R. S. Aggarwal Quantitative Aptitude (2017) — Complete four- and five-choice set · 5,151 Questions

Choose the best answer for each question.

1. What is the place value of 5 in 3254710?

  1. 5
  2. 10000
  3. 50000
  4. 54710

2. The face value of 8 in the number 458926 is (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 8
  2. 1000
  3. 8000
  4. 8926

3. The sum of the place values of 3 in the number 503535 is (M.B.A., 2005)

  1. 6
  2. 60
  3. 3030
  4. 3300

4. The difference between the place values of 7 and 3 in the number 527435 is

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 45
  4. 6970

5. The difference between the local value and the face value of 7 in the numeral 32675149 is

  1. 5149
  2. 64851
  3. 69993
  4. 75142
  5. None of these

6. The sum of the greatest and smallest number of five digits is (M.C.A., 2005)

  1. 11,110
  2. 10,999
  3. 109,999
  4. 111,110

7. If the largest three-digit number is subtracted from the smallest five-digit number, then the remainder is

  1. 1
  2. 9000
  3. 9001
  4. 90001

8. The smallest number of 5 digits beginning with 3 and ending with 5 will be (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 31005
  2. 30015
  3. 30005
  4. 30025

9. What is the minimum number of four digits formed by using the digits 2, 4, 0, 7 ? (P.C.S., 2007)

  1. 2047
  2. 2247
  3. 2407
  4. 2470

10. All natural numbers and 0 are called the ......... numbers. (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. rational
  2. integer
  3. whole
  4. prime

11. Consider the following statements about natural numbers: (1) There exists a smallest natural number. (2) There exists a largest natural number. (3) Between two natural numbers, there is always a natural number. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. None
  2. Only 1
  3. 1 and 2
  4. 2 and 3

12. Every rational number is also

  1. an integer
  2. a real number
  3. a natural number
  4. a whole number

13. The number p is (R.R.B., 2005)

  1. a fraction
  2. a recurring decimal
  3. a rational number
  4. an irrational number

14. 2 is a/an

  1. rational number
  2. natural number
  3. irrational number
  4. integer

15. The number 3 is

  1. a finite decimal
  2. an infinite recurring decimal
  3. equal to 1.732
  4. an infinite non-recurring decimal

16. There are just two ways in which 5 may be expressed as the sum of two different positive (non-zero) integers, namely 5 = 4 + 1 = 3 + 2. In how many ways, 9 can be expressed as the sum of two different positive (non-zero) integers?

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

17. P and Q are two positive integers such that PQ = 64. Which of the following cannot be the value of P + Q?

  1. 16
  2. 20
  3. 35
  4. 65

18. If x + y + z = 9 and both y and z are positive integers greater than zero, then the maximum value x can take is

  1. 3
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. Data insufficient

19. What is the sum of the squares of the digits from 1 to 9?

  1. 105
  2. 260
  3. 285
  4. 385

20. If n is an integer between 20 and 80, then any of the following could be n + 7 except

  1. 47
  2. 58
  3. 84
  4. 88

21. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in respect of the Roman numerals: C, D, L and M?

  1. C > D > L > M
  2. M > L > D > C
  3. M > D > C > L
  4. L > C > D > M

22. If the numbers from 1 to 24, which are divisible by 2 are arranged in descending order, which number will be at the 8th place from the bottom?

  1. 10
  2. 12
  3. 16
  4. 18

23. 2 – 2 + 2 – 2 + .......... 101 terms =? (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. – 2
  2. 0
  3. 2
  4. None of these

24. 98th term of the infinite series 1, 2, 3, 4, 1, 2, 3, 4, 1, 2, ........ is (M.C.A., 2005)

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

25. If x, y, z be the digits of a number beginning from the left, the number is

  1. xyz
  2. x + 10 y + 100 z
  3. 10 x + y + 100 z
  4. 100x + 10 y + z

26. If x, y, z and w be the digits of a number beginning from the left, the number is

  1. xyzw
  2. wzyx
  3. x + 10y + 100 z + 1000 w
  4. 10 3x + 102y + 10z + w

27. If n and p are both odd numbers, which of the following is an even number?

  1. n + p
  2. n + p + 1
  3. np + 2
  4. np

28. For the integer n, if n3 is odd, then which of the following statements are true? I. n is odd. II. n2 is odd. III. n2 is even.

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. I and II only
  4. I and III only

29. If (n – 1) is an odd number, what are the two other odd numbers nearest to it?

  1. n, n – 1
  2. n, n – 2
  3. n – 3, n + 1
  4. n – 3, n + 5

30. Which of the following is always odd?

  1. Sum of two odd numbers
  2. Difference of two odd numbers
  3. Product of two odd numbers
  4. None of these

31. If x is an odd integer, then which of the following is true?

  1. 5x – 2 is even
  2. 5x2 + 2 is odd
  3. 5 x2 + 3 is odd
  4. None of these

32. If a and b are two numbers such that ab = 0, then (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. a = 0 and b = 0
  2. a = 0 or b = 0 or both
  3. a = 0 and b ≠ 0
  4. b = 0 and a ≠ 0

33. If A, B, C, D are numbers in increasing order and D, B, E are numbers in decreasing order, then which one of the following sequences need neither be in a decreasing nor in an increasing order?

  1. E, C, D
  2. E, B, C
  3. D, B, A
  4. A, E, C

34. If m, n, o, p and q are integers, then m (n + o) (p – q) must be even when which of the following is even?

  1. m
  2. p
  3. m + n
  4. n + p

35. If n is a negative number, then which of the following is the least?

  1. 0
  2. – n
  3. 2 n
  4. n2

36. If x – y = 8, then which of the following must be true? I. Both x and y are positive. II. If x is positive, y must be positive. III. If x is negative, y must be negative.

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. I and II
  4. III only

37. If x and y are negative, then which of the following statements is/are always true? I. x + y is positive. II. xy is positive. III. x – y is positive.

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. III only
  4. I and III only

38. If n = 1 + x, where x is the product of four consecu - tive positive integers, then which of the following is/are true? I. n is odd. II. n is prime. III. n is a perfect square.

  1. I only
  2. I and II only
  3. I and III only
  4. None of these

39. If x = +2 3,5 y how does y change when x increases from 1 to 2?

  1. y increases from – 5 to – 5 2
  2. y increases from 2 to 55
  3. y increases from 5 to 52
  4. y decreases from – 5 to – 5 2

40. If x is a rational number and y is an irrational number, then

  1. both x + y and xy are necessarily rational
  2. both x + y and xy are necessarily irrational
  3. xy is necessarily irrational, but x + y can be either rational or irrational
  4. x + y is necessarily irrational, but xy can be either rational or irrational

41. The difference between the square of any two con - secutive integers is equal to

  1. sum of two numbers
  2. difference of two numbers
  3. an even number
  4. product of two numbers

42. Between two distinct rational numbers a and b, there exists another rational number which is (P.C.S., 2006)

  1. 2 a
  2. 2 b
  3. 2 ab
  4. + 2 ab

43. If B > A, then which expression will have the highest value (given that A and B are positive integers)?

  1. A – B
  2. AB
  3. A + B
  4. Can't say

44. If 0 < x < 1, which of the following is greatest?

  1. x
  2. x2
  3. 1 x
  4. 2 1 x

45. If p is a positive fraction less than 1, then

  1. 1 is less than 1p
  2. 1 is a positive integerp
  3. p2 is less than p
  4. 2 – is a positive numberpp

46. If x is a real number, then x2 + x + 1 is

  1. less than 3 4
  2. zero for at least one value of x
  3. always negative
  4. greater than or equal to 3 4

47. Let n be a natural number such that + ++111 1 2 37 n is also a natural number. Which of the following statements is not true?

