord and nerve roots following the injection of a contrast medium into the spinal subarachnoid space. The X-rays taken may highlight conditions such as spinal tumors, spinal cord swelling and herniated discs.
A radiologic test that involves the examination of the entire body in a single procedure.
total body radiography procedure
A radiographic examination of the vagina using the intravaginal injection of contrast medium.
Intravenous infusion with coagulation factor VIII.
Deficiency of the coagulation cofactor factor VIII (FVIII) leads to the X‐chromosomal inherited bleeding disorder hemophilia A. Current therapy for hemophilia is based on the infusion of clotting factor concentrates either at the time of bleeding (on demand therapy) or in a prophylactic schedule to prevent bleeding episodes.
coagulation factor VIII replacement therapy
Intravenous infusion with coagulation factor IX.
Deficiency of the coagulation cofactor factor IX (FIX) leads to the X‐chromosomal inherited bleeding disorder hemophilia B. Current therapy for hemophilia is based on the infusion of clotting factor concentrates either at the time of bleeding (on demand therapy) or in a prophylactic schedule to prevent bleeding episodes.
coagulation factor IX replacement therapy
Intravenous infusion with von Willibrand factor.
von Willebrand factor replacement therapy
A quantitative measurement of protein present in a cerebrospinal fluid sample.
Dual-Energy X-Ray Absorptiometry (DEXA) is performed using a C-arm with the x-ray source below the supine patient emitting photons at 2 distinct energy levels specific for soft tissue and cortical bone. A collimator is situated between the patient and the x-ray source to minimize scatter. The attenuations from these low- and high-energy photon emissions are detected above the patient and are combined to create a planar image to assess bone mass per unit of area (g/square cm) to determine bone mineral density (BMD). DEXA may be indicated as a tool to measure regional and whole-body fat and lean mass, such as in patients with malabsorption, cancer, or eating disorders.
Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry procedure
A diagnostic test in which radiopharmaceuticals are taken internally and the emitted gamma radiation is captured by gamma cameras.
In vitro, freshly excised airway epithelial tissues can be studied in Ussing chambers, and when the transepithelial electric potential difference (PD) is clamped to zero (short-circuited), basal patterns of ion transport can be directly determined by isotopic measurements of the transepithelial flux of specific electrolytes, including Na+ and Cl- ions. Thus, there are defined correlates of ion flux and bioelectric parameters of active ion transport and tissue (barrier) resistance. Because the PD generated by the airway epithelium reflects the relationship between the magnitude and direction of the net transepithelial active ion transport and the epithelial ion conductance, the transepithelial PD (voltage) serves as an index of ion transport and ionic conductances (permeability). Individuals with cystic fibrosis have a characteristic pattern of bioelectric properties which reflect accelerated Na+ transport (absorption), and (absent) or reduced Cl- secretion.
Transepithelial nasal potential difference measurement
A diagnostic test that measures the compliance (mobility) of the tympanic membrane and middle ear system by varying air pressure in the ear canal. Tympanometry provides useful quantitative information about the presence of fluid in the middle ear, mobility of the middle ear system, and ear canal volume. Its use has been recommended in conjunction with more qualitative information (e.g., history, appearance, and mobility of the tympanic membrane) in the evaluation of otitis media with effusion and to a lesser extent in acute otitis media. It also can provide useful information about the patency of tympanostomy tubes.
The tilt test is commonly used for evaluation of orthostatic syndromes and dysautonomia. Tilt test evaluates autonomic system responses to orthostatic stress induced by having the patient lie flat on a special table that creates a change in posture from lying to standing while the patient is being monitored with ECG and a blood pressure monitor that measure continuous, beat to beat, non-invasively. Established tilt testing includes monitoring of heart rate and blood pressure; adding capnography and cerebral blood flow monitoring expands its diagnostic yield and allows assessing cerebral blood flow regulation.
The forearm ischemic exercise test (FIET) is a very important clinical tool for evaluation of patients suspected to have a metabolic disorder of muscle function. Failure to elevate lactate in blood washed out from ischemically exercised muscles confirms an abnormality of glycolytic metabolism. A normal increase of lactate on FIET is assumed to rule out a disorder of glycolytic metabolism. To perform the test, a blood pressure cuff is inflated on the arm to induce ischemia while the patient repeatedly contracts the forearm muscles for several minutes. Blood samples are drawn at baseline and at several time points after exercise.
The autonomic nervous system is the part of the nervous system that is responsible for regulation and integration of internal organs’ functioning. Most of the tests are based on evaluation of the cardiovascular reflexes triggered by performing specific provocative manoeuvres. Stimuli that raise blood pressure, such as isometric exercise, cold pressor test or mental arithmetic, activate mainly sympathetic outflow. Moreover, blood pressure responses to orthostatic testing and Valsalva manoeuvre are in a large part a reflection of sympathetic activity. Changes in heart rate during orthostatic testing and Valsalva manoeuvre, as well as during deep breathing or diving reflex, reflect parasympathetic modulation.
autonomic nervous system function evaluation
Noninvasive quantitative measurements of the body. The core elements of anthropometry are height, weight, head circumference, body mass index (BMI), body circumferences to assess for adiposity (waist, hip, and limbs), and skinfold thickness.
A diagnostic test that measures how well platelets clump (aggregate) in response to a stimulaus. Light transmittance platelet aggregometry (LTA) in platelet‐rich plasma measures changes in light transmission as platelets aggregate. Impedance aggregometry measures changes in electrical impedance as platelets aggregate.
A quantitative measurement of metabolites present in the cytoplasm of erythrocytes.
A type of scintigraphy and medical isotopes to evaluate the circulation of air and blood within a patient's lungs, in order to determine the ventilation/perfusion ratio.
Measurement of absorption of light energy (a photon) by an indicator followed by the emission of some of this light energy (as another photon) a few nanoseconds later.
Determination of the osmolality in the circulation. Serum osmolality reflects the concentration of solutes (like sodium, glucose, urea) in the blood and is an important marker of body fluid balance.
A laboratory test that measures the ability of immune cells (e.g., cytotoxic T cell or natural killer cells) to kill target cells.
A type of MRI of the cervical spine designed to assess cervial myelopathy. Static views are taken with the neck in the neutral position and the mandible nearly perpendicular to the horizontal plane. To obtain the flexion/extension views, patients are instructed to perform the maximally tolerated flexion and extension actions of the neck in a non–weight-bearing position with supporting sponges placed under the head and shoulders.
A diagnostic procedure whereby histamine is injected into a local of the skin. This causes wheal and flare when they are injected intradermally into normal subjects and may therefore play a role in the formation of urticaria.
This response may be absent in individuals with certin types of hereditary sensory and autonomic neuropathy.
A measurement of how well the small intestine absorbs D-xylose by analyzing the amount excreted in the urine after ingestion.
The standard 25-g D-xylose test in adults, based on analysis of 5-h urine collection and a 1-h serum sample, discriminates between normal subjects and patients with proximal small intestinal malabsorption.
A measurement of the activity levels of the different complexes of the mitochondrial electron transport chain.
mitochondrial complex activity assessment
Photodynamic therapy (PDT) is based on the local or systemic application of a photosensitive compound, a photosensitizer. The pheotosensitizer is activated by light and accumulates in pathological tissues. The photosensitizer molecules absorb the light of the appropriate wavelength, initiating the activation processes leading to the selective destruction of the inappropriate cells. The photocytotoxic reactions occur only within the pathological tissues, in the area of photosensitizer distribution, enabling selective destruction.
Any procedure associated with treatments involving the heart or blood vessels.
A procedure that blocks the blood supply to a specific area, often a tumor or abnormal tissue, by intentionally obstructing an artery. Small particles made of tiny gelatin sponges or similar material are injected into a catheter, leading to blocakge of the artery or abnormal area of tissue.
Arterial embolization is used to treat some types of liver cancer, kidney cancer, and neuroendocrine tumors. It may also be used to treat uterine fibroids, aneurysms, and other conditions. Also called TAE and transarterial embolization.
A type of therapy used in metabolic diseases characterized by reduced activity of a metabolic enzyme. Substrate reduction therapy (SRT) aims to reduce the amount of substrate influx to that enyzme.
An example is Gaucher disease, in which SRT aims to reduce the influx of glucocerebroside or glucosylceramide (GLC) influx into the lysosome by inhibiting the GLC-synthase enzyme, resulting in a reduction of the amount of GLC present. This is in contrast to enzyme replacement therapy, which works by supplementing the deficient or defective acid beta glucosidase to break down GLC into glucose and ceramide, which accumulates in macrophages in the absence of acid beta glucosidase.PMID:27559188
A type of antisense oligonucleotide therapy that is administered in the cerebrospinal fluid (i.e., intrathecally).
intrathecal antisense oligonucleotide inhibitor therapy
A medical procedure consisting of the deliberate lowering of a patient's body temperature for purposes such as protecting vital organs or reducing brain damage.
Therapeutic hypothermia is used in clinical situations including refractory status epilepticus.PMID:32330677
Measurement of the activity of amount of an enzyme within the blood circulation.
The determination of the amount of antibody directed against a specific target in the blood circulation. The sample is serially diluted, and the highest dilution at which a positive result is obtained is recorded as the titer (e.g., 1:40).
A diagnostic procedure using computed tomography (CT) in which a radiocontrast is administered in order to increase the contrast between a lesion and the normal surrounding structures.
contrast-enhanced computed tomography procedure
A diagnostic procedure used to measure the electrical activity of the nervous system either spontaneously or in response to stimuli.
A type of neurophysiological assessment that measures the electrical responses of the nervous system to sensory stimuli.
Magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS) utilizes clinical MR scanners to noninvasively quantify in vivo brain biochemical metabolites, including N-acetyl-aspartate (NAA), creatine (Cr), choline (Cho), glutamate and glutamine (Glx), and myo-inositol (mI).
A type of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) procedure in which gadolinium or other contrast agent to improve the clarity and detail of MRI images.
This term can be combined with organ-specific MRI terms.
contrast-enhanced magnetic resonance imaging procedure
A laboratory test in which cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is inoculated into culture media to assess whether infection-causing microorganisms (bacteria or fungi) are present.
A quantitative measurement of ion concentration in a cerebrospinal fluid sample.
A medical examination performed using of magnetic resonance imaging to image the cervicomedullary junction, i.e., the region that spans the lower brainstem and upper cervical spinal cord.
The lower urinary tract (LUT) consists of the bladder and urethra and allows for the low-pressure storage of urine with conscious control of micturition. Urodynamics is the measurement of the relevant physiological parameters of the LUT to assess its function and dysfunction. The test involves noninvasive evaluation of bladder emptying, and invasive assessments of bladder storage function and bladder emptying function.
The investigation of synovial fluid, the collection of fluid confined within a joint space. Synovial fluid is physiologic, and acts as a joint space lubricant of articular cartilage, and nutrient source through diffusion for surrounding structures including cartilage, meniscus, labrum, etc. Arthrocentesis is the process by which synovial fluid collection occurs by penetrating the joint space through aspiration.
Panoramic radiography is an extraoral radiography modality that provides two-dimensional information about the teeth and the maxillofacial skeleton.
Measurement of characterisitc of the umbilical artery flow such as end-diastolic umbilical artery flow and umbilical artery pulsatility index (PI) by fetal Doppler ultrasound.
Elevated PI may indicate increased resistance in placental circulation with the risk of reduced oxygen and nutrient delivery to the fetus.
umbilical artery doppler sonography assessment
Any surgical procedure conducted on the cardiovascular system.
cardiovascular system surgical procedure
surgical procedure on cardiovascular system
Any surgical procedure conducted on the nasolacrimal duct.
A surgical procedure to correct strabismus in the eye.
The ketogenic diet is a high-fat, low-carbohydrate, adequate-protein diet that mimics a fasting state, resulting in the substitution of ketone bodies as a source of energy. The ketogenic diet can be used to reduce recurrent epileptic seizures in individuals with intractable epilepsy. Intractable epilepsy is defined as epilepsy that failed to respond to three or more antiepileptic drugs.
medium-chain triglyceride(s) (MCT) ketogenic diet intake
ketogenic diet intake
Texture-modified foods and thickened drinks used to reduce the risks of choking and aspiration for individuals with oropharyngeal incoordination or dysphagia.
thickness modification of food and fluid for ingestion
texture modified diet intake
obsolete phenylalanine restricted diet intake
Supplementation of uncooked cornstarch intended to prevent hepatomegaly and hypoglycemia, typically for individuals with irregular hepatic glycogen storage. Supplementation can include both regular cornstarch and extended release cornstarch.
uncooked cornstarch supplementation
Use of an imaging test that uses small amounts of radiation to produce pictures of manus.
A procedure whre the radiographic film or sensor is placed inside the mouth and uses small amounts of radiation to produce pictures of teeth and other oral structures.
intraoral radiography
A technique to visualize the blood vessels in the back of the eye by injecting fluorescent dye and then imaging it.
fluorescein angiography
A visualization of the fundus of the eye including the retina and optic nerve with a fundoscope, a device that projects light through the pupil of the eye and visualizes the fundus with magnification.
fundoscopy
A quantitative measurement of a particular hormone present in a blood sample.
Use of an imaging test that uses small amounts of radiation to produce pictures of pes.
Analysis of a cerebrospinal fluid sample.
Use of an imaging test that uses small amounts of radiation to produce pictures of shoulder.
Measurement of the functionality of an enzyme.
A test that measures all areas of your eyesight including peripheral vision.
A medical examination performed using of magnetic resonance imaging to image the spinal cord.
Nuclear magnetic resonance imaging of the spinal cord
A test to determine the smallest letters a patient can clearly see.
Microscopic examination of the hair (also called hair microscopy) is an inexpensive tool that may aid in the diagnosis of systemic disorders as the appearance, structure, and/or growth of hair are modified in various congenital and acquired diseases. (PMID:34843009)
Measurement of the functionality of an enzyme derived from leukocytes.
Measurement of the functionality of an enzyme derived from erythrocytes.
Measurement of the functionality of an enzyme derived from a particular tissue
A test that measures the ability of the blood to bind iron.
A quantitative measurement of metabolites present in a particular tissue.
A type of CT where the image resolution is enhanced to look at lung disease.
high-resolution pulmonary computed tomography
A test that measures DNA damage/breakage in patient cells. DNA damage repair plays an important role in cancer initiation and progression, and in therapeutic resistance.
A quantitative measurement of immunoglobulins present in a blood sample.
A test that measures the amount of oxygen, carbon dioxide, and pH in the blood of the umbilical cord.
blood gas assessment in umbilical cord blood
This test is used to measure the amount of L-Selectin (CD62L) shed from the surface of neutrophils before and after stimulation of the TLR pathway. The test can help identify patients with defects in their toll-like receptor signalling pathway and can be used to diagnose IRAK-4, MyD88 and UNC93B deficiency. (NHS)
A quantitative measurement of metabolites present in a cerebrospinal fluid sample.
cerebrospinal fluid metabolite measurement
The time an indigestible, non-absorbable markers takes to be excreted.
A quantitative measurement of xenobiotics (a chemical foreign to the body) present in a stool sample.
A quantitative measurement of xenobiotics (a chemical foreign to the body) present in gastric fluid.
A quantitative measurement of xenobiotics (a chemical foreign to the body) present in a hair sample.
A medical examination performed using of magnetic resonance imaging to image the bony pelvis.
Nuclear magnetic resonance imaging of the bony pelvis
Use of an imaging test that uses small amounts of radiation to produce pictures of lymphatic part of lymphoid system.
lymphatic part of lymphoid system X-ray procedure
lymphatic part of lymphoid system radiogram procedure
radiograph of lymphatic part of lymphoid system
radiography of lymphatic part of lymphoid system
A laboratory test in which blood, taken from the patient, is inoculated into bottles containing culture media to determine whether infection-causing microorganisms (bacteria or fungi) are present in the patient's bloodstream.
Inspection of stomach using an endoscope.
An x-ray of blood vessels after a contrast dye is added intraveniously.
contrast angiography procedure
Is an imaging procedure often using a specific contrast dye for evaluation of pelvic floor, anorectal muscle contractions and relaxation (sphincters), and certain structural abnormalities.
defecography
A procedure where fluid is removed from the abdomen using a needle.
A comprehensive set of tests designed to assess all aspects of a child's development, including cognition, language, motor, and social skills.
Inspection of duodenum using an endoscope.
Use of an imaging test that uses small amounts of radiation to produce pictures of forelimb.
The use of computed tomography to produce images of structures of the heart.
A motility study to assess motor function of the upper esophageal sphincter, esophageal body and lower esophageal sphincter.
A quantitative measurement of metabolites present in a stool sample.
A radiographic examination of the upper gastrointestinal tract in which the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum are made visible by barium or a water-soluble contrast administered orally prior to the examination.
contrast examination of the upper gastrointestinal tract
upper GI radiography with contrast
A combined endoscopic and fluoroscopic procedure in which an upper endoscope is led into a second part of the duodenum, making it possible for passage of other tools via the major duodenal papilla into the biliary and pancreatic ducts. Contrast material may be injected in these ducts, allowing for radiologic visualization and therapeutic interventions when indicated.
endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
Use of an imaging test that uses small amounts of radiation to produce pictures of vertebral column.
A medical examination performed using of magnetic resonance imaging to image the muscle organ.
Nuclear magnetic resonance imaging of the muscle organ
Use of an imaging test that uses small amounts of radiation to produce pictures of hip.
The use of ultrasound to produce images of structures in the ovary.
Assessment of the degree or kind of protein glycosylation (covalent attachment of a carbohydrate moiety to a protein).
A technique for counting, examining and sorting microscopic particles suspended in a stream of fluid. NCIT:C16585
Reproductive endocrinology and infertility is a surgical subspecialty of obstetrics and gynecology that trains physicians in reproductive medicine addressing hormonal functioning as it pertains to reproduction as well as the issue of infertility.
A quantitative measurement of a particular hormone present in a sample.
A test to determine the electrical conduction of the motor and sensory nerves of the human body.
The time taken for neural impulses to travel through the central nervous system on their way to the target muscles. PMID: 24112910
The use of computed tomography to produce images of structures of the bony pelvis.
bony pelvis computerized axial tomography
A quantitative measurement of a particular hormone present in a sample of urine.
A technique that combines EEG and EMG to assess myoclonus; it use electromyography (EMG) electrodes for the arms or legs, and correlates averaged EEG responses with EMG bursts used as a trigger. PMID: 1464676
The transmission electron microscope (TEM) is a diagnostic tool to screen human tissues at high magnification to visualize the ultrastructural level.
A procedure where a dental professional who was not previously involved in a patient's treatment, reviews a patient's medical history, examines the patient, and makes recommendations as to care and treatment.
Measurement of somatosensory evoked potentials (SEPs), which reflect the electrical activity of the brain that results from the stimulation of touch. SEP monitoring may be employed intraoperatively to identify, and ideally, avoid impending permanent damage to neurologic structures. PMID: 31335078
somatosensory evoked potential assessment
In the perchlorate discharge test, first radioactive iodine is administered, sufficient time is allowed to pass so that the radioactive iodine is captured by the thyroid, and then, perchlorate is administered orally. The perchlorate displaces non-organified iodide from the thyroid. The perchlorate discharge test is considered positive (abnormal) if there is an abnormally rapid loss of radioactive iodine from the thyroid.
An assay of the physiology of natural killer (NK) cells.
Dysmorphology refers to the study of human congenital malformations and syndromes. A dysmorphology evaluation includes an assessment of facial features and also features of the entire body especially with respect to manifestations of hereditary (Mendelian) disease).
The determination of the amount of reactive oxygen species present in the sample.
A determination of the structure of leukocyte.
A determination of the structure of megakaryocyte.
Use of an imaging test that uses small amounts of radiation to produce pictures of ankle joint.
Quantification of sperm cell characteristics, including morphology, motility, and number.
A complement test is a blood test that measures the activity of one or more proteins that make up the complement system in blood circulation.
The test measures the T cell responses to antigens of common infections as well as to mitogens, allowing detection of deficiencies in this arm of the immune response.
A complete evaluation of the respiratory system including patient history, physical examinations, and tests of pulmonary function. The primary purpose of pulmonary function testing is to identify the severity of pulmonary impairment.
Examination by a doctor who specializes in the care of newborn babies.
A test to determine if cells are undergoing programmed cell death.
A contrast-enhanced radiographic study commonly used to assess structural characteristics of the entire esophagus.
barium swallow radiograph procedure
Computed tomography (CT) examination of the kidneys, ureters and bladder following administration of intravenous contrast material.
Determination of serum uric acid following the administration of an oral bolus of fructose to assess the ability of an individual to digest fructose.
Use of an imaging test that uses small amounts of radiation to produce pictures of cervical region of vertebral column.
cervical region of vertebral column X-ray procedure
cervical region of vertebral column radiogram procedure
radiograph of cervical region of vertebral column
radiography of cervical region of vertebral column
The use of ultrasound to produce images of structures in the artery.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from the peripheral nerve for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
ganglion of peripheral nervous system biopsy
A procedure that uses radio waves and a powerful magnet linked to a computer to create detailed pictures of the blood vessels and blood flow inside the body. A dye may be injected into a vein to make the blood vessels and blood flow easier to see. (NCI)
magnetic resonance angiography procedure
Inspection of nasal vestibule using an endoscope.
An imaging procedure in which a radioactive tracer is injected intravenously. The tracer is taken up by bile producing cells and subsequently travels with the bile into the gallbladder and through the bile ducts to the small intestine. THe hepatobiliary iminodiacetic acid (HIDA) scan can be used to visualize the liver, gallbladder and bile ducts.
Electromyography (EMG) is a diagnostic procedure that evaluates the muscle response to electrical impulses from the nerves that control them, called motor neurons. The test is used to help detect neuromuscular abnormalities. It is usually performed after a nerve conduction study.
A kind of renal function test that assesses the proportion of electrolytes that are retained (or excreted) by the kidney (primarily the renal tubule).
A measurement of the speed at which red blood cells in anticoagulated whole blood descend in a standardized tube in one hour. Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate is a nonspecific sign of inflammation.
erythrocyte sedimentation rate measurement
An assessment of how well platelets aggregate (clump together) in the process of blood clotting.
Radiographic examination of veins following injection of contrast material.
venography procedure
The hydrogen breath test is a noninvasive procedure to diagnose dietary intolerance (e.g., lactose or galactose intolerance) and related conditions by measuring the amount of hydrogen exhaled in the breath following ingestion of the relevant sugar.
An evaluation of the visual pathway of the nervous system by means of analysis of electrical waves measured by electrodes that are applied to the head.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from artery for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
The electroretinogram (ERG) is a diagnostic test that measures the electrical activity of the retina in response to a light stimulus.
A test that applied electric or magnetic stimulation to the neck to measure the response of the phrenic nerve.
The water deprivation test, also known as the indirect water deprivation test should potentially be able to distinguish the various forms of DI. Deprivation of water intake should allow patients with primary polydipsia to concentrate their urine while those with central or nephrogenic DI continue to excrete dilute urine. Administration of desmopressin (Deamino-8-D-arginine vasopressin), the synthetic analog of AVP, after water deprivation should help with differentiating patients with central DI from those with nephrogenic DI as the former should be able to concentrate the urine once the deficient action of AVP is replaced with desmopressin, while the latter should not show a significant response due to end-organ resistance to the action of AVP or its analogs. PMID:30779536
A vision test that determines the presence of myopia, hyperopia, or astigmatism.
A neurophysiological examination that monitors the corticospinal tract beginning with a stimulus at the motor cortex, which travels along the corticospinal tract of the spinal cord to the nerve root, and then the peripheral nerve before terminating in a muscle belly. PMID:35593855
A determination of the amount of protein present in blood
A procedure that removes peritoneal fluid from the abdomen (peritoneal cavity) through a needle or catheter to obtain ascitic fluid for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes.
Removal and examination of tissue, cells, or fluids from carotid artery segment for the purpose of detecting or characterizing disease.
A quantitative measurement of the amount of an electrolyte present in sweat.
An assay to assess the presence of immune complexes in the blood circulation.
A medical test that evaluates the ability to taste. The tests are either chemical or electrical in nature. Chemical testing uses the natural stimuli and chemical tastants (sweet, sour, salty, bitter, and umami) to assess taste, whereas electrical testing adopts electrical currents applied directly to the surface of the tongue. Other investigations are employed in the assessment of gustatory dysfunction, such as certain imaging techniques, though these are not as useful in quantifying taste disorders. PMID:33620811
A type of electron microscopy in which a beam of electrons is transmitted through a thin section in order to visualize the internal structures of platelets.
platelet transmission electron microscopy
Measurement of peripheral blood lymphocyte response following stimulation to assess the degree of functionality of the cell-mediated immune response. A variety of tests exist to measure intracellular ATP levels, proliferation, and other functional responses.
A type of cerebral magnetic resonance (MR) imaging that measures random Brownian motion of water molecules within each voxel of imaged brain tissue.
A type of cardiac test in which the patient walks on a treadmill or rides a stationary bike, while cardiovascular parameters such as heart rhythm, blood pressure and breathing are measured.
A procedure in which a catheter (thin hollow tube) is threaded into the heart via a large blood vessel, generally with contrast dye being injected through the catheter to visualize the heart chambers and coronary arteries.
A form of Doppler ultrasound examination that examines blood vessels and blood flow.
duplex ultrasound with color flow imaging
Investigation of heart sounds with a stethoscope.
An electrophysiologic test that measures the existing resting electrical potential between the cornea and Bruch's membrane. The most common use of the electrooculogram is to confirm disease.
Test for viral infection based on cytopathic effect and/or antibody staining.
A change of place or position of part of an organism that does not involve the entire organism [NBO:SMAC]
The act of moving any of the tissues and hard structures surrounding the mouth other than teeth, jaws or filter structures [NBO:AC]
Behavior directly related to the production of offspring [NBO:AC]
reproduction
Male's insertion of sperm-transfer organ into the body of the female [NBO:SMAC]
copulate
The act of repeated grinding, tearing, and or crushing with teeth or jaws [NBO:SMAC]
chew
gnaw
Example: moving head to watch passing object.
"The action, reaction, or performance of an organism in response to external or internal stimuli." [GO:GO\:0007610]
Sensations arising from the internal organs (the viscera), such as pain or the sense of fullness of the stomach or bladder, may therefore be included, although they are usually considered separately as visceral sensations. Pain arising from the viscera is often felt as though it comes from some part of the body surface or underlying tissue.
"Movement behavior of the body or its parts."
"The coordination of combinations of body movements created with the kinematic (such as spatial direction) and kinetic (force) parameters that result in intended actions." [wikipedia:Motor_coordination]
"Behavior related to how the body reacts to a stressor ( a stimulus that causes stress), real or imagined." [wikipedia:Stress_(biological)]
It refers to the consequence of the failure of an organism to respond adequately to mental, emotional or physical demands, whether actual or imagined.
consumption behavior
consumption of an addictive substance
smoking behavior
Any habitual use of the tobacco plant leaf and its products.
tobacco consumption
cannabis consumption
ducks, geese, chickens, fowl, quail, currasows and allies
non-protein amino acid accumulating clade
Zea mays subsp. saccharata (Sturtev.) Zhuk., 1950
Zea mays var. saccharata (Sturtev.) L.H.Bailey, 1902
Arachis hypogaea subsp. fastigiata var. aequatoriana
A process that realizes a plan which is the concretization of a plan specification.
Is a material entity that is created or changed during material processing.
processed material
A plan is a realizable entity that is the inheres in a bearer who is committed to realizing it as a planned process.
plan
An image creation device is a device which captures a digitized image of an object
A needle is a sharp, hollow device used to penetrate tissue or soft material. When attached to a syringe. it allows delivery of a specific volume of liquid or gaseous mixture.
A planned process with the objective to obtain a material entity for potential use as an input upon which measurements or observations are performed.
A device in which a measure function inheres.
a specimen that was taken from a live organism
A material entity that is designed to perform a function in a scientific investigation, but is not a reagent.
An image acquisition device that generates a three-dimensional image of the inside of an object from a large series of two-dimensional X-ray images taken around a single axis of rotation.
A specimen that derives from an anatomical part or substance arising from an organism. Examples of tissue specimen include tissue, organ, physiological system, blood, or body location (arm).
A specimen that has been established to be taken from a live (pre-mortem) or dead (post-mortem) organism.
specimen with pre- or post-mortem status
A specimen collection process that uses a swab as the collection device. A swab is an absorbent material (e.g. cotton) on a rod (e.g., wooden stick).
A specimen collection that obtains a sample of tissue or cell from a living multicellular organism body for diagnostic purposes by means intended to be minimally invasive.
A biopsy which uses an imaging procedure to guide a needle biopsy.
A needle biopsy guided by real-time computed tomography (CT) scan images.
A needle biopsy guided by ultrasound visualization.
A biopsy that uses a hollow needle to extract cells.
A biopsy that uses a thin needle to extract cells.
A biopsy that uses a hollow tube to collect a core of tissue.
A biopsy involving a surgical incision into an organism to access the biopsy material.
A material entity that is an individual living system, such as animal, plant, bacteria or virus, that is capable of replicating or reproducing, growth and maintenance in the right environment. An organism may be unicellular or made up, like humans, of many billions of cells divided into specialized tissues and organs.
A material entity that is collected for potential use as an input upon which measurements or observations are performed.
specimen
a process with the objective to obtain a material entity that was part of an organism for potential future use in an investigation
collecting specimen from organism
A dependent entity that inheres in a bearer by virtue of how the bearer is related to other entities
A single physical entity inhering in an bearer by virtue of the bearer's quantities or relative ratios of subparts.
For example calcium composition (which may inhere in bone), haemoglobin composition (which may inhere in blood).
A time quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's expected maximum age.
A quality of a single physical entity inhering in the bearer by virtue of the bearer's size or shape or structure.
A morphological quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's ratios of distances between its features (points, edges, surfaces and also holes etc).
Shapes are invariant on size transformations. Shapes can be subdivided into 2D and 3D shapes, We can also make a distinction between shapes of complete self-connected objects, and shapes of parts of objects.
A quality of a single process inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's occurrence.
A spatial quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's exhibiting repetition of placement of its parts.
A quality of an entity that is descriptive or observational, typically not represented numerically.
TODO: define this or obsolete it and move children somewhere else.
A quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the whether the bearer differs from normal or average.
The number of entities of this type that are part of the whole organism.
This term was originally named "presence". It has been renamed to reduce ambiguity. Consider annotating with the reciprocal relation,PATO:0001555, has_number_of. For example, rather than E=fin ray Q=count in organism C=10, say E=organism Q=has number of E2= fin ray C=10.
A morphology quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's physical magnitude.
A 1-D extent quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's vertical dimension of extension.
A physical quality that inheres in a bearer by virtue of the proportion of the bearer's amount of matter.
For any biological use of PATO, the concept that should be used is 'mass' and not 'weight'. For example, increased weight of an organism.
A morphological quality pertaining to the degree to which an object contains an opening, aperture, orifice or vent.
A morphology quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's relative position, shape, arrangements and connectivity of an organism's various parts; the pattern underlying its form.
A quality of a single process inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's occurrence per unit time.
A quality in which events occur in sequence.
A quality of a single physical entity which is held by a bearer when the latter exhibits a state of growth, differentiation, or development.
A branchiness quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's having branches.
A shape quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's being curled or wound (especially in concentric rings or spirals).
A quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's having a horizontal surface without a slope, tilt, or curvature.
A shape quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's being such that every part of the surface or the circumference is equidistant from the center.
A quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's deviation from normal or average.
A quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's exhibiting no deviation from normal or average.
A quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's existence.
A morphological quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's affording blocked passage or view.
A spheroid quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's being oval with two axes of symmetry, as produced by a conical section.
An optical quality which obtains by virtue of the ability of the bearer to absorb visible light.
A optical quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's not being clear; not transmitting or reflecting light or radiant energy.
A optical quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's lacking opacity.
A physical quality of a fluid inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's disposition to internal resistance to flow.
A viscosity quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's having viscosity.
A quality of a physical entity that exists through action of continuants at the physical level of organisation in relation to other entities.
A physical quality that inheres in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's amount of force per unit area it exerts.
A physical quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's disposition to recover its size and shape after deformation in any way.
A quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's disposition to resist to a stimulus.
An elasticity quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's ability to recover its size and shape after deformation in any way.
A resistance quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's resistance to a stimulus.
See comments of relational quality of a physical entity.
A quality which inheres in a continuant.
multiply inhering quality of a physical entity
Relational qualities are qualities that hold between multiple entities. Normal (monadic) qualities such as the shape of a eyeball exist purely as a quality of that eyeball. A relational quality such as sensitivity to light is a quality of that eyeball (and connecting nervous system) as it relates to incoming light waves/particles.
An EM radiation quality in which the EM radiation is within the fiat range of the spectrum visible deemed to be light.
A process quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's magnitude of the temporal extent between the starting and ending point.
A cellular quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's number of homologous sets of chromosomes in the nucleus or primary chromosome-containing compartment of the cell, each set essentially coding for all the biological traits of the organism.
A ploidy quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's containing a single set of homologous chromosomes.
A ploidy quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's containing more than two homologous sets of chromosomes.
A ploidy quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's containing an integral multiple of the monoploid number, possibly excluding the sex-determining chromosomes.
A ploidy quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's having two copies (homologs) of each chromosome, usually one from the mother and one from the father.
The exact number may be one or two different from the 2n number and still be classified as diploidy (although with aneuploidy). Nearly all mammals are diploid organisms, although all individuals have some small fraction of cells that are polyploidy.
A monadic quality of continuant that exists at the cellular level of organisation.
A cellular quality that arises by virtue of whether the bearer's disposition to differentiate into one or more mature cell types.
A cellular potency that is the capacity to produce only one differentiated cell type.
Unipotent cells have the quality of self-renewal which distinguishes them from non-stem cells.
A cellular potency that is the capacity to form multiple differentiated cell types of a specific lineage and lack self renewing capacity.
Less potent than multipotent, often thought of as precursor or progenitor cell status.
A cellular potency that is the capacity to form multiple differentiated cell types.
A cellular quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of bearer's number of nuclei.
A nucleate quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's having no nucleus.
A nucleate quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's having one nucleus.
A shape quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's being marked by narrow lines or grooves, usually parallel.
A composition quality inhering in an bearer by virtue of the bearer's being encrusted or impregnated with calcium carbonate (CHEBI:3311).
A quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's lacking complete growth, differentiation, or development.
A quality of a single physical entity that arises by virtue of whether the bearer exhibits the ability to perform a regular function(s).
A physical quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's exhibiting the physical characteristics of an entity consisting of particles that have neither a defined volume nor defined shape.
A physical quality inhering in an entity exhibiting the physical characteristics of an amorphous (non-crystalline) form of matter between a gas and a solid that has a definite volume, but no definite shape.
The number of parts of a particular type that the bearer entity has. This is a relational quality, and thus holds between two entities: the bearer of the quality, and the type of parts.
extra or missing physical or functional parts
A mass which is lower than normal or average.
A mass which is higher than normal or average.
A physical quality that is the ability to contract or shrink.
A surface shape quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's exhibiting a degree of bending.
A resistance to a stimulus which is relatively high.
A contractility quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's ability of contracting or being contracted.
This refers to the disposition of the bearer.
A quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's exhibiting complete growth, differentiation, or development.
A size quality inhering in an bearer by virtue of the bearer's extension in one dimension.
A physical quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's parts having the arrangement which exhibits characteristics of liquids.
A shape quality in which a portion of the outermost boundary of an entity folds in space such that a portion that was originally convex is now concave.
A shape quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's being wound in a continuous series of loops.
A quality of a single process inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's increasing over time.
A shape quality in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's curving inward.
A duration quality of a process inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's having slow progressive course of indefinite duration.
A quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's being abnormal and having a destructive effect on living tissue.
A convex 3-D shape quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's exhibiting a consistently-sized round cross section.
A shape quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's being cylindrical, in which the height is less than the diameter.
A nucleate quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's having more than one nucleus.
A structural quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's having a three dimensional cavity with a narrow or no opening, and often containing an anatomical substance.
An organismal quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's consisting cells.
A cellularity quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's consisting of more than one cell.
A quality that inheres in an entire organism or part of an organism.
Surface shape that refers to the inward or outward curvature of the surface.
A shape that inheres in a 2 dimensional entity, such as a cross section or projection of a 3 dimensional entity.
A complete three dimensional shape in which for every line connecting pair of points on the object is within the object. Or: a shape lacking cavities. Contrast: concave.
Use this term or an is_a child of this term when the entire shape of the object is known.
A shape quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the degree to which there are subdivisions or offshoots in a bearer entity.
A structural quality that inheres in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's containing hollow areas.
A concave quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's curving inward on both sides or surfaces.
A branched quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's having smaller branches arising from larger branches. Resembling a tree in branching structure.
A quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's having an empty space or cavity within.
An affinity inhering in an anatomical structure by virtue of the bearer exhibiting a molecular interaction for basic dyes under specific pH conditions.
A quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's processing the form of a thin plate sheet or layer.
A spatial quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's changed direction of position towards another entity.
A deviation quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's changed direction of position towards the side.
A quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of its constitution.
A quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's surface becoming more extended in a plane.
Becoming flat but not necessarily completely flat.
A shape that inheres in a 3 dimensional entity.
A quality that has a value that is increased compared to normal or average.
A quality that has a value that is decreased compared to normal or average.
A quality of an object that has a value that is decreased compared to normal or average.
A quality of a process that has a value that is increased compared to normal or average.
A quality of an object that has a value that is increased compared to normal or average.
A shape constituting a transition between a rectangle and a circle; a closed curve, of which the circle and ellipse are special cases, whose parametric equation is x = a.cos2/rt, y = b.cos2/rt
A temporal distribution pattern of process occurrences within a regulation/reference process.
An affinity inhering in an anatomical structure by virtue of the bearer exhibiting a molecular interaction for acidic dyes under specific pH conditions.
Eosin stains acidophilic structures, hence eosinophilic is the same as acidophilic.
Pertaining to the individual parts making up an aggregate fruit like a many-lobed "berry," such as a raspberry.
A composition quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's being composed of or possessing inorganic material.
A composition quality inhering in an bearer by virtue of the bearer's consisting of collagen.
A structure quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's being capable of swelling or stretching.
A shape quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's being marked by narrow lines or grooves, usually parallel, that are oriented transversely relative to the long axis of the bearer.
A nucleate quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the bearer's having one or more nucleus.
A structural quality inhering in the bearer by virtue of the bearer consisting of multiple structures lacking any physical connection to each other.
A quality inhering in a bearer by virtue of the extent to which the bearer is capable of being stretched or swollen.
A quality inhering in a cell by virtue of the cell having a high nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio.
A high nuclear/cytolasmic ratio is 70% or higher.
A quality of an object that has a value that is normal or average.
A life span which is relatively normal or average.
A quality of continuant that exist at the anatomical level of organisation and anything under it. This includes, but is not limited to, cells , tissues, and components.
A quality inhering in an anotomical structure by virtue of its capacity to be stained by specific histological dyes.
An affinity inhering in an anatomical structure by virtue of the bearer exhibiting a molecular interaction that stains and colors, pale-pink, with Wright-Giemsa stain.
An affinity inhering in an anatomical structure by virtue of the bearer exhibiting a molecular interaction for both basic and acid stains under specific pH conditions.
A quality of a substance on which or through which electromagnetic radiation impinges or traverses with respect to radiation. This substance quality changes the quality of the incident radiation with respect to any of: intensity, direction, scatter and wavelength.
quality of interaction of a substance with electromagnetic radiation
A quality of an entity that can be represented numerically, including anything that can be counted, measured, or given a numerical value.
A plant structure (PO:0005679) which is a whole organism.
Examples include plant embryo (PO:0009009), megagametophyte (PO:0025279) and microgametophyte (PO:0025280).
A floral structure primordium (PO:0025477) that is committed to the development of an ovule (PO:0020003).
portion of ovule primordium tissue (exact)
The transition from ovule primordium to ovule occurs when an integument (PO:0020021) begins to develop from the protoderm (PO:0006210).
A floral structure primordium (PO:0025477) that is committed to the development of a gynoecium (PO:0009062).
portion of gynoecium primordium tissue (exact)
Use carpel primordium (PO:0004703) for the primordium (PO:0025127) of an individual carpel (PO:0009030).
A shoot axis (PO:0025029) that is the most distal part of a shoot system (PO:0009006) and has as parts a shoot apical meristem (PO:0020148) and the youngest primordia (PO:0025127).
&#225pice del epiblasto (epiblastema) (Spanish, exact)
A portion of reproductive shoot apical meristem tissue (PO:0008028) that gives rise to the floral organs (PO:0025395).
In Zea mays and other grasses, the floret meristem is part of a spikelet and develops into a specific type of floret. If you are annotating to this structure for Zea mays or other grasses, please also add an annotation to the spikelet type that the meristem is part of. Choose the most specific term possible from: spikelet (PO:0009051), ear spikelet (PO:0006320), ear pedicellate spikelet (PO:0006348), ear sessile spikelet (PO:0006349), tassel spikelet (PO:0006309), tassel pedicellate spikelet (PO:0006312), tassel sessile spikelet (PO:0006311).
A native plant cell (PO:0025606) synthesizing protoplasm and producing new cells by division and with only a primary cell wall.
c&#233lula meristem&#225tica (Spanish, exact)
A portion of meristem tissue (PO:0009013) that is part of a shoot system (PO:0009006).
meristema del epiblasto (epiblastema) (Spanish, exact)
A portion of meristem tissue (PO:0009013) that is the outer layer of an apical meristem (PO:0020144), or the outer layer of a plant embryo proper (PO:0000001), and gives rise to a portion of epidermis (PO:0005679).
A protoderm may or may not arise from independent initial cells (PO:0004011). Some researchers also refer to it as an epidermis in a meristematic state.
A shoot apical meristem (PO:0020148) that gives rise to the apical growth of reproductive tissues and organs.
meristema apical reproductivo del epiblasto (epiblastema) (Spanish, exact)
A multi-tissue plant structure (PO:0025496) that develops from a gynoecium (PO:0009062), or a single carpel (PO:0009030), and at maturity may have as parts one or more seeds (PO:0009010).
A fruit (PO:0009001) may contain additional plant structures (PO:0009011) that were part of a flower (PO:0009046) and mature along with the gynoecium, such as a receptacle (PO:0009064). A fruit may develop without fertilization in cases of parthenocarpy, apomixis, or other hormone-induced conditions and may not always contain seeds (PO:0009010). When annotating to fruit (PO:0009001) that are referred to as ‘aggregate’, ‘multiple’, or ‘compound’, please annotate directly to the appropriate plant structure, such as receptacle, hypanthium (PO:0009065) or infructescence (PO:0006342). Fruits only occur in angiosperms.
A cell which is a plant structure (PO:0009011).
Applies to cells that are living or dead at maturity (e.g., fiber cell or tracheid) and includes any external encapsulating structures (if present) such as the plasma membrane and the plant-type cell wall. Definition of cell GO:0005623: "The basic structural and functional unit of all organisms. Includes the plasma membrane and any external encapsulating structures such as the cell wall and cell envelope". GO:0009505. Definition of plant-type cell wall (GO:0009505): A more or less rigid structure lying outside the cell membrane of a cell and composed of cellulose and pectin and other organic and inorganic substances, synonym; exact: cellulose and pectin-containing cell wall.
A collective plant organ structure (PO:0025007) that produces shoot-borne portions of meristem tissue (PO:0009013) and the plant structures (PO:0009011) that arise from them.
sistema de epiblasto (epiblastema) (Spanish, exact)
The shoot system is generally used to refer to the above-ground plant parts, although some plants have parts of their shoot system underground. For example, a rhizome (PO:0004542), bulb (PO:0025356), a corm (PO:0025355) or a subterranean tuber (PO:0004547), as in Solanum tuberosum (potato) or yam, are all part of the shoot system.
A plant structure (PO:0009011) that consists predominantly of similarly specialized plant cells (PO:0009002) of one or more types.
porci&#243n de un tejido vegetal (Spanish, exact)
A portion of plant tissue may contain one or several types of cells that are organized in a specific spatial arrangement into a structural unit (which includes a mass of callus) and may include an intercellular matrix. May include other types of isolated cells, such as idioblasts.
A multi-tissue plant structure (PO:0025496) that is a functional unit, is a proper part of a whole plant (PO:0000003), and includes portions of plant tissue (PO:0009007) of at least two different types that derive from a common developmental path.
Examples include stem (PO:0009047), leaf (PO:0025034), and root (PO:0009005). May include individual plant cells (PO:0009002) that are not part of a portion of plant tissue (e.g., idioblasts, PO:0000283). A plant organ may have one or more different plant organs as parts, such as a sporophyll (PO:0009026) that may have as part a sporangium (PO:0025094) or a carpel (PO:0009030) that may have as part a plant ovule (PO:0020003).
A whole plant (PO:0000003) that participates in the plant embryo stage (PO:0007631).
A plant embryo is generally formed after the first division of a plant zygote (PO:0000423), but in the case of a nucellar (adventitious) plant embryo (PO:0004537), somatic plant embryo (PO:0025302), microspore-derived cultured plant embryo (PO:0025305), and other embryos that arise through apogamy, it begins after the division of a single cell that is not a zygote. The end of the embryo stage varies among taxa; the beginning of a seed germination stage (PO:0007057) in seed plants, formation of the first vascular leaf (PO:0009025) in pteridophytes, the beginning of development of a sporangium (PO:0025094) in bryophytes, or the beginning of the formation of a plant organ (PO:0009008) such as a root (PO:0009005), shoot axis (PO:0025029), or vascular leaf (PO:0009025) in a cultured plant embryo (PO:0000010).
A multi-tissue plant structure (PO:0025496) that develops from a plant ovule (PO:0020003) and has as parts a plant embryo (PO:0009009) enclosed in a seed coat (PO:0009088).
shelled seed
A seed generally develops from an ovule (PO:0020003) after fertilization, but may develop without fertilization in the case of apogamy (e.g., adventitious embryos or somatic embryos). A seed is a reproductive unit of seed plants (gymnosperms, angiosperms, and fossil pteridosperms).
A plant anatomical entity (PO:0025131) that is, or was, part of a plant, or was derived from a part of a plant.
'Part' includes both proper parts and the whole plant. CARO:0000003 'connected anatomical structure' is defined as: Material anatomical entity that is a single connected structure with inherent 3D shape, generated by coordinated expression of the organism's own genome.
A stage in the life of a plant structure (PO:0009011) during which the plant structure undergoes developmental processes.
etapa de desarrollo de estructura vegetal (Spanish, exact)
plant growth and development stage (exact)
Refers to GO:0032502 'developmental process', which includes growth, differentiation, and senescence, and BFO:0000003 'ocurrent'.
A portion of plant tissue (PO:0009007) in which plant cells (PO:0009002) have retained their embryonic characteristics, or have reverted to them secondarily, and that divide to produce new cells that can undergo differentiation to form mature tissues, i.e. they have a capacity for morphogenesis and growth.
A determinate reproductive shoot system (PO:0025082) that has as part at least one carpel (PO:0009030) or at least one stamen (PO:0009029) and does not contain any other determinate shoot system (PO:0009006) as a part.
The characteristic reproductive structure of angiosperms. May have as part one or more petals, sepals or tepals. May contain one or more pistillode (PO:0009078), staminode (PO:0009077) or other aborted organs that don't show up in mature form.
A collective phyllome structure (PO:0025023) composed all of the carpels (PO:0009030) in a flower (PO:0009046).
gynoecium of lower floret of pedicellate spikelet of ear (narrow)
gynoecium of lower floret of pedicellate spikelet of tassel (narrow)
gynoecium of lower floret of sessile spikelet of ear (narrow)
gynoecium of lower floret of sessile spikelet of tassel (narrow)
gynoecium of upper floret of pedicellate spikelet of ear (narrow)
gynoecium of upper floret of pedicellate spikelet of tassel (narrow)
gynoecium of upper floret of sessile spikelet of ear (narrow)
gynoecium of upper floret of sessile spikelet of tassel (narrow)
If annotating gene expression to a gynoecium with a single carpel (PO:0009030), the annotation should go on carpel. A gynoecium with two or more carpels may be either syncarpous (carpels fused) or apopcarpous (carpels free) or the carpels may be partially fused. The word pistil is used synonymously with gynoecium for a synocarpous gynoecium, and synonymously with carpel for an apocarpous gynoecium, whether it has one or more carpels. In Zea mays, gynoecia of tassel florets and of the lower florets of ear spikelets usually do not develop fully, and they are present in a rudimentary state. If you are annotating to this structure for Zea mays or other grasses, please also add an annotation to the corresponding floret type. Choose the most specific term possible from: spikelet floret (PO:0009082), ear floret (PO:0006354), lower floret of pedicellate spikelet of ear (PO:0006353), lower floret of sessile spikelet of ear (PO:0006351), upper floret of pedicellate spikelet of ear (PO:0006350), upper floret of sessile spikelet of ear (PO:0006352), tassel floret (PO:0006310), lower floret of pedicellate spikelet of tassel (PO:0006313), lower floret of sessile spikelet of tassel (PO:0006315), upper floret of pedicellate spikelet of tassel (PO:0006314), upper floret of sessile spikelet of tassel (PO:0006316).
A plant organ (PO:0009008) that has as parts a nucellus (PO:0020020) in which a female gametophyte (PO:0025279) is located, one or two integuments (PO:0020021), and a funicle (PO:0020006).
A seed (PO:0009010) develops from a plant ovule. In angiosperms, a plant ovule is part of a plant ovary (PO:0009072). In conifers, a plant ovule is part of an ovuliferous scale (add term). If you are annotating to this structure for Zea mays or other grasses, please also add an annotation to the corresponding floret type. Choose the most specific term possible from: spikelet floret (PO:0009082), ear floret (PO:0006354), upper floret of pedicellate spikelet of ear (PO:0006350), upper floret of sessile spikelet of ear (PO:0006352).
A maximal portion of meristem tissue (PO:0009013) located at a shoot apex (PO:0000037) or root tip (PO:0000025).
A shoot system meristem (PO:0006079) formed at the apex of the shoot axis (PO:0025029), including those originating from an axillary bud meristem (PO:0000232).
meristema apical del epiblasto (epiblastema) (Spanish, exact)
A collective plant structure (PO:0025497) that is a proper part of a whole plant (PO:0000003), and is composed of two or more adjacent plant organs (PO:0009008) and the associated portions of plant tissue (PO:0009007).
estructura vegetal colectiva de &#243rgano (Spanish, exact)
Organs can be of the same type or different types. Examples include flower (PO:0009046), perianth (PO:0009058), and inflorescence (PO:0009049). See also collective organ part structure (PO:0025269), for plant structures composed of parts of multiple organs, but no complete plant organs. This was formerly named collective plant structure.
A collective plant organ structure (PO:0025007) that consists of two or more phyllomes (PO:0006001) originating from the same node or from one or more adjacent nodes with compressed shoot internodes (PO:0005005).
estructura colectiva del filoma (Spanish, exact)
A plant axis (PO:0025004) that is part of a shoot system (PO:0009006).
eje del epiblasto (epiblastema) (Spanish, exact)
Often bears leaves and branches. In vascular plants, has at least one node and one internode.
A shoot system (PO:0009006) in the sporophytic phase that has as part at least one sporangium (PO:0025094).
sistema de brote reproductivo (Spanish, exact)
A portion of meristem tissue (PO:0009013) that has as parts protoderm (PO:0006210) and sub-epidermal meristematic tissue and is committed to the development of a particular plant structure (PO:0009011).
A primordium appears as a protrusion and is the first distinct form of a plant organ (PO:0009008), cardinal organ part (PO:0025001), or collective plant organ structure (PO:0025007). The transition from a primordium to the plant structure it develops into is marked by the development of non-meristematic cells, although meristematic cells may be present after the transition.
An anatomical entity that is or was part of a plant.
entidad anat&#243mica vegetal (Spanish, exact)
Includes both material entities such as plant structures and immaterial entities such as plant anatomical spaces. CARO:0000000 'anatomical entity' is defined as: A part of a cellular organism that is either an immaterial entity or a material entity with granularity aboove the level of a protein complex. Or, a substance produced by a cellular organism with granularity above the level of a protein complex. Refers to BFO:0000004 'independent continuant'.
A shoot apex that has as part a reproductive shoot apical meristem.
&#225pice reproductivo del epiblasto (epiblastema) (Spanish, exact)
A plant structure development stage (PO:0009012) that has as primary participant a collective plant structure (PO:0025497).
etapa de desarrollo de una estructura colectiva de la planta (Spanish, exact)
Includes flower development stage (PO:0007615), corolla development stage (PO:0007604), and inflorescence development stage (PO:0001083).
collective plant organ structure development stage
A primordium (PO:0025127) that is committed to the development of a floral organ (PO:0025395) and is part of a reproductive shoot apex (PO:0025222).
floral structure primordia (exact, plural)
portion of floral structure primordium tissue (exact)
primordio de organo floral (Spanish, exact)
If annotating to a primordium of a floral structure, it is better to use the more specific term, such as petal primordium (PO:0000021) or anther primordium (PO:0006089).
A plant structure (PO:0009011) that has as parts two or more portions of plant tissue (PO:0009007) of at least two different types and which through specific morphogenetic processes forms a single structural unit demarcated by primarily bona-fide boundaries from other structural units of different types.
estructura vegetal con m&#250ltiples tejidos (Spanish, exact)
Most multi-tissue plant structures have at least a small connection to other plant structures via a fiat boundary, such as where a leaf (PO:0025034) connects to a shoot axis (PO:0025029), a petal (PO:0009032) connects to a receptacle (PO:0009064), or a branch (PO:0025073) connects to a stem (PO:0009047). Refers to CARO:0000055 multi-tissue structure, def'n: Anatomical structure that has as parts two or more portions of tissue of at least two different types, and which through specific morphogenetic processes, form a single distinct structural unit demarcated by bona-fide boundries from other structural units of differnt types.
A plant structure (PO:0009011) that is a proper part of a whole plant (PO:0000003) and includes two or more adjacent plant organs (PO:0009008) or adjacent cardinal organ parts (PO:0025001), along with any associated portions of plant tissue (PO:0009007).
estructura vegetal colectiva (Spanish, exact)
This is a parent term to describe both collective organ part structure (PO:0025269) (e.g. septum), as well as collective plant organ structure (PO:0025007) (which was formerly named collective plant structure), for example shoot system (PO:0009006).
A collective plant organ structure development stage (PO:0025338) that begins with the onset of the plant organ development stage (PO:0025339) and ends with either gametophyte senescent stage (PO:0025343) or sporophyte senescent stage (PO:0007017) or death.
The shoot system (PO:0009006) develops fron the shoot apical meristem (PO:0020148) in the plant embryo (PO:0009009) in vascular plants. In lower plants the gametophore (PO:0030018) arises from a gametophore meristematic apical cell (PO:0030019) in the protonema (PO:0030003).
A shoot system development stage (PO:0025527) that has as primary participant a reproductive shoot system (PO:0025082).
reproductive shoot system development stage
A plant cell (PO:0009002) that is either part of a multicellular whole plant (PO:0000003) 'in vivo' or a unicellular organism 'in natura' (i.e. part of a natural environment).
A native plant cell is one that is not grown or maintained in vitro, nor part of an in vitro plant structure (PO:0000004).
A fruit (PO:0009001) which at maturity comprises a fleshy endocarp (PO:0009086), fleshy mesocarp (PO:0009087), and fleshy exocarp (PO:0009085).
Examples: pepper (Capsicum annuum), papaya (Carica papaya), avocado (Persea americana), may apple (Podophyllum peltatum), date palm (Phoenix dactylifera), tomato (Solanum lycopersicum), potato (Solanum tuberosum), chocolate (Theobroma cacao), blueberry (Vaccinium spp.), and grape (Vitis vinifera).
A berry fruit (PO:0030108) which develops from an inferior carpel (PO:0009030) and at maturity comprises a fleshy exocarp (PO:0009085), fleshy mesocarp (PO:0009087), and fleshy endocarp (PO:0009086), and has as a part a hard receptacle (PO:0009064) which surrounds, and is indistinct from, the exocarp (PO:0009085).
A pepo fruit (PO:0030111) is specialized type of berry fruit (PO:0030108) which is encapsuled by persistent, accrescent receptacle (PO:0009064) tissue. The rind, or tough outer covering, of pepo fruits comprises receptical tissue and at least the exocarp (PO:0009085) layer of the pericarp (PO:0009084). Examples: pumpkin (Cucurbita pepo), cucumber (Cucumis sativus), and watermelon (Citrullus lanatus) and banana (Musa acuminata).
An amino acid chain that is canonically produced de novo by ribosome-mediated translation of a genetically-encoded mRNA, and any derivatives thereof.
Note that the definition allows for experimentally-manipulated genes, and allows for artifically-produced derivatives that mimic those found naturally. Note also that the definition excludes protein complexes, which some also consider a protein. Those who wish to refer to a class representing both senses of the word are directed to PR:000064867 ("protein-containing molecular entity"). Proteins (in the sense defined here) that descended from a common ancestor can be classified into families and superfamilies composed of products of evolutionarily-related genes. The domain architecture of a protein is described by the order of its constituent domains. Proteins with the same domains in the same order are defined as homeomorphic [PRO:WCB).
A protein that is a translation product of the human CD19 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof. It is composed of an N-terminal extracellular domain containing two Ig-like C2-type (immunoglobulin-like) domains, followed by a single-pass transmembrane segment and a cytoplasmic C-terminal tail. CD19 expression is restricted to members of the B cell lineage. It functions as a co-receptor for B-cell antigen receptor (BCR), regulating signal transduction.
A protein that is a translation product of the human CD34 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof. It is a leukocyte membrane protein expressed specifically by lymphohematopoietic progenitor cells. It contains a single-pass transmembrane domain and that show distinct expression on early hematopoietic precursors and vascular-associated tissue. Acts as a scaffold that presents selectin carbohydrate ligands in a clustered, tissue specific manner to allow for higher avidity interactions between leukocytes and endothelial cells during the inflammatory process. In common with related sialomucins (endoglycan and podocalyxin), the extracellular region is dominated by an N-terminal mucin-like domain, which is densely substituted with sialylated O-linked carbohydrates. The mucin-like region is followed by a cysteine-containing and presumably globular domain. This domain may fold into an immunoglobulin-like structure as the positions of 2 of the cysteines are conserved in the C2 set of the immunoglobulin superfamily. The cytoplasmic domain is around 73-76 residues long and highly conserved.
hematopoietic progenitor cell antigen CD34
A protein that is a translation product of the human CD4 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof. CD4 is an accessory protein for MHC class-II antigen/T-cell receptor interaction. It is the primary receptor for HIV-1. CD4 has four immunoglobulin-like domains in its extracellular region that share the same structure, but can differ in sequence.
An integrin alpha that contains an A domain. A hallmark of this class is the presence of a von Willebrand factor type A domain (Pfam:PF00092) (I-domain) of approximately 200 amino acid residues at the N terminus, which confers divalent cation binding properties. Unlike other integrin alpha proteins, they do not undergo proteolytic cleavage.
A protein that is a translation product of the human PTPRC gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof. It is composed of an extracellular domain, a single transmembrane segment and two tandem intracytoplasmic protein-tyrosine phosphatase domains. Contains 1 to 3 copies of the Fibronectin type III domain (Pfam:PF00041) followed by two copies of the Protein-tyrosine phosphatase (Pfam:PF00102) domain. Receptor-type tyrosine-protein phosphatase C (CD45) regulates signal transduction and lymphocyte activation by specific association with receptor molecules on T and B cells. Multiple isoforms of CD45 (180-235 kDa) can be generated asa result of alternative splicing of three variable exons 4(A), 5(B) and 6(C), encoding sequences at the N-terminal extracellular domain of the molecule.
receptor-type tyrosine-protein phosphatase C
An integrin alpha with A domain that is a translation product of the human ITGAM gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof. They constitute subunits of the integrin alpha-M/beta-2 receptor. This receptor is implicated in various adhesive interactions of monocytes, macrophages and granulocytes as well as in mediating the uptake of complement-coated particles. It is also a receptor for fibrinogen, factor X and ICAM1.
cell surface glycoprotein MAC-1 subunit alpha
An integrin alpha with A domain that is a translation product of the human ITGAX gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof. Integrin alpha-X complexed with beta-2 is a receptor for fibrinogen. It recognizes the sequence GPR in fibrinogen. It mediates cell-cell interaction during inflammatory responses. It is especially important in monocyte adhesion and chemotaxis.
leukocyte adhesion glycoprotein p150,95 alpha chain
A receptor-type tyrosine-protein phosphatase C isoform CD45R that is a translation product of some mRNA whose exon structure and start site selection renders it capable of giving rise to a protein with the amino acid sequence represented by UniProtKB:P08575-8 or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
Category=sequence. Requested by=CL. Note: This isoform includes the region encoded by the variable exon 4(A), and lacks the region encoded by exons 5(B) and 6(C).
receptor-type tyrosine-protein phosphatase C isoform CD45RA
A protein that has a core domain composition consisting of an extracellular N-terminal domain that adopts an immunoglobulin fold, a transmembrane domain, and an intracellular C-terminal domain with a single copy of the Immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motif (Pfam:PF02189) (ITAM). It constitutes the invariant subunit of the T cell antigen receptor (TCR). TCR is a surface receptor on T cells responsible for recognizing MHC-restricted antigens and initiating the cellular immune response.
A CD3 subunit with immunoglobulin domain that is a translation product of the human CD3E gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
T-cell surface antigen T3/Leu-4 epsilon chain
A protein with a domain composition consisting of a large extracellular domain, including five Ig-like C2-type domains followed by two copies of the Fibronectin type-III domain (Pfam:PF00041), a single-pass transmembrane domain and a short cytoplasmic C-terminal domain.
A neural cell adhesion molecule that is involved in neuronal development, synaptic plasticity, and regeneration.
A neural cell adhesion molecule NCAM that is a translation product of the human NCAM1 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
A protein that is a translation product of the human CD2 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
A protein that is a translation product of the human CD8A gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof. CD8 is a transmembrane that is a co-receptor for MHC class-I antigen/T-cell receptor interaction. The most common form of CD8 is composed of a CD8 alpha and a CD8 beta chain.
T-lymphocyte differentiation antigen T8/Leu-2
T-cell surface glycoprotein CD8 alpha chain
A G-protein coupled receptor that contains the 7 transmembrane receptor (rhodopsin family) domain (Pfam:PF00001), which includes 7 transmembrane helices (TMI-TM7) with 3 intracellular loops (IL1-IL3) and 3 extracellular loops (EL1-EL3) between the helices. The amino-terminal region is extracellular and the carboxyl-terminal region is intracellular. Rhodopsin-like G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs) are unique among the several classes of GPCRs in that most have a very short amino-terminal segment and several characteristic sequence motifs, particularly NSxxNPxxY in TM7 and D/E-R-Y/F between TM3 and loop IL2. Most bind their ligands within a cavity between the TM regions.
Category=family. Classification based on GRAFS system. [PMID:12761335]
rhodopsin-like G-protein coupled receptor
A rhodopsin-like G-protein coupled receptor that in active form binds to one or more chemokines.
Category=family. Note: Only those that have been unequivocally shown to activate a G-protein coupled signaling pathway appear on the official IUPHAR list.
A chemokine receptor that is a translation product of the human CCR1 or CCR3 genes, the mouse CCR1L1 gene, 1:1 orthologs thereof, or a semi-ortholog thereof.
A chemokine receptor CCR1/3/1L that is a translation product of the human CCR1 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
macrophage inflammatory protein 1-alpha receptor
A chemokine receptor CCR1/3/1L that is a translation product of the human CCR3 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
macrophage inflammatory protein 1-alpha receptor-like 2
A protein that contains the ADP-ribosyl cyclase domain (Pfam:PF02267).
A protein that is a translation product of the human MS4A1 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
membrane-spanning 4-domains subfamily A member 1
A protein that is a translation product of the human CD207 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
A protein that is a translation product of the human CD44 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
GP90 lymphocyte homing/adhesion receptor
A protein that has a core domain structure of signal sequence, propeptide, five Cadherin domains (Pfam:PF00028), a transmembrane region, and a Cadherin cytoplasmic region (Pfam:PF01049). Cadherins function as adhesion molecules that mediate Ca2+-dependent cell-cell adhesion in solid tissues.
A protein that is a translation product of the human CEACAM8 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
carcinoembryonic antigen-related cell adhesion molecule 8
non-specific cross-reacting antigen NCA-95
A protein that is a translation product of the human CD69 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof. A type II transmembrane protein with a C-type lectin binding domain in the extracellular portion of the molecule. Involved in lymphocyte proliferation and functions as a signal transmitting receptor in lymphocytes, natural killer (NK) cells, and platelets.
A protein that is a translation product of the human ENPP3 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
ectonucleotide pyrophosphatase/phosphodiesterase 3
phosphodiesterase I/nucleotide pyrophosphatase 3
ectonucleotide pyrophosphatase/phosphodiesterase family member 3
A protein that is the stand alone version of the Gamma-glutamyltranspeptidase (Pfam:PF01019) domain. The functional protein catalyzes the transfer of the gamma-glutamyl moiety of glutathione to an acceptor that may be an amino acid, a peptide or water (forming glutamate), and consists of two polypeptide chains, a heavy and a light subunit, processed from a single chain precursor by an autocatalytic cleavage.
A protein with a core domain architecture consisting of an extracellular domain containing two copies of the Immunoglobulin domain (Pfam:PF00047), followed by a single-pass transmembrane region and a small intracellular domain. The active protein is a low affinity receptor for immunoglobulin gamma chain Fc region. Human II-a, II-b, and II-c represent a recent gene expansion and are equally related to mouse II, III, and IV. Human III-A and III-B are closely related and closer to mouse IV than to mouse III.
immunoglobulin gamma Fc receptor II/III/IV
A protein that is a translation product of the human IL2RB gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
high affinity IL-2 receptor subunit beta
A protein with four transmembrane domains, small intracellular amino- and carboxyl-terminal regions, and two extracellular loops, a small one (EC1) and a larger one (EC2) of about 100 residues. The EC2 loop contains at least four cysteine residues, including a highly conserved 'CCG' motif.
An ADP-ribosyl cyclase that is a translation product of the human CD38 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
2'-phospho-ADP-ribosyl cyclase/2'-phospho-cyclic-ADP-ribose transferase
2'-phospho-cyclic-ADP-ribose transferase
ADP-ribosyl cyclase/cyclic ADP-ribose hydrolase 1
A cadherin that is a translation product of the human CDH5 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
An immunoglobulin gamma Fc receptor II/III/IV that is a translation product of the mouse Fcgr2 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
low affinity immunoglobulin gamma Fc region receptor II
A protein that is a translation product of the human NT5E gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
A protein with core architecture consisting of asignal sequence, 5 Ig-like domains, followed by a transmembrane sequence, followed by a Protein tyrosine kinase domain (Pfam:PF07714). However, only 1-3 of the Ig domains are detected by the Pfam HMMs in most of the sequences. Pfam:PF00047 is most common, but other members of the Ig domain clan, Pfam:PF07679 and Pfam:PF07686 can be identified instead. The fourth Ig domain lacks the disulfide-bonded cysteines.
CSF-1/PDGF receptor-type tyrosine-protein kinase
A protein that is a translation product of the human CD5 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
A protein with core architecture consisting of a large extracellular region containing one Integrin, beta chain domain (Pfam:PF00362), up to four EGF-like domains (Pfam:PF07974), and an Integrin beta tail domain (Pfam:PF07965), followed by a single-pass transmembrane region and a small cytoplasmic region often containing an Integrin beta cytoplasmic domain (Pfam:PF08725).
A protein that is a translation product of the human IL3RA gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
interleukin-3 receptor class II alpha chain
interleukin-3 receptor class 2 alpha chain
A protein that is a translation product of the human IL5RA gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
A protein that is a translation product of the human IL7R gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
A protein that is a translation product of the KLRB1 gene or its closely related paralogs (KLRB1A-F). There are lineage-specific expansions in mouse and rat.
A protein that is a translation product of the human SPN gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
A protein that is a translation product of the human CD14 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
myeloid cell-specific leucine-rich glycoprotein
A protein that is a translation product of the human MME gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
common acute lymphocytic leukemia antigen
A protein that is a translation product of the human PAX5 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
A protein that is a translation product of the human CD24 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
small cell lung carcinoma cluster 4 antigen
Category=gene. The mouse ortholog is Cd24a. Mouse protein Cd24b likely also orthologous. Currently it is not in UniProt. Requested by=CL.
A protein that is a translation product of the human SDC1 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
A protein that is a translation product of the human SPI1 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
A protein that is a translation product of the human TFRC gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
A protein that is a translation product of the human CD40LG gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
tumor necrosis factor ligand superfamily member 5
A protein that is a translation product of the human CD27 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 7
A protein that is a translation product of the human PLAUR gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
urokinase plasminogen activator surface receptor
A protein with core architecture consisting of a signal sequence, followed by 7 Ig-like domains (Pfam:PF00047, Pfam:PF07679, or Pfam:PF07686), a transmembrane region, and a cytoplasmic Protein tyrosine kinase domain.
vascular endothelial growth factor receptor
A CSF-1/PDGF receptor-type tyrosine-protein kinase that is a translation product of the human KIT gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
A vascular endothelial growth factor receptor that is a translation product of the human KDR gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2
A protein that is the translation product of any of the LY6 genes (LY6A-LY6I).
An Ly-6-like protein that is a translation product of the mouse Ly6g gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
An Ly-6-like protein that is a translation product of the mouse Ly6a gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
An Ly-6-like protein that is a translation product of the mouse Ly6c2 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
A protein that is a translation product of the Ly76 gene in mouse.
Category=organism-gene. Requested by=CL.
A protein that is a translation product of the human RAG1 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
V(D)J recombination-activating protein 1
A protein that is a translation product of the human RAG2 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
V(D)J recombination-activating protein 2
A protein that is a translation product of the human AFP gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
A protein that is a translation product of the human ALB gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
A tetraspanin that is a translation product of the human CD9 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
A protein that is a translation product of the human CEBPA gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
A protein that is a translation product of the human CGA gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
anterior pituitary glycoprotein hormones common subunit alpha
follicle-stimulating hormone alpha chain
A protein that is a translation product of the mouse Cd200r3 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
CD200 cell surface glycoprotein receptor-like 3
CD200 cell surface glycoprotein receptor-like b
cell surface glycoprotein OX2 receptor 3
cell surface glycoprotein CD200 receptor 3
A protein that is a translation product of the human DNTT gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
An immunoglobulin gamma Fc receptor II/III/IV that is a translation product of the human FCER1A gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
high affinity immunoglobulin epsilon receptor subunit alpha
A protein that is a translation product of the human FGF8 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
A protein that is a translation product of the human FOXN1 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
hepatocyte nuclear factor 3 forkhead homolog 11
A protein that is a translation product of the human GATA1 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
A protein that is a translation product of the human GATA2 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
A protein that is a translation product of the human HP gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
An insulin family protein that is a translation product of the human INS gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
An integrin beta that is a translation product of the human ITGB7 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
A protein that is a translation product of the human LTF gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
A protein that is a translation product of the human SHH gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
Shh unprocessed N-terminal signaling and C-terminal autoprocessing domains
A protein that is a translation product of the human TAL1 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
class A basic helix-loop-helix protein 17
T-cell acute lymphocytic leukemia protein 1
A protein that is a translation product of the human TMED1 gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
putative T1/ST2 receptor-binding protein
transmembrane emp24 domain-containing protein 1
A glycoprotein hormone beta chain that is a translation product of the human TSHB gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
thyroid-stimulating hormone subunit beta
A molecule that consists of amino acid residues (unmodified amino-acid residues and/or modified amino-acid residues) linked by peptide bonds or derivatives of such bonds.
A protein that is produced as the result of proteolytic processing of a longer protein.
A preproinsulin that has had the signal peptide removed. Proinsulin consists of the insulin B and A chains linked by the C-peptide. Example: UniProtKB:P01308, 25-110.
preproinsulin, signal peptide removed form
A protein that is a translation product of the Escherichia coli K-12 phoA gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
A protein that is composed of a long N-terminal extracellular domain, a transmembrane domain and a short cytoplasmic C-terminal domain. The N-terminal domain contains beta-propeller repeats (interrupted by an A domain in a subset of integrins alpha), while the C-terminal domain contains a GFFxR motif.
Category=family. Integrins are heterodimeric complexes of an alpha and a beta subunit. They are a structurally elaborate family of adhesion molecules that transmit signals bidirectionally across the plasma membrane by undergoing large-scale structural rearrangements. By regulating cell-cell and cell-matrix contacts, integrins participate in a wide-range of biological interactions including development, tissue repair, angiogenesis, inflammation and hemostasis. [PMID:10402956, PMID:11988479, PMID:9676575].
A protein that is a translation product of the human CALCA gene or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
A CALCA gene translation product that is a translation product of some mRNA whose exon structure and start site selection renders it capable of giving rise to a protein with the amino acid sequence represented by UniProtKB:P01258-1 or a 1:1 ortholog thereof.
A protein-containing complex that is a heterodimer of an alpha subunit (CGA) common to several glycoprotein hormones and a beta subunit (TSHB) unique to thyroid stimulating hormone.
A proteolytic cleavage product that is derived from any of the casein milk proteins.
A protein that is encoded in the genome of Mus musculus.
A protein that is encoded in the genome of Homo sapiens.
A CALCA gene translation product that is encoded in the genome of human.
calcitonin gene-related peptide I (human)
A protein that has G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR) activity. Each GPCR consists of a single polypeptide with an extracellular N-terminus, an intracellular C-terminus and seven hydrophobic transmembrane domains (TM1-TM7) linked by three extracellular loops (ECL1-ECL3) and three intracellular loops (ICL1-ICL3). GPCRs function as part of a heterotrimeric complex to transmit an extracellular signal across the membrane by activating an associated G-protein via the exchange of GDP for GTP on the alpha subunit.
A protein that is encoded in the genome of some Eukaryota.
A protein that has a core domain composition consisting of a signal peptide followed by a single copy of the Cys_knot (Pfam:PF00007) domain. The Cysteine knot is a protein structural motif containing three disulfide bridges.
A protein that is a translation product of a gene that encodes a standalone Insulin (Pfam:PF00049) domain preceded by a signal peptide.
A receptor-type tyrosine-protein phosphatase C that is a translation product of a transcript that minimally includes the region encoded by the variable exon 4(A).
receptor-type tyrosine-protein phosphatase C isoform CD45R
A protein that is a translation product of the human GPT or GPT2 genes, 1:1 orthologs thereof, or a semi-ortholog thereof.