  1. 2 divides n
  2. 3 divides n
  3. 7 divides n
  4. n > 84

48. If n is an integer, how many values of n will give an integral value of  ++ 216 7 6 ?nn n

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. None of these

49. If p > q and r < 0, then which is true?

  1. pr < qr
  2. p – r < q – r
  3. p + r < q + r
  4. None of these

50. If X < Z and X < Y, which of the following is necessarily true? I. Y < Z II. X2 < YZ III. ZX < Y + Z

  1. Only I
  2. Only II
  3. Only III
  4. None of these

51. In the relation x > y + z, x + y > p and z < p, which of the following is necessarily true?

  1. y > p
  2. x + y > z
  3. y + p > x
  4. Insufficient data

52. If a and b are positive integers and − =() 4 ,3.5 7 ab then

  1. b > a
  2. b < a
  3. b = a
  4. b ≥ a

53. If 13 = =213 , then (2 ) ?(1 – ) w ww

  1. 1 4
  2. 1 2
  3. 1
  4. 2

54. The second digit of the number is

  1. 5
  2. 7
  3. 9
  4. Cannot be determined

55. The last digit of the number is

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3

56. The largest digit in the number is

  1. 5
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 9

57. Which of the following is a factor of the given number?

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 9

58. The least prime number is

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3

59. There does not exist a natural number which is neither prime nor composite. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

60. The number of prime numbers between 0 and 50 is

  1. 14
  2. 15
  3. 16
  4. 17

61. The prime numbers dividing 143 and leaving a remainder of 3 in each case are

  1. 2 and 11
  2. 11 and 13
  3. 3 and 7
  4. 5 and 7

62. The sum of the first four primes is

  1. 10
  2. 11
  3. 16
  4. 17

63. The sum of all the prime numbers from 1 to 20 is

  1. 75
  2. 76
  3. 77
  4. 78

64. A prime number N, in the range 10 to 50, remains unchanged when its digits are reversed. The square of such a number is

  1. 121
  2. 484
  3. 1089
  4. 1936

65. The remainder obtained when any prime number greater than 6 is divided by 6 must be

  1. either 1 or 2
  2. either 1 or 3
  3. either 1 or 5
  4. either 3 or 5

66. Which of the following is not a prime number?

  1. 21
  2. 23
  3. 29
  4. 43

67. Which of the following is a prime number?

  1. 19
  2. 20
  3. 21
  4. 22

68. Which of the following is a prime number?

  1. 115
  2. 119
  3. 127
  4. None of these

69. Which of the following is a prime number? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 143
  2. 289
  3. 117
  4. 359

70. The smallest value of natural number n, for which 2n + 1 is not a prime number, is

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. None of these

71. The smallest three-digit prime number is

  1. 101
  2. 103
  3. 107
  4. None of these

72. How many of the integers between 110 and 120 are prime numbers? (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3
  5. 4

73. Four prime numbers are arranged in ascending order. The product of first three is 385 and that of last three is 1001. The largest prime number is (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 9
  2. 11
  3. 13
  4. 17

74. The sum of three prime numbers is 100. If one of them exceeds another by 36, then one of the numbers is

  1. 7
  2. 29
  3. 41
  4. 67

75. Which one of the following is a prime number?

  1. 161
  2. 221
  3. 373
  4. 437

76. The smallest prime number, that is the fifth term of an increasing arithmetic sequence in which all the four preceding terms are also prime, is

  1. 17
  2. 29
  3. 37
  4. 53

77. The number of prime numbers between 301 and 320 are

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

78. If p > 2 is a prime, then ( p – 1) ( p + 1) is always divisible by 4. Of these statements,

  1. (1) is true but (2) is false
  2. (1) is false but (2) is true
  3. (1) and (2) are false
  4. (1) and (2) are true

79. What is the first value of n for which n2 + n + 41 is not a prime?

  1. 1
  2. 10
  3. 20
  4. 40

80. Xk + 1 is always an even number. Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1 and 3

81. 6 × 3 (3 – 1) is equal to

  1. 19
  2. 20
  3. 36
  4. 53

82. 1234 + 2345 – 3456 + 4567 =?

  1. 4590
  2. 4670
  3. 4680
  4. 4690
  5. None of these

83. 5566 – 7788 + 9988 =? + 4444

  1. 3223
  2. 3232
  3. 3322
  4. 3333
  5. None of these

84. 38649 – 1624 – 4483 =?

  1. 32425
  2. 32452
  3. 34522
  4. 35422
  5. None of these

85. 884697 – 773697 – 102479 =?

  1. 8251
  2. 8512
  3. 8521
  4. 8531
  5. None of these

86. 10531 + 4813 – 728 =? × 87

  1. 168
  2. 172
  3. 186
  4. 212
  5. None of these

87. What is 394 times 113?

  1. 44402
  2. 44522
  3. 44632
  4. 44802
  5. None of these

88. 1260 ÷ 14 ÷ 9 =?

  1. 9
  2. 10
  3. 81
  4. 810
  5. None of these

89. 136 × 12 × 8 =?

  1. 12066
  2. 13046
  3. 13064
  4. 13066
  5. None of these

90. 8888 + 848 + 88 –? = 7337 + 737

  1. 1450
  2. 1550
  3. 1650
  4. 1750
  5. None of these

91. 414 ×? × 7 = 127512

  1. 36
  2. 40
  3. 44
  4. 48
  5. None of these

92. Product of 82540027 and 43253 is

  1. 3570103787831
  2. 3570103787832
  3. 3570103787833
  4. 3570103787834

93. (46351 – 36418 – 4505) ÷? = 1357

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 6
  5. None of these

94. 6 × 66 × 666 =?

  1. 263376
  2. 263763
  3. 263736
  4. 267336
  5. None of these

95. If you subtract – 1 from + 1, what will be the result? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. – 2
  2. 0
  3. 1
  4. 2

96. 8 + 88 + 888 + 8888 + 88888 + 888888 =?

  1. 897648
  2. 896748
  3. 986748
  4. 987648
  5. None of these

97. From the sum of 17 and – 12, subtract 48.

  1. – 43
  2. – 48
  3. – 17
  4. – 20

98. 60840 ÷ 234 =?

  1. 225
  2. 255
  3. 260
  4. 310
  5. None of these

99. 3578 + 5729 –? × 581 = 5821

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. None of these

100. – 95 ÷ 19 =?

  1. – 5
  2. – 4
  3. 0
  4. 5

101. 123456 79 × 72 is equal to

  1. 88888888
  2. 888888888
  3. 898989898
  4. 999999998

102. 8899 – 6644 – 3322 =? – 1122

  1. 55
  2. 65
  3. 75
  4. 85
  5. None of these

103. 74844 ÷? = 54 × 63

  1. 22
  2. 34
  3. 42
  4. 54
  5. None of these

104. 1256 × 3892 =?

  1. 4883852
  2. 4888532
  3. 4888352
  4. 4883582
  5. None of these

105. What is 786 times 964?

  1. 757704
  2. 754164
  3. 759276
  4. 749844
  5. None of these

106. What is 348 times 265? (S.B.I.P.O., 2008)

  1. 88740
  2. 89750
  3. 92220
  4. 95700
  5. None of these

107. (71 × 29 + 27 × 15 + 8 × 4) equals (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 2496
  2. 3450
  3. 3458
  4. None of these

108. ? × (| a| × | b|) = – ab

  1. 0
  2. –1
  3. 1
  4. None of these

109. (46) 2 – (?) 2 = 4398 – 3066

  1. 16
  2. 28
  3. 36
  4. 42
  5. None of these

110. (800 ÷ 64) × (1296 ÷ 36) =?

  1. 420
  2. 460
  3. 500
  4. 540
  5. None of these

111. 5358 × 51 =?

  1. 273258
  2. 273268
  3. 273348
  4. 273358

112. 587 × 999 =?

  1. 586413
  2. 587523
  3. 614823
  4. 615173

113. 3897 × 999 =?

  1. 3883203
  2. 3893103
  3. 3639403
  4. 3791203
  5. None of these

114. 72519 × 9999 =?

  1. 725117481
  2. 674217481
  3. 685126481
  4. 696217481
  5. None of these

115. 2056 × 987 =?

  1. 1936372
  2. 2029272
  3. 1896172
  4. 1923472
  5. None of these

116. 1904 × 1904 =?

  1. 3654316
  2. 3632646
  3. 3625216
  4. 3623436
  5. None of these

117. 1397 × 1397 =?

  1. 1951609
  2. 1981709
  3. 18362619
  4. 2031719
  5. None of these

118. 107 × 107 + 93 × 93 =?

  1. 19578
  2. 19418
  3. 20098
  4. 21908
  5. None of these

119. 217 × 217 + 183 × 183 =? (R.R.B., 2007)

  1. 79698
  2. 80578
  3. 80698
  4. 81268
  5. None of these

120. 106 × 106 – 94 × 94 =?

  1. 2400
  2. 2000
  3. 1904
  4. 1906
  5. None of these

121. 8796 × 223 + 8796 × 77 =?

  1. 2736900
  2. 2738800
  3. 2658560
  4. 2716740
  5. None of these

122. 287 × 287 + 269 × 269 – 2 × 287 × 269 =?

  1. 534
  2. 446
  3. 354
  4. 324
  5. None of these

123. {(476 + 424) 2 – 4 × 476 × 424} =?

  1. 2906
  2. 3116
  3. 2704
  4. 2904
  5. None of these

124. The value of 112 × 5 4 is

  1. 6700
  2. 70000
  3. 76500
  4. 77200

125. Multiply 5746320819 by 125.

  1. 718,290,102,375
  2. 728,490,301,375
  3. 748,290,103,375
  4. 798,290,102,975

126. 935421 × 625 =?

  1. 575648125
  2. 584638125
  3. 584649125
  4. 585628125

127. (999) 2 – (998) 2 =? (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 1992
  2. 1995
  3. 1997
  4. 1998

128. (80) 2 – (65) 2 + 81 =?

  1. 306
  2. 2094
  3. 2175
  4. 2256
  5. None of these

129. (24 + 25 + 26) 2 – (10 + 20 + 25) 2 =?

  1. 352
  2. 400
  3. 752
  4. 2600
  5. None of these

130. (65) 2 – (55) 2 =?