A calcitonin isoform 1 that has had the signal peptide removed. Example: UniProtKB:P01258-1, 26-141.
calcitonin isoform 1, signal peptide removed form
Category=modification. Requested by=MAxO.
A procalcitonin in human. UniProtKB:P01258-1, 26-141.
calcitonin isoform 1, signal peptide removed form (human)
Category=organism-modification. Requested by=MAxO.
A proinsulin that has had the propeptide (C-peptide) excised, leaving the A chain (example: UniProtKB:P01308, 90-110) and B chain (example: UniProtKB:P01308, 25-54) connected by crosslinks.
Category=modification. Requested by=MAxO. Note: Though the final product resembles a complex, insulin is produced directly from a single chain without going through an intermediate where the A chain and B chain are free entities.
An alanine aminotransferase that is encoded in the genome of human.
Category=organism-family. Requested by=MAxO.
A protein that is a translation product of any of the following genes in human: GOT1/GOT2.
serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (human)
A protein-containing complex that is the remnant of fibrin mesh degradation (fibrinolysis) by plasmin in human.
Category=organism-complex. Requested by=MAxO.
A calcitonin isoform 1 that is encoded in the genome of human.
An albumin that is encoded in the genome of human.
An alpha-fetoprotein that is encoded in the genome of human.
A material entity consisting of multiple components that are causally integrated.
A sequence_feature with an extent greater than zero. A nucleotide region is composed of bases and a polypeptide region is composed of amino acids.
A gene which, when transcribed, can be translated into a protein.
A sequence of amino acids linked by peptide bonds which may lack appreciable tertiary structure and may not be liable to irreversible denaturation.
This term is mapped to MGED. Do not obsolete without consulting MGED ontology. The term 'protein' was merged with 'polypeptide'. Although 'protein' was a sequence_attribute and therefore meant to describe the quality rather than an actual feature, it was being used erroneously. It is replaced by 'peptidyl' as the polymer attribute.
Any extent of continuous biological sequence.
A transcript that in its initial state requires modification to be functional.
See "precursor_RNA" (SO:0002393) for RNA which may be the result of post-transcriptional processing. If the RNA in question is known not to have been processed, use this class ("primary_transcript"). On 9 Sep 2025, Removed "has_exact_synonym : INSDC_feature:precursor_RNA" and "has_exact_synonym : precursor RNA" from the annotation for this class at the request of Terence Murphy of NCBI. See GitHub Issue #655.
A transcript which has undergone the necessary modifications, if any, for its function. In eukaryotes this includes, for example, processing of introns, cleavage, base modification, and modifications to the 5' and/or the 3' ends, other than addition of bases. In bacteria functional mRNAs are usually not modified.
A processed transcript cannot contain introns.
Messenger RNA is the intermediate molecule between DNA and protein. It includes UTR and coding sequences. It does not contain introns.
An mRNA does not contain introns as it is a processed_transcript. The equivalent kind of primary_transcript is protein_coding_primary_transcript (SO:0000120) which may contain introns. This term is mapped to MGED. Do not obsolete without consulting MGED ontology.
A contiguous sequence which begins with, and includes, a start codon and ends with, and includes, a stop codon.
An attribute describes a quality of sequence.
The signal_peptide is a short region of the peptide located at the N-terminus that directs the protein to be secreted or part of membrane components.
Old def before biosapiens:The sequence for an N-terminal domain of a secreted protein; this domain is involved in attaching nascent polypeptide to the membrane leader sequence.
An RNA synthesized on a DNA or RNA template by an RNA polymerase.
Added relationship overlaps SO:0002300 unit_of_gene_expression with Mejia-Almonte et.al PMID:32665585 Aug 5, 2020.
A region (or regions) that includes all of the sequence elements necessary to encode a functional transcript. A gene may include regulatory regions, transcribed regions and/or other functional sequence regions.
This term is mapped to MGED. Do not obsolete without consulting MGED ontology. A gene may be considered as a unit of inheritance.
An attribute describing a located_sequence_feature.
A manufactured term used to allow the parts of a gene to have an is_a path to the root.
This term was added to provide a grouping term for the region parts of transcript, thus giving them an is_a path back to the root.
A manufactured term to collect together the parts of a mature transcript and give them an is_a path to the root.
This term was added to provide a grouping term for the region parts of mRNA, thus giving them an is_a path back to the root.
Biological sequence region that can be assigned to a specific subsequence of a polypeptide.
Added to allow the polypeptide regions to have is_a paths back to the root.
Part of a peptide chain which is cleaved off during the formation of the mature protein.
An immature_peptide_region is the extent of the peptide after it has been translated and before any processing occurs.
A gene that codes for an RNA that can be translated into a protein.
A region defined by its disposition to be involved in a biological process.
A region of peptide sequence used to target the polypeptide molecule to a specific organelle.
A CDS region corresponding to a propeptide of a polypeptide.
Added as per request from GitHub Issue #484 (https://github.com/The-Sequence-Ontology/SO-Ontologies/issues/484)
A CDS region corresponding to a signal peptide of a polypeptide.
Transcription units or transcribed coding sequences.
Added as per Mejia-Almonte et.al PMID:32665585
The cleaved_peptide_region is the region of a peptide sequence that is cleaved during maturation.
An occurrent [span:Occurrent] that exists in time by occurring or happening, has temporal parts and always involves and depends on some entity.
Lower, narrow portion of the uterus where it joins with the top end of the vagina.
Orifice of the olfactory system. The naris is the route by which odorants enter the olfactory system[MAH].
The olfactory organ of vertebrates, consisting of nares, olfactory epithelia and the structures and skeletal framework of the nasal cavity.
The clusters of hormone-producing cells that are scattered throughout the pancreas.
The pituitary gland is an endocrine gland that secretes hormones that regulate many other glands [GO]. An endocrine gland located ventral to the diencephalon and derived from mixed neuroectodermal and non neuroectodermal origin [ZFIN].
Terminology note: hypophysis and pituitary gland are often used informally as synonyms, but the hypophysis also includes the small infundibular or pituitary stalk[Neumann 2020]
A layer of dense irregular connective tissue that lines organs and supports the mucosa, as well as joins the mucosa to the bulk of underlying smooth muscle. [WP,unvetted].
A major division of the nervous system that contains nerves which connect the central nervous system (CNS) with sensory organs, other organs, muscles, blood vessels and glands.
The sympathetic nervous system is one of the two divisions of the vertebrate autonomic nervous system (the other being the parasympathetic nervous system). The sympathetic preganglionic neurons have their cell bodies in the thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord and connect to the paravertebral chain of sympathetic ganglia. Innervate heart and blood vessels, sweat glands, viscera and the adrenal medulla. Most sympathetic neurons, but not all, use noradrenaline as a post-ganglionic neurotransmitter [GO].
pars sympathica divisionis autonomici systematis nervosi
sympathetic part of autonomic division of nervous system
Any portion of the organ that covers that body and consists of a layer of epidermis and a layer of dermis.
A non-material anatomical entity of two dimensions. Anatomical boundaries are contiguous structures.
Except in the case of abstracted fiat boundaries such as the midline plane of an organism, all 2D anatomical entities have a 3 dimensional projection. For example, the surface of the shell of a muscle has a distinct shape that projects into the third dimension. Note that boundaries are 2D structures. They have no thickness - and so can not be sites of gene expression or gene product localisation. For this, use boundary region terms.
The part of the pancreas that is part of the endocrine system and is made up of islet cells, which produce insulin, glucagon and somatostatin.
The part of the pancreas that is part of the exocrine system and which produces and store zymogens of digestive enzymes, such as chymotrypsinogen and trypsinogen in the acinar cells [GO].
An organ of sight that includes the camera-type eyeball and supporting structures such as the lacrimal apparatus, the conjunctiva, the eyelid.
camera-type eye plus associated structures
An organ that is capable of transducing sensory stimulus to the nervous system.
Anatomical projection that protrudes from the skin. Examples: hair, nail, feather, claw, hoof, horn, wattle, spur, beak, antler, bristle and some scales.
Any hollow cylindrical anatomical structure containing a lumen through which substances are transported.
Major subdivision of an organism that protrudes from the body[DOS, CARO].
Any of the rounded masses of lymphoid tissue that are surrounded by a capsule of connective tissue, are distributed along the lymphatic vessels, and contain numerous lymphocytes which filter the flow of lymph.
A thin layer of loose connective tissue which lies beneath the epithelium and together with the epithelium constitutes the mucosa[WP]. The lamina propria contains capillaries and a central lacteal (lymph vessel) in the small intestine, as well as lymphoid tissue. Lamina propria also contains glands with the ducts opening on to the mucosal epithelium, that secrete mucus and serous secretions.
The head is the anterior-most division of the body [GO].
Multi-tissue structure that is comprised of a secretory epithelial layer (mesothelium) and a connective tissue layer.
Dense regular connective tissue that connects muscle to bone[VSAO].
A biological tissue mass, most commonly a mass of nerve cell bodies.
An eye with one concave chamber. Note that 'simple' does not imply a reduced level of complexity or acuity.
A tubular structure that contains, conveys body fluid, such as blood or lymph.
Muscular duct that propels urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder, or related organs.
The fibromuscular tubular canal through which urine is discharged from the bladder to the exterior via the external urinary meatus; in males, the urethra is joined by the ejaculatory ducts and serves as a passageway for semen during ejaculation, as well as a canal for urine during voiding; in females, the urethra is shorter and emerges above the vaginal opening.
A tubular structure that transports secreted or excreted substances.
A subdivision of the digestive tract that connects the small intestine to the cloaca or anus. Lacks or has few villi[Kardong].
Organ component adjacent to an organ cavity and which consists of a maximal aggregate of organ component layers.
Material anatomical entity that is a single connected structure with inherent 3D shape generated by coordinated expression of the organism's own genome.
Anatomical structure that performs a specific function or group of functions [WP].
A part of an organ that constitutes a distinct modular sub-unit. In some cases, the organ may also contain other sub-units of identical or similar types, in other cases this may be a distinct entity.
A multicellular structure that is a part of an organ.
Anatomical structure that is part of the respiratory system. In mammals consists of upper and lower tracts.
The stage of development at which the animal is fully formed, including immaturity and maturity. Includes both sexually immature stage, and adult stage.
A life cycle stage that starts with fertilization and ends with the fully formed embryo.
proximo-distal subdivision of respiratory tract
Any part or collection of parts of the central or peripheral nervous system. Parts may span both CNS and PNS.
A capillary tuft which forms a close network with the visceral epithelium (podocytes) and the mesangium to form the filtration barrier and is surrounded by Bowman's capsule in nephrons of the vertebrate kidney[GO].
Anatomical cluster consisting of the skeletal elements and articular elements that are part of an individual subdivision of the organism.
The surface (external) layer of ectoderm which begins to proliferate shortly after separation from the neuroectoderm.
The organs associated with producing offspring in the gender that produces spermatozoa.
The second stage of the kidney. It serves as the main excretory organ of aquatic vertebrates and as a temporary embryonic kidney in higher vertebrates. It is composed of the mesonephric duct (also called the Wolffian duct), mesonephric tubules, and associated capillary tufts. A single tubule and its associated capillary tuft is called a mesonephric excretory unit; these units are similar in structure and function to nephrons of the adult kidney. The mesonephros is derived from intermediate mesoderm in the vertebrate embryo.
In mammals, the metanephros is the excretory organ of the fetus, which develops into the mature kidney and is formed from the rear portion of the nephrogenic cord. The metanephros is an endocrine and metabolic organ that filters the blood and excretes the end products of body metabolism in the form of urine[GO].
A mesonephric tubule is an epithelial tube that is part of the mesonephros[GO]. Genital ridge that is next to the mesonephros[WP].
An epithelial swelling on the Wolffian duct that elongates to invade the adjacent metanephric mesenchyme[MP].
A spherical embryonic mass of blastomeres formed before the blastula and resulting from cleavage of the fertilized ovum.
A glycoprotein membrane surrounding the plasma membrane of an oocyte. It is a vital constitutive part of the latter, external but not extraneous to it. The zona pellucida first appears in multilaminar primary oocytes.
A mass of cells that develop into the body of the embryo and some extraembryonic tissues.
embryoblastus; massa cellularis interna; pluriblastus senior
The mesectodermal cell layer arising from the trophectoderm that erodes the uterine mucosa and contributes to the formation of the placenta.
Aggregate of cells forming the outer layer of a blastocyst, which provide nutrients to the embryo and develop into a large part of the placenta. They are formed during the first stage of pregnancy and are the first cells to differentiate from the fertilized egg. [Wikipedia:Trophoblast]
A flattened, almost circular bilaminar plate of cells formed when the inner cell mass (aka embryoblast) forms two epithelial layers, each of a distinct lineage, separated by an extracellular basement membrane: the external (dorsal) layer is called the epiblast and the internal (ventral) layer is called the hypoblast (aka primitive endoderm); together, they compose the bilaminar embryonic disc.
Stage succeeding embryo, including mature structure.
Nonparenchymatous organ that primarily consists of dense connective tissue organized into a sheet which interconnects two or more organs, separates two or more body spaces from one another, or surrounds an organ or body part. Examples: interosseous membrane of forearm, obturator membrane, tympanic membrane, fibrous pericardium, fascia lata, dura mater. [FMA].
A lung lobe is one of the rounded projections that compose the lung[GO].
An entire span of an organism's life. In metazoans, commences with the zygote stage and ends with the death of the organism.
A spatiotemporal region encompassing some part of the life cycle of an organism.
A stage at which the organism is a single cell produced by means of sexual reproduction.
The first few specialized divisions of an activated animal egg; Stage consisting of division of cells in the early embryo. The zygotes of many species undergo rapid cell cycles with no significant growth, producing a cluster of cells the same size as the original zygote. The different cells derived from cleavage are called blastomeres and form a compact mass called the morula. Cleavage ends with the formation of the blastula.
An early stage of embryonic development in animals. It is produced by cleavage of a fertilized ovum and consists of a spherical layer of around 128 cells surrounding a central fluid-filled cavity called the blastocoel. The blastula follows the morula and precedes the gastrula in the developmental sequence.
A stage defined by complex and coordinated series of cellular movements that occurs at the end of cleavage during embryonic development of most animals. The details of gastrulation vary from species to species, but usually result in the formation of the three primary germ layers, ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm.
A chordate developmental stage defined by the formation of a tube from the flat layer of ectodermal cells known as the neural plate. This will give rise to the central nervous system.
A stage at which the ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm develop into the internal organs of the organism.
The stage of being a sexually mature adult animal.
A tube in the respiratory system. Examples: bronchus, bronchiole, trachea.
Structure derived from foregut that becomes a lung[GO].
A fasciculated bundle of neuron projections (GO:0043005), largely or completely lacking synapses.
A spatially aggregated collection of nerve cell bodies in the CNS, consisting of one or more subpopulations that share cell type, chemical phenotype, and connections, and including nearby cells that share the same cell type, chemical phenotype, and connections. (CUMBO).
Nucleus that receives projections from or contains neurons that send projections through one of the cranial nerves.
The terminal part of the large intestine, continuous proximally with the rectum and distally terminates with the anus.
Segment of the alimentary canal extending from the stomach to the anus and, in humans and other mammals, consists of two segments, the small intestine and the large intestine.
Anatomical conduit that connects two adjacent body spaces (or a body space with the space surrounding the organism)[FMA,modified].
Common chamber into which the intestines and excretory system opens. Arises during development in all vertebrates, but in many it becomes subdivided, lost or incorporated into other structures.
Endoderm-lined chamber that develops as pouch-like dilation of the caudal end of the hindgut and receives the allantois ventrally and two mesonephric ducts laterally; caudally it ends blindly at the cloacal membrane formed by the union of proctodeal (anal pit) ectoderm and cloacal endoderm, with no intervening mesoderm[MP].
The ventral part of the cloaca remaining after septation of the rectum, which further develops into part of the bladder, part of the prostatic part of the male urethra and the urethra and vestibule in females.
The proximal portion of the digestive tract, containing the oral cavity and bounded by the oral opening. In vertebrates, this extends to the pharynx and includes gums, lips, tongue and parts of the palate. Typically also includes the teeth, except where these occur elsewhere (e.g. pharyngeal jaws) or protrude from the mouth (tusks).
The orifice that connects the mouth to the exterior of the body.
Anatomical cavity at the start of the digestive tract that that is enclosed by the mouth. The boundaries and contents vary depending on the species. In vertebrates, the boundaries are the oral opening, the cheeks, the palate and (if present) the palatoglossal arch - if this is not present then the mouth and pharynx form the oropharyngeal cavity. The buccal cavity contains the teeth, tongue and palate (when present).
A section dividing a colon along a proximal-distal axis.
The pair of anatomical structures comprised of a left lung and right lung.
Organ that functions in gaseous exchange between an organism and its environment. In plants, microorganisms, and many small animals, air or water makes direct contact with the organism's cells or tissue fluids, and the processes of diffusion supply the organism with dioxygen (O2) and remove carbon dioxide (CO2). In larger animals the efficiency of gaseous exchange is improved by specialized respiratory organs, such as lungs and gills, which are ventilated by breathing mechanisms.
Amniotic fluid is a bodily fluid consisting of watery liquid surrounding and cushioning a growing fetus within the amnion. It allows the fetus to move freely without the walls of the uterus being too tight against its body. Buoyancy is also provided. The composition of the fluid changes over the course of gestation. Initially, amniotic fluid is similar to maternal plasma, mainly water with electrolytes. As the fetus develops, proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, phospholipids originating from the lungs, fetal cells, and urea are deposited in the fluid.
A portion of organism substance that is the product of an excretion process that will be eliminated from the body. An excretion process is elimination by an organism of the waste products that arise as a result of metabolic activity.
Pus is a bodily fluid consisting of a whitish-yellow or yellow substance produced during inflammatory responses of the body that can be found in regions of pyogenic bacterial infections. Pus is produced from the dead and living cells which travel into the intercellular spaces around the affected cells.
A fluid that is composed of blood plasma and erythrocytes.
Circulating fluid that is part of the hemolymphoid system. Blood, lymph, interstitial fluid or its analogs.
Dorsal part (roof region) of the telencephalon[GO].
The bone forming the forehead and roof of the eye orbit.
Dense regular connective tissue connecting two or more adjacent skeletal elements or supporting an organ.
The thin innermost layer of the extraembryonic membranes that contains the amniotic fluid; the membrane forms a closed sac in which the embryo and later, the fetus, is suspended and protected.
Organism at the blastula stage - an early stage of embryonic development in animals. It is produced by cleavage of a fertilized ovum and consists of a spherical layer of around 128 cells surrounding a central fluid-filled cavity called the blastocoel. The blastula follows the morula and precedes the gastrula in the developmental sequence.
The external portion of an animal body derived from ectoderm and mesoderm layers that encloses the body cavity.
The upper ventral region of the torso of an organism.
A mucosa that is part of a duodenum [Automatically generated definition].
An embryo that is at the late embryonic stage; this stage covers late steps of the embryogenesis with a fully formed embryo still developing before birth or egg hatching.
The branched tubular glands found in the mucosa of the fundus and body of the stomach which contain parietal cells that secrete hydrochloric acid and zymogenic cells that produce pepsin.
The wall of the digestive tract. This encompasses all parts of the digestive tract with the exception of the lumen (cavity).
In anatomy, the throat is the anterior part of the neck, in front of the vertebral column. It consists of the pharynx and larynx. An important feature of the throat is the epiglottis, a flap which separates the esophagus from the trachea and prevents inhalation of food or drink. The throat contains various blood vessels, various pharyngeal muscles, the trachea (windpipe) and the esophagus. The hyoid bone and the clavicle are the only bones located in the throat of mammals. It is sometimes considered a synonym for fauces. [WP,unvetted].
A lining of mostly endodermal origin, covered in epithelium, which is involved in absorption and secretion. They line various body cavities that are exposed to the external environment and internal organs. It is at several places continuous with skin: at the nostrils, the lips, the ears, the genital area, and the anus. The sticky, thick fluid secreted by the mucous membranes and gland is termed mucus. The term mucous membrane refers to where they are found in the body and not every mucous membrane secretes mucus[WP].
A set of midline structures surrounding the brainstem of the mammalian brain, originally described anatomically, e.g., hippocampal formation, amygdala, hypothalamus, cingulate cortex. Although the original designation was anatomical, the limbic system has come to be associated with the system in the brain subserving emotional functions. As such, it is very poorly defined and doesn't correspond closely to the anatomical meaning any longer. [BirnLex].
includes the hippocampus, amygdala, anterior thalamic nuclei, and limbic cortex, which support a variety of functions including emotion, behavior, long term memory, and olfaction [Wikipedia]
Functional part of an organ in the body. This is in contrast to the stroma, which refers to the structural tissue of organs, being exactly, connective tissues.
A mucosa that is part of a pharynx [Automatically generated definition].
The mammalian blastocyst is a hollow ball of cells containing two cell types, the inner cell mass and the trophectoderm[GO].
The part of the hindlimb between pelvis and the knee, corresponding to the femur.
The subdivision of the musculoskeletal system that consists of all the muscles of the body[VSAO, modified].
The nasal vestibule is the most anterior part of the nasal cavity. It's enclosed by the cartilages of nose and lined by the same epithelium of the skin. The other part of the nasal cavity, which is lined by the respiratory epithelium, is called nasal cavity proper. [WP,unvetted].
A gland in which the principal secretory cells are serous secreting cells.
A gland in which the principal secretory cells are mucus secreting cells.
A small, often microscopic, tissue element in the form of a small beam, strut or rod, generally having a mechanical function, and usually but not necessarily composed of dense collagenous tissue. On histological section, a trabecula can look like a septum, but in three dimensions they are topologically distinct, with trabeculae being roughly rod or pillar-shaped and septa being sheet-like. Trabeculae are usually composed of dense fibrous tissue, i.e. mainly of collagen, and in most cases provide mechanical strengthening or stiffening to a soft solid organ, such as the spleen. They can be composed of other materials, such as bone or muscle[WP].
A portion of organism substance that is produced by exocrine glands.
The region of the opening of the uterine cervix into the uterine cavity.
An anatomical wall that is part of a uterus [Automatically generated definition].
Material anatomical entity in a gaseous, liquid, semisolid or solid state; produced by anatomical structures or derived from inhaled and ingested substances that have been modified by anatomical structures as they pass through the body.
Non-material anatomical entity of three dimensions, that is generated by morphogenetic or other physiologic processes; is surrounded by one or more anatomical structures; contains one or more organism substances or anatomical structures.
Multicellular, connected anatomical structure that has multiple organs as parts and whose parts work together to achieve some shared function.
Anatomical structure that is an individual member of a species and consists of more than one cell.
Multi-tissue structure that is part of a compound organ.
A gonad of a male animal. A gonad produces and releases sperm.
The organs and associated structures associated with bearing offspring in a female animal.
Anatomical structure which is a subdivision of a whole organism, consisting of components of multiple anatomical systems, largely surrounded by a contiguous region of integument.
Anatomical structure that consists of cell parts and cell substances and together does not constitute a cell or a tissue.
Anatomical group whose component anatomical structures lie in close proximity to each other.
A multicellular anatomical structure that is associated with an embryo and derived from the zygote from which it develops, but which does not contribute to the embryo proper or to structures that are part of the same organism after embryogenesis.
see also conceptus extraembryonic component in EHDAA2.
Multicellular anatomical structure that consists of many cells of one or a few types, arranged in an extracellular matrix such that their long-range organisation is at least partly a repetition of their short-range organisation.
Anatomical structure that has as its parts two or more portions of tissue of at least two different types and which through specific morphogenetic processes forms a single distinct structural unit demarcated by bona-fide boundaries from other distinct structural units of different types.
Portion of tissue, that consists of one or more layers of epithelial cells connected to each other by cell junctions and which is underlain by a basal lamina. Examples: simple squamous epithelium, glandular cuboidal epithelium, transitional epithelium, myoepithelium[CARO].
Editor note: surface epithelium may contain non-epithelial cells, such as melanocytes, lymphocytes and dendritic cells, within the sheet of epithelial cells. Do we consider these part of the epithelium, or located-in it?
Unilaminar epithelium, which consists of a single layer of columnar cells. Examples: ciliated columnar epithelium, gastric epithelium, microvillus columnar epithelium.[FMA].
Epithelium which consists of more than one layer of epithelial cells that may or may not be in contact with a basement membrane. Examples: keratinized stratified squamous epithelium, ciliated stratified columnar epithelium.[FMA].
Unilaminar epithelium which consists of a single layer of squamous cells. Examples: pulmonary alveolar epithelium, endothelium.[FMA].
Epithelium that consists of epithelial cells not arranged in one ore more layers.
Compound organ that contains one or more macroscopic anatomical spaces.
Epithelium which consists of a single layer of epithelial cells. Examples: endothelium, mesothelium, glandular squamous epithelium.[FMA].
Mucus is a bodily fluid consisting of a slippery secretion of the lining of the mucous membranes in the body. It is a viscous colloid containing antiseptic enzymes (such as lysozyme) and immunoglobulins. Mucus is produced by goblet cells in the mucous membranes that cover the surfaces of the membranes. It is made up of mucins and inorganic salts suspended in water.
Interstitial fluid is a bodily fluid consisting of a solution which bathes and surrounds the cells of multicellular animals. It is the main component of the extracellular fluid, which also includes plasma and transcellular fluid.
Subdivision of trunk that lies between the head and the abdomen.
The subdivision of the vertebrate body between the thorax and pelvis. The ventral part of the abdomen contains the abdominal cavity and visceral organs. The dorsal part includes the abdominal section of the vertebral column.
Anatomical entity that comprises the organism in the early stages of growth and differentiation that are characterized by cleavage, the laying down of fundamental tissues, and the formation of primitive organs and organ systems. For example, for mammals, the process would begin with zygote formation and end with birth. For insects, the process would begin at zygote formation and end with larval hatching. For plant zygotic embryos, this would be from zygote formation to the end of seed dormancy. For plant vegetative embryos, this would be from the initial determination of the cell or group of cells to form an embryo until the point when the embryo becomes independent of the parent plant.
A layer of cells produced during the process of gastrulation during the early development of the animal embryo, which is distinct from other such layers of cells, as an early step of cell differentiation. The three types of germ layers are the endoderm, ectoderm, and mesoderm.
Classically the germ layers are ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm. Alternatively: primary = ectoderm, endoderm; secondary=mesoderm; tertiary=dorsal mesoderm, NC[https://github.com/obophenotype/uberon/wiki/The-neural-crest]
Primary germ layer that is the outer of the embryo's three germ layers and gives rise to epidermis and neural tissue.
Primary germ layer that lies remote from the surface of the embryo and gives rise to internal tissues such as gut.
The middle germ layer of the embryo, between the endoderm and ectoderm.
Anterior part of the embryonic digestive tract that develops into a mouth. The stomodeum includes as parts an invagination of the ectoderm and the stomodeal cavity.
Inward fold on the surface of the embryonic ectoderm that develops into an ectodermal terminal part of the digestive tract.
An expanded region of the vertebrate alimentary tract that serves as a food storage compartment and digestive organ. A stomach is lined, in whole or in part by a glandular epithelium.
A membranous fold of the heart that prevents reflux of fluid.
The main trunk of the systemic arterial system that carries blood from the heart to all the organs and other structures of the body, bringing oxygenated blood to all parts of the body in the systemic circulation.
A myogenic muscular circulatory organ found in the vertebrate cardiovascular system composed of chambers of cardiac muscle. It is the primary circulatory organ.
Taxon notes:" the ascidian tube-like heart lacks chambers....The ascidian heart is formed after metamorphosis as a simple tube-like structure with a single-layered myoepithelium that is continuous with a single-layered pericar- dial wall. It lacks chambers and endocardium.... The innovation of the chambered heart was a key event in vertebrate evolution, because the chambered heart generates one-way blood flow with high pressure, a critical requirement for the efficient blood supply of large-body vertebrates... all extant vertebrates have hearts with two or more chambers (Moorman and Christoffels 2003)" DOI:10.1101/gad.1485706
Anatomical system that consists of the glands and parts of glands that produce endocrine secretions and help to integrate and control bodily metabolic activity.
The brain is the center of the nervous system in all vertebrate, and most invertebrate, animals. Some primitive animals such as jellyfish and starfish have a decentralized nervous system without a brain, while sponges lack any nervous system at all. In vertebrates, the brain is located in the head, protected by the skull and close to the primary sensory apparatus of vision, hearing, balance, taste, and smell[WP].
The thin layer of gray matter on the surface of the cerebral hemisphere that develops from the telencephalon. It consists of the neocortex (6 layered cortex or isocortex), the hippocampal formation and the olfactory cortex.
Middle part of an organ, surrounded by the cortex.
The cervical nerves are the spinal nerves from the cervical vertebrae. Although there are seven cervical vertebrae (C1-C7), there are eight cervical nerves (C1-C8). All nerves except C8 emerge above their corresponding vertebrae, while the C8 nerve emerges below the C7 vertebra. (In the other portions of the spine, the nerve emerges below the vertebra with the same name. Dorsal (posterior) distribution includes the greater occipital (C2) and third occipital (C3). Ventral (anterior) distribution includes the cervical plexus (C1-C4) and brachial plexus (C5-C8) [WP,unvetted].
Innervates: sternohyoid muscle, sternothyroid muscle, omohyoid muscle[WP]
The transparent anterior portion of the fibrous coat of the eye that serves as the chief refractory structure.
A transparent and refractive lens located posterior to the iris. The lens of camera-type eye refracts light to be focused on the retina.
The lens is avascular and nourished by diffusion from the aqueous and vitreous humors.
The retina is the innermost layer or coating at the back of the eyeball, which is sensitive to light and in which the optic nerve terminates.
Currently this class encompasses only verteberate AOs but could in theory also include cephalopod - we may want to make a more specific class for vertebrate retina. note that this class excludes ommatidial retinas, as the retina must be part of an eyeball. Use the parent class photoreceptor array / light-sensitive tissue for arthropods
An organism subdivision that extends from the head to the pectoral girdle, encompassing the cervical vertebral column.
A midventral endochondral skeletal element which represents the origin site of the pectoral muscles[PHENOSCAPE:ad].
Paired endochondral long bone that extends between the pectoral girdle and the skeletal parts of the forelimb. [PHENOSCAPE:mah].
proximal metapterygial mesomere of pectoral appendage
proximal metapterygial mesomere of pectoral fin
The invaginated serous membrane that surrounds the lungs (the visceral portion) and lines the walls of the pleural cavity (parietal portion).
The portion of the hindlimb that contains both the stylopod and zeugopod.
we use the less open to misinterpretation 'hindlimb zeugopod'. Editor note: currently declared as overlapping foot, as AOs disagree over whether some ankle parts are in the leg or foot
The major preaxial endochondral bone in the posterior zeugopod[Phenoscape].
Endochondral longbone connecting the pelvic girdle with posterior zeugopodium skeleton.[VSAO, modified].
proximal metapterygial mesomere of pelvic appendage
proximal metapterygial mesomere of pelvic fin
Anatomical structure that consists of two or more adjacent skeletal structures, which may be interconnected by various types of tissue[VSAO].
An intromittent organ in certain biologically male organisms. In placental mammals, this also serves as the organ of urination.
Anatomical system that has as its parts the organs concerned with reproduction.
Reproductive organ that produces and releases eggs (ovary) or sperm (testis).
The gonad of a female organism which contains germ cells.
female organism reproductive system gonad
female organism reproductive system gonada
gonad of female organism reproductive system
gonad of reproductive system of female organism
gonada of female organism reproductive system
gonada of reproductive system of female organism
reproductive system of female organism gonad
reproductive system of female organism gonada
A tube or collection of tubes in an animal from the ovaries to the outside of the body.
tubular parts of female reproductive system
The female muscular organ of gestation in which the developing embryo or fetus is nourished until birth.
A fibromuscular tubular tract leading from the uterus to the exterior of the body in female placental mammals and marsupials, or to the cloaca in female birds, monotremes, and some reptiles[WP].
External genital organs of the female mammal[WP].
Either of a pair of glandular pouches that lie one on either side of the male reproductive tract posterolateral to the urinary bladder and in the human male secrete a sugar- and protein-containing fluid into the ejaculatory duct.
The Ejaculatory ducts (ductus ejaculatorii) are paired structures in male anatomy, about 2 cm in length. Each ejaculatory duct is formed by the union of the vas deferens with the duct of the seminal vesicle. They pass through the prostate, and empty into the urethra at the Colliculus seminalis. During ejaculation, semen passes through the ducts and exits the body via the penis[WP,unvetted].
A secretory duct that transports sperm from the testis. In mammals this is a continuation of the epididymis and ends in the prostatic urethra where it terminates to form ejaculatory duct.
The outer epithelial layer of the skin that is superficial to the dermis.
Functional system which consists of structures involved in respiration.
An airway through which respiratory air passes in organisms.
Anatomical system that has as its parts the organs devoted to the ingestion, digestion, and assimilation of food and the discharge of residual wastes.
The renal system in an anatomical system that maintains fluid balance and contributes to electrolyte balance, acid/base balance, and disposal of nitrogenous waste products.
EDITOR_NOTE In various sources such as Encyclopedia Britannica, the excretory and urinary systems are indeed the same system (see wikipedia talk page); we merge two BTO classes here
Organ system that passes nutrients (such as amino acids and electrolytes), gases, hormones, blood cells, etc. to and from cells in the body to help fight diseases and help stabilize body temperature and pH to maintain homeostasis[WP].
Portion of connective tissue composed of adipocytes enmeshed in areolar tissue.
A subdivision of the muscular system corresponding to a subdisivision of an organism.
The nervous system is an organ system containing predominantly neuron and glial cells. In bilaterally symmetrical organism, it is arranged in a network of tree-like structures connected to a central body. The main functions of the nervous system are to regulate and control body functions, and to receive sensory input, process this information, and generate behavior [CUMBO].
The central nervous system is the core nervous system that serves an integrating and coordinating function. In vertebrates it consists of the neural tube derivatives: the brain and spinal cord. In invertebrates it includes central ganglia plus nerve cord.
An enclosed, cable-like bundle of axons in the peripheral nervous system originating in a nerve root in the central nervous system (or a condensed nervous structure) connecting with peripheral structures.
Anatomical system that overlaps the nervous system and is responsible for receiving and processing sensory information.
The sensory system for the sense of taste.
A filament, mostly protein, that grows from follicles found in the dermis[WP].
Anterior subdivision of a digestive tract.
A portion of the respiratory and digestive tracts; its distal limit is the superior part of the esophagus and it connects the nasal and oral cavities with the esophagus and larynx; it contains the valleculae and the pyriform recesses; its upper limits are the nasal cavity and cranial base.[FEED].
Consider generalizing to deuterostome pharynx
Tube that connects the pharynx to the stomach. In mammals, the oesophagus connects the buccal cavity with the stomach. The stratified squamous non-keratinised epithelium lining the buccal cavity is continued through the pharynx down into the oesophagus. The lowest part of the oesophagus (ca. 2 cm) is lined with gastric mucosa and covered by peritoneum. The main body of the oesophagus is lined with small, simple mucous glands. Each gland opens into the lumen by a long duct which pierces the muscularis mucosae (Wilson and Washington, 1989). A sphincter is situated at the point where the oesophagus enters the stomach to prevent gastro-oesophageal reflux, i.e. to prevent acidic gastric contents from reaching stratified epithelia of the oesophagus, where they can cause inflammation and irritation (Wilson and Washington, 1989; Brown et al., 1993).
Saliva-secreting exocrine glands of the oral cavity[GO].
Middle subdivision of a digestive tract[CJM]. In vertebrates: The middle part of the alimentary canal from the stomach, or entrance of the bile duct, to, or including, the large intestine[GO].
The caudalmost subdivision of a digestive tract.
Primordia are populations of contiguous cells that are morphologically distinct and already correspond in extent to a later organ/tissue[FBbt, Hartenstein, V. (2004)].
In the developing vertebrate, the neural tube is the embryo's precursor to the central nervous system, which comprises the brain and spinal cord. The neural groove gradually deepens as the neural folds become elevated, and ultimately the folds meet and coalesce in the middle line and convert the groove into a closed tube, the neural tube or neural canal (which strictly speaking is the center of the neural tube), the ectodermal wall of which forms the rudiment of the nervous system. [WP,unvetted].
Bottom part of the pharynx that connects to the esophagus.
The terminal portion of the intestinal tube, terminating with the anus.
Biological entity that is either an individual member of a biological species or constitutes the structural organization of an individual member of a biological species.
A duct joining the pancreas to the common bile duct to supply pancreatic juices which aid in digestion provided by the exocrine pancreas. The pancreatic duct joins the common bile duct just prior to the ampulla of Vater, after which both ducts perforate the medial side of the second portion of the duodenum at the major duodenal papilla.
EDITOR_NOTE in EHDAA2 this is an epithelium, in FMA the wall consists of epithelium and connective tissue
A pad of fibrocartilage between the articular surfaces of two successive vertebral centra which has nucleus pulposus at its core.
whose gel-like core is nucleus puloposus, by this definition only in mammals
A potential space between the visceral and parietal layers of the pericardium.
Ossified form of a vertebral centrum, a skeletal element that functionally replaces the notochord[VSAP,modified].
A zone of skin that is part of a head [Automatically generated definition].
EDITOR_NOTE TODO - distinguish between entire skin of region and arbitrary zone of skin on region
A zone of skin that is part of a trunk [Automatically generated definition].
Excretion that is the output of a kidney.
Joint fluid is a transudate of plasma that is actively secreted by synovial cells.
Skeletal element within the mouth (or in some species, upper part of the digestive tract) that is composed of dentine and is used in procuring or masticating food.
EDITOR_NOTE we place ZFA ctb 5 tooth here for now. Consider changing name from calcaeeous tooth. Note that sea cucumbers develop calcareous tooth-like structures
The first vertebral bone in the vertebral column.
The second vertebral bone in the vertebral column.
A vertebra bone that is part of the sacral region of the vertebral column.
EDITOR_NOTE todo - AAO placement to be confirmed by AAO curators (the AAO class may also include modified ribs)
A thin musculomebranous barrier that separates the abdominal and thoracic cavities. Often used for breathing control.
A paired dermal or endochondral bone that is part of the pectoral girdle. The clavicle may be in contact with the interclavicle or coracoid and forms an attachment site for pectoral musculature. [PHENOSCAPE:ad].
Traditional gross anatomy divided the liver into four lobes based on surface features. The falciform ligament is visible on the front (anterior side) of the liver. This divides the liver into a left anatomical lobe, and a right anatomical lobe.
The right lobe is much larger than the left; the proportion between them being as six to one. It occupies the right hypochondrium, and is separated from the left lobe on its upper surface by the falciform ligament; on its under and posterior surfaces by the left sagittal fossa; and in front by the umbilical notch. It is of a somewhat quadrilateral form, its under and posterior surfaces being marked by three fossæ: the porta and the fossæ for the gall-bladder and inferior vena cava, which separate its left part into two smaller lobes; the quadrate and caudate lobes. [WP,unvetted].
The left lobe is smaller and more flattened than the right. It is situated in the epigastric and left hypochondriac regions. Its upper surface is slightly convex and is moulded on to the diaphragm; its under surface presents the gastric impression and omental tuberosity. [WP,unvetted].
Subdivision of skeletal system that consists of all the vertebra and associated skeletal elements and joints in the body[modified from VSAO].
The parathyroid gland is an endocrine gland for secretion of parathyroid hormone, usually found as a pair, embedded in the connective tissue capsule on the posterior surface of the thyroid gland. Parathyroid regulates calcium and phosphorous metabolism.
Muscle tissue composed of cardiac muscle cells, forming the muscles of the heart[ZFA,modified].
Muscle tissue that consists primarily of skeletal muscle fibers.
Muscle tissue which is unstriated, composed primarily of smooth muscle fibers surrounded by a reticulum of collagen and elastic fibers. Smooth muscle differs from striated muscle in the much higher actin/myosin ratio, the absence of conspicuous sarcomeres and the ability to contract to a much smaller fraction of its resting length[GO].
textus muscularis levis; textus muscularis nonstriatus
Simple squamous epithelium of mesodermal origin which lines serous membranes. Examples: mesothelium of pleura, mesothelium of peritoneum[FMA]. Wikipedia: The mesothelium is a membrane that forms the lining of several body cavities: the pleura (thoracal cavity), peritoneum (abdominal cavity including the mesentery) and pericardium (heart sac). Mesothelial tissue also surrounds the male internal reproductive organs (the tunica vaginalis testis) and covers the internal reproductive organs of women (the tunica serosa uteri).
A major subdivision of an organism that is the entire part of the organism dorsal to a horizontal plane and bounded on one side by the same transverse plane. In vertebrares this includes the vertebral column..
The tubular structure that conducts gall bladder contents from the gall bladder to the common bile duct.
A pouch in the digestive tract that connects the ileum with the ascending colon of the large intestine. It is separated from the ileum by the ileocecal valve, and is the beginning of the large intestine. It is also separated from the colon by the cecocolic junction.
Taxon notes: in some herbivorous lizards, a cecum is present between small and large intestines[Kardong]
A blind-ended tube connected to the cecum, from which it develops embryologically[WP].
A portion of the large intestine before it becomes the rectum. In mammals, the colon is the most part of the large intestine, excluding the vermiform appendix, the rectum and the anal canal.
Section of colon which is distal to the cecum and proximal to the transversecolon.[FMA,modified].
The proximal-distal subdivision of colon that runs transversely across the upper part of the abdomen, from the right to the left colic flexure. Continuous with the descending colon[BTO,modified].
The portion of the colon between the left colic flexure and the sigmoid colon at the pelvic brim; the portion of the descending colon lying in the left iliac fossa is sometimes called the iliac colon.
The part of the large intestine that is closest to the rectum and anus. It forms a loop that averages about 40 cm. in length, and normally lies within the pelvis, but on account of its freedom of movement it is liable to be displaced into the abdominal cavity.
The body of stomach is the part of the stomach that lies between the fundus above and the pyloric antrum below; its boundaries are poorly defined[GO].
The part of the stomach attached to the esophagus. The cardia begins immediately distal to the z-line of the gastroeosphageal junction, where the squamous epithelium of the esophagus gives way to the columnar epithelium of the gastrointestinal tract[WP].
The area at the bottom of the stomach on the caudal side of the pyloric canal that contains gastrin-producing G cells, which stimulate acid production, and the luminal pH-sensitive population of somatostatin-producing D cells.
The stomach tissue region surrounding and controlling the distal outlet of the stomach, which opens into the duodenum.
The layered structure that makes up the stomach, typiclly consists of a serous coat, a muscular coat, a mucous membrane, and other tissue layers in between.
An anatomical wall that is part of a small intestine [Automatically generated definition].
The triangular region on the periphery of the liver lobules that contain a bile duct and a terminal branch of the hepatic artery and portal vein, and may also include a lymphatic vessel.
The functional unit of the liver, consisting of a mass of hepatocytes from adjacent liver lobules aligned around the hepatic arterioles and portal venules just as they anastomose into sinusoids.
A complex network of conduits that begins with the canals of Hering (intralobar bile duct) and progressively merges into a system of interlobular, septal, and major ducts which then coalesce to form the extrahepatic bile ducts, which finally deliver bile to the intestine, and in some species to the gallbladder.
The path in many species is as follows: Bile canaliculi -> Canals of Hering (intralobar bile duct) -> interlobular bile ducts -> intrahepatic bile ducts -> left and right hepatic ducts merge to form -> common hepatic duct *exits liver* and joins -> cystic duct (from gall bladder) forming -> common bile duct -> joins with pancreatic duct -> forming ampulla of Vater -> enters duodenum [WP]
The part of the biliary tree formed by the union of the cystic duct and the common hepatic duct.
Predominantly extrahepatic bile duct which is formed by the junction of the right and left hepatic ducts, which are predominantly intrahepatic, and, in turn, joins the cystic duct to form the common bile duct[GAID]. The common hepatic duct is the duct formed by the convergence of the right hepatic duct (which drains bile from the right functional lobe of the liver) and the left hepatic duct (which drains bile from the left functional lobe of the liver). The common hepatic duct then joins the cystic duct coming from the gallbladder to form the common bile duct[WP].
The duct that drains bile from the right half of the liver and joins the left hepatic duct to form the common hepatic duct.
The duct that drains bile from the left half of the liver and joins the right hepatic duct to form the common hepatic duct.
The inner layer of peritoneum that is wrapped around organs located inside the intraperitoneal space.
Anatomical cavity bounded by visceral and parietal peritoneum.
The mucosal layer that lines the stomach.
A strong ring of smooth muscle at the end of the pyloric canal which lets food pass from the stomach to the duodenum. It receives sympathetic innervation from the celiac ganglion[WP].
A mucosa that is part of a small intestine [Automatically generated definition].
A funnel shaped proximal portion of the ureter that is formed by convergence of the major calices [MP].
In this ontology, the renal pelvis is represented as the area of part-overlap between the kidney and the ureter
Outer cortical portion of the kidney, between the renal capsule and the renal medulla.
The structure containing the glomerular capsule and the glomerulus that serves as the initial blood-filtering component of a nephron.
Together, the Bowmans capsule and the glomerulus comprise the definitive renal corpuscle. http://www.gudmap.org/About/Tutorial/DevMUS.html#DMK_Nephron
A cup-like sac at the expanded beginning of a tubular component of a nephron that contains the glomerulus.
The collecting duct is a portion of the nephron through which water flows, moving passively down its concentration gradient.
The thick outer layer of the adrenal gland that produces and secretes steroid hormones such as corticosterone, estrone and aldosterone.
Orifice at the opposite end of an animal's digestive tract from the mouth. Its function is to expel feces, unwanted semi-solid matter produced during digestion, which, depending on the type of animal, may be one or more of: matter which the animal cannot digest, such as bones; food material after all the nutrients have been extracted, for example cellulose or lignin; ingested matter which would be toxic if it remained in the digestive tract; and dead or excess gut bacteria and other endosymbionts.
opening of terminal part of digestive tract
The canals that carry bile in the liver between the intralobular ducts and the biliary ductules; interlobular bile ducts are part of the interlobular portal triad.
Distensible musculomembranous organ situated in the anterior part of the pelvic cavity in which urine collects before excretion[MP].
An anatomical wall that is part of a intestine [Automatically generated definition].
The secretory units of the exocrine pancreas, where fluid containing digestive enzymes is produced; consists of a group of secretory cells surrounding a luminal space that connects to the pancreatic duct.
An endoderm derived structure that produces precursors of digestive enzymes and blood glucose regulating hormones[GO].
The acetabulum is a concave surface of the pelvis. The head of the femur meets with the pelvis at the acetabulum, forming the hip joint. There are three bones of the os coxae (hip bone) that come together to form the acetabulum. Contributing a little more than two-fifths of the structure is the ischium, which provides lower and side boundaries to the acetabulum. The ilium forms the upper boundary, providing a little less than two-fifths of the structure of the acetabulum. The rest is formed by the pubis, near the midline. It is bounded by a prominent uneven rim, which is thick and strong above, and serves for the attachment of the acetabular labrum, which reduces its opening, and deepens the surface for formation of the hip joint. At the lower part of the acetabulum is the acetabular notch, which is continuous with a circular depression, the acetabular fossa, at the bottom of the cavity of the acetabulum. The rest of the acetabulum is formed by a curved, crescent-moon shaped surface, the lunate surface, where the joint is made with the head of the femur. Its counterpart in the pectoral girdle is the glenoid fossa.[WP,unvetted].
A ring of bone formed by the sacrum and the first few coccygeal vertebrae as the roof, the pubis and ischia as the floor and the ilia and the acetabular part of the ischia as the walls.
The organism subdivision that includes the pelvic girdle skeleton and associated soft tissue. Note that this includes both the skeletal elements and associated tissues (integument, muscle, etc). Examples: There are only two instances in an organism, right and left pelvic girdle regions.
A fused bone consisting of the ilium, ischium and pubis. Together with the sacrum and coccyx, it comprises the pelvis. [WP,modified].
Paired endochondral bone that is the dorsal-most of the pelvic bones, offering attachment areas for gluteal muscles on its main surface [PHENOSCAPE:ad].
Endochondral bone that is paired, forming the posterior part of the pelvis, articulating with the pubis and ilium.
A paired endochondral bone making up the anteroventral region of the tripartite pelvic girdle forming part of the ventral edge of the acetabulum. The origin site of many proximal hindlimb muscles. [PHENOSCAPE:ad].
A multi-organ-part structure that consists of three vessels of the portal lobule including the bile duct, a terminal branch of the hepatic artery and portal vein, and may also include a lymphatic vessel.
The functional units of the liver including the lobules.
The tubules located between the bile canaliculi and interlobular bile ducts near the outer edge of a classic liver lobule.
The basic functional unit of the kidney. its chief function is to regulate the concentration of water and soluble substances like sodium salts by filtering the blood, reabsorbing what is needed and excreting the rest as urine. A nephron eliminates wastes from the body, regulates blood volume and blood pressure, controls levels of electrolytes and metabolites, and regulates blood pH. Its functions are vital to life and are regulated by the endocrine system by hormones such as antidiuretic hormone, aldosterone, and parathyroid hormone.[WP].
The glandular mucous membrane lining of the uterine cavity that is hormonally responsive during the estrous/menstrual cycle and during pregnancy.
The conic expansion of the corpus spongiosum that forms the head of the penis.
The external sac of skin that encloses the testes. It is an extension of the abdomen, and in placentals is located between the penis and anus.
The elongated structure connected to the posterior surface of the testis that transports, stores, and matures spermatozoa between testis and vas deferens.
The umbilical artery is a paired artery (with one for each half of the body) that is found in the abdominal and pelvic regions. In the fetus, it extends into the umbilical cord. [WP,unvetted].
A zone of skin that is part of a penis [Automatically generated definition].
A retractable double-layered fold of skin and mucous membrane that covers the glans penis and protects the urinary meatus when the penis is not erect.
The tubules in the testes where spermatogenesis occurs.
The upper dilated end of the nasolacrimal duct that is lodged in a deep groove formed by the lacrimal bone and frontal process of the maxilla; it connects the lacrimal canaliculi, which drain tears from the eye's surface, and the nasolacrimal duct, which conveys this fluid into the nasal cavity; like the nasolacrimal duct, the sac is lined by stratified columnar epithelium with mucus-secreting goblet cells, and is surrounded by connective tissue.
The anus and surrounding regions. Encompasses both internal and external regions, where present.
A clear, colorless, bodily fluid, that occupies the subarachnoid space and the ventricular system around and inside the brain and spinal cord.
The outer layer of peritoneum that is attached to the abdominal and pelvic walls.
A zone of skin that is part of a pelvis [Automatically generated definition].
An organism subdivision that includes the pectoral girdle skeleton and associated soft tissue. Note that this includes both the skeletal elements and associated tissues (integument, muscle, etc). Examples: There are only two instances in an organism, right and left pectoral girdle regions.
Anatomical system that is a multi-element, multi-tissue anatomical cluster that consists of the skeleton and the articular system.
The collection of all skeletal elements in a free forelimb region. Excludes the pectoral girdle.
Subdivision of skeleton consisting of all skeletal elements in an hindlimb region.
Subdivision of skeleton that is the collection of all skeletal elements in a manus, which is the distal section of the anterior forelimb skeleton consisting of the mesopodium, the metapodium and the acropodium (e.g. including the wrist, palm, and fingers)[Phenoscape].
here 'manus' includes both the wrist region, metatarsal region and acropodial region
Subdivision of trunk proper, which is demarcated from the neck by the plane of the superior thoracic aperture and from the abdomen internally by the inferior surface of the diaphragm and externally by the costal margin and associated with the thoracic vertebral column and ribcage and from the back of the thorax by the external surface of the posterolateral part of the rib cage, the anterior surface of the thoracic vertebral column and the posterior axillary lines; together with the abdomen and the perineum, it constitutes the trunk proper[FMA].
Subdivision of skeleton that is the collection of all skeletal elements in a pes, which is the distal section of the posterior hindlimb skeleton consisting of the mesopodium, the metapodium and the acropodium (e.g. including the ankle, sole, and toes)[Phenoscape].
here 'pes' includes both the ankle region, metatarsals and acropodial region
The major postaxial endochondral bone in the posterior zeugopod[Phenoscape].
A subdivision of the head that has as parts the layers deep to the surface of the anterior surface, including the mouth, eyes, and nose (when present). In vertebrates, this includes the facial skeleton and structures superficial to the facial skeleton (cheeks, mouth, eyeballs, skin of face, etc).
A zone of skin that is part of a lip [Automatically generated definition].
The part of the forelimb extending from the shoulder to the autopod[cjm].
The hip region is located lateral to the gluteal region (i.e. the buttock), inferior to the iliac crest, and overlying the greater trochanter of the thigh bone. In adults, three of the bones of the pelvis have fused into the hip bone which forms part of the hip region. The hip joint, scientifically referred to as the acetabulofemoral joint (art. coxae), is the joint between the femur and acetabulum of the pelvis and its primary function is to support the weight of the body in both static (e.g. standing) and dynamic (e.g. walking or running) postures. [WP,modified].
A segment of the hindlimb that corresponds to the joint connecting a hindlimb stylopod and zeugopod.
pedal digit (phalangeal portion) plus soft tissue
A subdivision of the pectoral complex consisting of the structures in the region of the shoulder joint (which connects the humerus, scapula and clavicle).
The joint between adjacent vertebral bodies. May be composed of the nucleus pulposus, annular ligament, and the anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments.
The sternoclavicular articulation is a double arthrodial joint composed of two portions separated by an articular disc. The parts entering into its formation are the sternal end of the clavicle, the upper and lateral part of the manubrium sterni, and the cartilage of the first rib, visible from the outside as the suprasternal notch. The articular surface of the clavicle is much larger than that of the sternum, and is invested with a layer of cartilage, which is considerably thicker than that on the latter bone. The ligaments of this joint are: Articular capsule Anterior sternoclavicular ligament Posterior sternoclavicular ligament Interclavicular ligament Costoclavicular ligament Articular disk [WP,unvetted].
The glenohumeral joint, commonly known as the shoulder joint, is a multiaxial synovial ball and socket joint and involves articulation between the glenoid fossa of the scapula (shoulder blade) and the head of the humerus (upper arm bone). [WP,unvetted].
The loose fold of skin that covers the penis.
A vessel that contains or conveys lymph, that originates as an interfibrillar or intercellular cleft or space in a tissue or organ, and that if small has no distinct walls or walls composed only of endothelial cells and if large resembles a vein in structure[BTO].
Skeletal element that is composed of bone tissue.
A sesamoid element that is composed of bone tissue.
Sesamoids are often endochondral replacement elements and in addition to bone tissue, may also be composed of articular cartilage, fibrocartilage, hyaline cartilage, and calcified cartilage.[VSAO]
An articular capsule (or joint capsule) is an envelope surrounding a synovial joint. [WP,unvetted].
The knee joint joins the thigh with the leg and consists of two articulations: one between the femur and tibia, and one between the femur and patella. It is the largest and most complicated joint in the human body. The knee is a mobile trocho-ginglymus (i.e. a pivotal hinge joint), which permits flexion and extension as well as a slight medial and lateral rotation[WP,unvetted].
A synovial joint that connects the femur to the acetbulum of the innominate bone.
A joint that connects the hindlimb autopod and zeugopod skeletons.
A tube extending from the mouth to the anus.
Subdivision of urinary system which consists of the urinary bladder and the urethra.
The segment of the respiratory tract that starts proximally with the nose and ends distally with the cricoid cartilage, before continuing to the trachea.
The segment of the respiratory tract that starts proximally with the trachea and includes all distal structures including the lungs[WP,modified].
A fleshy subdivision of one side of the face bounded by an eye, ear and the nose.
The ciliary muscle is a ring of smooth muscle in the middle layer of the eye that controls the eye's accommodation for viewing objects at varying distances and regulates the flow of aqueous humour through Schlemm's canal. [WP,unvetted].
Organ consisting of a tissue made up of various elongated cells that are specialized to contract and thus to produce movement and mechanical work[GO].
An epithelial tube or tree of tibes that transports blood away from the heart[modified from AEO definition].
Any of the tubular branching vessels that carry blood from the capillaries toward the heart.
The bone at the lower, posterior part of the skull.
An unpaired bone situated at the base of the skull in front of the temporal bone and basilar part of the occipital bone. The sphenoid bone is one of the seven bones that articulate to form the orbit. Its shape somewhat resembles that of a butterfly or bat with its wings extended.
The large, irregular bone located at the base and side of the skull; consists of three parts at birth: squamous, tympanic, and petrous.
A bone in the skull that separates the nasal cavity from the brain. As such, it is located at the roof of the nose, between the two orbits. The cubical bone is lightweight due to a spongy construction. The ethmoid bone is one of the bones that makes up the orbit of the eye[WP].
Sense organ in vertebrates that is specialized for the detection of sound, and the maintenance of balance. Includes the outer ear and middle ear, which collect and transmit sound waves; and the inner ear, which contains the organs of balance and (except in fish) hearing. Also includes the pinna, the visible part of the outer ear, present in some mammals.
The petrous portion of the temporal bone or pyramid is pyramidal and is wedged in at the base of the skull between the sphenoid and occipital bones. Directed medially, forward, and a little upward, it presents for examination a base, an apex, three surfaces, and three angles, and contains, in its interior, the essential parts of the organ of hearing. The petrous portion is among the most basal elements of the skull and forms part of the endocranium.[WP,unvetted].
Subdivision of skeleton that is an anterolateral part of the cranium and structurally supports the eye. Includes bones formed and located in sclerotic layer of eyeball.
Subdivision of skeletal system that surrounds and protects the brain. Includes the skull base, sensory capsules and the central part of the skull roof.
The nasal septum separates the left and right airways in the nose, dividing the two nostrils. It is depressed by the Depressor septi nasi muscle. [WP,unvetted].
An anatomical cavity that is part of the olfactory apparatus. This includes the space bounded anteriorly by the nares and posteriorly by the choanae, when these structures are present.
Subdivision of skeleton which includes upper and lower jaw skeletons.
Subdivision of head that consists of the upper jaw skeletal elements plus associated soft tissue (skin, lips, muscle)[cjm].
See notes for jaw w.r.t skeletal element vs subdivision of head.
Subdivision of head that consists of the lower jaw skeletal elements plus associated soft tissue (skin, lips, muscle)[cjm].
The groups of nerve cell bodies associated with the twelve cranial nerves.
cranial ganglion part of peripheral nervous system
The part of the palate formed from the fusion of the two palatine shelves, extensions of the maxillary prominences.
A muscular organ in the floor of the mouth.
The section of the pharynx that lies above the soft palate.
The portion of the pharynx that lies between the soft palate and the upper edge of the epiglottis.
The lymph tissue in the roof and posterior wall of the nasopharynx.
The circular lymphoid tissue formed by the lingual, pharyngeal, and faucial tonsils.
Either of the paired compound tubuloalveolar (aka tubuloacinar) major salivary glands composed of both serous and mucous secretory cells and situated beneath the mandible.
A continuation of the pharynx that is involved in breathing, sound production, and protecting the trachea against food aspiration.
Portion of connective tissue with various types of white blood cells enmeshed in it, most numerous being the lymphocytes[WP].
A network of orbital structures of the eye that secrete and drain tears from the surface of the eyeball into the nasal cavity; these parts include the lacrimal glands, lacrimal lake, lacrimal ducts, lacrimal canals, lacrimal sacs, nasolacrimal ducts, and lacrimal puncta.
Collagen-rich odontogenic tissue characteristic of teeth and tooth-like skeletal elements (e.g., odontodes); mature dentine is mineralized and develops from predentine tissue; often (but not always) tubular and acellular.
A dentine-like hypermineralized substance that covers the tooth tip. Enamel's primary mineral is hydroxylapatite, which is a crystalline calcium phosphate. Unlike dentin and bone, enamel does not contain collagen. Instead, it has two unique classes of proteins called amelogenins and enamelins[WP].
The part in the center of a tooth made up of living soft tissue and cells called odontoblasts[WP].
The tissues that invest or help to invest and support the teeth, including the periodontal ligament, gingivae, cementum, and alveolar and supporting bone[BTO].
Cranial nerve that branches into the lateral (to body sense organs) and the intestino-accessorial (to the skin, muscles of shoulder, hyoid, larynx, gut, lungs, and heart).
A condensation of odontoblasts that forms the part of a tooth germ that gives rise to dentin and pulp in the mature tooth. It lies below a cellular aggregation known as the enamel organ.
The space in the eye, filled with aqueous humor, and bounded anteriorly by the cornea and a small portion of the sclera and posteriorly by a small portion of the ciliary body, the iris, and part of the crystalline lens.
The pigmented middle of the three concentric layers that make up an eye, consisting of the iris, ciliary body and choroid[WP,edited].
The adjustable membrane, composed of the stroma and pigmented epithelium, located just in front of the crystalline lens within the eye.
The smooth stratified squamous epithelium that covers the outer surface of the cornea.
Opaque fibrous outer layer of the eyeball[ZFA,Kardong,WP].
Disease notes: implicated in rheumatoid arthritis.
A skeletal muscle organ that is part of the trunk region.
The thickened portion of the vascular tunic, which lies between the choroid and the iris, composed of ciliary muscle and ciliary processes.
Vascular layer containing connective tissue, of the eye lying between the retina and the sclera. The choroid provides oxygen and nourishment to the outer layers of the retina. Along with the ciliary body and iris, the choroid forms the uveal tract[WP].
The any of the paired peripheral nerves formed by the union of the dorsal and ventral spinal roots from each spinal cord segment[MP,modified].
Any of the layers that make up the retina[MP].
Cranial nerves are nerves that emerge directly from the brain, in contrast to spinal nerves, which emerge from segments of the spinal cord.
A thick watery refractive medium that fills the space between the lens and the cornea[WP].
A transparent, semigelatinous substance that fills the cavity behind the crystalline lens of the eye and in front of the retina.
Gelatinous mucoid tissue that is composed of vitreous humor and fills the cavity behind the crystalline lens of the eye and in front of the retina[MP,modified].
The chamber in the eyeball enclosing the vitreous humor, bounded anteriorly by the lens and ciliary body and posteriorly by the posterior wall of the eyeball[BTO,modified].
Any of the parts of the eye that lie in front of, or ventral to, the lens (inclusive).
Any of the parts of the eye that lie in back of, or dorsal to, the lens (but not inclusive).
The lacrimal glands are paired almond-shaped glands, located in or near the orbital region, that secrete the aqueous layer of the tear film.[WP].
A holocrine gland that secretes sebum into the hair follicles, or in hairless areas into ducts.[MP].
The mucous membrane that lines the nasal cavity[MP].
Aqueous substance secreted by the lacrimal gland.
The fibrous investing tissue, covered by keratinized epithelium, that immediately surrounds a tooth and is contiguous with its periodontal ligament and with the mucosal tissues of the mouth[Glossary of Periodontal Terms 2001].
One of the three largest glands of the oral cavity that secrete most of the saliva, including the parotid, submandibular, and sublingual glands.
One of the two fleshy folds which surround the opening of the mouth.
A fluid produced in the oral cavity by salivary glands, typically used in predigestion, but also in other functions.
A system of fluid passages in the inner ear, including both the cochlea, which is part of the auditory system, and the vestibular system, which provides the sense of balance. The bony labyrinth, or osseous labyrinth, is the network of passages with bony walls lined with periosteum. The bony labyrinth is lined with the membranous labyrinth. There is a layer of perilymph between them. The three parts of the bony labyrinth are the vestibule of the ear, the semicircular canals, and the cochlea. The vestibular system is the region of the inner ear where the semicircular canals converge, close to the cochlea (the hearing organ). The vestibular system works with the visual system to keep objects in focus when the head is moving. Joint and muscle receptors also are important in maintaining balance. The brain receives, interprets, and processes the information from these systems that control our balance. [WP,unvetted].
Ideally we would place a spatially disjoint from relationship to membranous labyrinth, but there are many parts in common. this should be resolved.
The spiral-shaped bony canal in the inner ear containing the hair cells that transduce sound. Its core component is the Organ of Corti, the sensory organ of hearing, which is distributed along the partition separating fluid chambers in the coiled tapered tube of the cochlea. [WP,modified].
Complex labyrinthine structure that comprises sensory endorgans specialized for vestibular, auditory, and acoustico-vestibular sensation.
A collection of channels that connects the conjunctival sac with the nasal cavity, encompassing the lacrimal ducts, the lacrimal sac and the naso-lacrimal duct.
Fatty lubricant matter secreted by sebaceous glands, and made of made of triglyceride oils, wax, squalene, and metabolytes of fat-producing cells[BTO,WP].
One of two bilateral, largely symmetrical organ subdivisions within the telencephalon which contain the cerebral cortex and cerebral white matter.[FMA].
Lower lateral part of the cerebral hemisphere. (MSH).
Boundary notes: It is bounded dorsally by the lateral fissure and posteriorly by an arbitrary border shared with the occipital lobe. [Wikipedia:Temporal_lobe]
Upper central part of the cerebral hemisphere. (MSH).
A nerve that arises from the caudal cervical nerves and is primarily the motor nerve of the diaphragm but also sends sensory fibers to the pericardium.
A network formed by blood vessels and the tela choroidea which secretes CSF into the ventricular spaces.
The most anterior region of the brain including both the telencephalon and diencephalon.
The midbrain is the middle division of the three primary divisions of the developing chordate brain or the corresponding part of the adult brain (in vertebrates, includes a ventral part containing the cerebral peduncles and a dorsal tectum containing the corpora quadrigemina and that surrounds the aqueduct of Sylvius connecting the third and fourth ventricles)[GO].
Part of the forebrain consisting of paired olfactory bulbs and cerebral hemispheres.
The division of the forebrain that develops from the foremost primary cerebral vesicle.
Rostral segment of the hindbrain that has as its parts the pons (where present) and the cerebellum[WP,modified].
the terms metencephalon and myelencephalon are only meaningful in mammals and birds[Neuroanatomy of the Zebrafish Brain]. In zebrafish, with the exception of the cerebellum, the ventral remainder of the metencephalon can be separated only arbitrarily from the more caudal myelencephalic portion of the medulla oblongata and thus these are not distinguished in ZFA[ZFA].
Organ component of neuraxis that has as its parts the medullary reticular formation, inferior olivary complex and cochlear nuclear complex, among other structures[FMA]. The medulla oblongata lies directly above the spinal cord and controls vital autonomic functions such as digestion, breathing and the control of heart rate[GO].
Subcortical brain region consisting of paired gray matter bodies in the dorsal diencephalon and forming part of the lateral wall of the third ventricle of the brain. The thalamus represents the major portion of the diencephalon and is commonly divided into cellular aggregates known as nuclear groups.(MeSH). The dorsal topographic division of the interbrain. The macrodissected adult human thalamus was clearly illustrated by Vesalius in 1543 and the term as defined here was introduced by His in 1893. It includes the traditional epithalamus, dorsal thalamus, and ventral thalamus of Herrick (1910, pp. 494, 498). Also see Kuhlenbeck (1927, Ch. 9) and Jones (1985, p. 87).
A specialized brain region of the ventral diencephalon arising near the end of the segmentation period; the embryonic hypothalamic region will give rise to the posterior pituitary gland as well as a number of brain nuclei. [ZFA]. One of the most important functions of the hypothalamus is to link the nervous system to the endocrine system via the pituitary gland (hypophysis).[Wikipedia].
Most dorsal part of the thalamus, comprising the pineal gland and habenular nuclei in most vertebrates. In a few vertebrates, it also includes the parietal eye. (Butler and Hodos, Comparative Vertebrate Neuroanatomy, 2nd ed, 2005, pg. 345-346.
A midline, cone like structure located in the dorso-caudal roof of the 3rd ventricle, attached by peduncles to the habenular and posterior commissures. The stalk contains nerve fibers, blood vessels, connective tissue and parenchymal cells (Paxinos, The Rat Central Nervous System, 2nd ed, pg 399).
A specialized accessory gland of the skin of mammals that secretes milk. The gland is typically only developed in females, and regresses in males.
An emulsion of fat globules within a fluid that is secreted by the mammary gland during lactation.
An endothelium that is part of an artery [Automatically generated definition].
Ventral part of the midbrain, separated from the hindbrain by the isthmus[ISBN:0471888893]. Subdivision of the midbrain lying anterior to the tectum and posterior to the substantia nigra and cerebral peduncle[FMA] The part of the midbrain extending from the substantia nigra to the cerebral aqueduct in a horizontal section of the midbrain. It forms the floor of the midbrain that surrounds the cerebral aqueduct[WP].
'tegmentum' is used generically for the ventral part of the brainstem (ISBN:0471888893). We use the label 'midbrain tegmentum' to denote the midbrain structure. In NIFSTD tegmentum is a composite structure and there is a separate class for midbrain tegmentum and pontine tegmentum
A multi-tissue structure that is part of a spinal cord.
An area of cerebral cortex defined on the basis of cytoarchitecture that have six layers. Starting from the cortical surface the layers are: molecular layer (I), external granular layer (II), external pyramidal layer (III), internal granular layer (IV), internal pyramidal layer (V), and multiform layer (VI). Neocortex is most prominent in the frontal lobe, the parietal lobe, the temporal lobe and the occipital lobe, less so in the cingulate gyrus, the parahippocampal gyrus and the insula. It is composed of two subdivisions: true isocortex and proisocortex (Carpenter-83)(NN).
Diffuse system of small concentrations of lymphoid tissue found in various sites of the body such as the gastrointestinal tract, thyroid, breast, lung, salivary glands, eye, and skin[WP]. Mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue is typically found as nodules associated with mucosal epithelia with distinct internal structures including B- and T-zones for the activation of lymphocytes[GO].
Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue in digestive tract. includes Peyer's patches, appendix, and solitary lymph nodules[GO].
Organism substance that is composed of sperm cells suspended in seminal fluid.
The liquid component of blood, in which erythrocytes are suspended.
Vital aqueous secretion of the liver that is formed by hepatocytes and modified down stream by absorptive and secretory properties of the bile duct epithelium.
The portion of blood plasma that excludes clotting factors.
One of the minute vessels that collect deoxygenated blood from the capillary plexuses returns it to the veins.
The smallest division of the artery located between the muscular arteries and the capillaries[GO].
A vessel through which blood circulates in the body.
Any of the smallest blood vessels connecting arterioles with venules.
A layer of epithelium that lines the heart, blood vessels (endothelium, vascular), lymph vessels (endothelium, lymphatic), and the serous cavities of the body[MESH]. Simple squamous epithelium which lines blood and lymphatic vessels and the heart[FMA].
The term 'endothelium' has been either restricted to the continuous cell layer of the vertebrates, as we are assuming here, or applied to all the cells able to adhere to the luminal surface of the vascular basement membrane (Casley-Smith 1980)
Organ of metabolic interchange between fetus and mother, partly of embryonic origin and partly of maternal origin[GO]. The fetal portion of the placenta is known as the villous chorion. The maternal portion is known as the decidua basalis. The two portions are held together by anchoring villi that are anchored to the decidua basalis by the cytotrophoblastic shell.
Marsupials possess only a rudimentary yolk-type placenta, with reduced nutrient and oxygen exchanging capabilities.
Portion of semisolid bodily waste discharged through the anus[MW,modified].
Peripheral portion of the lymph node, underneath the capsule[WP].
The medullary portion of the lymph node, which contains large blood vessels, sinuses and medullary cords that contain antibody-secreting plasma cells.
An artery that carries deoxygenated blood from heart to the lungs. They are the only arteries (other than umbilical arteries in the fetus) that carry deoxygenated blood..
Pulmonary veins are blood vessels that transport blood from the lungs to the heart[GO].
A vein that conducts blood from the digestive organs, spleen, pancreas, and gallbladder to the liver[BTO].
Soft tissue that lines the non-cartilaginous surfaces within joints with cavities (synovial joints).
membrana synovialis (capsula articularis)
membrana synovialis capsulae articularis
synovial layer of articular capsule of synovial joint
synovial membrane of articular capsule of synovial joint
synovium of articular capsule of synovial joint
A nervous system structure composed primarily of nerve cell bodies (somas). May also include dendrites and the initial unmyelinated portion of axons.
The most posterior of the three principal regions of the brain. In mammals and birds the hindbrain is divided into a rostral metencephalon and a caudal myelencephalon. In zebrafish, with the exception of the cerebellum, the ventral remainder of the metencephalon can be separated only arbitrarily from the more caudal myelencephalic portion of the medulla oblongata (From: Neuroanatomy of the Zebrafish Brain)[ZFA]. Organ component of neuraxis that has as its parts the pons, cerebellum and medulla oblongata[FMA].
A tiny smooth muscle that connects the hair follicle with the dermis.
Muscle tissue that contains fibers that are divided by transverse bands into striations.
Part of the metencephalon that lies in the posterior cranial fossa behind the brain stem. It is concerned with the coordination of movement[MESH]. A large dorsally projecting part of the brain concerned especially with the coordination of muscles and the maintenance of bodily equilibrium, situated between the brain stem and the back of the cerebrum , and formed in humans of two lateral lobes and a median lobe[BTO]. Brain structure derived from the anterior hindbrain, and perhaps including posterior midbrain. The cerebellum plays a role in somatic motor function, the control of muscle tone, and balance[ZFA].
A two-lobed endocrine gland found in all vertebrates, located in front of and on either side of the trachea in humans, and producing various hormones, such as triiodothyronine and calcitonin[BTO].
Respiration organ that develops as an outpocketing of the esophagus.
Snakes and limbless lizards typically possess only the right lung as a major respiratory organ; the left lung is greatly reduced, or even absent. Amphisbaenians, however, have the opposite arrangement, with a major left lung, and a reduced or absent right lung [WP]
An interconnected tubular multi-tissue structure contains fluid that is actively transported around the organism[ZFA]. Examples: vasculature of lung, vasculature of face.
Anatomical structure that is part of an embryo.
The truncus arteriosus and bulbus cordis are divided by the aorticopulmonary septum. The truncus arteriosus gives rise to the ascending aorta and the pulmonary trunk. The bulbus cordis gives rise to the smooth parts (outflow tract) of the left and right ventricles.
The endocardial cushion is a specialized region of mesenchymal cells that will give rise to the heart septa and valves[GO]. Swellings of tissue present between the endocardial and myocardial cell layers that will give rise to the interstitial cells of the cardiac valves[ZFA].
GO graph seems to suggest this is an endothelium. WP: The endocardial cushions are thought to arise from a subset of endothelial cells that undergo epithelial to mesenchymal transformation, a process whereby these cells break cell-to-cell contacts and migrate into the cardiac jelly (towards to interior of the heart tube). Latest (2010-06-01) new def suggested for GO, added above. Note that EHDAA2 has a more detailed model which we may later adopt. JB: Patterning makes the cushions lay down connective tissue in three domains that force out the local endothelial lining and so the leaflets form
The dermis is a layer of skin between the epidermis (with which it makes up the skin) and subcutaneous tissues, and is composed of two layers, the papillary and reticular dermis[WP].