  1. 10
  2. 100
  3. 120
  4. 1200

131. If a and b be positive integers such that a2 – b2 = 19, then the value of a is (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 9
  2. 10
  3. 19
  4. 20

132. If a and b are positive integers, a > b and

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 7

133. 397 × 397 + 104 × 104 + 2 × 397 × 104 =?

  1. 250001
  2. 251001
  3. 260101
  4. 261001

134. If (64)2 – (36) 2 = 20 × x, then x =?

  1. 70
  2. 120
  3. 180
  4. 140
  5. None of these

135. + =× 22(489 375) – (489 – 375) ?(489 375)

  1. 144
  2. 864
  3. 2
  4. 4
  5. None of these

136. ++ =×+× 22(963 476) (963 – 476) ?(963 963 476 476)

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 497
  4. 1449
  5. None of these

137. ××+×× =× ×+× 768 768 768 232 232 232 ?786 768 – 768 232 232 232

  1. 1000
  2. 536
  3. 500
  4. 268
  5. None of these

138. ×× ×× =×+×+× 854 854 854 – 276 276 276 ?854 854 854 276 276 276

  1. 1130
  2. 578
  3. 565
  4. 1156
  5. None of these

139. ×+× × =××+×× 753 753 247 247 – 753 247 ?753 753 753 247 247 247

  1. 1 1000
  2. 1 506
  3. 253 500
  4. None of these

140. ××256 256 – 144 144 is equal to112 (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 420
  2. 400
  3. 360
  4. 320

141. If a = 11 and b = 9, then the value of  ++ 22 33 is – a b ab ab (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 1 2
  2. 1 20
  3. 2
  4. 20

142. If a = 7, b = 5, c = 3, then the value of a2 + b2 + c2 – ab – bc – ca is

  1. – 12
  2. 0
  3. 8
  4. 12

143. Both addition and multiplication of numbers are operations which are

  1. neither commutative nor associative
  2. associative but not commutative
  3. commutative but not associative
  4. commutative and associative

144. Which of the following digits will replace the H marks in the following equation? 9 H + H8 + H6 = 230

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 9
  5. None of these

145. Find the missing number in the following addition problem: 8 3 5 4 * 8 + 9 * 4 2 2 * 7

  1. 0
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 9

146. What number should replace M in this multiplication problem? 3 M 4 × 4 1 2 1 6

  1. 0
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 8

147. If p and q represent digits, what is the maximum possible value of q in the statement (S.S.C., 2010) 5 p9 + 327 + 2 q8 = 1114?

  1. 6
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 9

148. What would be the maximum value of Q in the following equation? 5 P7 + 8 Q9 + R32 = 1928

  1. 6
  2. 8
  3. 9
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

149. What should come in place of * mark in the following equation? 1*5$4 ÷ 148 = 78

  1. 1
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 8
  5. None of these

150. If 6*43 – 46@9 = 1904, which of the following should come in place of *?

  1. 4
  2. 6
  3. 9
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

151. What should be the maximum value of Q in the following equation? 5 P9 – 7 Q2 + 9 R6 = 823

  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. 9
  5. None of these

152. In the following sum, '?' stands for which digit? ? + 1? + 2? +? 3 +? 1 = 21?

  1. 4
  2. 6
  3. 8
  4. 9
  5. None of these

153. B takes the value

  1. 0
  2. 5
  3. 9
  4. 0 or 9

154. C takes the value

  1. 0
  2. 2
  3. 2 or 3
  4. 5

155. A 3–digit number 4 a3 is added to another 3–digit number 984 to give the four-digit number 13 b7, which is divisible by 11. Then,

  1. 10
  2. 11
  3. 12
  4. 15

156. If , the values of a and b are (I.A.M., 2007)

  1. 1, 2
  2. 2, 3
  3. 1, 3
  4. None of these

157. * * * × * 8 * * 1 In the above multiplication problem, * is equal to

  1. 1
  2. 3
  3. 7
  4. 9

158. If * means adding 6 times the second number to the first number, then (1 * 2) * 3 equals

  1. 21
  2. 31
  3. 91
  4. 93

159. If 1 × 2 × 3 × ........ × n is denoted by n , then 8– 7– 6 is equal to

  1. 6 × 7 × 8
  2. 7 × 8 × 7
  3. 6 × 8 × 6
  4. 7 × 8 × 6

160. The highest power of 9 dividing 99! completely is

  1. 11
  2. 20
  3. 22
  4. 24

161. For an integer n, n ! = n(n – 1) ( n – 2)............ 3.2.1. (P.C.S., 2008) Then, 1! + 2! + 3! + ......... + 100! when divided by 5 leaves remainder

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3

162. The number of prime factors in the expression 610 · 7 17 · 11 27 is equal to

  1. 54
  2. 64
  3. 71
  4. 81

163. What is the number of prime factors contained in the product 30 7 × 22 5 × 34 11?

  1. 49
  2. 51
  3. 52
  4. 53

164. What number multiplied by 48 will give the same product as 173 multiplied by 240?

  1. 495
  2. 545
  3. 685
  4. 865

165. A positive number, which when added to 1000, gives a sum which is greater than when it is multiplied by 1000. This positive integer is

  1. 1
  2. 3
  3. 5
  4. 7

166. 7 is added to a certain number ; the sum is multiplied by 5 ; the product is divided by 9 and 3 is subtracted from the quotient. Thus, if the remainder left is 12, what was the original number? (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 20
  2. 30
  3. 40
  4. 60

167. Symbiosis runs a Corporate Training Programme. At the end of running the first programme, its total takings were ₹ 38950. There were more than 45 but less than 100 participants. What was the participant fee for the programme? (SNAP, 2005)

  1. ₹ 410
  2. ₹ 450
  3. ₹ 500
  4. ₹ 510

168. The sum of four consecutive even numbers A, B, C and D is 180. What is the sum of the set of next four consecutive even numbers?

  1. 196
  2. 204
  3. 212
  4. 214
  5. None of these

169. A young girl counted in the following way on the fingers of her left hand. She started calling the thumb 1, the index finger 2, middle finger 3, ring finger 4, little finger 5, then reversed direction, calling the ring finger 6, middle finger 7, index finger 8, thumb 9 and then back to the index figure for 10, middle finger for 11, and so on. She counted upto 1994. She ended on her

  1. thumb
  2. index finger
  3. middle finger
  4. ring finger

170. Given n = 1 + x and x is the product of four consecutive integers. Then which of the following is true? I. n is an odd integer. II. n is prime. III. n is a perfect square.

  1. Only I is correct
  2. Only III is correct
  3. Both I and II are correct
  4. Both I and III are correct

171. If x + y = 15 and xy = 56, then what is the value of x2 + y2? (L.I.C.A.D.O., 2007)

  1. 110
  2. 113
  3. 121
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

172. Given that (12 + 22 + 32 + .... + 20 2) = 2870, the value of (22 + 4 2 + 6 2 + .... + 40 2) is

  1. 2870
  2. 5740
  3. 11480
  4. 28700 ab 252 ba 24 12 12 ×

173. The value of 5 2 + 6 2 + .... + 10 2 + 20 2 is

  1. 755
  2. 760
  3. 765
  4. 770

174. Given that 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + .... + 10 = 55, then the sum 6 + 12 + 18 + 24 + .... + 60 is equal to

  1. 300
  2. 330
  3. 455
  4. 655

175. If m and n are natural numbers such that 2 m – 2 n = 960, what is the value of m? (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 10
  2. 12
  3. 15
  4. Cannot be determined

176. On multiplying a number by 7, all the digits in the product appear as 3' s. The smallest such number is

  1. 47619
  2. 46719
  3. 48619
  4. 47649

177. The number of digits in the smallest number, which when multiplied by 7 yields all nines, is

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

178. A boy multiplies 987 by a certain number and obtains 559981 as his answer. If in the answer both 9's are wrong but the other digits are correct, then the correct answer will be

  1. 553681
  2. 555181
  3. 555681
  4. 556581

179. The numbers 1, 3, 5, ........., 25 are multiplied together. The number of zeros at the right end of the product is (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3

180. The numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, .........., 1000 are multiplied together. The number of zeros at the end (on the right) of the product must be

  1. 30
  2. 200
  3. 211
  4. 249

181. First 100 multiples of 10 i.e. 10, 20, 30, ............, 1000 are multiplied together. The number of zeros at the end of the product will be

  1. 100
  2. 111
  3. 124
  4. 125

182. The number of zeros at the end of the product 5 × 10 × 15 × 20 × 25 × 30 × 35 × 40 × 45 × 50 is

  1. 5
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 10

183. The number of zeros at the end of 60! is

  1. 12
  2. 14
  3. 16
  4. 18

184. The numbers 1, 3, 5, 7, ........., 99 and 128 are multiplied together. The number of zeros at the end of the product must be

  1. Nil
  2. 7
  3. 19
  4. 22

185. The numbers 2, 4, 6, 8, ............, 98, 100 are multiplied together. The number of zeros at the end of the product must be

  1. 10
  2. 11
  3. 12
  4. 13

186. Let S be the set of prime numbers greater than or equal to 2 and less than 100. Multiply all the elements of S. With how many consecutive zeros will the product end?

  1. 1
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 10

187. Find the number of zeros at the end of the result 3 × 6 × 9 × 12 × 15 × ......... × 99 × 102.

  1. 4
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. 10

188. The unit's digit of 13 2003 is

  1. 1
  2. 3
  3. 7
  4. 9

189. The digit in the unit's place of the number 123 99 is (I.A.M., 2007)

  1. 1
  2. 4
  3. 7
  4. 8

190. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: List I List II (Product)

  1. 1 4 3
  2. 4 2 3 A B C A B C
  3. 1 4 5
  4. 4 2 5

191. The digit in the unit's place of the number (67) 25 – 1 must be

  1. 0
  2. 6
  3. 8
  4. None of these

192. The unit's digit in the product 274 × 318 × 577 × 313 is

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5

193. In the product 459 × 46 × 28* × 484, the digit in the unit place is 8. The digit to come in place of * is

  1. 3
  2. 5
  3. 7
  4. None of these

194. The digit in the unit place of the number represented by (7 95 – 3 58) is

  1. 0
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 7

195. Unit's digit in (784) 126 + (784) 127 is

  1. 0
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 8

196. The digit in the unit's place of [(251) 98 + (21) 29 – (106)100 + (705) 35 – 16 4 + 259] is

  1. 1
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

197. The digit in the unit's place of the product (2464) 1793 × (615) 317 × (131)491 is

  1. 0
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 5

198. If x is an even number, then x4n, where n is a positive integer, will always have

  1. zero in the unit's place
  2. 6 in the unit's place
  3. either 0 or 6 in the unit's place
  4. None of these

199. If m and n are positive integers, then the digit in the unit's place of 5 n + 6 m is always

  1. 1
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. n + m

200. The number formed from the last two digits (ones and tens) of the expression 2 12n – 6 4n, where n is any positive integer is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 10
  2. 00
  3. 30
  4. 02

201. The last digit in the decimal representation of 20001 is5  (Hotel Management, 2009)

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

202. Let x be the product of two numbers 3,659,893,456,789,325,678 and 342,973,489,379,256. The number of digits in x is

  1. 32
  2. 34
  3. 35
  4. 36

203. Let a number of three digits have for its middle digit the sum of the other two digits. Then it is a multiple of

  1. 10
  2. 11
  3. 18
  4. 50

204. What least value must be given to n so that the number 6135n2 becomes divisible by 9? (L.I.C.A.D.O., 2008)

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

205. Find the multiple of 11 in the following numbers. (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 112144
  2. 447355
  3. 869756
  4. 978626

206. 111,111,111,111 is divisible by

  1. 3 and 37 only
  2. 3, 11 and 37 only
  3. 3, 11, 37 and 111 only
  4. 3, 11, 37, 111 and 1001

207. Which of the following numbers is not divisible by 18?

  1. 34056
  2. 50436
  3. 54036
  4. 65043

208. The number 89715938* is divisible by 4. The unknown non-zero digit marked as * will be

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 6

209. Which one of the following numbers is divisible by 3?

  1. 4006020
  2. 2345678
  3. 2876423
  4. 9566003

210. A number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sums of the digits in odd and even places respectively is

  1. a multiple of 3
  2. a multiple of 5
  3. zero or a multiple of 7
  4. zero or a multiple of 11

211. Which one of the following numbers is divisible by 11?

  1. 4823718
  2. 4832718
  3. 8423718
  4. 8432718

212. Which one of the following numbers is divisible by 15?

  1. 17325
  2. 23755
  3. 29515
  4. 30560

213. 7386038 is divisible by

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 9
  4. 11

214. Consider the following statements: The numbers 24984, 26784 and 28584 are (1) divisible by 3 (2) divisible by 4 (3) divisible by 9 Which of these are correct?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3

215. Which of the following numbers is a multiple of 8?

  1. 923872
  2. 923972
  3. 923862
  4. 923962

216. If 78*3945 is divisible by 11, where * is a digit, then * is equal to

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 3
  4. 5

217. If m and n are integers divisible by 5, which of the following is not necessarily true?

  1. m + n is divisible by 10
  2. m – n is divisible by 5
  3. m2 – n2 is divisible by 25
  4. None of these

218. An integer is divisible by 16 if and only if its last X digits are divisible by 16. The value of X would be

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

219. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 3, 7, 9 and 11?

  1. 639
  2. 2079
  3. 3791
  4. 37911

220. A number 476**0 is divisible by both 3 and 11. The non-zero digits in the hundred's and ten's place respectively are

  1. 7, 4
  2. 5, 3
  3. 5, 2
  4. None of these

221. How many of the following numbers are divisible by 3 but not by 9? 2133, 2343, 3474, 4131, 5286, 5340, 6336, 7347, 8115, 9276

  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. None of these

222. If the number 357*25* is divisible by both 3 and 5, then the missing digits in the unit's place and the thousandth's place respectively are

  1. 0, 6
  2. 5, 1
  3. 5, 4
  4. None of these

223. 6897 is divisible by

  1. 11 only
  2. 19 only
  3. both 11 and 19
  4. neither 11 nor 19

224. Which of the following numbers is exactly divisible by 24?

  1. 35718
  2. 63810
  3. 537804
  4. 3125736

225. The number 311311311311311311311 is

  1. neither divisible by 3 nor by 11
  2. divisible by 11 but not by 3
  3. divisible by 3 but not by 11
  4. divisible by both 3 and 11

226. 325325 is a six-digit number. It is divisible by

  1. 7 only
  2. 11 only
  3. 13 only
  4. all 7, 11 and 13

227. If the seven-figure number 30X0103 is a multiple of 13, then X is

  1. 1
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. 8

228. If a number is divisible by both 11 and 13, then it must be necessarily

  1. 429
  2. divisible by (11 × 13)
  3. divisible by (11 + 13)
  4. divisible by (13 – 11)

229. Which of the following numbers are completely divisible by 7? I. 195195 II. 181181 III. 120120 IV. 891891

  1. Only I and II
  2. Only II and III
  3. Only I and IV
  4. Only II and IV
  5. All are divisible

230. If x and y are two digits of the number 653 xy such that the number is divisible by 80, then x + y is equal to

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

231. The six-digit number 5 ABB7A is a multiple of 33 for non-zero digits A and B. Which of the following could be possible value of A + B?

  1. 8
  2. 9
  3. 10
  4. 14

232. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 99?

  1. 114345
  2. 913464
  3. 135792
  4. 3572404

233. The digits indicated by * in 3422213** so that this number is divisible by 99 are (R.R.B., 2010)

  1. 1, 9
  2. 3, 7
  3. 4, 6
  4. 5, 5

234. If 37X3 is a four-digit natural number divisible by 7, then the place marked as X must have the value

  1. 0
  2. 3
  3. 5
  4. 9

235. If the seven-digit number 876 p37q is divisible by 225, then the values of p and q respectively are

  1. 0 and 0
  2. 9 and 0
  3. 0 and 5
  4. 9 and 5

236. If a number 774958 A96B is divisible by 8 and 9, the respective values of A and B will be

  1. 5 and 8
  2. 7 and 8
  3. 8 and 0
  4. None of these

237. How many of the following numbers are divisible by 132? 264, 396, 462, 792, 968, 2178, 5184, 6336

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 7

238. If x and y are positive integers such that (3 x + 7 y) is a multiple of 11, then which of the following is also a multiple of 11?

  1. 5x – 3 y
  2. 9x + 4 y
  3. 4 x + 6 y
  4. x + y + 6

239. If n be any natural number then by which largest number ( n3 – n) is always divisible? (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 3
  2. 6
  3. 12
  4. 18

240. If a and b are two odd positive integers, by which of the following integers is

  1. 3
  2. 6
  3. 8
  4. 12

241. The difference between the squares of any two consecutive integers is equal to

  1. an even number
  2. difference of given numbers
  3. sum of given numbers
  4. product of given numbers

242. The number 6n2 + 6n for natural number n is always divisible by (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 6 only
  2. 6 and 12
  3. 12 only
  4. 18 only

243. The difference of a number consisting of two digits and the number formed by interchanging the digits is always divisible by

  1. 5
  2. 7
  3. 9
  4. 11

244. The sum of a number consisting of two digits and the number formed by interchanging the digits is always divisible by

  1. 7
  2. 9
  3. 10
  4. 11

245. The largest natural number, which exactly divides the product of any four consecutive natural numbers, is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 6
  2. 12
  3. 24
  4. 120

246. If n is a whole number greater than 1, then n2 ( n2 – 1) is always divisible by

  1. 8
  2. 10
  3. 12
  4. 16

247. If n is any odd number greater than 1, then n (n2 – 1) is

  1. divisible by 24 always
  2. divisible by 48 always
  3. divisible by 96 always
  4. None of these

248. The sum of the digits of a 3-digit number is subtracted from the number. The resulting number is always

  1. not divisible by 9
  2. divisible by 9
  3. not divisible by 6
  4. divisible by 6