Lowermost layer of the integumentary system in vertebrates. Types of cells that are found in the hypodermis are fibroblasts, adipose cells, and macrophages. It is derived from the mesoderm, but unlike the dermis, it is not derived from the dermatome region of the mesoderm. The hypodermis is used mainly for fat storage[WP].
A tube-like opening in the epidermis where the hair shaft develops and into which the sebaceous glands open[GO].
Development notes:Formation largely takes place during fetal and perinatal skin development. However, after skin wounding de novo hair follicle formation may also occur in adult mouse and rabbit skin[DOI:10.1016/j.cub.2008.12.005].
An organ that is located within the body cavity (or in its extension, in the scrotum); it consists of organ parts that are embryologically derived from endoderm, splanchnic mesoderm or intermediate mesoderm; together with other organs, the viscus constitutes the respiratory, gastrointestinal, urinary, reproductive and immune systems, or is the central organ of the cardiovascular system. Examples: heart, lung, esophagus, kidney, ovary, spleen.
A cardiac atrium that is in the right side of the heart. It receives deoxygenated blood. In mammals, this comes from the superior and inferior vena cava and the coronary sinus, and pumps it into the right ventricle through the tricuspid valve.
A cardiac atrium that is in the left side of the heart. It receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary veins, In mammals this is pumped into the left ventricle, via the Mitral valve.
A cardiac ventricle that is in the right side of the heart.
Cardiac chamber in which blood enters the heart.
Cardiac chamber through which blood leaves the heart.
A cardiac ventricle that is in the left side of the heart.
A cardiac septum that divides the left and right atria of the heart.
The postcranial subdivision of skeleton structural components forming the long axis of the vertebrate body; in Danio, consisting of the notochord, vertebrae, ribs, supraneurals, intermuscular bones, and unpaired median fins; in human consists of the bones of the vertebral column, the thoracic cage and the pelvis[ZFA+FMA].
previous some AOs had used the term 'axial skeleton' to include the skull. This is being resolved (see tracker items above). Status: MA - fixed.
Subdivision of skeleton which which consists of all the skeletal elements in in the pectoral and pelvic appendage complexes[cjm].
The organ covering the body that consists of the dermis and epidermis.
The thin membranous structure between parts of the heart, including the atria, ventricles, and outflow tract.
Organism subdivision which is the part of the body posterior to the cervical region (or head, when cervical region not present) and anterior to the caudal region. Includes the sacrum when present.
A paired appendage that is evolved from a paired fin. The extent of this structure includes autopod, stylopod and zeugopod regions when present, but excludes the girdle and its parts.
A (free) limb that is connected to a pectoral girdle. The extent of this structure includes autopod, stylopod and zeugopod regions when present, but excludes the pectoral girdle and its parts.
A (free) limb that is connected to a pelvic girdle region. The extent of this structure includes autopod, stylopod and zeugopod regions when present, but excludes the pelvic girdle and its parts.
The sensory system subserving the sense of vision.
Sensory system responsible for the perception of spatial orientation and auditory stimuli.
The organ that functions to filter blood and to store red corpuscles and platelets.
An exocrine gland which secretes bile and functions in metabolism of protein and carbohydrate and fat, synthesizes substances involved in the clotting of the blood, synthesizes vitamin A, detoxifies poisonous substances, stores glycogen, and breaks down worn-out erythrocytes[GO].
Subdivision of digestive tract that connects the stomach to the large intestine and is where much of the digestion and absorption of food takes place (with the exception of ruminants). The mammalian small intestine is long and coiled and can be differentiated histologically into: duodenum, jejunem, ileum[WP,cjm,Kardong].
An organ that aids digestion and stores bile produced by the liver[WP].
Rats do not have a gallbladder, but produce bile. The bile flows directly from the liver through the (hepatic) bile duct into the small intestine (Hebel and Stromberg, 1988)
A paired organ of the urinary tract that produces urine and maintains bodily fluid homeostasis, blood pressure, pH levels, red blood cell production and skeleton mineralization.
The first part of the small intestine. At the junction of the stomach and the duodenum the alimentary canal is inflected. The duodenum first goes anteriorly for a short distance, turns dorsally, and eventually caudally, thus it is a U-shaped structure with two horizontal sections (a ventral and a dorsal one).
The portion of the small intestine that extends from the duodenum to the ileum.
The portion of the small intestine that extends from the jejunum to the colon.
In mammals, the pronephros is the first of the three embryonic kidneys to be established and exists only transiently. In lower vertebrates such as fish and amphibia, the pronephros is the fully functional embryonic kidney and is indispensible for larval life[GO].
Once the more complex mesonephros forms the pronephros undergoes apoptosis in amphibians. In fishes the nephron degenerates but the organ remains and becomes a component of the immune system[Wikipedia:Pronephros]. // TODO - check developmental relationships. Note that we previously include the ZFA/XAO terms under the more specific 'pronephric kidney', but these are now merged. TODO GCI: relationship: capable_of GO:0030104
A cardial valve in the atrioventricular region that separates the atrium from the ventricle and prevent backflow from the ventricles into the atria during systole.
An atrioventricular valve that is part of the outflow part of the right atrium.
The semilunar valve of the heart that lies between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery.
The endocardium is an anatomical structure comprised of an endothelium and an extracellular matrix that forms the innermost layer of tissue of the heart, and lines the heart chambers[GO].
fixed in GO to reflect FMA. See email to David/Varsha June 18 2010
Lung which consists of the right upper lobe, middle lobe and right lower lobe.[FMA].
Lung which consists of the left upper lobe and left lower lobe.[FMA].
The upper conducting airways of the lung; these airways arise from the terminus of the trachea.
A portion of adipose tissue that is part of the hypodermis, beneath the dermis.
Anatomical cluster consisting of the hematopoietic system and the lymphoid system, or its analogs.
Capsule surrounding lymph node composed of connective tissue with some plain muscle fibers.
The glandular, anterior lobe of the pituitary gland. The anterior pituitary regulates several physiological processes including stress, growth, and reproduction[WP]. The anterior lobe of the hypophysis (pituitary gland). This lobe contains cells that produce prolactin, growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, follicle-stimulating hormone and proopiomelanocortin[ZFA].
The posterior part of the pituitary gland that secretes hormones involved in blood pressure regulation such as oxytocin and antidiuretic hormon.
Vasculature that is part of a head [Automatically generated definition].
A vasculature that is part of a trunk [Automatically generated definition].
Vasculature that is part of the eye region.
Anatomical system that consists of the muscular and skeletal systems.
Nonsynovial joint in which the articulating bones or cartilages are connected by ligaments. Examples: sagittal suture, inferior tibiofibular syndesmosis, gomphosis.[FMA].
Nonsynovial joint in which the articulating bones or cartilages are connected by cartilage. Examples: Spheno-occipital synchondrosis, first sternocostal joint, pubic symphysis.[FMA].
Cartilaginous joint in which the articulating bones or cartilages are connected by fibrocartilage. Examples: pubic symphysis, intervertebral symphysis, manubriosternal joint.[FMA].
Joint in which the articulating bones or cartilages are connected by an articular capsule which encloses a synovial membrane and a synovial cavity. Examples: Temporomandibular joint, knee joint.[FMA].
The part of the coelemic cavity lumen that is enclosed by the walls of the thorax.
An intersegmental rod-shaped bone that forms in the peritoneal membrane and attach to the vertebral parapophyses.
Part of the central nervous system located in the vertebral canal continuous with and caudal to the brain; demarcated from brain by plane of foramen magnum. It is composed of an inner core of gray matter in which nerve cells predominate, and an outer layer of white matter in which myelinated nerve fibers predominate, and surrounds the central canal. (CUMBO).
Endoskeletal elements that encase the brain, nose, inner ear[cjm]. that part of the neurocranium formed by endochondral ossification and comprising the bones of the base of the skull[TFD].
The jelly-like substance in the middle of the spinal disc which is a remnant of the notochord.
nucleus pulposus (diskus intervertebralis)
nucleus propulsus of intervertebral disk
Function noyes: It functions to distribute hydraulic pressure in all directions within each disc under compressive loads.
An organ that houses olfactory neurons and is responsible for the sense of smell. Examples include the vertebrate nose and the Drosophila dorsal organ.
A brain ventricle that is part of a telencephalon. In mammals and species with an evaginated telencephalon, this is one of a pair of lateral structures, one in each hemisphere.
Organ system subdivision that consists of the organs and ducts that are involved in the production and transportation of bile. In most species this is the gallbladder and the bile ducts (biliary tree).
Stalk-like part of the brain that includes amongst its parts the medulla oblongata of the hindbrain and the tegmentum of the midbrain[ZFA,MP,generalized].
'brainstem' is a loose term that sometimes refers to the ventral parts o the brain except for any part of the telencephalon - sometimes it includes the diencephalon or subpallial telencephalon structures (ISBN:0471888893). Here we use it in a more restriced sense, to include only the medulla oblongata, pons (when present) and the midbrain tegmentum (following the ZFA definitions).
The atrial part of middle layer of the heart, comprised of involuntary muscle.
Mucus produced in the nasal cavity, by the respiratory segment of the nasal mucosa.
EDITOR_NOTE TODO - split nasal vs respiratory tract?
Part of choroid plexus contained in the lateral ventricle.
chorioid plexus of cerebral hemisphere of lateral ventricle
lateral ventricle chorioid plexus of cerebral hemisphere
A neural nucleus that is part of the brain.
The cavity within the body of all animals higher than the coelenterates and certain primitive worms, formed by the splitting of the embryonic mesoderm into two layers. In mammals it forms the peritoneal, pleural, and pericardial cavities.
EDITOR_NOTE check the FMA placement here; ncit placement of body cavity here probably not correct
A flexible rod-shaped body found in embryos of all chordates. It is composed of cells derived from the mesoderm and defines the primitive axis of the embryo. In some chordates, it persists throughout life as the main axial support of the body, while in most vertebrates it becomes the nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disc. The notochord is found ventral to the neural tube.
The notochord appears early in embryogeny and plays an important role in promoting or organizing the embryonic development of nearby structures. In most adult chordates the notochord disappears or becomes highly modified. In some non-vertebrate chordates and fishes the notochord persists as a laterally flexible but incompressible skeletal rod that prevents telescopic collapse of the body during swimming[TOLWEB]
Somites are spheres of epithelial cells that form sequentially along the anterior-posterior axis of the embryo through mesenchymal to epithelial transition of the presomitic mesoderm.
When the somite becomes segmented from the segmental plate, it is composed of an epithelial sac enclosing mesenchymal somitocoel cells. Thereafter the somite differentiates into two parts, the ventro-medial mesenchymal sclerotome and the dorso-lateral epithelial dermomyotome. This change in the epithelial somite depends on surrounding tissue [PMID:15906248]
Anatomical system that consists of the glands and parts of glands that produce exocrine secretions and help to integrate and control bodily metabolic activity. Exocrine glands are glands that secrete their products (hormones) into ducts (duct glands). They are the counterparts to endocrine glands, which secrete their products (hormones) directly into the bloodstream (ductless glands) or release hormones (paracrines) that affect only target cells nearby the release site. [Wikipedia].
The connecting cord from the developing embryo to the placenta.
An arterial trunk which is continuous with the heart and branches into the pulmonary arteries.
A specialized region of ectoderm found between the neural ectoderm (neural plate) and non-neural ectoderm and composed of highly migratory pluripotent cells that delaminate in early embryonic development from the dorsal neural tube and give rise to an astounding variety of differentiated cell types[MP].
Gene notes: Many factors and genes, such as Pax3 (Tremblay et al., 1995), slug (Nieto et al., 1994), AP-2 (Zhang et al., 1996; Schorle et al., 1996), and Wnt-1/3a (Ikeya et al., 1997) are expressed in the dorsal most region of the neural tube, and have been shown to be involved in the generation of neural crest cells.
Embryonic ectoderm that gives rise to nervous tissue.
epithelium tubi neuralis; neuroectoderma
A thoracic vertebra endochondral element that is composed primarily of a bone tissue.
A region of the serous membrane that forms the innermost layer of the pericardium and the outer surface of the heart.
EDITOR_NOTE TODO - check links with UBERON:0002425 visceral serous pericardium. develops from proepicardium. WP:Epicardium -- When considered as a part of the pericardium, it is the inner layer, or visceral pericardium, continuous with the serous layer.
The middle layer of the heart, comprised mainly of striated cardiac muscle fibers.
EDITOR_NOTE TODO - check 'Myocardum proper' in FMA. We superclass the more generic class for now. FMA has is_a muscle layer - should we add this? ZFA and BTO both have is_a 'cardiac muscle' (tissue?). But in U we also follow FMA and have cardiac muscle tissue of myocardium (there is also Fibrocollagenous connective tissue of myocardium), which would be identical (see issue-10). Note that GO also treats left/right ventricular cardiac muscle tissue synonymous with ventricular myocardium
The cardiac conduction system consists of specialized cardiomyocytes that regulate the frequency of heart beat[GO].
The part of the cardiac conduction system that controls the timing of heart muscle contraction. It relays electrical signals to the AV node[GO]. Subdivision of conducting system of heart at the junction of the right atrium and the superior vena cava, around the sinoatrial nodal branch of right coronary artery and is continuous with the internodal tract[FMA].
WP:Heart states: "The SA node is found in all amniotes but not in more primitive vertebrates. In these animals, the muscles of the heart are relatively continuous and the sinus venosus coordinates the beat which passes in a wave through the remaining chambers. Indeed, since the sinus venosus is incorporated into the right atrium in amniotes, it is likely homologous with the SA node. In teleosts, with their vestigial sinus venosus, the main centre of coordination is, instead, in the atrium.". Note however that ZFA has SA node.
An area of conducting tissue between the atria and the ventricles of the heart that conducts the normal electrical impulse from the atria to the ventricles.
The lower segment of the trunk, inferioposterior to the abdomen proper, in the transition area between the trunk and the lower limbs.
Serous membrane which is divided into parietal and visceral serous pericardium.
A serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity[VHOG,modified].
Membrane organ which is attached to the pericardial sac proper and the central tendon of diaphragm and is continuous with the pretracheal fascia.[FMA].
Membrane organ that surrounds the brain and the spinal cord.
Thick, fibrous meningeal covering surrounding the brain and spinal cord. It is the outermost of the three meningeal coverings. It consists of two layers: the periosteal dura linking the inner surface of the skull and the meningeal dura that lies above the arachnoid dural membrane. The meningeal layer draws away from the periosteal layer and certain locations to form the dural reflections.
A gland that secretes products (excluding hormones and other chemical messengers) into ducts (duct glands) which lead directly into the external environment[WP]. Typical exocrine glands include sweat glands, salivary glands, mammary glands, stomach, liver, pancreas.
The prostate gland is a partly muscular, partly glandular body that is situated near the base of the mammalian male urethra and secretes an alkaline viscid fluid which is a major constituent of the ejaculatory fluid.
Endocrine glands are glands of the endocrine system that secrete their products directly into the circulatory system rather than through a duct.[WP, modified].
Either of a pair of complex endocrine organs near the anterior medial border of the kidney consisting of a mesodermal cortex that produces glucocorticoid, mineralocorticoid, and androgenic hormones and an ectodermal medulla that produces epinephrine and norepinephrine[BTO].
Anatomical structure of largely lymphoid tissue that functions in cell-mediated immunity by being the site where T cells develop.
The soft tissue that fills the cavities of bones.
Either of the two small almond-shaped masses of lymph tissue found on either side of the oropharynx.
Tonsils on the left and right sides at the back of the throat. one of the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues (MALT), located at the entrance to the upper respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts to protect the body from the entry of exogenous material through mucosal sites[WP].
Tissue with cells that deposit non-polarized extracellular matrix including connective tissue fibers and ground substance.
Muscle tissue is a contractile tissue made up of actin and myosin fibers[GO].
Vertebrate muscle is categorized into three major muscle types defined by their structural and functional properties: skeletal, cardiac and smooth. In Dmel the counterparts are somatic, heart/cardiac and visceral. Here we take a cell type based approach.
Distal portion of the hind limb, including tarsal region, metatarsal region and digits.
Anatomical system that is involved in the production of hematopoietic cells.
Lymph is the fluid that is formed when interstitial fluid enters the conduits of the lymphatic system through lymph capillaries[WP].
The paired channels leading from the lacrimal sacs to the inferior meatus of the nose, through which tears are conducted through the nasal cavity.
Any of the ducts that form the biliary tree, carrying bile from the liver to the small intestine.
The triangular flat bone of the nasal septum.
Distal segment of the fore limb, including carpal region, metacarpal region and digits.
The outer serous membrane of the pulmonary pleural.
the part of the pleura external to the visceral pleura. It lines the inner surface of the chest wall, covers the diaphragm, and is reflected over the structures occupying the middle of the thorax
The inner serous membrane of the pulmonary pleural. The visceral pleura lines the lungs.
The fluid-filled cavity that lies between the visceral and parietal pleurae.
Anatomical system that protects the body from foreign substances, cells, and tissues by producing the immune response and that includes especially the thymus, spleen, lymphoid tissue, lymphocytes including the B cells and T cells, and antibodies.
A double-walled sac containing the heart and the roots of the great vessels.
The combination of pericardial sac (a double-walled sac containing the heart and the roots of the great vessels) plus fibrous pericardium.
Parietal serous membrane which is part of the pericardium and forms the outer layer of the pericardial sac.
Transudate contained in the pericardial cavity.[FMA].
The autonomic nervous system is composed of neurons that are not under conscious control, and is comprised of two antagonistic components, the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. The autonomic nervous system regulates key functions including the activity of the cardiac (heart) muscle, smooth muscles (e.g. of the gut), and glands[GO].
autonomic division of peripheral nervous system
autonomic part of peripheral nervous system
divisio autonomica systematis nervosi peripherici
pars autonomica systematis nervosi peripherici
The small, erectile body located at the anterior end of the vulva.
The ossified form of a vertebral element, a skeletal element that forms around the notochord and is part of the vertebral column.
A vertebra that is located in the cervical region of the vertebral column.
Large vertebra of the movable part of the vertebral column, characterized by the absence of the foramen transversarium within the transverse process, and by the absence of facets on the sides of the body.
Connected anatomical system that forms a barrier between an animal and its environment. In vertebrates, the integumental system consists of the epidermis, dermis plus associated glands and adnexa such as hair and scales. In invertebrates, the integumental system may include cuticle.
Skeletal tissue that is avascular, rich in glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) and typically includes chondrocytes within isolated lacunae. Cartilage tissue is deposited by chondroblasts.
Previous: "A portion of connective tissue dominated by extracellular matrix containing collagen type II and large amounts of proteoglycan, particularly chondroitin sulfate[GO]. Regular connective tissue, which consists of chondrocytes and related cells, the intercellular matrix of which is chondrified. Examples: hyaline cartilage, fibrocartilage, elastic cartilage[FMA]. an avascular supporting and articular skeletal tissue. It also functions as the primary endoskeletal support in vertebrate embryos. Cartilage is deposited by and is composed of chondroblasts and chondrocytes separated by an extracellular matrix, which may or may not mineralize depending on cartilage type, age, or taxon[Hall and Witten]." See also FMA:71500 Set of cartilages, FMA:55107 Cartilage organ, FMA:12264 Articular cartilage. // elements made from cartilage, cartilage-like, or chondroid tissues evolved in invertebrates[H&W]
A gland that is part of a skin of body [Automatically generated definition].
The part of the digestive system that contains the liver and the biliary system.
An epithelium that is part of the mouth and lines the oral cavity, typically stratified squamous, and may be para-, ortho- or non- keratinized. Primary barrier between oral environment and deeper tissues.
Visceral serous membrane which is continuous with the parietal serous pericardium and is attached to the myocardium[FMA].
A bone that is part of a limb [Automatically generated definition].
A large sesamoid bone found in the distal femur/proximal tibial region of the hindlimb of tetrapods. The patella is the attachment site for proximal hindlimb tendons.[PHENOSCAPE:ad].
The patella, also known as the knee cap or kneepan, is the largest sesamoid bone in the human body. The primary functional role of the patella is knee extension. The patella has convergently evolved in placental mammals and birds; marsupials have only rudimentary, non-ossified patellae. In more primitive tetrapods, including living amphibians and reptiles, the muscle tendons from the upper leg are attached directly to the tibia, and the patella is not present. See also: fabella.
The lymphatic system in vertebrates is a network of conduits that carry a clear fluid called lymph. It also includes the lymphoid tissue through which the lymph travels. Lymphoid tissue is found in many organs, particularly the lymph nodes, and in the lymphoid follicles associated with the digestive system such as the tonsils. The system also includes all the structures dedicated to the circulation and production of lymphocytes, which includes the spleen, thymus, bone marrow and the lymphoid tissue associated with the digestive system[WP].
Terminal segment of free limb, immediately distal to the zeugopod region. The fully developed autopod consists of the autopod skeleton plus associated structures such as integument, muscle tissue, vasculature etc. The autopod is divided into mesopodial, metapodiual, and acropodial segments. Examples: human hand, mouse paw, human foot.
The middle free limb segment, between the autopod and stylopod segments. Includes as parts the zeugopodial skeleton. Examples: There are two types of zeugopod: forelimb zeugopod (aka forearm), hindlimb zeugopod (aka crus).
There exists some controversy about which podial segments are present in some fishes, e.g. if the autopod is not newly evolved in tetrapods, there is a question as to which segments are actually present in basal vertebrate taxa.[PHENOSCAPE:curators]
The proximal free limb segment. Includes as parts the stylopod skeleton.
Skeletal tissue with a collagen-rich extracellular matrix vascularized, mineralized with hydroxyapatite and typically including osteocytes located in lacunae that communicate with one another by cell processes (in canaliculi). Bone is deposited by osteoblasts.
Endochondral_ossification is an essential process during the rudimentary formation of long bones, with the exception of the clavicle[Wikipedia:Endochondral_ossification]. The medial and and lateral ends undergo EO, the mid-portion is formed by a process with features of EO & IO (the process is shared by the mandible)[ISBN:9780397517251]
Region of the scapula where the latter meets with the clavicle: attachment point of the clavicle to the scapula in some taxa.
Replacement bone that forms within cartilage.
Bone tissue forms directly within mesenchyme, and does not replace other tissues[TAO]. Intramembranous ossification is the formation of bone in which osteoblasts secrete a collagen-proteoglycan matrix that binds calcium salts and becomes calcified[GO]. Intramembranous ossification is the way flat bones and the shell of a turtle are formed[GO]. Unlike endochondral ossification, cartilage is not present during intramembranous ossification[WP].
The base of skull is the most inferior area of the skull, composed of the endocranium and lower parts of the skull roof.
The skull base is formed from a series of cartilages either side of, and rostral to, the notochord, whose tip lies just caudal to the pituitary gland. It is closely associated with the sensory capsules, which partially or completely sur- round the olfactory epithelium, the eye, and the inner ear[PMID:11523816]
Connective tissue composed of elastic fibers.
The middle layer of an artery or vein. [WP,unvetted].
May be composed of smooth muscle and elastic tissue
The innermost layer of a blood vessel which is a lining of endothelial cells facing the lumen[Kardong].
A major subdivision of a mature or developing limb, including both skeletal elements (or the mesenchyme that gives rise to the skeletal elements) and associated tissues, such as muscle, connective tissue, integument. Examples: autopod region, zeugopod region, stylopod region, metapodial region, arm region. Excludes the limb girdles.
An organ that functions as a secretory or excretory organ.
In amniote animal embryology, the epiblast is a tissue type derived either from the inner cell mass in mammals or the blastodisc in birds and reptiles. It lies above the hypoblast. In mammalian embryogenesis, the columnar cells of the epiblast are adjacent to the trophoblast, while the cuboidal cells of the hypoblast are closer to the blastocoele. The epiblast, whilst referred to as the primary ectoderm, differentiates to form all three layers of the trilaminar germ disc in a process called gastrulation[WP]. The outer of the two layers of the blastoderm that form during gastrulation, corresponding to primitive ectoderm during gastrulation and to the definitive ectoderm after gastrulation[ZFA].
One of a series of paired bulges that develop along the lateral walls of the foregut. The pharyngeal arches have developmental contributions from endoderm, mesoderm, and neural crest cells and are separated by anterior lateral endoderm out-pockets known as pharyngeal pouches.
A subdivision of the autopod that has as part a series of phalanges together with associated vasculature, musculature, integument and nerves. It is continuous with the metapodial subdivision of the autopod, but does not include the metapodials. In species such as humans, fully formed digits are distinct, whereas in other species the digits may be connected by interdigital webbing, or may be completely unseparated (for example, in cetaceans).
digit (phalangeal portion) plus soft tissue
Ectodermal placode that develops in the head into a part of the sensory nervous system. With a few exceptions (lens, adenohypophyseal), cranial placodes are neurogenic.
Anatomical space which contains portions of one or more body substances and is bounded by the internal surface of one maximally connected anatomical structure. Examples: cranial cavity, pharyngeal recess space, nasal cavity, tooth socket, cavity of serous sac, lumen of stomach, lumen of artery, fornix of vagina.
Anatomical divisons of the brain according to one or more criteria, e.g. cytoarchitectural, gross anatomy. Parts may be contiguous in 3D or not, e.g., basal ganglia.
A spinal cord segment that adjacent_to a cervical region.
segmenta cervicalia medullae spinalis [1-8
A wall, dividing a cavity or structure into smaller ones[WP].
A thick plate of cells derived from the neural ectoderm in the head region of the embryo that develops into the olfactory region of the nasal cavity.
Olfactory placodes are the only ectodermal placodes to produce glia, a cell type typically derived from neural crest // Note that NBK53171 classifies this as non-neurogenic
An epithelial sac of invaginated ectoderm formed from the otic placode that gives rise to the structures of the inner ear[MP].
The outermost layer (or layers, depending on the species) of embryonic skin, essential for the development of the epidermis and establishment of the barrier functions. The periderm derives from the outer layer of the ectoderm.
The portion of neural plate anterior to the mid-hindbrain junction.
The portion of neural plate posterior to the mid-hindbrain junction.
Unsegmented field of paraxial mesoderm present posterior to the most recently formed somite pair, from which somites will form.
In mammals, the pronephric duct is the predecessor of the Wolffian duct[WP].
The pronephric duct collects the filtrate from the pronephric tubules and opens to the exterior of the pronephric kidney[GOC:mtg_kidney_jan10, PMID:15647339, XAO:0000063, ZFA:0000150]
Blood islands are structures in the developing embryo which lead to many different parts of the circulatory system. They primarily derive from plexuses formed from angioblasts. Within them, vacuoles appear through liquefaction of the central part of the syncytium into plasma. The lumen of the blood vessels thus formed is probably intracellular. The flattened cells at the periphery form the endothelium. The nucleated red blood corpuscles develop either from small masses of the original angioblast left attached to the inner wall of the lumen or directly from the flat endothelial cells. In either case the syncytial mass thus formed projects from and is attached to the wall of the vessel. Such a mass is known as a blood island and hemoglobin gradually accumulates within it. Later the cells on the surface round up, giving the mass a mulberry-like appearance. Then the red blood cells break loose and are carried away in the plasma. Such free blood cells continue to divide. Blood islands have been seen in the area vasculosa in the omphalomesenteric vein and arteries, and in the dorsal aorta[WP, unvetted].
The intermediate mesoderm is located between the lateral mesoderm and the paraxial mesoderm. It develops into the kidney and gonads.
The second pharyngeal arch will form the hyoid apparatus. The cranial neural crest cells that populate the second pharyngeal arch emerge primarily from rhombomere 4 and will form skeletal elements.
Lateral neurogenic placodes positioned dorsal of the epibranchial placodes.
The only remaining dorsolateral placode in land vertebrates is the otic/octaval placode
The axial mesoderm includes the prechordal mesoderm and the chordamesoderm. It gives rise to the prechordal plate and to the notochord.
A cranial placode which, once specified, invaginates to form an otic cup, which eventually separates from the surface ectoderm to form the otic vesicle or otocyst, a rounded structure without appar- ent polarity. As the otic placode invaginates into a cup neuroblasts delaminate from the anterior ventral aspect of the otic epithelium to give rise to neurons of the vestibulocochlear (statoacoustic) ganglion of cranial nerve VIII[NBK].
Portion of tissue that is part of the anterior neural keel and will form the optic vesicle[ZFA]. A paired ectodermal placode that becomes invaginated to form the embryonic lens vesicles.
Multi-tissue structure that is comprised of neural and non-neural epithelial layers which will form the retina and retinal pigmented epithelium of the mature eye[ZFA]. double walled structured formed by expansion and invagination of the distal end of the optic vesicle that develops into the pigmented and sensory layers of the retina while the mouth of the optic cup eventually forms the pupil of the eye[MP].
A thickened portion of ectoderm which serves as the precursor to the lens. SOX2 and Pou2f1 are involved in its development[WP].
Paired organ that connects the primitive kidney Wolffian body (or mesonephros) to the cloaca and serves as the anlage for certain male reproductive organs. the Wolffian duct is what remains of the pronephric duct after the atrophy of the pronephros[WP]. In Zebrafish: Duct of the adult kidney (mesonephros), present bilaterally ventral to the somites and leading to the cloacal chamber[ZFA].
A region of embryonic ectodermal cells that lie directly above the notochord. During neurulation, they change shape and produce an infolding of the neural plate (the neural fold) that then seals to form the neural tube[XAO]. The earliest recognizable dorsal ectodermal primordium of the central nervous system present near the end of gastrulation before infolding to form the neural keel; consists of a thickened pseudostratified epithelium[ZFA].
The paraxial mesoderm is the mesoderm located bilaterally adjacent to the notochord and neural tube[GO].
Portion of the middle of the three primary germ layers of the embryo that resides on the periphery of the embryo, is continuous with the extra-embryonic mesoderm, splits into two layers enclosing the intra-embryonic coelom, and gives rise to body wall structures[MP].
A transitional population of migrating mesenchymal cells that derive from somites and that will become muscle cells.
Bilateral groups of cells consisting of three rows: one row of endocardial precursors medially and two rows of myocardical precursors laterally. The two populations fuse at the midline to form the heart rudiment or cone.
Ventral somitic compartment that is a precursor of the axial skeleton[XAO]. Sclerotomes eventually differentiate into the vertebrae and most of the skull. The caudal (posterior) half of one sclerotome fuses with the rostral (anterior) half of the adjacent one to form each vertebra. From their initial location within the somite, the sclerotome cells migrate medially towards the notochord. These cells meet the sclerotome cells from the other side to form the vertebral body. From this vertebral body, sclerotome cells move dorsally and surround the developing spinal cord, forming the vertebral arch[WP].
The initial thyroid precursor, the thyroid primordium, starts as a simple midline thickening and develops to form the thyroid diverticulum. This structure is initially hollow, although it later solidifies and becomes bilobed. The 2 lobes are located on either side of the midline and are connected via an isthmus.
Neural crest cells (NCCs) originating in the anterior part of the developing embryo and residing between the mid-diencephalon and the forming hindbrain; cranial NCCs migrate dorsolaterally to form the craniofacial mesenchyme that differentiates into various craniofacial cartilages and bones, cranial neurons, glia, and connective tissues of the face; these cells enter the pharyngeal pouches and arches where they give rise to thymic cells, bones of the middle ear and jaw (mandible), and the odontoblasts of the tooth primordia; like their counterparts in the trunk, cranial NCCs also contribute to the developing peripheral nervous system, along with the pigmented cell (i.e. melanocyte) lineage.
Gonochoristic organism that can produce female gametes.
Gonochoristic organism that can produce male gametes.
Anatomical structure that overlaps the outer epithelial layer and is adjacent to the space surrounding the organism.
Anatomical structure that has as its parts two or more multi-tissue structures of at least two different types and which through specific morphogenetic processes forms a single distinct structural unit demarcated by bona fide boundaries from other distinct anatomical structures of different types.
Portion of tissue composed of mesenchymal cells (motile cells that develop from epthelia via an epithelial to mesenchymal transition) and surrounding extracellular material. Mesenchyme has different embryological origins in different metazoan taxa - in many invertebrates it derives in whole or part from ectoderm. In vertebrates it derives largely from mesoderm, and sometimes the terms are used interchangeably, e.g. lateral plate mesoderm/mesenchyme.
Anatomical cluster that is located in the anterior region of the cranium and provides structural support for the olfactory organ.
Subdivision of skeleton that includes all dermal bones in the cranial skeleton[ZFA,modified].
The third branchial arch contributes to the development of the hyoid bone, stylopharyngeus muscle, inferior parathyroid gland, and thymus.
Contributes to development of the cartilage of the larynx, laryngeal, pharyngeal, and soft palate muscles, superior parathyroid gland, and C-cells of the thymus.
The 6th pharyngeal arch. contributes to the development of the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.
The vessels formed within the sixth pair of branchial arches in embryogenesis.
The outermost extraembryonic membrane of amniotes.
This term refers to the amniote structure. It is distinct from the concept of chorion in insects
The trachea is the portion of the airway that attaches to the bronchi as it branches [GO:dph].
Upper portion of the skull that excludes the mandible (when present in the organism).
Anatomical structure that is part of the head consisting entirely of cranium and mandible[WP].
A female organ involved in reproduction.
female organism reproductive system organ
reproductive structure of female organism
reproductive system organ of female organism
reproductive system organ of male organism
One of the two embryological structures that give rise to the kidney (the other is the ureteric bud). The metanephric blastema mostly develops into nephrons, but can also form parts of the collecting duct system.[WP]. Metanephric mesenchyme is the tissue made up of loosely connected mesenchymal cells in the metanephros[GO].
Genes: The positional specification of the metanephrogenic mesenchyme is negatively regulated by Foxc1 and Foxc2. Next the permanent kidney forming metanephrogenic mesenchyme is specified by Hox11 genes. The competence to respond to ureteric bud inducers is regulated by WT1. GDNF secretion restricted to posterior region by Robo2 and Sprouty1. The receptors for GDNF are synthesized in the nephric ducts and later in ureteric buds [ISBN:9780878932504 "Developmental Biology"]
Subdivision of skeletal system that consists of all ribs in an organism connected to the sternum and the vertebrae. Some vertebrates have abdominal ribs (gastrialia), not connected to the vertebrate - these are not considered part of the rib case.
An endoderm that is part of a foregut [Automatically generated definition].
A subdivision of the skeleton that corresponds to the upper part of the mouth. The lower jaw skeleton includes the following elements, when present: upper jaw teeth, the maxilla and other lower jaw bones.
A subdivision of the skeleton that corresponds to the lower part of the mouth. The lower jaw skeleton includes the following elements, when present: lower jaw teeth, the mandible and other lower jaw bones, and Meckel's cartilage.
A meninx that is part of a spinal cord [Automatically generated definition].
A gland that is part of a foregut [Automatically generated definition].
Racemose mucous glands beneath the mucous membrane of the pharynx.
Any gland that is part of the diencephalon. Examples: pineal gland, neurohypophysis.
A gland that is part of a integumental system [Automatically generated definition].
Mesenchyme that is part of a developing camera-type eye.
Mesenchyme that is part of a developing hip [Automatically generated definition].
Mesenchyme that is part of a developing knee [Automatically generated definition].
Mesenchyme that is part of a developing shoulder [Automatically generated definition].
A spatially aggregated collection of nerve cell bodies in the PNS, consisting of one or more subpopulations that share cell type, chemical phenotype, and connections. (CUMBO).
A layer of epithelial cells on the surface of the mucosa.
An epithelium that is part of a pharynx [Automatically generated definition].
An epithelium that is part of a hindgut [Automatically generated definition].
An extraembryonic structure that develops_from a ectoderm and is part of a chorion.
A portion of cardiac muscle tissue that is part of a right atrium [Automatically generated definition].
cardiac muscle tissue of heart right atrium
cardiac muscle tissue of right atrium of heart
textus muscularis of myocardium of right atrium
textus muscularis of myocardium of right atrium of heart
textus muscularis of myocardium of right cardiac atrium
Any of the striated muscles that move the eye and include: superior rectus, inferior rectus, medial rectus, lateral rectus, superior oblique, inferior oblique, retractor bulbi.
A gland that is part of a digestive tract [Automatically generated definition].
Mesenchyme that is part of a pelvic appendage bud.
Mesenchyme that is part of a pectoral appendage bud.
A gelatinous substance within the umbilical cord, largely made up of mucopolysaccharides (hyaluronic acid and chondroitin sulfate). It also contains some fibroblasts and macrophages. It is derived from Extra Embryonic Mesoderm[WP].
A nerve that is located in a thoracic cavity [Automatically generated definition].
A bone that is part of a head [Automatically generated definition].
Different sources vary regarding which bones are craniofacial; e.g. hyoid bone
A bone that is part of a neck [Automatically generated definition].
A bone that is part of the region of the forelimb that includes the zeugopod and stylopod. Examples: patella, femur, tibia.
A bone that is connected via a shoulder joint (i.e. glenohumeral or acromioclavicular joints). The shoulder bones are the clavicle, scapula and humerus - but note that these are only considered to be shoulder bones when a true shoulder is present, as in most tetrapods.
A bone that is part of a facial skeleton [Automatically generated definition].
A bone that is part of a trunk [Automatically generated definition].
A bone that is part of a hindlimb region. Examples: any pes phalanx, femur. Counter-examples: ischium, pubis (they are part of the pelvic girdle).
An artery that is part of a respiratory system [Automatically generated definition].
A portion of lymphoid tissue that is part of a thymus [Automatically generated definition].
A blood vessel that is part of a heart [Automatically generated definition].
A blood vessel that is part of a brain [Automatically generated definition].
A blood vessel that is part of a respiratory system [Automatically generated definition].
A blood vessel that is part of the arterial system. Includes artery, arteriole and aorta.
only in MA - supertype of artery, arteriole, aorta.
A blood vessel that is part of a trunk [Automatically generated definition].
A blood vessel that is part of a thoracic cavity [Automatically generated definition].
A gray matter that is part of a brain [Automatically generated definition].
A portion of connective tissue that is part of a head [Automatically generated definition].
portion of connective tissue of adult head
A portion of connective tissue that is part of a respiratory system [Automatically generated definition].
apparatus respiratorius connective tissue
apparatus respiratorius portion of connective tissue
apparatus respiratorius textus connectivus
connective tissue of apparatus respiratorius
portion of connective tissue of apparatus respiratorius
portion of connective tissue of respiratory system
respiratory system portion of connective tissue
textus connectivus of apparatus respiratorius
textus connectivus of respiratory system
A portion of connective tissue that is part of a trunk [Automatically generated definition].
A cartilage that is part of a neck [Automatically generated definition].
A long bone that is part of a limb [Automatically generated definition].
A long bone that is part of a forelimb [Automatically generated definition].
A long bone that is part of a hindlimb [Automatically generated definition].
An arterial blood vessel that is part of a respiratory system [Automatically generated definition].
respiratory system arterial blood vessel
Any joint that is part of a (free) limb.
Most limb joints are synovial, but a few such as the tibiofibular joints are syndesmoses
A small fluid-filled sac lined by synovial membrane with an inner capillary layer of slimy fluid. It provides a cushion between bones and tendons and/or muscles around a joint. This helps to reduce friction between the bones and allows free movement. Bursae are filled with synovial fluid and are found around most major joints of the body.
A collection of teeth arranged in some pattern in the mouth or other part of the body. The arrangement may be a simple row, a collection of rows, or a more elaborate structure, such as a toooth whorl.
The part of a tooth that is implanted in the gum; the root is normally located below the neck of the tooth, covered by cementum rather than enamel, and attached by the periodontal ligament to the alveolar bone.
The part of the ventral body cavity that is within the abdomen proper (excluding the pelvic cavity).
In anatomy, in the occipital bone, the foramen magnum is one of the several oval or circular apertures in the base of the skull, through which the medulla oblongata (an extension of the spinal cord) enters and exits the skull vault. Apart from the transmission of the medulla oblongata and its membranes, the foramen magnum transmits the Spinal Accessory nerve, vertebral arteries, the anterior and posterior spinal arteries, the membrana tectoria and alar ligaments. [WP,unvetted].
Design pattern notes: check whether this fits the foramen design pattern
A collection of sacral vertebrae in the sacral region that are fused and part of the bony pelvis.
Any joint connecting the acromonion of the scapula and clavicle.
The tissues that surround the organs that are present within the abdominal cavity. The abdominal wall tissue is composed of layers of fat, parietal peritoneum, fascia, and muscles.
Passages external to the liver for the conveyance of bile. These include the common bile duct and the common hepatic duct.
Passages within the liver for the conveyance of bile. Includes right and left hepatic ducts even though these may join outside the liver to form the common hepatic duct.
Portion of tissue in the nervous system which consists of neurons and glial cells, and may also contain parts of the vasculature.
A branch of the vagus nerve that supplies motor function and sensation to the larynx (voice box). It travels within the endoneurium. It is the nerve of the 6th Branchial Arch.
recurrent laryngeal nerve from vagus nerve
vagus X nerve recurrent laryngeal branch
The intercostal nerves are the anterior divisions (rami anteriores; ventral divisions) of the thoracic spinal nerves from T1 to T11. Each nerve is connected with the adjoining ganglion of the sympathetic trunk by a gray and a white ramus communicans. The intercostal nerves are distributed chiefly to the thoracic pleura and abdominal peritoneum and differ from the anterior divisions of the other spinal nerves in that each pursues an independent course without plexus formation. The first two nerves supply fibers to the upper limb in addition to their thoracic branches; the next four are limited in their distribution to the parietes of the thorax; the lower five supply the parietes of the thorax and abdomen. The 7th intercostal nerve terminates at the xyphoid process, at the lower end of the sternum. The 10th intercostal nerve terminates at the umbilicus. The twelfth thoracic is distributed to the abdominal wall and groin. [WP,unvetted].
The central part of the thoracic cavity enclosed by the left and right pleurae.
A region of the fetal urogenital sinus epithelium destined to become the prostate[GO].
The part of the forelimb between pectoral region and the elbow, corresponding to the humerus.
The middle limb segment of the pelvic free limb, between the autopod and stylopod segments. Includes as parts the hindlimb zeugopodial skeleton, which includes as parts the tibia and fibula, or their cartilage precursors, or evolutionary variants.
A bone that is part of a hindlimb stylopod [Automatically generated definition].
May be merged into femur. See https://sourceforge.net/tracker/index.php?func=detail&aid=3586533&group_id=76834&atid=1205376
A bone that is part of a thorax [Automatically generated definition].
A bone that is part of an abdominal segment of trunk [Automatically generated definition].
bone organ of abdominal segment of trunk
Any muscle organ that is part of a thorax [Automatically generated definition].
Any muscle organ that is part of a respiratory system [Automatically generated definition].
A blood vessel that is part of a thorax [Automatically generated definition].
A skin of body that is part of an abdominal segment of trunk [Automatically generated definition].
A portion of connective tissue that is part of a thorax [Automatically generated definition].
A limb joint that is part of a hindlimb [Automatically generated definition].
An anatomical space that surrounded_by a neural tube.
An epithelium that is part of a thymus, forming a supporting framework[MP,modified].
A neural crest that has_potential_to_developmentally_contribute_to a midbrain.
A neural crest that has_potential_to_developmentally_contribute_to a telencephalon.
A neural crest that has_potential_to_developmentally_contribute_to a diencephalon.
A neural crest that has_potential_to_developmentally_contribute_to a hindbrain.
A neural crest that has_potential_to_developmentally_contribute_to a spinal cord.
Mesenchyme enclosed by a dental organ that gives rise to an odontogenic papilla.
Mesenchyme that is part of a developing forelimb [Automatically generated definition].
Mesenchyme that is part of a developing hindlimb [Automatically generated definition].
A presumptive structure that has the potential to develop into a ganglion.
An anatomical cavity that has the potential to develop into a coelemic cavity lumen.
The part of the coelom in the embryo between the somatopleuric and splanchnopleuric mesoderm; the principal body cavities of the trunk (thoracic, abdominal, and pelvic) arise from this embryonic part of the coelom.
Initial section of the oviduct through which the ova pass from the ovary to the uterus.
Paired ducts of the embryo that run down the lateral sides of the urogenital ridge and terminate at the mullerian eminence in the primitive urogenital sinus. In the female, they will develop to form the fallopian tubes, uterus, and the upper portion of the vagina; in the male, they are lost. These ducts are made of tissue of mesodermal origin[WP]. develops either by lengthwise splitting of the archinephric duct (in chondrichthyans and some amphibians) or by a elongated invagination of the coelomic epithelium (other vertebrates) In males, the oviducts regress. The cranial end of the oviduct maintains an opening into the coelom (which primitively may have been the anteriormost coelomic funnels connecting the nephrocoel with the coelom). This opening is the ostium tubae[USM].
A cover or envelope partly or wholly surrounding a structure. Examples: egg shell, articular capsules, renal capsules[WP].
see also: protective structure surrounding some species of bacteria and fungi. Note that FMA has classes such as Articular capsule that are not subtypes of Capsule (which is undefined in FMA). GO has 'capsule' which is a fungal structure, and 'external encapsulating structure' which is restricted to cells
A small endodermal thickening in the foregut adjacent to the transverse septum. Invaginates forming the hepatic diverticulum.
The part of the retina that contains neurons and photoreceptor cells[GO].
Hard bony, calcareous, or chitinous organ found in the mouth or pharynx of an animal and used in procuring or masticating food.
Epithelial tubes transport gases, liquids and cells from one site to another and form the basic structure of many organs and tissues, with tube shape and organization varying from the single-celled excretory organ in Caenorhabditis elegans to the branching trees of the mammalian kidney and insect tracheal system.
Any endothelium that has the quality of being cylindrical [Automatically generated definition].
Kidney mesenchyme is the tissue made up of loosely connected mesenchymal cells in the kidney[GO].
A blood vessel that carries blood from the capillaries toward the heart.
Embryonic structure that develops into pancreatic bud.
The embryonic pancreas develops from two separate anlagen in the foregut epithelium, one dorsal and two ventral pancreatic buds[PMID].
Pancreatic bud that gives rise to the accessory pancreatic duct.
Pancreatic bud that gives rise to the major pancreatic duct.
A duct that is part of a digestive system [Automatically generated definition].
An epithelium that lines the lumen of the digestive tract.
A cartilage element of chondrocranium. Example: neurocranial trabecula.
A cartilage element that is part of the cranial skeleton.
Any of the organized aggregations of cells that function as secretory or excretory organs and are associated with reproduction.
The brain ventricles or their associated choroid plexuses.
The structures associated with drainage of the aqueous humor from the eye, that include the trabecular meshwork, Schlemm's canal, the uveoscleral network, and the aqueous veins.
An anastomosing network of delicate tubules located in the hilum of the testicle (mediastinum testis) that carries sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the vasa efferentia[WP].
The internal feminine genital organs, including the ovaries, uterine tubes, uterus, uterine cervix, and vagina.
internal genitalia of female reproductive system
TODO: Relabel. Make distinct organ class. See https://github.com/obophenotype/uberon/issues/547
The funnel-like expansion of the abdominal extremity of the uterine tube[MP].
A transitional population of migrating mesenchymal cells that derive from somites and that will become dermal cells.
The single layer of epithelial cells that lines the early neural tube and develops into the nervous system and into the neural crest cells.
That portion of the chorionic wall in the region of its uterine attachment, which gives rise to chorionic villi; it consists of the mesoderm that lines the chorionic vesicle and, on the maternal side, of the trophoblast that lines the intervillous spaces; in the last half of gestation, the mesodermal connective tissue is largely replaced by fibrinoid material, and the amnionic membrane is adherent to the fetal side of the plate.
The transient outer neural tube region that contains the first generated post-mitotic neurons that receive synaptic input from thalamic axons and in turn project axons to the developing cortical plate.
The region of the developing mammalian cortex that extends between the ventricular zone and the cortical plate (CP); normally, the IZ is a region of tangential migration of cells, and at midgestation, the lower part of the IZ develops into the subventricular zone.
The internal masculine genital organs, including the testes, epididymides, deferent ducts, seminal vesicles, prostate, ejaculatory ducts, and bulbourethral glands.
One of the fine terminal elements of the bile duct system, leaving the portal canal, and pursuing a course at the periphery of a lobule of the liver[BTO]. the excretory ducts of the liver that connect the interlobular ductules to the right or left hepatic duct[MP].
The layer of undifferentiated, proliferating cells that line the neural tube lumen that is the immediate transformation of the germinal neuroepithelium.
The layer of glia and differentiating neurons that forms as a second layer around the germinal neuroepithium; as this develops it comes to lie between the ventricular and marginal layers and includes the basal and alar plates. Develops into neurons and glia forming a gray matter layer.
The outermost layer of the neural tube that consists of axons from the developing mantle layer and will form the white matter.
The region of the mantle layer of the neural tube that lies ventral to the sulcus limitans and contains primarily motor neurons and interneurons.
The unpaired embryonic prominence that is formed by the tissues surrounding the forebrain vesicle and develops into the forehead and bridge of the nose/snout.
The lateral area of the two branches of a horseshoe-shaped mesenchymal swelling in the future nasal region of the embryo; it separates the olfactory pit from the developing eye and the ala of the nose/snout develops from it.
The central area of the two limbs of a horseshoe-shaped mesenchymal swelling that lie medial to the olfactory placode or pit in the future nasal region of the embryo; it joins with the ipsilateral maxillary prominence in the formation of half of the upper jaw, and the nasal tip and philtrum of the upper lip develop from it.
One of the system of communicating cavities in the brain that are continuous with the central canal of the spinal cord, that like it are derived from the medullary canal of the embryo, that are lined with an epithelial ependyma, and that contain a serous fluid.
The subdivision of the face that includes the eye (eyeball plus adnexa such as eyelids) and the orbit of the skull and associated parts of the face such as the eyebrows, if present.
The middle of the face including the nose and its associated bony structures[MW].
The collecting duct system of the kidney consists of a series of tubules and ducts that connect the nephrons to the ureter. It participates in electrolyte and fluid balance through reabsorption and excretion, processes regulated by the hormones aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone.
One of the two jaw ridges either on the roof of the mouth between the upper teeth and the hard palate or on the bottom of the mouth behind the lower teeth[WP]. The alveolar ridges contain the sockets (alveoli) of the teeth[HP].
Any tube, opening or passage that connects two distinct anatomical spaces.
An internal pocketing of pharyngeal endoderm that contacts a region of ectoderm (a pharyngeal cleft) and interdigitates in the anterior and posterior directions with the pharyngeal arches.
The pouches are polarized structures. For example, whereas the rostral half of each pouch expresses Bmp-7, the caudal half expresses FGF-8 and the dorsal aspect of each pouch is marked via its expression of Pax-1. each pouch has an individual sense of identity. Shh expression is a prominent early feature of the caudal endoderm of the second arch, and individual pouches mark the anterior limits of expression of Hox genes within the pharyngeal endoderm; Hox-a2 has a rostral boundary at the second pouch, Hox-a3 at the third pouch and Hox-a4 at the most caudal pouch[PMID:16313389]
An anatomical structure that develops (entirely or partially) from the endoderm.
An anatomical structure that develops (entirely or partially) from the mesoderm.
An anatomical structure that develops (entirely or partially) from the ectoderm.
Anatomical system that has as its parts the organs concerned with the production and excretion of urine and those concerned with reproduction.
The optic vesicle is the evagination of neurectoderm that precedes formation of the optic cup[GO]. Portion of tissue that is comprised of neuroepitheium which has pinched off from the anterior neural keel and will form the optic cup[ZFA].
Genes: Six3, Pax6, Rx1 are expressed together in the tip of the neural plate [ISBN:9780878932504 "Developmental Biology"]. Development notes: During subsequent develop- ment, the optic vesicle invaginates and becomes a two-layered structure with an inner neural retina and outer retinal pigment epithelium. As soon as the developing optic vesicle makes contact with the overlying ectoderm, it induces the ectoderm to thicken and form the lens placode [PMID:16496288]
The first recognizable structure derived from the heart field.
A specific region of the lateral mesoderm that will form the primary beating heart tube. In mammals the primary heart field gives rise to the left ventricle.
An epithelial tube that will give rise to the mature heart.
The outflow tract is the portion of the heart through which blood flows into the arteries.
A cardiac chamber surrounds an enclosed cavity within the heart.
generic enough to cover FBbt:00003156 heart chamber but this is a cavity. GO defines it as the cavity. TODO - move subclasses. Note this also includes sinus venosus
An embryonic group of progenitor cells that forms from an outpouching of the septum transversum near the venous pole of the heart and gives rise to the epicardium.
A thick plate of mesodermal tissue that occupies the space between the thoracic cavity and yolk stalk in the early embryo, forming a transverse partition partially separating the coelomic cavity into thoracic and abdominal portions. It gives rise to the central tendon of the diaphragm[VHOG].
The internal genitalia are the internal sex organs such as the uterine tube, the uterus and the vagina in female mammals, and the testis, seminal vesicle, ejaculatory duct and prostate in male mammals.
TODO: make a subdivision of reproductive system. Relabel. See https://github.com/obophenotype/uberon/issues/547
The external genitalia are the outer sex organs, such as the penis or vulva in mammals.
Organ that is part of the hematopoietic system.
A portions of the gut that is derived from endoderm.
The glomerular epithelium is an epithelial tissue that covers the outer surfaces of the glomerulus. The glomerular epithelium consists of both parietal and visceral epithelium. Metanephric glomerular parietal epithelial cells are specialized epithelial cells that form tight junctions as a barrier to protein transport. A metanephric glomerular visceral epithelial cell is a specialized epithelial cell that contains 'feet' that interdigitate with the 'feet' of other glomerular epithelial cells in the metanephros.
The comma-shaped body is the precursor structure to the S-shaped body that contributes to the morphogenesis of the nephron.
The S-shaped body is the successor of the comma-shaped body that contributes to the morphogenesis of the nephron.
Nephrogenic mesenchyme is the tissue made up of loosely connected mesenchymal cells in the nephron.
The detailed events associated with the differentiation of the nephrogenic mesenchyme are somewhat complex. It has been suggested that each terminal branch of the ureteric bud stimulates the associated cap mesenchyme tissue to form a renal vesicle (the most primitive stage of nephron development: a stage I nephron). This then elongates, becomes a comma-shaped and then an S-shaped body (stage II nephron), and makes contact with and fuses with the distal component of the ureteric bud. The latter then forms the collecting duct. One fold of the S-shaped body gives rise to Bowman's capsule (also termed the glomerular capsule). Soon afterwards, endothelial cells invade to make a capillary knot-like outgrowth, the glomerular tuft, which goes on to form the glomerulus. The inner epithelial layer of the Bowman's capsule (also called the visceral epithelium, or podocyte layer because it consists of podocytes) is closely apposed to the endothelial glomerulus. Together, the Bowman's capsule and the glomerulus comprise the definitive renal corpuscle. The rest of the nephron elongates to form components of the proximal tubule, the loop of Henle and the distal tubule. The distal pole of the developing nephron connects to the ureteric bud that induced it at an early stage of nephron/ collecting duct development, before differentiation of the proximal tubule, the loop of Henle and the distal tubule are complete. This connection allows the excretory products produced by the kidney to be removed and subsequently transferred, via the ureter, into the bladder where they are stored until it is appropriate to empty the bladder. [http://www.gudmap.org/About/Tutorial/DevMUS.html#DMK_Nephron]
The renal vesicle is the primordial structure of the nephron epithelium, and is formed by the condensation of mesenchymal cells.
The nephron epithelium is a tissue that covers the surface of a nephron.
Smooth muscle found within, and composing the majority of the wall of blood vessels.
A bone that is part of the dorsal region of an animal.
A bone that is part of a forelimb stylopod [Automatically generated definition].
May be merged into humerus. See: https://sourceforge.net/tracker/index.php?func=detail&aid=3586533&group_id=76834&atid=1205376
A bone that is part of a lower leg [Automatically generated definition].
bone of inferior member middle limb segment
bone of intermediate segment of free lower limb
bone of lower extremity middle limb segment
bone of middle limb segment of hind limb
bone of middle limb segment of inferior member
bone of middle limb segment of lower extremity
bone organ of hind limb middle limb segment
bone organ of hindlimb middle limb segment
bone organ of inferior member middle limb segment
bone organ of intermediate segment of free lower limb
bone organ of lower extremity middle limb segment
bone organ of middle limb segment of hind limb
bone organ of middle limb segment of hindlimb
bone organ of middle limb segment of inferior member
bone organ of middle limb segment of lower extremity
bone organ of zeugopod of inferior member
bone organ of zeugopod of lower extremity
hind limb middle limb segment bone organ
inferior member middle limb segment bone
inferior member middle limb segment bone organ
intermediate segment of free lower limb bone
intermediate segment of free lower limb bone organ
lower extremity middle limb segment bone
lower extremity middle limb segment bone organ
middle limb segment of hind limb bone organ
middle limb segment of hindlimb bone organ
middle limb segment of inferior member bone
middle limb segment of inferior member bone organ
middle limb segment of lower extremity bone
middle limb segment of lower extremity bone organ
A muscle that is part of the eye region.
Anatomical cluster that consists of all the skeletal elements (eg., bone, cartilage, and teeth) of the body.
The bilaminar epithelium formed from the myotome and dermatome.
A cone-like structure that is formed when myocardial progenitor cells of the heart field fuse at the midline. The heart rudiment is the first structure of the heart tube.
Dense connective tissue that separates the atria from the ventricles and provides physical support for the heart.
A nerve trunk that is part of a sympathetic nervous system [Automatically generated definition].
nerve trunk of sympathetic nervous system
nerve trunk of sympathetic part of autonomic division of nervous system
A membranous sac that develops from the posterior part of the alimentary canal in the embryos of mammals, birds, and reptiles, and it is important in the formation of the umbilical cord and placenta in mammals[VHOG].
The primitive streak is a structure that forms during the early stages of avian, reptilian and mammalian embryonic development[WP]. the midline ridge of the embryonic epiblast that later develops into mesoderm and endoderm[MP].
primitive streak - blastopore - germ ring
Outermost layer of cells in the blastodermic vesicle, which will develop into the trophoblast layer and then contact the endometrium and take part in establishing the embryo's means of nutrition.
An outgrowth on the lateral trunk of the embryo that develops into a limb. The limb bud is divided into ectoderm and mesenchyme[cjm, modified from MP].
developmentally_induced_by Fgf10, capable of initiating limb forming interactions between endoderm and mesoderm
The embryonic structure that gives rise to the corneal ectoderm.
Multilayered ectodermal region at the distal tip of a limb or fin bud necessary for the proper development of the underlying mesenchyme[MP,modified]. Along with the zone of polarizing activity, it is a crucial organizing region during limb development[WP].
An outgrowth on the lateral trunk of the embryo that develops into a limb or paired fin. The limb/fin bud is divided into ectoderm and mesenchyme[cjm, modified from MP].
Genes: In limb buds of chick and mouse, Shh expression is activated as soon as there is a morphological bud, whereas in S. canicula fin buds, consistent with reported data in other cartilaginous fishes, Shh is transcribed late in fin development[PMID:17187056]
The first of the series of pharyngeal arches that develop into jaw bones or their homologs, and their associated nerves and arteries.
One of a series of paired embryological vascular structures formed within a pharyngeal arch; in the adult, some of these vessels give rise to the great vessels[MP].
A transparent homogeneous acellular layer, 6 to 9 um thick, lying between the basal lamina of the outer layer of stratified epithelium and the substantia propria of the cornea; it is considered to be a basement membrane.
A bone that is part of an appendage [Automatically generated definition].
bone of free segment of appendicular skeleton
The collection of all skeletal elements in an individual limb.
A vertebra in the trunk or cervical region. Includes all cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae, but excludes caudal vertebra.
Sum of all sensory systems in an organism.
Any collection of muscles that is part of a thorax [Automatically generated definition].
Any collection of muscles that is part of a trunk [Automatically generated definition].
A portion of cardiac muscle tissue that is part of an atrium [Automatically generated definition].
A portion of cardiac muscle tissue that is part of a interatrial septum [Automatically generated definition].
interatrial septum cardiac muscle tissue
cardiac muscle tissue of interatrial septum
A portion of cardiac muscle tissue that is part of a cardiac septum [Automatically generated definition].
A portion of cardiac muscle tissue that is part of a myocardium [Automatically generated definition].
A projection or outgrowth of tissue from a larger body or organ.
Anatomical projection that is composed of bone tissue.
Anatomical system that has as its parts the heart and blood vessels.
A network of blunt ended vessels lacking direct connection to the blood vascular system. These vessels collect and drain fluids and macromolecules from interstitial spaces throughout the animal. They derive from a subpopulation of endothelial cells and have walls that are much thinner than the blood carrying vessels. Lymphatic vessels are usually classified as either superficial or deep.
A vascular network consisting of blood vessels.
The part of the arterial system which carries oxygenated blood away from the heart to the body, and returns deoxygenated blood back to the heart.
The part of the cardiovascular system consisting of all arteries.
An artery of the systemic circulation, which is the part of the cardiovascular system which carries oxygenated blood away from the heart, to the body, and returns deoxygenated blood back to the heart.
The part of the venous system that drains the general body tissues[Kardong].
The part of the cardiovascular system consisting of all venous vessels. In vertebrates with a double circulation, this can be divided into systemic and pulmonary portions.
A structure, usually a circular muscle, that normally maintains constriction of a natural body passage or orifice and which relaxes as required by normal physiological functioning.
The third of the seven cervical vertebrae[ncit,modified].
third cervical vertebra of axial skeleton
The fourth of the seven cervical vertebrae[ncit,modified].
The fifth of the seven cervical vertebrae[ncit,modified].
The sixth of the seven cervical vertebrae[ncit,modified].
Vertebra prominens is the proper name for the seventh cervical vertebra. The most distinctive characteristic of this vertebra is the existence of a long and prominent spinous process which is palpable from the skin surface, hence the name. This spinous process is thick, nearly horizontal in direction, not bifurcated, but terminating in a tubercle to which the lower end of the ligamentum nuchae is attached. The seventh cervical vertebra (C7) has the most prominent spinous process only in about 70% of people; in the remainder, either C6 or T1 (the first thoracic vertebra) will be the most prominent. The transverse processes are of considerable size, their posterior roots are large and prominent, while the anterior are small and faintly marked; the upper surface of each has usually a shallow sulcus for the eighth spinal nerve, and its extremity seldom presents more than a trace of bifurcation. The foramen transversarium may be as large as that in the other cervical vertebrae, but is generally smaller on one or both sides; occasionally it is double, sometimes it is absent. On the left side it occasionally gives passage to the vertebral artery; more frequently the vertebral vein traverses it on both sides; but the usual arrangement is for both artery and vein to pass in front of the transverse process, and not through the foramen. Sometimes the anterior root of the transverse process attains a large size and exists as a separate bone, which is known as a cervical rib.
The first lumbar vertebra counting from the top down. Note that members of this class are not necessarily homologous[ncit,modified].
The second lumbar vertebra counting from the top down. Note that members of this class are not necessarily homologous[ncit,modified].
The third lumbar vertebra counting from the top down. Note that members of this class are not necessarily homologous[ncit,modified].
The fourth lumbar vertebra counting from the top down. Note that members of this class are not necessarily homologous[ncit,modified].
The fifth lumbar vertebra counting from the top down. Note that members of this class are not necessarily homologous[ncit,modified].
The first thoracic vertebra counting from the top down. Note that members of this class are not necessarily homologous[ncit,modified].
The second thoracic vertebra counting from the top down. Note that members of this class are not necessarily homologous[ncit,modified].
The third thoracic vertebra counting from the top down. Note that members of this class are not necessarily homologous[ncit,modified].
The fourth thoracic vertebra counting from the top down. Note that members of this class are not necessarily homologous[ncit,modified].
The fifth thoracic vertebra counting from the top down. Note that members of this class are not necessarily homologous[ncit,modified].
The sixth thoracic vertebra counting from the top down. Note that members of this class are not necessarily homologous[ncit,modified].
The seventh thoracic vertebra counting from the top down. Note that members of this class are not necessarily homologous[ncit,modified].
The ninth thoracic vertebra counting from the top down. Note that members of this class are not necessarily homologous[ncit,modified].
The tenth thoracic vertebra counting from the top down. Note that members of this class are not necessarily homologous[ncit,modified].
The eleventh thoracic vertebra counting from the top down. Note that members of this class are not necessarily homologous[ncit,modified].
The twelfth thoracic vertebra counting from the top down. Note that members of this class are not necessarily homologous[ncit,modified].
An endothelium that lines the blood vasculature. Other endothelia may line lymph vessels, the heart.
The polygonal structure of the liver that consists of hepatocytes radiating outward from a hepatic vein.
The sensory system for the sense of balance.
An endothelium that is part of an arterial system [Automatically generated definition].
A transient fetal dilation of the distal (or cranial) heart tube located where the arterial trunk joins the ventral roots of the aortic arches.
A chordate developmental stage that follows the blastula, gastrula and neurula stages. At the pharyngula stage, all vertebrate embryos show remarkable similarities.
An appendage that is part of an appendage girdle complex.
Paired appendage that consists of the posterior appendicular skeleton and associated soft and hard tissues, but excludes the pelvic girdle and its associated soft and hard tissues.
Paired appendage that consists of the anterior appendicular skeleton and associated soft and hard tissues, but excludes the pectoral girdle and its associated soft and hard tissues.
The embryo and its adnexa (appendages or adjunct parts) or associated membranes (i.e. the products of conception) The conceptus includes all structures that develop from the zygote, both embryonic and extraembryonic. It includes the embryo as well as the embryonic part of the placenta and its associated membranes - amnion, chorion (gestational sac), and yolk sac[WP].
Any segmental subdivision of a nervous system. Includes metameric developmental segments, such as vertebrates neuromeres.
An organ subunit that is part of a hindbrain [Automatically generated definition].
Skeletal element that consists of the scapula and the coracoid[VSAO, modified].
A specialized form of connective tissue in which the extracellular matrix is firm, providing the tissue with resilience, and/or mineralized and that functions in mechanical and structural support.[VSAO].
Four classes of mineralized tissues are found in vertebrates: bone, cartilage, dentine, and enamel. We think of cartilage and bone as skeletal tissues and of enamel and dentine as dental tissues, but enamel and dentine arose evolutionarily together with bone as skeletal tissues in the dermal skeleton (exoskeleton) of early vertebrates. Scales and teeth of sharks are examples of dermal skeletal elements that are still composed of the three ancient components-enamel, dentine, and bone. Cartilage, on the other hand, provided the basis for the second vertebrate skeletal system, the endoskeleton (Smith and Hall, 1990; Hall, 1998a,b). some invertebrate skeletal tissues have surprisingly bone-like features. Examples include chondrocytes interconnected by cell processes in cephalopod cartilages (Cole and Hall, 2004a,b), and the calcium phosphate layer in the shells of brachiopods (Rodland et al., 2003). However, neither bone nor mineralized cartilage have been found in invertebrates. Editors notes: TODO - develops_from
Dermis-derived entity that is made of skeletal tissue.
The primitive cartilagionous skeletal structure of the fetal skull that grows to envelop the rapidly growing embyonic brain. In humans, the chondrocranium begins forming at 28 days from mesenchymal condensations and is fully formed between week 7 and 9 of fetal development. While the majority of the chondrocranium is succeeded by the bony skull in most higher vertebrates, some components do persist into adulthood.[1] In Cartilagious fishes and Agnathans, the chondrocranium persist throughout life.[2] Embryologically, the chondrocranium represent the basal cranial structure, and lay the base for the formation of the endocranium in higher vertebrates[WP].
cartiligionous skeletal structure of skull
Organ consisting of skeletal tissue. Encompasses whole bones, fused bones, cartilaginious elements, teeth, dermal denticles.
Anatomical system that consists of all the joints of the body.
The mucous membrane lining the respiratory tract.
mucosa of organ of apparatus respiratorius
mucous membrane of apparatus respiratorius
A mucosa that is part of a gastrointestinal system.
The gut mucosa of amphioxus has insulin-secreting cells. http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/16417468
Any of the tissue layers that comprise a blood vessel. Examples: tunica media, tunica adventitia.
An epithelium that is part of a uterine cervix [Automatically generated definition].
The pseudostratified ciliated epithelium that lines much of the conducting portion of the airway, including part of the nasal cavity and larynx, the trachea, and bronchi.
An epithelium that is part of a oviduct [Automatically generated definition].
columnar epithelium of the fallopian tube
An epithelium that is part of a respiratory system [Automatically generated definition].
apparatus respiratorius epithelial tissue
epithelial tissue of apparatus respiratorius
An epithelium that is part of a digestive system [Automatically generated definition].
epithelial tissue of gastrointestinal system
gastrointestinal system epithelial tissue
An epithelium that is part of a upper respiratory tract [Automatically generated definition].
epithelial tissue of upper respiratory tract
upper respiratory tract epithelial tissue
The cellular avascular layer of the kidney luminar surfaces.
An endothelium that is part of the cardiovascular system.
A gland that is part of a eye. The eye is a compound unit which depending on the species may consist of an eyeballs plus associated ducts and integumentary structures. Eye glands therefore include the various types of lacrimal gland, the various types of apocrine and sebaceous glands associated with the eyelid.
Examples: harderian gland, accessory lacrimal gland, gland of Moll, gland of Zeis, nictitating membrane glands
Layer of lateral plate mesoderm that forms the future body wall - underlies the ectoderm[WP].
Layer of lateral plate mesoderm that forms the circulatory system and future gut wall - overlies endoderm[WP].
splanchnic layer of lateral plate mesoderm
A structure created during embryogenesis when the lateral mesoderm splits into two layers - the outer (or somatic) layer becomes applied to the inner surface of the ectoderm, and with it forms the somatopleure.[WP].
A portion of the urogenital ridge which is the source of much of the urinary system[WP].
part_of or develops_from urogenital ridge?
One of of the pair of folds derived from the cloacal folds which give rise to a portion of the external genitalia; in male embryos they close over the urethral plate and fuse to form the spongy (penile) urethra and ventral aspect of the penis, not including the glans; failure of fusion of the urethral folds leads to hypospadias; in female embryos they fuse only anterior to the anus and form the labia minora[MP].
The central region of trunk mesoderm. This tissue forms the notochord.
The fetal urogenital sinus (from which the prostate derives) is a simple cylinder of stratified basal epithelium, surrounded by mesenchyme and positioned between the embryonic bladder and pelvic urethra.
Anatomical structure that connects two or more adjacent skeletal elements or hardened body parts.
The region of the digestive tract extending from the beginning of the intestines to the anus[GO - gut definition].
The region of the digestive tract extending from the mouth cavity through pharynx esophagus stomach and duodenum.
A dilation of the duodenal papilla that is the opening of the juncture of the common bile duct and the main pancreatic duct.
One of the two small elevations on the mucosa of the duodenum, the major at the entrance of the conjoined pancreatic and common bile ducts and the minor at the entrance of the accessory pancreatic duct.
A proximal-distal subdivision of the digestive tract.
A part of a wall of an organ that forms a layer.
A mucosa that is part of a cardia of stomach [Automatically generated definition].
mucosa of organ of cardial part of stomach
mucosa of organ of pars cardiaca (gaster)
mucosa of organ of stomach cardiac region
mucous membrane of cardial part of stomach
mucous membrane of pars cardiaca (gaster)
mucous membrane of stomach cardiac region
A mucosa that is part of a pylorus [Automatically generated definition].
mucosa of organ of pyloric part of stomach
mucosa of organ of stomach pyloric region
mucous membrane of pyloric part of stomach
mucous membrane of stomach pyloric region
A mucosa that is part of a nasopharynx [Automatically generated definition].
mucosa of organ of nasal part of pharynx
mucous membrane of nasal part of pharynx
The mediastinum testis is a network of fibrous connective tissue that extends from the upper to near the lower extremity of the testis, and is wider above than below. From its front and sides numerous imperfect septa (trabeculæ) are given off, which radiate toward the surface of the organ, and are attached to the tunica albuginea. They divide the interior of the organ into a number of incomplete spaces, called lobules. These are somewhat cone-shaped, being broad at their bases at the surface of the gland, and becoming narrower as they converge to the mediastinum. The mediastinum supports the rete testis and blood vessels of the testis in their passage to and from the substance of the gland[WP].
An external genitalia that is part of a female reproductive system [Automatically generated definition].
external genitalia of female reproductive system
An organ that is part of a immune system [Automatically generated definition].
A gland that is part of a hemolymphoid system [Automatically generated definition].
One of the two elevated edges of the neural groove[GO,MP].
A solid rod of neurectoderm derived from the neural keel. The neural rod is roughly circular in cross section. Neural rod formation occurs during primary neurulation in teleosts[GO]. An intermediate stage in the development of the central nervous system present during the segmentation period; the neural rod is roughly cylindrical in shape, forms from the neural keel, and is not yet hollowed out into the neural tube[ZFIN].
The portion of the ureteric bud tube that contributes to the morphogenesis of the metanephros[GO].
The portion of the ureteric bud that contributes to the morphogenesis of the ureter. The ureter ureteric bud is the initial structure that forms the ureter[GO].
An ectodermal placode is a thickening of the ectoderm that is the primordium of many structures derived from the ectoderm[GO].
A bud-like thickening in the epidermis consisting of elongated keratinocytes, which at the distal end are in touch with numerous aggregated specialized dermal fibroblasts, the dermal condensate.
An tooth placode is a thickening of the ectoderm that will give rise to the tooth bud[GO].
A sebaceous gland placode is a thickening of the ectoderm that will give rise to the sebaceous gland bud[GO].
Muscle structures are contractile cells, tissues or organs that are found in multicellular organisms[GO].
Missing definition for term UBERON:0005095. Please replace it using linked reference.
An epithelium that is part of a mesonephros [Automatically generated definition].
A bud is a protrusion that forms from an epithelial sheet by localized folding.
A cord of epithelial cells without a lumen and usually several cells thick.
Any anatomical structure that is part of the reproductive system.
An epithelial sheet bent on a linear axis.
A structure consisting mainly of cell components, rather than complete cells.
Such a structure may contain some complete cells in addition to partial cells (e.g., glia in nervous system regions).
Any portion of the ducts that carry bile from the liver to the common bile duct. This may include both intrahapetic components (parts of left and right hepatic ducts) and extrahapetic components (common hepatic duct, plus hilar portion).
An organ or element that is in the abdomen. Examples: spleen, intestine, kidney, abdominal mammary gland.
An organ or element that is part of the adbominal segment of the organism. This region can be further subdivided into the abdominal cavity and the pelvic region.
An organ or element that part of the dorsum of the organism. Examples: spinal cord, vertebrae, muscles of back.
A circumscribed mass of ectodermal cells which bud off from the dental lamina; it becomes cup-shaped and develops on its internal face the ameloblast layer of cells that produces the enamel cap of a developing tooth.