249. A number is multiplied by 11 and 11 is added to the product. If the resulting number is divisible by 13, the smallest original number is

  1. 12
  2. 22
  3. 26
  4. 53

250. The product of any three consecutive natural numbers is always divisible by

  1. 3
  2. 6
  3. 9
  4. 15

251. The sum of three consecutive odd numbers is always divisible by I. 2 II. 3 III. 5 IV. 6

  1. Only I
  2. Only II
  3. Only I and II
  4. Only I and III

252. The greatest number by which the product of three consecutive multiples of 3 is always divisible is

  1. 54
  2. 81
  3. 162
  4. 243

253. If p is a prime number greater than 3, then ( p2 – 1) is always divisible by

  1. 6 but not 12
  2. 12 but not 24
  3. 24
  4. None of these

254. The difference between the squares of two consecutive odd integers is always divisible by

  1. 3
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. 8

255. A 4–digit number is formed by repeating a 2–digit number such as 2525, 3232 etc. Any number of this form is exactly divisible by (S.S.C., 2005, 2010)

  1. 7
  2. 11
  3. 13
  4. Smallest 3–digit prime number

256. A 6-digit number is formed by repeating a 3-digit number; for example, 256256 or 678678 etc. Any number of this form is always exactly divisible by

  1. 7 only
  2. 11 only
  3. 13 only
  4. 1001

257. The sum of the digits of a natural number (10 n – 1) is 4707, where n is a natural number. The value of n is (Hotel Management, 2010)

  1. 477
  2. 523
  3. 532
  4. 704

258. ( xn – an) is divisible by ( x –

  1. for all values of n
  2. only for even values of n
  3. only for odd values of n
  4. only for prime values of n

259. Which one of the following is the number by which the product of 8 consecutive integers is divisible?

  1. 4 !
  2. 6 !
  3. 7 !
  4. 8 !
  5. All of these

260. Consider the following statements: For any positive integer n, the number 10 n – 1 is divisible by (1) 9 for n = odd only (2) 9 for n = even only (3) 11 for n = odd only (4) 11 for n = even only Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1 and 3
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 4
  4. 2 and 4

261. If n is any positive integer, 34n – 43n is always divisible by

  1. 7
  2. 12
  3. 17
  4. 145

262. If the square of an odd natural number is divided by 8, then the remainder will be

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

263. The largest number that exactly divides each number of the sequence 1 5 – 1, 2 5 – 2, 3 5 – 3, ..., n5 – n,.... is

  1. 1
  2. 15
  3. 30
  4. 120

264. The difference of the squares of two consecutive even integers is divisible by

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 7

265. The difference of the squares of two consecutive odd integers is divisible by

  1. 3
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. 8

266. The smallest 4-digit number exactly divisible by 7 is (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 1001
  2. 1007
  3. 1101
  4. 1108

267. What least number must be added to 1056 to get a number exactly divisible by 23? (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 21
  4. 25

268. Which of the following numbers should be added to 8567 to make it exactly divisible by 4?

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6
  5. None of these

269. Find the least 6-digit number which is exactly divisible by 349. (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 100163
  2. 101063
  3. 160063
  4. None of these

270. Which is the greatest 5-digit number exactly divisible by 279? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 99603
  2. 99550
  3. 99882
  4. None of these

271. The least number, which must be added to the greatest 6-digit number so that the sum may be exactly divisible by 327 is

  1. 194
  2. 264
  3. 292
  4. 294

272. The least number more than 5000 which is divisible by 73 is

  1. 5009
  2. 5037
  3. 5073
  4. 5099

273. The nearest integer to 58701 which is exactly divisible by 567 is

  1. 55968
  2. 58068
  3. 58968
  4. None of these

274. The smallest number which must be subtracted from 8112 to make it exactly divisible by 99 is

  1. 91
  2. 92
  3. 93
  4. 95

275. The smallest number that must be added to 803642 in order to obtain a multiple of 11 is

  1. 1
  2. 4
  3. 7
  4. 9

276. The number of times 99 is subtracted from 1111 so that the remainder is less than 99 is

  1. 10
  2. 11
  3. 12
  4. 13

277. The smallest number by which 66 must be multiplied to make the result divisible by 18 is

  1. 3
  2. 6
  3. 9
  4. 18

278. The smallest 6-digit number exactly divisible by 111 is

  1. 111111
  2. 110011
  3. 100011
  4. 110101
  5. None of these

279. The sum of all 2-digit numbers divisible by 5 is

  1. 945
  2. 1035
  3. 1230
  4. 1245
  5. None of these

280. How many 3-digit numbers are completely divisible by 6?

  1. 149
  2. 150
  3. 151
  4. 166

281. The number of terms between 11 and 200 which are divisible by 7 but not by 3 are

  1. 18
  2. 19
  3. 27
  4. 28

282. Out of the numbers divisible by 3 between 14 and 95 if the numbers with 3 at unit's place are removed, then how many numbers will remain? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 22
  2. 23
  3. 24
  4. 25

283. How many numbers less than 1000 are multiples of both 10 and 13?

  1. 6
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 9

284. How many integers between 100 and 150, both inclusive, can be evenly divided by neither 3 nor 5?

  1. 26
  2. 27
  3. 28
  4. 33

285. If all the numbers from 501 to 700 are written, what is the total number of times the digit 6 appears?

  1. 138
  2. 139
  3. 140
  4. 141

286. How many 3-digit numbers are there in between 100 and 300, having first and the last digit as 2?

  1. 9
  2. 10
  3. 11
  4. 12

287. The total number of integers between 200 and 400, each of which either begins with 3 or ends with 3 or both is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 10
  2. 100
  3. 110
  4. 120

288. While writing all the numbers from 700 to 1000, how many numbers occur in which the first digit is greater than the second digit, and the second digit is greater than the third digit?

  1. 61
  2. 64
  3. 78
  4. 85

289. A 9-digit number in which zero does not appear and no digits are repeated has the following properties: The number comprising the left most two digits is divisible by 2, that comprising the left most three digits is divisible by 3, and so on. The number is

  1. 183654729
  2. 381654729
  3. 983654721
  4. 981654723

290. If 11,109,999 is divided by 1111, then what is the remainder? (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 1098
  2. 1010
  3. 1110
  4. 1188

291. A number divided by 68 gives the quotient 260 and remainder zero. If the same number is divided by 65, the remainder is

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3

292. Which of the following prime numbers while dividing 2176 leaves 9 as remainder?

  1. 17
  2. 29
  3. 167
  4. 197

293. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: List I List II

  1. 3 1 4 2
  2. 3 2 4 1
  3. 4 1 3 2
  4. 4 2 3 1

294. The number 534677 is divided by 777. The difference of divisor and remainder is

  1. 577
  2. 676
  3. 687
  4. 789

295. In a division sum, the quotient, dividend and remainder are 15, 940 and 25 respectively. The divisor is

  1. 31
  2. 50
  3. 60
  4. 61

296. In a division sum, the divisor is 12 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder. If the remainder is 48, then the dividend is

  1. 2404
  2. 3648
  3. 4808
  4. 4848

297. The divisor is 25 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder. If the quotient is 16, then the dividend is

  1. 400
  2. 480
  3. 6400
  4. 6480

298. A number when divided by the sum of 555 and 445 gives two times their difference as quotient and 30 as the remainder. The number is

  1. 1220
  2. 1250
  3. 22030
  4. 220030

299. In doing a question of division with zero remainder, a candidate took 12 as divisor instead of 21. The quotient obtained by him was 35. The correct quotient is

  1. 0
  2. 12
  3. 13
  4. 20

300. In a division problem, the divisor is 7 times of quotient and 5 times of remainder. If the dividend is 6 times of remainder, then the quotient is equal to

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 7
  4. None of these (Hotel Management, 2007)

301. On dividing a number by 19, the difference between quotient and remainder is 9. The number is

  1. 352
  2. 361
  3. 370
  4. 371

302. A number when divided by 136 leaves remainder 36. If the same number is divided by 17, the remainder will be (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 7
  4. 9

303. If the same number is divided by 15, the remainder will be (Hotel Management, 2010)

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

304. A certain number when divided by 899 gives a remainder 63. What is the remainder when the same number is divided by 29? (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 5
  2. 25
  3. 27
  4. None of these

305. What is the remainder when the square of the same number is divided by 5?

  1. 0
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 9

306. The difference between two numbers is 1365. When the larger number is divided by the smaller one, the quotient is 6 and the remainder is 15. What is the smaller number?

  1. 240
  2. 270
  3. 295
  4. 360

307. When n is divided by 4, the remainder is 3. What is the remainder when 2 n is divided by 4?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 6

308. When the same number is divided by 17, the remainder is 9. What is the number?

  1. 339
  2. 349
  3. 369
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

309. In a division sum, the remainder was 71. With the same divisor but twice the dividend, the remainder is 43. Which one of the following is the divisor?