. Alternate definition: A cellular aggregation seen in histologic sections of a developing tooth. It lies above a condensation of ectomesenchymal cells called the odontogenic papilla.
An organ or element that part of the trunk region. The trunk region can be further subdividied into thoracic (including chest and thoracic cavity) and abdominal (including abdomen and pelbis) regions.
An organ or element that is in the thoracic cavity. Examples: lung, heart, longus colli.
An organ or element that is part of the pelvic region. Examples: reproductive organs (in some organisms), urinary bladder, bones of the pelvis.
An organ that part of the thoracic segment region. This region can be further subdividied chest and thoracic cavity regions.
A valve that is part of a right atrium [Automatically generated definition].
Portion of primordial embryonic connective tissue of the developing head, consisting of mesenchymal cells supported in interlaminar jelly, that derive mostly from the mesoderm and contribute to head connective tissue, bone and musculature in conjunction with cranial neural crest cells.
Mesenchyme that is part of a developing hindlimb stylopod [Automatically generated definition].
Mesenchyme that is part of a developing trunk.
Mesenchyme that is part of a developing forelimb stylopod [Automatically generated definition].
Mesenchyme that is part of a developing lower leg [Automatically generated definition].
A set of structures containing cerebrospinal fluid in the brain. It is continuous with the central canal of the spinal cord[WP].
ventricular system of central nervous system
A structure found in the walls of the ventricles of the brain, consisting of part of the meninges (pia mater in mammals) plus ependyma[cjm].
The posterior part of the developing vertebrate hindbrain or the corresponding part of the adult brain composed of the medulla oblongata and a portion of the fourth ventricle; as well as the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), vagus nerve (CN X), accessory nerve (CN XI), hypoglossal nerve (CN XII), and a portion of the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII).[BTO,WP].
A portion of tissue that is part of an embryo.
Portion of tissue that is contiguous with the embryo and is comprised of portions of tissue or cells that will not contribute to the embryo.
The elevation of thickened mesothelium and underlying mesenchyme found on the ventromedial border of the embryonic mesonephros in which the primordial germ cells become embedded, establishing it as the primordium of the testis or ovary.
Cordlike masses of epithelial tissue that invaginate from germinal epithelium of the gonad and give rise to seminiferous tubules and rete testes in the male, and primary ovarian follicles and rete ovarii in the female.
The testis cords are precursors to the rete testis. They play several different roles in the development of the male genitals[WP].
The mammary placode is a transient lens shaped structure that will give rise to the mammary bud proper[GO].
The endothelial lining of the endocardium.
A bulb of epithelial cells that forms from the mammary placode that develops into the mammary gland.
The outer neural tube region in which post-mitotic neuroblasts migrate along radial glia to form the adult cortical layers[MP].
The cord-like structure in males comprising the vas deferens and associated tissue that runs from the abdomen down to each testis[MP].
A pouch of ectoderm that grows out from the upper surface of the embryonic stomodeum and gives rise to the anterior and intermediate lobes of the pituitary gland[MP]. In embryogenesis, Rathke's pouch is a depression in the roof of the developing mouth in front of the buccopharyngeal membrane. It gives rise to the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis), a part of the endocrine system[WP].
A layer in the central nervous system that lines system of communicating cavities in the brain and spinal cord.
region of wall of ventricular system of neuraxis
An epithelium that lines the nasal cavity.
An epithelium that is part of the respiratory segment of the nasal mucosa [Automatically generated definition].
An array of photoreceptors and any supporting cells found in an eye.
A transparent structure that is part of a visual sense organ, the function of which is to direct or focus light onto a photoreceptor array.
One of: the common carotid artery, or its branches, the external and internal carotid arteries.
A sex gland that is part of a female reproductive system.
A sex gland that is part of a male reproductive system.
A gray matter that is part of a cerebral hemisphere.
Any of any of the secretory or sensory organs located in the brain region around or in relation to the ventricular system that are characterized by extensive vasculature and a lack of a normal blood brain barrier (BBB) and allow for the linkage between the central nervous system and peripheral blood flow.
The part of the digestive system that excludes the hepatobiliary system.
alimentary part of gastrointestinal system
A limb bud that develops into a forelimb.
Genes: Tbx5 specifies forelimbs. Wnt2b restricts Fgf10 in chick // In tetrapods, the position of the forelimb is associated with the anterior expression border of Hoxc6 in the paraxial mesoderm (Burke et al., 1995)
A limb bud that develops into a hindlimb.
Genes: Tbx4 specifies hindlimbs. Wnt8c restricts Fgf10 in chick.
A limb bud that develops into a forelimb or pectoral fin.
at this time we have no need to name a more specific 'pectoral fin bud' class, but we may in future
A limb bud that develops into a hindlimb or pelvic fin.
at this time we have no need to name a more specific 'pelvic fin bud' class, but we may in future
Portion of tissue that is the inner layer of the optic cup and will become the neural retina.
Portion of tissue that gives rise to the lens.
Portion of tissue that is part of the eye and gives rise to the mature, fully layered cornea.
Vagal neural crest is adjacent to the first seven somites gives rise to both ganglionic and ectomesenchymal derivatives[ZFA].
The dilated structure that is lined by endothelial cells and located at the arterial pole of the heart just above (distal to) the truncus arteriosus in mammalian embryos; it is the primordial vascular channel from which the aortic arches (and eventually the dorsal aortae) arise; the aortic sac is homologous to the ventral aorta of gill-bearing vertebrates.
The short trunk that recieves most of the cardiac veins carrying the blood from the myocardium and delivers it to the right atrium, with the sinoatrial connection occurring between the inferior vena cava and the atrioventricular orifice.
A segment of autopod that is part of a pes.
Subdivision of abdominal segment of trunk which in humans is demarcated from the front of the abdomen by the posterior surface of the anterior layer of the thoracolumbar fascia and the anterior surface of the lumbar vertebral column; together with the front of the abdomen, it constitutes the abdomen[Modified from FMA].
overlaps with region sometimes called 'loin'
A subdivision of an organism along the anterior-posterior axis in the pelvic region immediately posterior to the lumbar region and anterior to the caudal region. Sometimes an intermediate region is defined between the sacral and caudal.
A valve leaflet that is part of a tricuspid valve.
Gene notes: One of the first genes to be expressed in nonneural ectoderm in amphioxus is BMP2/4 (Panopoulou et al. 1998). BMP2/4 homologues appear to have a very ancient role in distinguishing neural from nonneural ectoderm; in Drosophila as well as in amphioxus and vertebrates, BMP2/4 homologues are expressed in nonneural ectoderm and function in distinguishing neural from nonneural ectoderm (Francois & Bier, 1995 ; Sasai et al. 1995 ; Wilson & Hemmati-Brivanlou, 1995; Panopoulou et al. 1998). A change in level of BMP2/4 from very high in nonneural ectoderm to low in neural ectoderm appears to be a key factor in development of neural crest (Baker & Bronner-Fraser,1997a,1997b;Erickson&Reedy,1998;Marchantet al.1998 ;Selleck et al. 1998).
Multi-tissue structure that arises from the heart rudiment and will become the heart tube.
A small outgrowth of the pharyngeal epithelium that is the site of lymphocyte cell production[ZFA]. [PMID].
Portion of tissue that gives rise to the immature gonad.
Somite located in the head region, caudal to the otic vesicle.
A pair of lateral diverticula just over the liver rudiment representing the primordia of the lungs, formed by the floor of the foregut just anterior to the liver diverticulum.
The outgrowths of the embryonic maxillary prominences that come together during prenatal development to form the secondary palate.
The valves that gate the flow of blood from the ventricles into the aorta and pulmonary trunk.
A vascular network formed by frequent anastomoses between the blood vessels (arteries or veins) of a part.
Intrinsic membrane that arises from embryonic germ layers and grow to surround the developing embryo.
A mesoderm that has the potential to develop into a pronephros.
the intermediate mesoderm of the chick embryo acquires its ability to form kidneys through its interactions with the paraxial mesoderm [ISBN:9780878932504 "Developmental Biology", PMID:10720431 "Signals from trunk paraxial mesoderm induce pronephros formation in chick intermediate mesoderm"]. These interactions induce the expression of TFs including Lim1, Pax2 and Pax6 that cause the intermediate mesoderm to form the kidney
A sensory system that is capable of olfaction (the sensory perception of smell).
A limb/fin field that has the potential to develop into a pectoral appendage bud mesenchyme.
pectoral appendage field of lateral plate mesoderm
A limb/fin field that has the potential to develop into a pelvic appendage bud mesenchyme.
pelvic appendage field of lateral plate mesoderm
A ring of cells capable of forming a limb or paired fin[Gilbert,modified].
limb/fin field of lateral plate mesoderm
A ring of cells capable of forming a limb.
the central portion of the limb field gives rise to the limb proper. mesenchyme cells proliferate from from the somatic layer of limb field lateral plate mesoderm (limb skeletal precursors) and from the somites (limb muscle precursors) . these mesenchymal cells accumulate under the ectedermal tissue to make a limb bud. // The lateral plate mesoderm in the limb field is also special in that it will induce myoblasts to migrate out from the somites and enter the limb bud. No other region of the lateral plate mesoderm will do that (Hayashi and Ozawa 1995)
The outermost layer of a blood vessel, composed mainly of fibrous tissue.
An outermost connective tissue covering of an organ, vessel, or other structure[WP].
Anatomical space that is an opening in a bone, usually for passage of blood vessels or nerves.
The capillary loops of the kidney that normally function as a filtration unit[MP].
The metanephros develops from the most caudal part of the nephrogenic cord that is itself derived from the intermediate plate mesoderm.
The initial renal anlage that develops from the most rostral part of the nephrogenic cord is termed the pronephros.
An acellular anatomical structure that is the bounding layer of a anatomical structure.
An acellular membrane that is part of the epithelium, lies adjacent to the epithelial cells, and is the fusion of the the basal lamina and the reticular lamina.
Nephric tubules (nephrons) form embryonically along the nephric ridge. The ridge comprises three regions; anterior, middle and posterior. The functional kidney uses nephrons from only one or two regions of the ridge. A pronephric kidney uses only the nephrons from the anterior region of the ridge. A mesonephric kidney uses only the middle region, a metanephric kidney uses only the posterior region and an opisthonephric kidney uses the middle and posterior regions.
The dorsal aorta is a blood vessel in a single-pass circulatory system that carries oxygenated blood from the gills to the rest of the body. In a single-pass circulatory system blood passes once through the heart to supply the body once.
In the circulatory system of animals, a portal venous system occurs when a capillary bed drains into another capillary bed through veins, without first going through the heart. Both capillary beds and the blood vessels that connect them are considered part of the portal venous system. They are relatively uncommon as the majority of capillary beds drain into veins which then drain into the heart, not into another capillary bed. Portal venous systems are considered venous because the blood vessels that join the two capillary beds are either veins or venules. Examples of such systems include the hepatic portal system and the hypophyseal portal system. Unqualified, 'portal venous system' often refers to the hepatic portal system. For this reason, 'portal vein' most commonly refers to the hepatic portal vein[WP].
A delimited region of dense mesenchyme within looser mesenchyme.
Cell condensation that is an aggregation of mesenchymal cells that are committed to differentiate into chondroblasts and chondrocytes.
A delimited region of dense mesenchyme within looser mesenchyme whose cells are committed to become chondroblasts.
The paired ventral prominences formed by bifurcation of the first pharyngeal arches in the embryo; the two prominences unite ventrally and fuse to form the mandible and lower lip.
The paired dorsal prominences formed by bifurcation of the first pharyngeal arches in the embryo that unite with the ipsilateral medial nasal process to form the upper jaw.
An indentation of the olfactory placode which ends when the pits hollows out to form the nasopharynx[GO].
The embryonic anlage of the external genitalia, which emerges as paired swellings ventral to the cloacal membrane, is proposed to be derived from all three germ layers, and gives rise to the penis, clitoris, scrotum, labia, and foreskin.
A subdivision of the autopod that corresponds to one or more bones arranged in series branching from the main limb axis.
encompasses digits and prepollex. requires review
The epithelial lining of the surface of the coelom.
A bone that is part of the region of the hindlimb that includes the zeugopod and stylopod. Examples: patella, femur, tibia. Counter-examples: any pes phalanx.
Anatomical cluster that is located in the posterior region of the cranium and forms the margin of the foramen magnum and occipital condyles.
Any of the ducts that are part of a male reproductive system.
Organ with organ cavity, which has as parts a serous membrane and a serous cavity . Examples: pleural sac, pericardial sac, tendon sheath, bursa.[FMA].
Epithelium that derives from the endoderm. Examples: urothelium, transitional epithelium of ureter, epithelium of prostatic gland.[FMA].
A naris that provides one of the small external openings of the head that give passage to air for breathing.
Subdivision of skeleton which consists of cranial skeleton, set of all vertebrae, set of all ribs and sternum[FMA, modified].
An outflow tract that is part of a cardiac atrium.
Outflow part of atrium which consists of wall and cavity of the outflow part of right atrium and the tricuspid valve.[FMA].
A pore-like structure surrounding the entire circumference of the anterior chamber of the eye through which aqueous humor circulates[MP].
ligamentum pectinatum anguli iridocornealis
A sheet of somatopleure that grows upward over the embryo and eventually meets in the midline enclosing the embryo, eventually giving rise to the amnion and chorion[Kardong].
The vertical crest of the interior wall of the right atrium that lies to the right of the sinus of the vena cava and separates this from the remainder of the right atrium.
Any of the arteries or veins that supply blood to the heart or return blood from the heart muscles to the circulation.
The tendinous strands that connect the papillary muscles on the wall of the ventricles to the leaflets of the atrioventricular valves; the chordae tendineae serve to prevent the AV valves from prolapsing back into the atria.
Anatomical structure embedded in or located in the integument that is part of the integumental system. Examples: hair, follicles, skin glands, claws, nails, feathers.
A digit that is part of a digit 1 plus metapodial segment.
A collection of two or more connected limb segments. Examples: arm (comprising stylopod and zeugopod regions).
That portion of the spine comprising the cervical vertebrae. The neck area of the spine.
That part of the spine comprising the thoracic vertebrae.
Subdivision of vertebral column that corresponds to the lumbar subdivision of the body, containing the lumbar vertebrae.
Subdivision of vertebral column that corresponds to the sacral subdivision of the body, containing the sacral vertebrae or sacrum.
A collection of all skeletal elements in some subdivision of the vertebral column.
Acute angle occurring between the iris and the cornea at the periphery of the anterior chamber of the eye[MP].
The posterior section of the developing metencephalon recognized transiently within the vertebrate embryo; the rhombic lip extends posteriorly from the roof of the fourth ventricle to dorsal neuroepithelial cell and can be divided into eight structural units based on rhombomeres 1-8 (r1-r8), recognized at early stages of hindbrain development; producing granule cells and five brainstem nuclei, the rhombic lip plays an important role in developing a complex cerebellar neural system.
dorsal part of alar plate of metencephalon
The membrane that covers the embryonic cloaca, formed by the union of proctodeal (anal pit) ectoderm and cloacal endoderm, with no intervening mesoderm; the urorectal septum joins the cloacal membrane and divides it into an anal membrane and a urogenital membrane; the point where the urorectal septum intersects the cloacal membrane is the future site of the perineal body; proliferation of mesoderm and ectoderm around the cloacal membrane produces primordial tissues of the external genitalia in both sexes: the genital tubercle, genital folds, and genital swellings.
The foremost region of the future forebrain that develops into the diencephalon.
A differentiated genital tubercle that is part of a female reproductive system.
A femur endochondral element that is composed primarily of a pre-cartilage condensation.
An anatomical junctions that overlaps the foregut and midgut.
A tendon that has the potential to develop into a central tendon.
cranial derivative of septum transversum
A presumptive structure that has the potential to develop into a forebrain.
A sac-like cavity ventral to the liver, lying in the sub-mesodermal space and closed by a thin sheet of ectodermal cells, from which the future gall bladder develops.
A humerus endochondral element that is composed primarily of cartilage tissue.
A humerus endochondral element that is composed primarily of a pre-cartilage condensation.
An iliac endochondral element that is composed primarily of a pre-cartilage condensation.
An ischial endochondral element that is composed primarily of cartilage tissue.
An ischial endochondral element that is composed primarily of a pre-cartilage condensation.
the collection consisting of the two lateral swellings and the medial swelling
A differentiated genital tubercle that is part of a male reproductive system.
Groove between maxillary prominence and lateral nasal process.
On the nasal surface of the body of the maxilla, in front of the opening of the sinus is a deep groove, the lacrimal groove (or lacrimal sulcus), which is converted into the nasolacrimal canal, by the lacrimal bone and inferior nasal concha; this canal opens into the inferior meatus of the nose and transmits the nasolacrimal duct[WP] See also: oblique facial cleft
The notochordal plate is the dorsal part of the notochordal process when the ventral portion breaks down. It is continuous laterally with the endoderm that composes the roof of the primitive foregut and is in contact dorsally with the neural tube. The folding off of the notochordal plate gives rise to the notochord.
A midline cellular cord formed from the migration of mesenchymal cells from the primitive knot.
The notochordal process grows cranially until it reaches the prechordal plate, the future site of the mouth. In this area the ectoderm is attached directly to the endoderm without intervening mesoderm. This area is known as the oropharyngeal membrane, and it will break down to become the mouth. At the other end of the primitive streak the ectoderm is also fused directly to the endoderm; this is known as the cloacal membrane (proctodeum), or primordial anus.
The pair of depressions of thickened otic placode epithelium, that further develops into the otic vesicles.
Multi-tissue structure that is part of the heart tube and will become the cardiac ventricle.
presumptive cardiac ventricle heart tube
The embryonic ventricle or primitive ventricle of the developing heart gives rise to the trabeculated parts of the left and right ventricles. In contrast, the smooth parts of the left and right ventricles originate from the embryological bulbus cordis. The primitive ventricle becomes divided by a septum, the septum inferius or ventricular septum, which grows upward from the lower part of the ventricle, its position being indicated on the surface of the heart by a furrow. Its dorsal part increases more rapidly than its ventral portion, and fuses with the dorsal part of the septum intermedium. For a time an interventricular foramen exists above its ventral portion, but this foramen is ultimately closed by the fusion of the aortic septum with the ventricular septum[WP]
Future brain vesicle that gives rise to telencephalic ventricle/lateral ventricles and 3rd ventricle.
A pubic endochondral element that is composed primarily of a pre-cartilage condensation.
A rib endochondral element that is composed primarily of cartilage tissue.
A rib endochondral element that is composed primarily of a pre-cartilage condensation.
A scapula endochondral element that is composed primarily of cartilage tissue.
A scapula endochondral element that is composed primarily of a pre-cartilage condensation.
A dense syncitial-like mesenchymal thickening in the dorsal mesogastrium[ISBN]. the embryonic connective tissue made up of loosely aggregated mesenchymal cells, supported by interlaminar jelly, that gives rise to the developing spleen[MP].
A primordium that has the potential to develop into a submandibular gland.
A segment of the eyeball that is filled with refractive media.
Body substance in a liquid or semi-solid state in the eyeball which serves to refract light.
Liquid components of living organisms. includes fluids that are excreted or secreted from the body as well as body water that normally is not.
System pertaining to a bronchus and alveoli.
A substance formed from the secretion of one or more glands of the male genital tract in which sperm cells are suspended.
CURATOR NOTE A secretion from the glands of the male reproductive system in some aquatic animals that contains sperm and is sprayed onto the eggs.
A portion of organism substance that is secreted by a male reproductive gland.
male reproductive system fluid/secretion
A portion of organism substance that is secreted by a female reproductive gland.
female reproductive system fluid/secretion
A portion of organism substance that secreted_by a respiratory system.
A substance that is secreted by a mammary gland. The substance may differ depending on phase, with colostrum produced during pregancy/early lactation, and milk produced afterwards.
A tube in the kidney that collect and transport urine.
A tube that is part of a excretory system.
An organ system subdivision that is a network of vessels capable of removing accumulating protein and fluid from the interstitial space and returning it to the vascular space. In some species, this network is connected to the immune system via lymph nodes and lymphocyte-producing organs, with the whole being the lymphoid system.
The pharynx is the part of the digestive system immediately posterior to the mouth[GO].
Presumptive structure of the blastula that will develop into endoderm.
Portion of embryonic tissue determined by fate mapping to become a structure.
Presumptive structure of the blastula that will develop into ectoderm.
Presumptive structure of the blastula that will develop into mesoderm.
Erectile tissue at the end of the clitoris, which is continuous with the intermediate part of the vestibulovaginal bulbs[BTO]. The clitoral glans (glans clitoridis) is an external portion of the clitoris[WP].
Anatomical cavity for the proximal articular surface of the proximal limb or fin element with the scapulocoracoid or equivalent structure.
The three-lobed cloverleaf-shaped aponeurosis situated at the center of the diaphragm; the central tendon is fused with the fibrous pericardium that provides attachment for the muscle fibers.
The third segment of the limb, including either the wrist segment (carpus) or the ankle segment (tarsus).
The collection of all skeletal elements in an autopodium region.
During the third week of embryological development there appears, immediately behind the ventral ends of the two halves of the mandibular arch, a rounded swelling named the tuberculum impar, which was described by His as undergoing enlargement to form the buccal part of the tongue. More recent researches, however, show that this part of the tongue is mainly, if not entirely, developed from a pair of lateral swellings which rise from the inner surface of the mandibular arch and meet in the middle line. The site of their meeting remains post-embryonically as the median sulcus of the tongue. The tuberculum impar is said to form the central part of the tongue immediately in front of the foramen cecum, but Hammar insists that it is purely a transitory structure and forms no part of the adult tongue[WP, Gray's].
The thyroid initially develops caudal to the tuberculum impar . This embryonic swelling arises from the first pharyngeal arch and occurs midline on the floor of the developing pharynx, eventually helping form the tongue as the 2 lateral lingual swellings overgrow it. [http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/845125-overview]
During the third week there appears, immediately behind the ventral ends of the two halves of the mandibular arch, a rounded swelling named the tuberculum impar, which was described by His as undergoing enlargement to form the buccal part of the tongue. More recent researches, however, show that this part of the tongue is mainly, if not entirely, developed from a pair of lateral swellings (or distal tongue bud) which rise from the inner surface of the mandibular arch and meet in the middle line.
An epithelium that is composed primarily of secretory cells.
Structural framework that provides support to the nasal sacs and ducts.
Loose connective tissue located at the outer and inner layers of organs. Examples: submucosal connective tissue, tunica adventitia of artery, papillary dermis, superficial fascia of dorsum of hand.
Endochondral bone that is dorsoventrally compressed and provides attachment site for muscles of the pectoral appendage.
This gland can either be a discrete structure located bilaterally above each kidney, or a cluster of cells in the head kidney that perform the functions of the adrenal gland. In either case, this organ consists of two cells types, aminergic chromaffin cells and steroidogenic cortical cells[GO].
The distalmost portion of the digestive tract, derived from the hindgut, and terminating with the anus.
The distal elements of the developing limb of vertebrates that will give rise to the pes (foot).
The distal elements of the developing limb of vertebrates that will give rise to the manus (hand).
Mesenchyme that is part of a mandibular prominence.
An anatomical space that surrounded_by a digestive tract.
An epithelium characterised by its most superficial layer consisting of squamous epithelial cells.
Multilaminar epithelium which consists of more than one layer of squamous cells only one layer of which is in contact with a basement membrane. Examples: keratinized stratified squamous epithelium, epithelium of wall of esophagus.[FMA].
A glandular epithelium that lines the stomach. The stomach's glandular epithelium is characterized by the presence of gastric glands.
Any gland that is part of the digestive system.
Simple columnar epithelium that constitutes the secretory part of a gland. Examples: epithelium of stomach, luminal epithelium of lactiferous duct.[FMA].
Stomach mucosa that is lined with glandular epithelium and part of a stomach glandular region.
stomach glandular region glandular mucous membrane
The efferent ducts (or efferent ductules or ductuli efferentes) connect the rete testis with the initial section of the epididymis. The ductuli are unilaminar and composed of columnar ciliated and non-ciliated (absorptive) cells. The ciliated cells serve to stir the luminal fluids, possibly to help ensure homogeneous absorption of water from the fluid produced by the testis, which results in an increase in the concentration of luminal sperm. The epithelium is surrounded by a band of smooth muscle that helps to propel the sperm toward the epididymis.
A duct or series of ducts that transports sperm from the gonad. In mammals this is from the seminiferous tubules through rete testis, vas efferentia, epididymis, vas deferens, ejeculatory duct to the urethra.
The inner lining of the cheeks and lips.
The distal part of adenohypophysis: the part that makes up the main body of the gland.
pars distalis of anterior lobe of pituitary gland
pars distalis lobi anterioris hypophyseos
The vascular cord is the primordial vasculature that will develop into blood vessels by the process of tubulogenesis[GO]. The vascular cord is composed of angioblast or vascular endothelial cells in a solid linear mass called a cord. The cord then undergoes tubulogenesis to form the lumen of the vessels[ZFA].
A two dimensional anatomical structure that is the boundary between an anatomical structure and an anatomical substance, an anatomical space or the organism's environment. Examples include the surface of your skin, the surface of the lining of your gut; the surface of the endothelium of you aorta that is in contact with blood.n.
Old definition: 'Non-material anatomical entity of two dimensions, that is demarcated by anatomical lines or points on the external or internal surfaces of anatomical structures.' Note, in the new definition, the space referred to is not necessarily an anatomical space. It may be the outside of an organism.
The splanchnic mesoderm in the cardiogenic region where the heart develops; it gives rise to endocardial heart tubes that fuse to form the primordial cardiac tube, the heart primordium[web]. Two migratory heart primordia that move ventrally during the course of neurulation, and then fuse[XAO].
A multicellular organism that existence_ends_with a post-juvenile adult stage and existence_starts_with a post-juvenile adult stage.
A hollow, muscular organ, which, by contracting rhythmically, keeps up the circulation of the blood or analogs[GO,modified].
One of the minute vascular projections of the fetal chorion that combines with maternal uterine tissue to form the placenta.
A pharyngeal puch that is between the pharyngeal arches 2 and 3.
A pharyngeal pouch that between pharyngeal arches 3 and 4.
A pharyngeal pouch between pharyngeal arch 4 and arch 5 or 6 (a fifth arch never establishes in amniotes).
An intermediate stage (between the neural plate and neural rod) during the early segmentation period in the morphogenesis of the central nervous system primordium; the keel is roughly triangular shaped in cross section.
The structure from the trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles that forms the airways that supply air to the lungs. The lining of the tracheobronchial tree consists of ciliated columnar epithelial cells.
Mesenchyme that develops_from a cranial neural crest.
head mesenchyme from cranial neural crest
mesenchyme derived from head neural crest
An embryo stage that covers late steps of the embryogenesis with a fully formed embryo still developing before birth or egg hatching.
Gray matter of the central nervous system which is a collection of clustered nuclei.
Skeletal subdivision consisting of the anterior appendicular limb skeleton, excluding the pectoral girdle.
The collection of all skeletal elements in a pelvic appendage region.
The rhombencephalon (or hindbrain) is a developmental categorization of portions of the central nervous system in vertebrates. The rhombencephalon can be subdivided in a variable number of transversal swellings called rhombomeres. In the human embryo eight rhombomeres can be distinguished, from caudal to rostral: Rh7-Rh1 and the isthmus (the most rostral rhombomere). A rare disease of the rhombencephalon, 'rhombencephalosynapsis' is characterized by a missing vermis resulting in a fused cerebellum. Patients generally present with cerebellar ataxia. The caudal rhombencephalon has been generally considered as the initiation site for neural tube closure.
A presumptive structure that has the potential to develop into a endocardium.
A presumptive structure that has the potential to develop into a presomitic mesoderm.
A presumptive structure that has the potential to develop into a neural plate.
The part of the blastula that has the potential to develop into a paraxial mesoderm.
A presumptive structure that has the potential to develop into a pronephric mesoderm.
A vasculature that is part of a chordate pharynx.
Matter ejected from the lungs, bronchi, and trachea, through the mouth.
A dense accumulation of exocrine glands in the pancreas often surrounding islets of Langerhans.
A duct that collects and carries secretions of the exocrine pancreas to the intestine.
A multi-tissue structure consisting of bone and soft tissue that forms a part of the roof of the oral cavity. In mammals this is the combination of the primary palate (premaxilla) and the secondary palate. In early tetrapods it consists of the vomer, pterygoid, parasphenoid, palatine and ectopterygoid bones.
The epidermis is the entire outer epithelial layer of an animal, it may be a single layer that produces an extracellular material (e.g. the cuticle of arthropods) or a complex stratified squamous epithelium, as in the case of many vertebrate species[GO].
Outermost layer of cells surrounding the embryo.
An epithelial tube that is open at one end only.
An epithelial tube open at both ends that allows fluid flow.
Mesenchyme with little extracellular matrix.
Mesenchyme whose cells are embedded in obvious amounts of extracellular matrix.
Simple columnar epithelium in which the luminal side of the cells bears cilia. Examples: epithelium of trachea, epithelium of uterine tube.[FMA].
Epithelium bearing vibratile cilia on the free surface.
Stratified columnar epithelia is a rare type of epithelial tissue composed of column shaped cells arranged in multiple layers. Stratified columnar epithelia are found in the ocular conjunctiva of the eye, in parts of the pharynx and anus, the female's uterus, the male urethra and vas deferens. Also found in intralobular ducts in salivary glands.[WP].
A thin, loose vascular connective tissue that makes up the membranes surrounding joints and the sheaths protecting tendons (particularly flexor tendons in the hands and feet) where they pass over bony prominences. Synovial tissue contains synovial cells, which secrete a viscous liquid called synovial fluid; this liquid contains protein and hyaluronic acid and serves as a lubricant and nutrient for the joint cartilage surfaces[BTO]. Synovial tissue can be found in tendons (tissues that connect muscle to bone), bursae (fluid-filled, cushioning sacs found in spaces between tendons, ligaments, and bones), and the cavity (hollow enclosed area) that separates the bones of a freely movable joint, such as the knee or elbow[BTO].
An anatomical cavity that surrounded_by a synovial joint.
cavitas articularis (junctura synovialis)
Epithelial layer of the retina, ciliary body, or iris composed of cells containing pigment granules.
A developing mesenchymal capsule that covers the developing brain and spinal cord and is the precursor of the meningeal cluster. In mammals this gives rise to the arachnoid mater, pia mater and dura mater. In cyclostomes and fishes, the future meninx gives rise to a single meningeal layer, the primitive meninx.
The outermost layer of the mesenchymal capsule that surrounds the developing brain, of mixed paraxial mesoderm and neural crest origin. The ectomeninx forms the dura mater (both inner layer and outer chondrogenic layer).
An anatomical structure that connects two structures.
Functional unit of the kidney that forms urine, consisting of two parts, the nephron and the collecting tubule.
Region of the embryo into the area in which the kidney rudiment will develop.
Anlagen are populations of contiguous cells, typically arranged in one plane, that are morphologically indistinct, but that already correspond in extent to a later organ/tissue.
Endodermal bud derived from the endodermal epithelium of the embryonic pharyngeal floor[MP]. The thyroid diverticulum is the embryological structure from which thyroid follicular cells derive. It grows from the floor of the pharnyx[WP].
relation conflict: ZFA vs EHDAA2. Note EHDAA2 term renamed to 'early PA endoderm'
Any bodily fluid that has passed through a membrane such as the capillary wall, as a result of unbalanced hydrostatic and osmotic forces.
Anatomical system that consists of all blood and lymph vessels.
A bridge of mesoderm connecting the caudal end of the young embryo with the trophoblastic tissues; the precursor of the umbilical cord.
The anteriormost subdivision of the body that includes the head, jaws, pharyngeal region and the neck (if present). In vertebrates this is the subdivision that includes the cervical vertebrae.
An organism subdivision that encompasses the region containing the pectoral or pelvic girdle. Note that this includes both the skeletal elements and associated tissues (integument, muscle, etc).
A bone that is part of a appendage girdle region.
A bone that is part of a pectoral girdle region.
A bone element or fused bone that is part of pelvic girdle.
A subdivision of a limb or fin skeleton consisting of bones which connects the upper limb or fin to the axial skeleton on each side. It consists of the clavicle and scapula in humans and, in those species with three bones in the pectoral girdle, the coracoid. Some mammalian species (e.g. the dog and the horse) have only the scapula. In humans, the only joints between the shoulder girdle and axial skeleton are the sternoclavicular joints on each side. No joint exists between each scapula and the rib cage; instead the muscular connection between the two permits relatively great mobility of the shoulder girdle in relation to the pelvic girdle. In those species having only the scapula, no joint exists between the forelimb and the thorax, the only attachment being muscular[WP]. Examples: There are only two instances, right and left pectoral girdle skeletons.
Skeletal subdivision consisting of a set of bones linking the axial series to the hindlimb zeugopodium and offering anchoring areas for hindlimb and caudal musculature.
Bone element that arises as a result of intramembranous ossification.
Skeletal element that is composed of cartilage tissue and may be permanent or transient.
Connective tissue, which consists of fibroblasts, the intercellular matrix of which contains a regular network of collagen and elastic fiber bundles. Examples: bone (tissue), cartilage (tissue), dense regular connective tissue.
Connective tissue that is dominated by collagen fibres organized into a definitive pattern (e.g., parallel to one another), with comparatively fewer cells (mostly fibroblasts).
dense regular collagenous connective tissue
typus regularis (textus connectivus collagenosus compactus)
A bone that is part of a craniocervical region.
The irregular bones are bones which, from their peculiar form, cannot be grouped as long bone, short bone, flat bone or sesamoid bone. Irregular bones serve various purposes in the body, such as protection of nervous tissue, affording multiple anchor points for skeletal muscle attachment (as with the sacrum), and maintaining pharynx and trachea support, and tongue attachment (such as the hyoid bone). They consist of cancellous tissue enclosed within a thin layer of compact bone. The irregular bones are: the vertebrC&, sacrum, coccyx, temporal, sphenoid, ethmoid, zygomatic, maxilla, mandible, palatine, inferior nasal concha, and hyoid.
A skeletal joint that is part of a appendage girdle region.
A bone that is hollow or contains many air cells, such as the mastoid process of the temporal bone[TMD].
Subdivision of thorax, which in humans is the posterior part of the thorax and is demarcated from the chest by the external surface of the posterolateral part of the rib cage and the anterior surface of the thoracic vertebral column; together with the chest, it constitutes the thorax.
A clavicle that is in the right side of a entire appendicular skeleton.
A clavicle that is in the left side of a entire appendicular skeleton.
The fibrous connective tissue that surrounds the root of a tooth, separating it from and attaching it to the alveolar bone. It extends from the base of the gingival mucosa to the fundus of the bony socket, and its main function is to hold the tooth in its socket[BTO].
A knoblike tooth primordium that develops into the mature tooth and consists of enamel organ, dental papilla, and dental sac enclosing them.
An endothelium that is part of a heart [Automatically generated definition].
With numerous vascular spaces that may become engorged with blood.
Examples: corpus cavernosum or penis or clitoris
A ridge of epidermal cells that will form the mammary placodes.
An embryonic structure that is derived from the inner cell mass and lies above the hypoblast and gives rise to the three primary germ layers.
The epiblast cells (appearing on day 8 of human embryonic development) make up a columnar epithelium with dense microvilli on the apical surface. During gastrulation, the epiblast cells undergo epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition and delaminate to become the loose mesenchyme of the primitive streak. The epiblast is present in postimplantation mouse embryos between E5.5-E7.5.
A limb segment that is part of a hindlimb.
A limb segment that is part of a forelimb.
An external organ of a male organism that is specialized to deliver sperm during copulation. Intromittent organs are found most often in terrestrial species, as most aquatic species fertilize their eggs externally, although there are exceptions[WP].
A transient embryonic complex that comprises the pharyngeal arches, bulges of tissues of mesoderm and neural crest derivation through which pass nerves and pharyngeal arch arteries. The arches are separated internally by pharyngeal pouches, evaginations of foregut endoderm, and externally by pharyngeal clefts, invaginations of surface ectoderm. The development of the system ends when the stucture it contributes to are forming, which may include (depending on species) the thymus, thyroid, parathyroids, maxilla, mandible, aortic arch, cardiac outflow tract, external and middle ear[GO,modified].
An out-pocket of thickened ventral foregut epithelium adjacent to the developing heart. Constitutes the first morphological sign of the embryonic liver. The anterior portion of the hepatic diverticulum gives rise to the liver and intrahepatic biliary tree, while the posterior portion forms the gall bladder and extrahepatic bile ducts.
Dense regular connective tissue connecting two or more adjacent skeletal elements[VSAO,modified].
The short narrow part of the stomach extending from the pyloric antrum to the pyloric sphincter.
A gastric gland in the cardiac region of the stomach; cardiac glands are fewer in number than in the fundus and body, and secrete mucin which coats the stomach and protects it[MP].
The gastric glands in the pyloric region of the stomach; the pyloric glands secrete mucin, which coats the stomach and protects it, and hormones such as gastrin and enkephalin[MP].
The part of the cardiovascular system consisting of all pulmonary arteries and all pulmonary veins.
Subdivision of endoskeleton derived from pharyngeal arches.
Skeletal element that forms superficially in the organism, usually in association with the ectoderm[VSAO].
A bone that is part of a forelimb region. Examples: humerus, any of the phalanges. Counter-example: scapula (a bone of the pectoral girdle). Note that we consider the forelimb to end at the shoulder.
A sac containing the developing tooth and its odontogenic organ. The dental follicle (DF) differentiates into the periodontal ligament. In addition, it may be the precursor of other cells of the periodontium, including osteoblasts, cementoblasts and fibroblasts. They develop into the alveolar bone, the cementum with Sharpey's fibers and the periodontal ligament fibers respectively.
The functional tissue of the kidney, consisting of the nephrons.
System pertaining to blood vessels in the brain.
An organism containing a developing embryo, fetus, or unborn offspring within the body.
A gonad prior to differentiating into a definitive testis or ovary.
typically part of the embryo - however, in male tammar wallabies the gonads are indifferent at the neonatal stage[8827321]
The adenohypophyseal placode forms the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland and gives rise to the endocrine secretory cells of the pituitary.
A fold of tissue which extends into the peritoneal cavity of the developing embryo and participates in the separation of the pleural and peritoneal cavities.
A sphenoid endochondral element that is composed primarily of a pre-cartilage condensation.
sphenoid bone pre-cartilage condensation
A sphenoid endochondral element that is composed primarily of cartilage tissue.
A nephric duct is a tube that drains a primitive kidney[GO].
A portion of mesenchymal tissue associated with an individual pharyngeal arch.
An epithelium that is part of a foregut-midgut junction.
An endoderm that is part of a anal region.
An endoderm that is part of a foregut-midgut junction.
A presumptive structure that has the potential to develop into a midbrain.
Bilateral mesenchymal mesoderm parallel and immediately adjacent to the neural tube/notochord; it generates a subset of extra-ocular, and other head, muscles.
The primordial mass of tissue formed by the merging of the medial nasal prominences of the embryo; it contributes to the intermaxillary portion of the upper jaw, the prolabial portion of the upper lip, and the primary palate.
The channels in the lymph node medulla that separate the medullary cords and are crossed by a reticulum of cells and fibers and bounded by littoral cells; lymph flows through the medullary sinus from the cortical sinuses and into the efferent lymphatic vessels.
Lymph flows into the medullary sinuses from cortical sinuses, and into efferent lymphatic vessels. Medullary sinuses contain histiocytes (immobile macrophages) and reticular cells.[WP]
The dense rope-like structures of lymphatic tissue located between the medullary sinuses in the medulla of a lymph node.
The primordial embryonic connective tissue of the developing limbs, autopods and digits, consisting of mesenchymal cells supported in interlaminar jelly, that derive mostly from the mesoderm and contribute to limb connective tissue, bone and musculature in conjunction with myotome cells.
The embryonic connective tissue made up of loosely aggregated mesenchymal cells, supported by interlaminar jelly, that gives rise to the developing cardiac structures.
A serous sac that has the pleura and the pleural cavity as parts.
The many-lobed berry cluster of cells that is the terminous of a gland where the secretion is produced is acinar in form.
Mesenchyme that surrounds primitive urogenital sinus.
An epithelium that is part of a embryonic cloaca.
A specific region of the urogenital sinus epithelium into the area in which the prostate gland will develop.
The part of the uterus above the isthmus and below the orifices of the uterine tubes.
Branch or outpocketing of the digestive tract.
A division of the stomach. The stomach can be divided based on mucosal histology (glandular epithelium and gastric glands) and the relative position and type of gastric gland.
Intermediate segment of the autopod, between the mesopodial region and and acropodial region. Examples: metacarpal region, metatarsal region.
The collection of all skeletal elements in a mesopodium. Examples: the tarsal skeleton, the carpal skeleton.
A specific region of the lateral mesoderm that will form the majority of the mesodermal component of the right ventricle, arterial pole (outflow tract) and venous pole (inflow tract).
Mesenchyme that is part of a developing face.
A portion of an organ, such as the liver, lung, breast, or brain.
Cranial ectodermal placode with potential to develop into a component of the nervous system, such as nerves or ganglia.
An anatomical structure that has more than one cell as a part.
dorsal elongation of second pouch endoderm
dorsal 3rd arch pharyngeal pouch endoderm
cranial dorsal aspect of third dorsal pharyngeal pouch
ventral 3rd arch pharyngeal pouch endoderm
caudal ventral aspect of third dorsal pharyngeal pouch
An organ of the digestive tract that is capable of retaining and storing food.
Mesenchyme that is part of a pharyngeal arch 1.
The sum total of mesenchymal tissue in the pharyngeal arch region. Pharyngeal mesenchyme is undifferentiated, loose connective tissue derived mostly from mesoderm, and also contains ectodermally derived neural crest cells.
associated mesenchyme of pharyngeal region
entire branchial arch associated mesenchyme
entire pharyngeal arch associated mesenchyme
Gland of the epithelium lining the oral cavity. The most common are the salivary glands.
A compound organ that has the potential to develop into a tongue.
Organ system subdivision that consists primarily of chromaffin cells and their supporting structures.
An extrahepatic bile duct that has the potential to develop into a common hepatic duct.
Mesenchyme that has the potential to develop into a dermis.
A structure that will develop into a diaphragm.
A developing anatomical structure that has the potential to develop into a metencephalon.
A developing anatomical structure that has the potential to develop into a myelencephalon.
A femur endochondral element that is composed primarily of cartilage tissue.
The distal elements of the developing limb of vertebrates that will give rise to the autopod (e.g. manus, pes, paw).
Any portion of cardiac muscle tissue that is part of the conducting system of heart or the Purkinje fibers.
Any of the organized aggregations of cells that function as secretory or excretory organs and that release hormones in response to neural stimuli.
A circumventricular organ that is capable of secreting substances into the cerebrospinal fluid.
A sex cord that is part of a indifferent gonad.
A bodily secretion that is produced by a seminal vesicle.
Any gland, other than the gonad, associated with the genital tract, such as the ampulla of the ductus deferens and the bulbourethral, prostate and vesicular glands of the male.
An anatomical cavity that surrounded_by a blood vessel.
An anatomical boundary that corresponds to some physical discontinuity.
One might argue that all boundaries are actually fiat in the sense that there must be some fiat element at a fine enough scale of granularity. This ontology choses to ignore this issue as below the level of granularity relevant to anatomy. (DOS121102)
A semisolid gelatinous mass of coagulated blood that consists of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets entrapped in a fibrin network.
A nuclear complex which in mammals consists of four parts, the hypothalamus, epithalamus, ventral thalamus, and dorsal thalamus[WP,modified].
Multi-tissue structure that is part of the heart tube and will become the cardiac atrium.
The core globe-shaped component of the camera-type eye.
Mesenchyme that develops_from a rhombencephalon neural crest.
mesenchyme from rhombencephalic neural crest
Mesenchyme that develops_from a neural crest and is part of a 1st arch mesenchyme.
mesenchyme derived from neural crest of mesenchyme of 1st arch
pharyngeal arch 1 mesenchyme from neural crest
branchial arch 1 mesenchyme from neural crest
One of the three blood vessels, usually one large umbilical vein and two small umbilical arteries, buried within Wharton's jelly, that transport blood to and from the placenta, where exchange between the mother and fetus takes place; the umbilical vein carries oxygenated, nutrient-rich blood from the placenta to the fetus, and the umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated, nutrient-depleted blood from the fetus to the placenta.
A minute orifice on the summit of the papillae lacrimales, which is the commencement point of the lacrimal canaliculi.
Portion of tissue that is dorsolateral to the floor plate and part of the midbrain.
Portion of neural tube that gives rise to the midbrain.
Developing anatomical structure that develops into the eyeball and associated structures.
An anatomical structure that develops from the neural crest.
An anatomical structure that has some part that develops from the neural crest.
structure with developmental contribution from neural crest
Skeletal subdivision of the head including skull (cranium plus mandible), pharyngeal and/or hyoid apparatus.
Mesenchyme that is part of a limb/fin bud.
Mesenchyme that is part of a extraembryonic membrane.
Mesenchyme that develops_from a neural crest and is part of a entire pharyngeal arch associated mesenchyme.
branchial arch mesenchyme from neural crest
Partially implements https://github.com/obophenotype/uberon/wiki/The-neural-crest NC meeting scheme
pharyngeal arch mesenchyme from neural crest
A skeletal element that has the potential to participate in endochondral ossification, and may participate in intramembranous ossification.
Skeletal subdivision that undergoes direct development and includes elements that either develop in association with the basement membrane of the ectoderm or are homologous with such elements; includes dermatocranium, components of the appendicular skeleton, teeth and tooth-like elements of the oropharynx, and integumentary elements.
This ontology covers metazoa, so we do not use exoskeleton as primary label, as in VSAO
Skeletal tissue that is part of the exoskeleton and derived from an odontogenic papilla.
Epithelium composed of cells that develops from the ectoderm[FMA,modified].
Mesenchyme that develops_from a somatopleure.
The integrated unit (of the eye) that consists of the conjunctiva, the corneal surface, and the ocular mucosal adnexa including the lid margins and the meibomian gland openings, the lacrimal glands and the lacrimal drainage system, all which are critical to maintain ocular surface integrity and provide protection from external antigens and pathogenic microorganisms.
The ciliary processes are formed by the inward folding of the various layers of the choroid, i.e. , the choroid proper and the lamina basalis, and are received between corresponding foldings of the suspensory ligament of the lens.
A bone that is shaped as a broad flat plate and composed of two thin layers of compact tissue enclosing between them a variable quantity of cancellous tissue, which is the location of red bone marrow.
Examples: cranium, the ilium, sternum, rib cage, the sacrum and the scapula; the occipital, parietal, frontal, nasal, lacrimal, vomer, scapula, os coxC&, sternum, and ribs
A simple columnar epithelium that looks stratified but is not, because its cells are arranged with their nuclei at different levels.
Epithelium composed of a single layer of cells, appearing as layered because the column-shaped cells vary in height so the nuclei are at different levels. The basal portions of all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane. It lines the respiratory system and the male reproductive tract. The cilia in the respiratory tract are motile, while the stereocilia in the male reproductive tract are immobile.
epithelium pseudostratificatum columnare ciliatum (trachea et bronchi)
pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
A vessel of the microcirculature, lying between the arterioles and venules; includes capillaries (blood and lymphatic), metarterioles and arteriovenous anastomoses.
An organ cavity that surrounded_by a bone.
An epithelial tube that is fated to become a nephron.
An appendage segment that is part of a limb/fin.
The subdivision of the skeleton that consists of all the skeletal elements at the distalmost end of the autopodium - i.e. the bones of the digits or their cartilaginous precursors[VSAO,modified].
Subdivision of skeleton that corresponds to metapodium region, between acropodial skeleton and mesopdoial skeleton.
An organism subdivision that includes both an appendage and its associated girdle region. Note that this includes both the skeletal elements and associated tissues (integument, muscle, etc).
Appendage girdle complex that when present, encompasses the pectoral appendicular skeleton and the pectoral girdle.
pectoral girdle plus anterior limb or fin
pectoral girdle plus pectoral limb or fin
Appendage girdle complex that when present, encompasses the pelvic appendicular skeleton and the pelvic girdle.
pelvic girdle plus posterior limb or fin
Skeletal subdivision that is a segment of the limb skeleton.
An iliac endochondral element that is composed primarily of cartilage tissue.
A pubic endochondral element that is composed primarily of cartilage tissue.
The subdivision of the skeleton of either the pectoral or pelvic girdle.
Subdivision of skeleton consisting of all skeletal elements in an hindlimb zeugopod region. Typically consists of the tibia and the fibula.
A bone that is part of an appendage girdle complex (i.e. any bone in a limb, fin or girdle).
A bone that is part of a pectoral complex. Examples: scapula, manus phalanx, any carpal bone, any bone of the pectoral fin.
bone of forelimb or pectoral fin or pectoral girdle
A bone that is part of a pelvic complex. Examples: pubis, ischium, fot phalanx, any tarsal bone, any bone of the pelvic fin or girdle.
The collection of all meningeal layers that line a central nervous system.
A sacral vertebra endochondral element that is composed primarily of a pre-cartilage condensation.
sacral vertebral pre-cartilage condensation group
sacral vertebra pre-cartilage condensation
A sacral vertebra endochondral element that is composed primarily of cartilage tissue.
sacral vertebral cartilage condensation group
A major subdivision of an organism that divides an organism along an axis perpedicular to the main body anterior-posterior axis. In vertebrates, this is typically a fin or limb segment. In insects, this includes segments of appendages such as antennae, as well as segments of the insect leg.
subdivision of organism along appendicular axis
A cartilaginous condensation that has the potential to develop into a clavicle.
A pre-cartilage condensation that has the potential to develop into a clavicle.
A cartilaginous condensation that has the potential to develop into a tibia.
A pre-cartilage condensation that has the potential to develop into a tibia.
A cartilaginous condensation that has the potential to develop into a fibula.
A pre-cartilage condensation that has the potential to develop into a fibula.
A skeletal element that is part of a limb and composed of cartilage tissue.
A skeletal element that is part of a limb and composed of pre-cartilage tissue.
A cartilaginous condensation that has the potential to develop into a forelimb bone.
forelimb wing cartilaginous condensation
A pre-cartilage condensation that has the potential to develop into a forelimb bone.
forelimb bone pre-cartilage condensation
A cartilaginous condensation that has the potential to develop into a hindlimb bone.
A pre-cartilage condensation that has the potential to develop into a hindlimb bone.
A primordium that develops into a clavicle bone.
lateral part derives from a fish dermal bone while the medial part comes from a spur off the manubrium endochondral bone[JB]
Skeletal element that is often isolated, small, and variable in composition.
Ossicles are composed of a combination skeletal tissues, including bone, calcified cartilage, hyaline cartilage, etc, and exhibit variable development across species. Ossicles are not necessarily jointed, and examples include the menisci of synovial joints, 'Panda's thumb' (radial sesamoid), cardiac skeletal elements, sclerotic bones, middle ear ossicles, and sesamoids.
Anatomical cluster consisting of the skeletal elements (i.e. bone elements, cartilage elements, cartilage condensations) that are part of an individual subdivision of the organism. Excludes joints.
Skeletal element that forms around the notochord and is part of the vertebral column.
The eighth thoracic vertebra counting from the top down. Note that members of this class are not necessarily homologous[ncit,modified].
The dorsal portion of the first pharyngeal arch, comprising the upper jaw[ZFIN,VHOG].
The cartilaginous form of a vertebral element, a skeletal element that forms around the notochord and is part of the vertebral column.
The pre-cartilaginous form of a vertebral element, a skeletal element that forms around the notochord and is part of the vertebral column.
A synovial joint that is part of a pelvic girdle region.
A synovial joint that is part of a pectoral girdle region.
Joint in which the articulating bones or cartilages are connected by ligaments or fibrocartilage without an intervening synovial cavity. Examples: sagittal suture, inferior tibiofibular syndesmosis, costochondral joint, pubic symphysis.
A cartilage element that lies between two successive vertebral centra.
Subdivision of the skeletal system which consists of the axial skeleton plus associated joints.
Subdivision of the skeletal system which consists of the postcranial axial skeleton plus associated joints.
Any synovial joint that is part of a (free) limb.
Ossicle that is part of the appendicular skeleton.
Examples of appendicular ossicles include the patella and meniscus of the knee joint.
Subdivision of urinary system which consists of the kidney and the ureters.
Subdivision of skull that consists of the facial bones.
The skull can be divided into two: the neurocranium and the facial skeleton.
primary subdivision of cranial skeletal system
A bone that is part of a neurocranium [Automatically generated definition].
A sphincter muscle that is part of the gastrointestinal system.
A multi cell part structure that is part of a central nervous system.
central nervous system cell part cluster
The most anterior region of the braincase. Provides structural support for peripheral olfactory organ.
Subdivision of the skeletal system which consists of the appendicular skeleton plus associated joints.
The part of the trunk that is in the dorsum[cjm].
A portion of gray matter that is part of a telencephalon.
predominantly gray regional part of telencephalon
A retractable double-layered fold of skin and mucous membrane that covers the glans penis or clitoris. Glands may also be present.
The collection of all skeletal elements in an individual limb or fin.
Proximal element of a free limb skeleton consisting of the femur and humerus in the forelimb stylopodium and hindlimb stylopodium respectively[VSAO, modified].
Section of the forelimb skeleton located between the stylopodium and the autopodium.
Anatomical structure that is an aggregation of similar cells from which cartilages and bones form, and from which chondrogenesis and osteogenesis are initiated during repair and/or regeneration. (Hall and Miyake 1995).
Odontogenic tissue that is collagen-rich and characteristic of vertebrate teeth and tooth-like structures (e.g., odontodes) deposited by preodontoblasts and odontoblasts that are typically excluded from the matrix.
Odontogenic tissue that is avascular non-mineralized matrix that is deposited by preameloblast and ameloblasts that are excluded from the matrix.
A subdivision of the head that corresponds to the jaw skeleton, containing both soft tissue, skeleton and teeth (when present). The jaw region is divided into upper and lower regions.
Any bone that is part of the upper jaw skeleton. This includes (when present): the maxilla, the quadrate (in some species).
A major subdivision of an organism that divides an organism along its main body axis (typically anterio-posterior axis). In vertebrates, this is based on the vertebral column.
subdivision of organism along main body axis
A cardiovascular system that is part of a conceptus.
Paired structures in the embryo that represent the final stage of development of the caudal end of the external genitals before sexual differentiation. In both males and females the two swellings merge: in the female, they become the posterior labial commissure; In the male, they become the scrotum.
A genital swelling that is part of a male reproductive organ.
A cranial nerve nucleus that is associated with a vagus nerve.
Ectodermal placode that does not develop into a component of the nervous system.
An ectodermal placode that gives rise to any of the cutaneous appendages that protrude from the skin epidermis (heair, feathers, epidermal scales).
An anatomical junction that divides and overlaps with and atrium and a ventricle in the heart.
Connective tissue, which consists of a population of connective tissue cells, the intercellular matrix of which contains an irregular network of collagen and elastic fiber bundles. Examples: areolar tissue, mucoid tissue, connective tissue of peritoneum, connective tissue of fibrous pericardium.
Irregular connective tissue is an irregular connective tissue, the intercellular matrix of which contains a dense irregular network of collagen and elastic fiber bundles. Examples: connective tissue of peritoneum, connective tissue of fibrous pericardium.
typus irregularis (textus connectivus collagenosus compactus)
Dense connective tissue is mainly composed of collagen type I. Crowded between the collagen fibers are rows of fibroblasts, fiber-forming cells, that manufacture the fibers. Dense connective tissue forms strong, rope-like structures such as tendons and ligaments. Tendons attach skeletal muscles to bones; ligaments connect bones to bones at joints. Ligaments are more stretchy and contain more elastic fibers than tendons. Dense connective tissue also make up the lower layers of the skin (dermis), where it is arranged in sheets.
Irregular connective tissue, the intercellular matrix of which contains a sparse irregular network of collagen and elastic fiber bundles. Examples: areolar tissue, neuroglial tissue, mucoid tissue.
An acinus that is part of a exocrine gland.
Front (ventral) portion of the vascular, pigmentary, or middle coat of the eye, including the ciliary body and the iris.
Epimysium is a layer of connective tissue which ensheaths the entire muscle. It is composed of dense irregular connective tissue. It is continuous with fascia and other connective tissue wrappings of muscle including the endomysium, and perimysium. It is also continuous with tendons where it becomes thicker and collagenous.
An epidermal invagination that has as parts a hair follicle, a sebaceous gland, and arrector pili muscle.
A region of the stomach that is lined with glandular epithelium.
In a saddle joint (sellar joint, articulation by reciprocal reception) the opposing surfaces are reciprocally concave-convex.
The aggregate of the coelemic cavity lumen plus the membranes that line the lumen.
A segment of the autopod consisting of both acropodial region and metapodial region, but excluding the mesopodial/basopodial region.
A digitopodium region that is part of a pes[Obol]. This includes the toes and metatarsal region, but excludes the tarsals region.
A subdivision of the autopod skeleton consisting of both acropodial skeleon and metapodial skeleton, but excluding the mesopodial/basopodial skeleton.
A subdivision of the pes skeleton consisting of both pedal acropodial skeleton and metatarsal skeleton, but excluding the tarsal skeleton.
Blood that remains in the placenta and in the attached umbilical cord after childbirth[WP].
Cord blood is collected because it contains stem cells, which can be used to treat hematopoietic and genetic disorders.[WP]
A zone of skin that is part of a craniocervical region.
An epithelium that consists of columnar epithelial cells. Columnar epithelia are epithelial cells whose heights are at least four times their width. Columnar epithelia are divided into simple (or unilayered), and the rarer stratified (or multi-layered).[WP, modified].
Epithelium that derives from the mesoderm. [Automatically generated definition].
One of the pair of mesenchymal swellings (folds) located on either side of the cloacal membrane during the indifferent stage of embryonic development; cranial to the cloacal membrane the folds unite to form the genital tubercle; caudally the folds are subdivided into urogenital folds anteriorly and anal folds posteriorly.
We presume this is distinct from AAO:0001003, an external integumentary structure - check with amphibian anatomy ontology developers. AO notes: the text def states mesenchymal swelling, EHDAA2 splits into mesenchymal and epithelial parts
One of five swellings formed during the development of the face.
The lymphocytic cell population present in the mucosa of the nasopharyngeal duct of some animals.
A zone of skin that is part of the area surrounding the anus.
Any exocrine gland whose secretion consists of its own disintegrated secretory cells along with its secretory product; holocrine secretions are produced in the cytoplasm of the cell and released by the rupture of the plasma membrane, which destroys the cell and results in the secretion of the product into the lumen.
The segment of the autopod that is distal to the metapodial region and consists of the digits.
A bone element that is part of a jaw region.
Blood-forming tissue, consisting of reticular fibers and cells.
The sclera and cornea form the fibrous tunic of the bulb of the eye; the sclera is opaque, and constitutes the posterior five-sixths of the tunic; the cornea is transparent, and forms the anterior sixth.
An anatomical space with no opening to another space or to the exterior.
The collection of all skeletal elements in a pectoral complex - i.e. the combination of free limb or fin plus pectoral girdle.
skeleton of anterior limb/fin and girdle
The collection of all skeletal elements in a pelvic complex - i.e. the combination of free limb or fin plus pelvic girdle.
skeleton of posterior limb/fin and girdle
The posterior region of the neck, including the suboccipital region.
The subdivision of the digestive tract that consists of the colon and the rectum.
The secretory unit of a serous gland. The acinar portion is composed of serous secreting cells.
A future glans that is part of a male genital tubercle.
A future glans that is part of a female genital tubercle.
The upper one third of esophagus in which the muscle layer is composed of muscle cells of the striated type.
The panniculus adiposus is the fatty layer of the subcutaneous tissues, superficial to a deeper vestigial layer of muscle, the panniculus carnosus. An example is the Fascia of Camper. Another example is the superficial cervical fascia[WP].
A cervical vertebra endochondral element that is composed primarily of cartilage tissue.
cervical vertebral cartilage condensation group
A cervical vertebra endochondral element that is composed primarily of a pre-cartilage condensation.
cervical vertebra pre-cartilage condensation
A thoracic vertebra endochondral element that is composed primarily of cartilage tissue.
thoracic vertebral cartilage condensation group
A thoracic vertebra endochondral element that is composed primarily of a pre-cartilage condensation.
thoracic vertebra pre-cartilage condensation
A lumbar vertebra endochondral element that is composed primarily of cartilage tissue.
lumbar vertebral cartilage condensation group
A lumbar vertebra endochondral element that is composed primarily of a pre-cartilage condensation.
lumbar vertebra pre-cartilage condensation
A section through the tube or network of tubes that connects the ovaries to the outside of the body.
Short bones are designated as those bones that are as wide as they are long. Their primary function is to provide support and stability with little to no movement. They are one of five types of bones: long, short, flat, irregular and sesamoid. Examples of these bones include the tarsals in the foot and the carpals in the hand.
Ossicle that develops within bands of dense, regular connective tissue (e.g., tendons and ligaments). Sesamoids are generally located proximate to a bony prominence, over which the dense regular connective tissue wraps, and/or a joint or articulation.
Sesamoids are often endochondral replacement elements and in addition to bone tissue, may also be composed of articular cartilage, fibrocartilage, hyaline cartilage, and calcified cartilage.
Anatomical space that is an opening in a bone of the skull.
An anatomical space which is the lumen of some anatomical conduit and connects two or more spaces together[FMA,modified].
Epithelium lining the exocrine pancreas.
A principle subdivision of an organism that includes all structures along the primary axis, typically the anterior-posterior axis, from head to tail, including structures of the body proper where present (for example, ribs), but excluding appendages.
The region of the organism associated with the visceral organs.
Anatomical projection that is part of the integumentl system.
An organ component layer that is part of a integumental system.
One of two openings in the uterine cervix.
Opening of uterine cervix into the body of the uterus.
Any of the organs or elements that are part of the digestive system. Examples: tongue, esophagus, spleen, crop, lunge feeding organ, tooth elements.
Great vessels is a term used to refer collectively to the large vessels that bring blood to and from the heart.
Groupings may vary - typically pulmonary vessels and aorta and vena cavae
Embryonic structure that gives rise to the telencephalon.
paired anteriolateral division of the embryonic prosencephalon plus the lamina terminalis from which the olfactory lobes, cerebral cortex, and subcortical nuclei are derived[MP]
Mesenchyme that develops_from the neural crest[Automatically generated definition].
Subdivision of skeletal system that consists of all skeletal elements in the thoracic region of the trunk. In most vertebrates this is the rib cage and sternum.
Subdivision of skeletal system that consists of all ribs and rib joints in an organism. In many vertebrates this consists of the combination of the rib cage and all rib joints, but some vertebrates have ribs outside the thoracic rib cage.
A duct that is located between lobules, within the thin connective tissue septa that separate lobules. All interlobular ducts are excretory.
A duct that is located within a lobule, with no more connective tissue intervening between ducts and secretory units (i.e., acini or tubules) than between adjacent secretory units. Intercalated and striated ducts are intralobular.
Chorda tendinea which is attached to the leaflet of mitral valve and is continuous with the endocardium of papillary muscle of left ventricle.
A muscle organ that consists of skeletal muscle tissue ensheathed in epimysium, that develops from myotome and that is innervated by some somatic motor neuron. Skeletal muscles are typically attached (via a tendon) to a bone but there are exceptions (e.g. intrinsic tongue muscles).
A portion of tissue that will develop into vasculature.
The major preaxial endochondral element in the posterior zeugopod[Phenoscape].
A vertebral endochondral element in the cervical region of the vertebral column.
A vertebral endochondral element in the thoracic region of the vertebral column.
A lumbar vertebra bone or its cartilage or pre-cartilage precursor.
A vertebra endochondral element that is part of the sacral region of the vertebral column.
The major postaxial endochondral element in the posterior zeugopod[Phenoscape].
A rib bone or its cartilage or pre-cartilage precursor.
A forelimb bone or its cartilage or pre-cartilage precursor.
A hindlimb bone or its cartilage or pre-cartilage precursor.
A phalanx bone or its cartilage or pre-cartilage precursor.
A femur bone or its cartilage or pre-cartilage precursor.
A humerus bone or its cartilage or pre-cartilage precursor.
An iliac bone or its cartilage or pre-cartilage precursor.
A pubic bone or its cartilage or pre-cartilage precursor.
An ischial bone or its cartilage or pre-cartilage precursor.
A scapula bone or its cartilage or pre-cartilage precursor.
A sphenoid bone or its cartilage or pre-cartilage precursor.
A limb bone or its cartilage or pre-cartilage precursor.
An endochondral element that is part of a autopod region.
A gland that is typically found in or near the orbital region, in or around either the medial or lateral canthi, and is typically associated with secretions onto the eyeball or associated ducts. Includes the Harderian, nictitans and lacrimal glands.
A gland that is located in or around the ocular region, nearer the outer canthi.
An anatomical group whose component structures share a common function.
A non-connected functional system that is composed primarily of a gland.
Any structure that is placed on one side of the left-right axis of a bilaterian.
A hollow, muscular organ, which, by contracting rhythmically, contributes to the circulation of lymph, blood or analogs. Examples: a chambered vertebrate heart; the tubular peristaltic heart of ascidians; the dorsal vessel of an insect; the lymoh heart of a reptile.
A cluster in the epithalamus that consists of the pineal body and any associated structures, such as the parapineal gland or the parietal organ. The complex is poorly developed in mammals.
The portion of the nasal mucosa that is part of the respiratory system.
Any anatomical conduit which is part of the upper respiratory tract.
An anatomical chamber that is part of the olfactory apparatus, consisting of cavity walls (nasal epithelium and mucosal layers) and the space bounded anteriorly by the nares and posteriorly by the choanae, when these structures are present.
An epithelium that is part of a camera-type eye.
An epithelium that is part of a foregut.
Subdivision of thorax which includes all structures from the skin to the costal pleura. Examples: There is only one chest wall.
Skeletal element that functionally replaces the notochord[VSAP,modified].
Frontal lobe is the anterior-most of five lobes of the cerebral hemisphere. It is bounded by the central sulcus on its posterior border and by the longitudinal cerebral fissure on its medial border.
Subdivision of telencephalon which is one of a number of subdivisions of each hemisphere separated by both real landmarks (sulci and fissures) and arbitrary boundaries[FMA,modified].
We use the term lobe broadly as a rough regional area, encompassing homologous regions in smooth-brained mammals. We subdivide the lobes into white matter and neocortical parts.
A layer of of the central nervous system that is part of gray matter.
central nervous system gray matter layer
Any mucus produced by a mucosae of the respiratory system. This includes the mucus produced in the nasal cavity (nasal mucus) and mucus produced in the respiratory tract (phlegm).
An roughly circular indentation in a surface.
Primordium that develops into the central nervous system.
Primordium that develops into the nervous system.
The joint that is formed by the union of the humerus, the scapula (or shoulder blade), and the clavicle (or collarbone). Commonly thought of as a single joint, the shoulder is actually made up of two separate joints - the glenohumeral and acromioclavicular joints.
The part of the conceptus that may be lost before birth or will be discarded at birth, or when the embryo becomes an independent organism.
An embryonic anatomical entity that will turn into one or more other anatomical entities, perhaps with other anatomical entities, later in development.
A mesenchyme-derived anatomical entity undergoing a transtion to become another structure.
A primordium that has the potential to develop into a saliva-secreting gland.
Any organ component layer that consists of muscle tissue.
An interconnected tubular multi-tissue structure that contains fluid that is actively transported around the heart.
A membranous sac in animals that serves as the receptacle of a liquid or contains gas.
The part of the eye that consists of both the retina and the optic choroid.
Either of the outermost digits in a five-digit autopod, or their phylogenetic equivalent.
An exocrine gland that is part of a integumental system.
The single bud-like invagination of the conjunctival fornix epithelium at the temporal aspect of the eye that signals lacrimal gland formation (Int Rev Cytol. 1996;168:1-80. Cell biology of the harderian gland).
A portion of organism substance that is secreted by a reproductive gland.
Single layer of a laminar structure, identified by different density, arrangement or size of cells and processes arranged in flattened layers or lamina[CUMBO].
Serous membrane layer that is adjacent to and lines an organ.
Serous membrane layer that lines to a body cavity.
An embryonic or larval epithelium that is committed to form part of the nervous system.
An epithelium that is undergoing proliferation to provide large numbers of neuronal cells.
A neuroepithelium some of whose cells are undergoing terminal differentiation to become neuronal cells.
The layer of the developing cerebral cortex that is formed from the first cohort of neurons to migrate out of the cortical ventricular zone; split by the second wave into marginal zone and subplate.
Any of the cranial nerves, or their central nervous system analogs (the optic tract, the epiphyseal tract). These analogs are not true nerves, and are instead evaginated sensory afferents emanating from the brain.
A part of an organism or organ that is continuous with its surroundings and distinguished from its surroundings based on morphology.
Any substance in the body or expelled from the body that is in a gaseous state.
Any portion of gas located in a part of the respiratory system that is composed primarily of air.
An multicellular anatomical structure that has subparts of multiple organs as a part.
A cluster of cells, largely surrounded by a morphological boundary.
Material anatomical entity consisting of multiple anatomical structures that are not connected to each other.
A collection of anatomical structures that are alike in terms of their morphology or developmental origin.
A region or zone on the surface of an organism that encompasses skin and any adnexa, down through muscles and bounded by underlying skeletal support structures.
The epithelial layer covering the biliary system. This includes the epithelium of the gallbladder (when present) as well as the intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts.
organ region with floating fiat boundary
Any portion of gas located in a part of the respiratory system.
A population of lymphatic endothelial cell precursors that will form the lymph vessels.
The parietal pleura that lines the mediastinum.
Any chamber of the left side of the heart.
Any chamber of the right side of the heart.
A skeletal element of the ethmoid region with complex morphology that are lined with mucuous membranes involved in either olfaction or air conditioning.
The parts of the orbital region that are outside of the the eyeball, including the lacrimal apparatus, the extraocular muscles and the eyelids, eyelashes, eyebrows and the conjunctiva.
The region between the mandible and the hyoid bone that contains the submandibular and sublingual glands, suprahyoid muscles, submandibular ganglion, and lingual artery.
The primordial mouth region of the developing head.
The part of the ventral body cavity that is within the abdominal segment of the trunk, which encompasses the abdomen proper plus pelvic cavity.
A serous sac that is the aggregate of the peritoneum and the peritoneal cavity, located in the abdominal cavity.
The lower portion of the larynx, extending from just beneath the vocal cords down to the top of the trachea.
An region of the mesoderm that includes anterior lateral mesoderm of the first heart field plus contiguous pharyngeal mesoderm that gives rise to second-heart-field-derived regions of the heart and branchiomeric muscles.
An organ subunit in the skin that gives rise to cutaneous appendage.
Material anatomical entity that forms the outermost boundary of an anatomical structure.
A bodily fluid that is located in the coelom.
Any gland that is part os the respiratory system.
The upper tract of the renal system. The renal pelvis is the large cavity in the middle of each kidney. Urine drains from each kidney through a long tube called the ureter, into the bladder, where it is stored until it is passed from the body through the urethra.
vasculature of central nervous system plus retina
A zone of skin that is part of the face.
An anatomical junction between two parts of the digestive tract.
Cartilage which is part of the axial skeleton.
Non neural ectoderm that surrounds the presumptive neural plate and gives rise to neurogenic placodes.
Structures of the dermis, epidermis, glands and pigment cells recognizable on the external surfaces of the integument.
Not clear how this differs from parent class. See https://github.com/obophenotype/uberon/issues/1305
Anatomical projection that is composed of bone or cartilage tissue.
A subdivision of the autopod consisting of pedal digit plus the region incorporating a single metapodial element. These segments are typically repeated along the pre-axiom to post-axial axis.
pedal digit ( phalanges plus metapodial) plus soft tissue
A subdivision of the autopod consisting of digit plus the region incorporating a single metapodial element. These segments are typically repeated along the pre-axiom to post-axial axis.
digit ( phalanges plus metapodial) plus soft tissue
A subdivision of the autopod consisting of pedal digit 1 plus the region incorporating a single metapodial element. These segments are typically repeated along the pre-axiom to post-axial axis.
pedal digit 1 ( phalanges plus metapodial) plus soft tissue
A subdivision of the autopod consisting of digit 1 plus the region incorporating a single metapodial element. These segments are typically repeated along the pre-axiom to post-axial axis.
digit 1 ( phalanges plus metapodial) plus soft tissue
A subdivision of the skeleton of the autopod consisting of the phalanges of pedal digit plus the associated metapodial element.
A subdivision of the skeleton of the autopod consisting of the phalanges of a single digit plus the associated metapodial element.
individual digit of digitopodial skeleton
A subdivision of the skeleton of the autopod consisting of the phalanges of pedal digit 1 plus the associated metapodial element.
A subdivision of the skeleton of the autopod consisting of the phalanges of digit 1 plus the associated metapodial element.
A subdivision of the digestive tract in humans that includes the rectum, the anal canal and the anus.
Any of the smallest blood vessels where blood circulates within organ tissues. Microvessels include terminal arterioles, metarterioles, capillaries, and venules (but exclude lymphatic capillaries). Arterioles carry oxygenated blood to the capillaries, and blood flows out of the capillaries through venules into veins.
An anatomical system that eliminates waste products that arise as a result of metabolic activity.
A craniocervical region that is part of an embryo.
The region at each side of the face comprising the temple and the cheek.
This term is used to map the tissue from which the Muraoka cell line (CVCL_E042) originates.
A muscle tissue that is associated with soft internal organs (viscera).
It is quite common to refer to visceral muscles as smooth muscles, by analogy with vertebrates; however, most visceral muscles in arthropods are actually striated.
A striated muscle tissue that is associated with soft internal organs (viscera).
A regulatory system of the body that integrates the nervous system and the endocrine system. This system is formed by specialized neuroendocrine cells located mainly in the nervous system and neuroendocrine glands. However, they can also be found as either single cells or small clusters of cells dispersed throughout the surface epithelium of different tissues. The neuroendocrine system functions through the release of neurotransmitters and neurohormones, enabling communication between the endocrine and nervous systems to govern vitally important processes that include growth, reproduction, metabolism and energy homeostasis, electrolyte and water balance, and responses to stress.
In vertebrates, the hypothalamic-pituitary-target organ axis (H-P axis), the autonomic nervous system (ANS) and the diffuse neuroendocrine or APUD system contribute to the neuroendocrine system.
A disc-shaped structure that is part of the placenta. A placental disc supports fetal development through the exchange of nutrients between maternal and fetal bloodstreams. The placental disc is structured to keep the blood streams separate, while maximizing surface area for the transport of nutrients between them, to maintain an immunological barrier.