  1. 86
  2. 93
  3. 99
  4. 104

310. When a certain positive integer P is divided by another positive integer, the remainder is r1. When a second positive integer Q is divided by the same integer, the remainder is r2 and when ( P + Q) is divided by the same divisor, the remainder is r3. Then the divisor may be

  1. r1 r2 r3
  2. r1 + r2 + r3
  3. r1 – r2 + r3
  4. r1 + r2 – r3
  5. Cannot be determined

311. Two numbers when divided by a certain divisor leave the remainders 4375 and 2986 respectively but when the sum of two numbers is divided by the same divisor, the remainder is 2361. The divisor in question is

  1. 4675
  2. 4900
  3. 5000
  4. None of these

312. A number divided by 13 leaves a remainder 1 and if the quotient, thus obtained, is divided by 5, we get a remainder of 3. What will be the remainder if the number is divided by 65?

  1. 16
  2. 18
  3. 28
  4. 40

313. The numbers 2272 and 875 are divided by a three- digit number N, giving the same remainder. The sum of the digits of N is

  1. 10
  2. 11
  3. 12
  4. 13

314. A number when divided by three consecutive numbers 9, 11, 13 leaves the remainders 8, 9 and 8 respectively. If the order of divisors is reversed, the remainders will be (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 10, 8, 9
  2. 10, 1, 6
  3. 8, 9, 8
  4. 9, 8, 8

315. After the division of a number successively by 3, 4 and 7, the remainders obtained are 2, 1 and 4 respectively. What will be the remainder if 84 divides the same number?

  1. 41
  2. 53
  3. 75
  4. 80

316. The number is

  1. 3555
  2. 5355
  3. 5535
  4. 5553

317. When the quotient is divided by 2, it leaves a remainder 1. What will be the remainder when the number is divided by 6?

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5

318. When the square of any odd number, greater than 1, is divided by 8, it always leaves remainder (I.A.M., 2007)

  1. 1
  2. 6
  3. 8
  4. Cannot be determined

319. The numbers from 1 to 29 are written side by side as follows: 1234567891011121314...........2829 If this number is divided by 9, then what is the remainder? (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 3
  4. None of these

320. If 17200 is divided by 18, the remainder is

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 16
  4. 17

321. What is the remainder when 2 31 is divided by 5?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

322. Consider the following statements: (1) an + bn is divisible by a + b if n = 2 k + 1, where k is a positive integer. (2) an – bn is divisible by a – b if n = 2 k, where k is a positive integer. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

323. (7 19 + 2) is divided by 6. The remainder is

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 5

324. If (1012 + 25) 2 – (10 12 – 25) 2 = 10 n, then the value of n is

  1. 5
  2. 10
  3. 14
  4. 20

325. (3 25 + 3 26 + 3 27 + 3 28) is divisible by

  1. 11
  2. 16
  3. 25
  4. 30

326. (4 61 + 4 62 + 4 63 + 4 64) is divisible by

  1. 3
  2. 11
  3. 13
  4. 17

327. (9 6 + 1) when divided by 8, would leave a remainder of

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3

328. If n is even, (6 n – 1) is divisible by

  1. 6
  2. 30
  3. 35
  4. 37

329. If (12n + 1) is divisible by 13, then n is

  1. 1 only
  2. 12 only
  3. any odd integer
  4. any even integer

330. 25 25 is divided by 26, the remainder is

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 24
  4. 25

331. If (6767 + 67) is divided by 68, the remainder is

  1. 1
  2. 63
  3. 66
  4. 67

332. One less than (49) 15 is exactly divisible by

  1. 8
  2. 14
  3. 50
  4. 51

333. The remainder when 7 84 is divided by 342 is

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 49
  4. 341

334. The remainder when 2 60 is divided by 5 equals

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3

335. By how many of the following numbers is 2 12 – 1 divisible? 2, 3, 5, 7, 10, 11, 13, 14

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 7

336. The remainder when (15 23 + 23 23) is divided by 19, is

  1. 0
  2. 4
  3. 15
  4. 18

337. When 2 256 is divided by 17, the remainder would be

  1. 1
  2. 14
  3. 16
  4. None of these

338. 7 6n – 6 6n, where n is an integer > 0, is divisible by

  1. 13
  2. 127
  3. 559
  4. All of these

339. It is given that (2 32 + 1) is exactly divisible by a certain number. Which of the following is also definitely divisible by the same number? (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 216 + 1
  2. 216 – 1
  3. 7 × 2 33
  4. 296 + 1

340. The number (2 48 – 1) is exactly divisible by two numbers between 60 and 70. The numbers are

  1. 63 and 65
  2. 63 and 67
  3. 61 and 65
  4. 65 and 67

341. n being any odd number greater than 1, n65 – n is always divisible by

  1. 5
  2. 13
  3. 24
  4. None of these

342. Let N = 55 3 + 17 3 – 72 3. Then, N is divisible by

  1. both 7 and 13
  2. both 3 and 13
  3. both 17 and 7
  4. both 3 and 17

343. Find the last two digits of N.

  1. 00
  2. 13
  3. 19
  4. 23

344. Find the remainder when N is divided by 168.

  1. 33
  2. 67
  3. 129
  4. 153

345. What is the remainder when 4 61 is divided by 51?

  1. 20
  2. 41
  3. 50
  4. None of these

346. What is the remainder when 17 36 is divided by 36?

  1. 1
  2. 7
  3. 19
  4. 29

347. Which one of the following is the common factor of (4743 + 43 43) and (47 47 + 43 47)?

  1. (47 – 43)
  2. (47 + 43)
  3. (47 43 + 43 43)
  4. None of these

348. Find the product of all odd natural numbers less than 5000.

  1. × 5000 ! 2500 2501
  2. 2500 5000 ! 2 2500 !×
  3. 5000 5000 ! 2
  4. None of these

349. How many zeros will be required to number the pages of a book containing 1000 pages?

  1. 168
  2. 184
  3. 192
  4. 216

350. If a2 + b2 + c2 = 1, what is the maximum value of abc?

  1. 1 3
  2. 1 33
  3. 2 3
  4. 1

351. Find the unit's digit in the sum of the fifth powers of the first 100 natural numbers.

  1. 0
  2. 2
  3. 5
  4. 8

352. If the symbol [ x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x, then the value of     ++ ++ + ++        1 1 1 1 2 1 49......... is4 4 50 4 50 4 50

  1. 0
  2. 9
  3. 12
  4. 49

353. When 10025 – 25 is written in decimal notation, the sum of its digits is

  1. 444
  2. 445
  3. 446
  4. 448

354. What is the number of digits in the number (1024) 4 × (125) 11?

  1. 35
  2. 36
  3. 37
  4. 38

355. How many numbers will be there between 300 and 500, where 4 comes only one time?

  1. 89
  2. 99
  3. 110
  4. 120 [UPSSSC Lower Subordinate (Pre.) Exam, 2016]

356. Which is not a prime number? [Indian Railways Gr. ‘D’ Exam, 2014]

  1. 13
  2. 19
  3. 21
  4. 17

357. If x = a

  1. 2xyz abc
  2. xyz abc
  3. 0
  4. 3xyz abc

358. Among the following statements, the statement which is not correct is: [SSC—CHSL (10 + 2) Exam, 2015]

  1. Every natural number is an integer.
  2. Every natural number is a real number.
  3. Every real number is a rational number.
  4. Every integer is a rational number.

359. If a + b + c = 6 and ab + bc + ca = 10 then the value of a3 + b3 + c3 – 3 abc is [SSC—CHSL (10 + 2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 36
  2. 48
  3. 42
  4. 40

360. If (1001 × 111) = 110000 + (11 × ___), then the number in the blank space is

  1. 121
  2. 211
  3. 101
  4. 1111 [CTET, 2016]

361. If (the place value of 5 in 15201) + (the place value of 6 in 2659) = 7 × ____, then the number of the blank space is:

  1. 800
  2. 80
  3. 90
  4. 900 [CTET, 2016]

362. The sum of digits of a two – digit number is 12 and the difference between the two – digits of the two – digit number is 6. What is the two – digit number? [IBPS—RRB Office Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 39
  2. 84
  3. 93
  4. Other than the given options
  5. 75

363. The difference between the greatest and the least four digit numbers that beings with 3 and ends with 5 is [SSC—CHSL (10 + 2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 900
  2. 909
  3. 999
  4. 990

364. The sum of the perfect squares between 120 and 300 is [SSC—CHSL (10 + 2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 1204
  2. 1024
  3. 1296
  4. 1400

365. If p3 – q3 = ( p – q) (p – q)2 – xpq, then find the value of x [SSC—CHSL (10 + 2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 1
  2. –3
  3. 3
  4. –1

366. What minimum value should be assigned to *, so that 2361*48 is exactly divisible by 9? [ESIC—UDC Exam, 2016]

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 9
  4. 4

367. If p, q, r are all real numbers then ( ) ( ) ( ) 333 pq qr rp− +− +− is equal to [SSC—CAPF/CPOExam, 2016]

  1. ( )( )( )p qq rr p− −−
  2. ( )( )( )3 p qq rr p− −−
  3. 1
  4. 0

368. If ( ) ( ) 22 25,a b ab− ÷+= then

  1. 30
  2. 25
  3. 125
  4. 150 [RRB—NTPC Exam, 2016]

369. How many prime numbers are there between 100 to 200? [CMAT, 2017]

  1. 21
  2. 20
  3. 16
  4. 11

370. The least number of five digit is exactly divisible by 88 is

  1. 10032
  2. 10132
  3. 10088
  4. 10023 [SSC Multi-Tasking Staff Exam -2017]

371. The number of three digit numbers which are multiples of 9 are [CLAT, 2016]

  1. 100
  2. 99
  3. 98
  4. 101

372. Two consecutive even positive integers, sum of the squares of which is 1060, are [CLAT, 2016]

  1. 12 and 14
  2. 20 and 22
  3. 22 and 24
  4. 15 and 18

373. If n is a natural number and 3121 23 xxxnp p p= , where p1, p2, p3 are distinct prime factors, then the number of prime factors for n is [CDS, 2016]

  1. x1 + x2 + x3
  2. x1, x2, x3
  3. ( x1 + 1) ( x2 + 1) ( x3 + 1)
  4. None of the above

374. Some numbers are squares. Which of the above statements is/are correct? [CDS, 2016]

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. neither 1 nor 2)

375. If the sum of two numbers is 14 and their difference is 10. Find the product of these two numbers. [UPSSSC Lower Subordinate (Pre.) Exam, 2016]

  1. 24
  2. 22
  3. 20
  4. 18

376. If m = −4 , n = −2, then the value of 3 2 233 3 33mmm n n n− + ++ + is

  1. −120
  2. −124
  3. −126
  4. −128 [SSC—CGL (Tier-I) Exam, 2015]

377. If the sum of two numbers is 14 and their difference is 10, find the product of these two numbers. [UPSSSC—Lower Subordinate (Pre.) Exam 2016]

  1. 18
  2. 20
  3. 24
  4. 22

378. What is the sum of all natural numbers from 1 to 100? [CLAT-2016]

  1. 5050
  2. 6000
  3. 5000
  4. 5052

379. Find the factors of 330.

  1. 2 × 4 × 5 × 11
  2. 2 × 3 × 7 × 13
  3. 2 × 3 × 5 × 13
  4. 2 × 3 × 5 × 11

380. Find the factors of 1122.

  1. 3 × 9 × 17 × 2
  2. 3 × 11 × 17 × 2
  3. 9 × 9 × 17 × 2
  4. 3 × 11 × 17 × 3

381. 252 can be expressed as a product of primes as (IGNOU, 2002)

  1. 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 7
  2. 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 7
  3. 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 7
  4. 2 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 7

382. Which of the following has most number of divisors? (M.B.A. 2002)

  1. 99
  2. 101
  3. 176
  4. 182

383. A number n is said to be perfect if the sum of all its divisors

  1. 6
  2. 9
  3. 15
  4. 21

384. 1095 1168 when expressed in simplest form is

  1. 13 16
  2. 15 16
  3. 17 26
  4. 25 26

385. Reduce 128352 238368 to its lowest terms. (IGNOU, 2003)

  1. 3 4
  2. 5 13
  3. 7 13
  4. 9 13

386. The simplest reduction to the lowest terms of 116, 690,151 427, 863, 887 is (SNAP, 2004)

  1. 3 11
  2. 7 11
  3. 11 3
  4. None of these

387. The highest common factor of 0 and 6 is (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 0
  2. 3
  3. 6
  4. Undefined

388. The H.C.F. of 2 2 × 3 3 × 5 5, 2 3 × 3 2 × 5 2 × 7 and 24 × 3 4 × 5 × 7 2 × 11 is

  1. 2 2 × 3 2 × 5
  2. 22 × 3 2 × 5 × 7 × 11
  3. 2 4 × 3 4 × 5 5
  4. 24 × 3 4 × 5 5 × 7 × 11

389. The H.C.F. of 2 4 × 3 2 × 5 3 × 7, 2 3 × 3 3 × 5 2 × 7 2 and 3 × 5 × 7 × 11 is

  1. 105
  2. 1155
  3. 2310
  4. 27720

390. H.C.F. of 4 × 27 × 3125, 8 × 9 × 25 × 7 & 16 × 81 × 5 × 11 × 49 is

  1. 180
  2. 360
  3. 540
  4. 1260

391. Find the highest common factor of 36 and 84. (R.R.B., 2003)

  1. 4
  2. 6
  3. 12
  4. 18

392. Even numbers are formed by taking at least two at a time from the numbers 0, 4, 8, 9. Their H.C.F. is (Hotel Management, 2007)

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 10
  4. None of these

393. The H.C.F. of 204, 1190 and 1445 is

  1. 17
  2. 18
  3. 19
  4. 21

394. Which of the following is a pair of co-primes?

  1. (16, 62)
  2. (18, 25)
  3. (21, 35)
  4. (23, 92)

395. The H.C.F. of 2923 and 3239 is

  1. 37
  2. 47
  3. 73
  4. 79

396. The H.C.F. of 3556 and 3444 is

  1. 23
  2. 25
  3. 26
  4. 28

397. The L.C.M. of 2 3 × 3 2 × 5 × 11, 2 4 × 3 4 × 5 2 × 7 and 25 × 3 3 × 5 3 × 7 2 × 11 is

  1. 23 × 3 2 × 5
  2. 25 × 3 4 × 5 3
  3. 2 3 × 3 2 × 5 × 7 × 11
  4. 25 × 3 4 × 5 3 × 7 2 × 11

398. Find the lowest common multiple of 24, 36 and 40.

  1. 120
  2. 240
  3. 360
  4. 480

399. The L.C.M. of 22, 54, 108, 135 and 198 is

  1. 330
  2. 1980
  3. 5940
  4. 11880

400. The L.C.M. of 148 and 185 is

  1. 680
  2. 740
  3. 2960
  4. 3700

401. The H.C.F. of ,,ac e bd f is equal to (I.A.M. 2007)

  1. L.C.M. of , , H.C.F. of , , ace bdf
  2. H.C.F. of , , L.C.M. of , , a ce bdf
  3. H.C.F. of , , H.C.F. of , , ace bdf
  4. ace bdf

402. The H.C.F. of 2 8 64 10, , and is :3 9 81 27

  1. 2 3
  2. 2 81
  3. 160 3
  4. 160 81

403. The H.C.F. of 9 12 18 21, , and is10 25 35 40

  1. 3 5
  2. 252 5
  3. 3 1400
  4. 63 700

404. The L.C.M. of 152 4,,, i s3 6 9 27

  1. 1 54
  2. 10 27
  3. 20 3
  4. None of these

405. The L.C.M. of 234 9, , , is3 5 7 13

  1. 36
  2. 1 36
  3. 1 1365
  4. 12 455

406. The L.C.M. of 369,,478 is (L.I.C.A.D.O., 2008)

  1. 3
  2. 6
  3. 9
  4. 18

407. The H.C.F. of 1.75, 5.6 and 7 is

  1. 0.07
  2. 0.7
  3. 3.5
  4. 0.35

408. The G.C.D. of 1.08, 0.36 and 0.9 is (Hotel Management, 2002)

  1. 0.03
  2. 0.9
  3. 0.18
  4. 0.108

409. The H.C.F. of 0.54, 1.8 and 7.2 is

  1. 1.8
  2. 0.18
  3. 0.018
  4. 18

410. The L.C.M. of 3, 2.7 and 0.09 is

  1. 2.7
  2. 0.27
  3. 0.027
  4. 27

411. If A, B and C are three numbers, such that the L.C.M. of A and B is B and the L.C.M of B and C is C, then the L.C.M. of A, B and C is

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. 3 ABC++

412. H.C.F. of 3240, 3600 and a third number is 36 and their L.C.M. is 2 4 × 3 5 × 5 2 × 7 2. The third number is (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 2 2 × 3 5 × 7 2
  2. 22 × 5 3 × 7 2
  3. 2 5 × 5 2 × 7 2
  4. 23 × 3 5 × 7 2

413. Three numbers are in the ratio 1: 2: 3 and their H.C.F. is 12. The numbers are

  1. 4, 8, 12
  2. 5, 10, 15
  3. 10, 20, 30
  4. 12, 24, 36

414. The ratio of two numbers is 3: 4 and their H.C.F. is 4. Their L.C.M. is

  1. 12
  2. 16
  3. 24
  4. 48

415. The numbers are

  1. 27, 189
  2. 81, 189
  3. 108, 108
  4. 154, 162

416. The number of pairs of numbers satisfying the above conditions is

  1. 4
  2. 6
  3. 8
  4. 12

417. The number of number-pairs lying between 40 and 100 with their H.C.F. as 15 is

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

418. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 12 and their difference is 12. The numbers are

  1. 66, 78
  2. 70, 82
  3. 94, 106
  4. 84, 96

419. The product of two numbers is 4107. If the H.C.F. of these numbers is 37, then the greater number is

  1. 101
  2. 107
  3. 111
  4. 185

420. The product of two numbers is 2028 and their H.C.F. is 13. The number of such pairs is

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

421. Three numbers which are co-prime to each other are such that the product of the first two is 551 and that of the last two is 1073. The sum of the three numbers is

  1. 75
  2. 81
  3. 85
  4. 89

422. The ratio of two numbers is 13: 15 and their L.C.M. is 39780. The numbers are (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 884, 1020
  2. 884, 1040
  3. 670, 1340
  4. 2652, 3060

423. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3: 4: 5 and their L.C.M. is 2400. Their H.C.F. is

  1. 40
  2. 80
  3. 120
  4. 200

424. The L.C.M. and ratio of four numbers are 630 and 2: 3: 5: 7 respectively. The difference between the greatest and least numbers is (I.A.M., 2007)

  1. 6
  2. 14
  3. 15
  4. 21

425. The H.C.F. and L.C.M. of two numbers are 12 and 336 respectively. If one of the numbers is 84, the other is (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 36
  2. 48
  3. 72
  4. 96

426. If the product of two numbers is 324 and their H.C.F. is 3, then their L.C.M. will be (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 972
  2. 327
  3. 321
  4. 108

427. If H.C.F. of p and q is x and q = xy, then the L.C.M. of p and q is

  1. pq
  2. qy
  3. xy
  4. py

428. The sum of two numbers is 2000 and their L.C.M. is 21879. The two numbers are

  1. 1993, 7
  2. 1991, 9
  3. 1989, 11
  4. 1987, 13

429. The H.C.F. and L.C.M. of two numbers are 84 and 21 respectively. If the ratio of the two numbers is 1: 4, then the larger of the two numbers is

  1. 12
  2. 48
  3. 84
  4. 108

430. The L.C.M. of two numbers is 495 and their H.C.F. is 5. If the sum of the numbers is 10, then their difference is

  1. 10
  2. 46
  3. 70
  4. 90

431. The product of the L.C.M. and H.C.F. of two numbers is 24. The difference of two numbers is 2. Find the numbers.

  1. 2 and 4
  2. 6 and 4
  3. 8 and 6
  4. 8 and 10

432. If the sum of two numbers is 36 and their H.C.F. and L.C.M. are 3 and 105 respectively, the sum of the reciprocals of the two numbers is (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 2 35
  2. 3 35
  3. 4 35
  4. None of these

433. The L.C.M. of two numbers is 12 times their H.C.F. The sum of H.C.F. and L.C.M. is 403. If one number is 93, find the other. (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. 124
  2. 128
  3. 134
  4. None of these

434. The H.C.F. and L.C.M. of two numbers are 50 and 250 respectively. If the first number is divided by 2, the quotient is 50. The second number is

  1. 50
  2. 100
  3. 125
  4. 250

435. The product of two numbers is 1320 and their H.C.F. is 6. The L.C.M. of the numbers is

  1. 220
  2. 1314
  3. 1326
  4. 7920

436. Product of two co-prime numbers is 117. Their L.C.M. should be

  1. 1
  2. 117
  3. equal to their H.C.F.
  4. cannot be calculated

437. The L.C.M. of three different numbers is 120. Which of the following cannot be their H.C.F.?

  1. 8
  2. 12
  3. 24
  4. 35

438. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 8. Which one of the following can never be their L.C.M.?

  1. 24
  2. 48
  3. 56
  4. 60

439. If the L.C.M. of three numbers is 9570, then their H.C.F. can be

  1. 11
  2. 12
  3. 19
  4. 21

440. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 23 and the other two factors of their L.C.M. are 13 and 14. The larger of the two numbers is

  1. 276
  2. 299
  3. 322
  4. 345

441. About the number of pairs which have 16 as their H.C.F. and 136 as their L.C.M., we can definitely say that

  1. no such pair exists
  2. only one such pair exists
  3. only two such pairs exist
  4. many such pairs exist

442. The H.C.F. and L.C.M. of two numbers are 21 and 4641 respectively. If one of the numbers lies between 200 and 300, the two numbers are (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 273, 357
  2. 273, 359
  3. 273, 361
  4. 273, 363

443. Two numbers, both greater than 29, have H.C.F. 29 and L.C.M. 4147. The sum of the numbers is

  1. 666
  2. 669
  3. 696
  4. 966

444. L.C.M. of two prime numbers x and y (x > y) is 161. The value of 3 y – x is

  1. – 2
  2. – 1
  3. 1
  4. 2

445. The greatest number that exactly divides 105, 1001 and 2436 is

  1. 3
  2. 7
  3. 11
  4. 21

446. 21 mango trees, 42 apple trees and 56 orange trees have to be planted in rows such that each row contains the same number of trees of one variety only. Minimum number of rows in which the trees may be planted is (M.B.A., 2005)

  1. 3
  2. 15
  3. 17
  4. 20

447. The greatest possible length which can be used to measure exactly the lengths 7 m, 3 m 85 cm, 12 m 95 cm is (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 15 cm
  2. 25 cm
  3. 35 cm
  4. 42 cm

448. The capacity of two pots is 120 litres and 56 litres respectively. Find the capacity of a container which can exactly measure the contents of the two pots. (R.R.B., 2005)

  1. 7500 cc
  2. 7850 cc
  3. 8000 cc
  4. 9500 cc

449. A daily wage labourer was engaged for a certain number of days for ₹ 5750, but being absent on some of those days he was paid only ₹ 5000. What was his maximum possible daily wage?

  1. ₹ 125
  2. ₹ 250
  3. ₹ 375
  4. ₹ 500

450. A person has to completely put each of three liquids: 403 litres of petrol, 465 litres of diesel and 496 litres of Mobil Oil in bottles of equal size without mixing any of the above three types of liquids such that each bottle is completely filled. What is the least possible number of bottles required?

  1. 34
  2. 44
  3. 46
  4. None of these

451. The maximum number of students among whom 1001 pens and 910 pencils can be distributed in such a way that each student gets the same number of pens and same number of pencils is

  1. 91
  2. 910
  3. 1001
  4. 1911

452. A rectangular courtyard 3.78 metres long and 5.25 metres wide is to be paved exactly with square tiles, all of the same size. What is the largest size of the tile which could be used for the purpose?

  1. 14 cm
  2. 21 cm
  3. 42 cm
  4. None of these

453. The least number of square tiles required to pave the ceiling of a room 15 m 17 cm long and 9 m 2 cm broad is (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 656
  2. 738
  3. 814
  4. 902

454. Three sets of English, Mathematics and Science books containing 336, 240 and 96 books respectively have to be stacked in such a way that all the books are stored subjectwise and the height of each stack is the same. Total number of stacks will be (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 14
  2. 21
  3. 22
  4. 48

455. Four metal rods of lengths 78 cm, 104 cm, 117 cm and 169 cm are to be cut into parts of equal length. Each part must be as long as possible. What is the maximum number of pieces that can be cut?

  1. 27
  2. 36
  3. 43
  4. 480

456. Find the greatest number that will divide 43, 91 and 183 so as to leave the same remainder in each case.

  1. 4
  2. 7
  3. 9
  4. 13

457. If r is the remainder when each of 7654, 8506 and 9997 is divided by the greatest number d

  1. 14
  2. 18
  3. 24
  4. 28

458. Let N be the greatest number that will divide 1305, 4665 and 6905, leaving the same remainder in each case. Then sum of the digits in N is (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 8

459. A milkman has 3 jars containing 57 litres, 129 litres and 177 litres of pure milk respectively. A measuring can, after a different number of exact measurements of milk in each jar, leaves the same amount of milk unmeasured in each jar. What is the volume of the largest such can? (J.M.E.T., 2004)

  1. 12 litres
  2. 16 litres
  3. 24 litres
  4. None of these

460. The greatest number which can divide 1356, 1868 and 2764 leaving the same remainder 12 in each case is

  1. 64
  2. 124
  3. 156
  4. 260

461. Which greatest number will divide 3026 and 5053 leaving remainders 11 and 13 respectively?

  1. 15
  2. 30
  3. 45
  4. 60

462. Find the greatest number that will divide 964, 1238 and 1400 leaving remainders 41, 31 and 51 respectively. (I.I.F.T., 2005)

  1. 61
  2. 71
  3. 73
  4. 81

463. Which of the following fractions is the largest?

  1. 7 8
  2. 13 16
  3. 31 40
  4. 63 80

464. What is the least natural number which leaves no remainder when divided by all the digits from 1 to 9?

  1. 1800
  2. 1920
  3. 2520
  4. 5040

465. What will be the least number which when doubled will be exactly divisible by 12, 18, 21 and 30?

  1. 196
  2. 630
  3. 1260
  4. 2520

466. The sum of two numbers is 45. Their difference is 1 9 of their sum. Their L.C.M. is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 100
  2. 150
  3. 200
  4. 250

467. The smallest fraction, which each of 6 5 10,,7 14 21 will divide exactly is

  1. 30 7
  2. 30 98
  3. 60 147
  4. 50 294

468. The least number of five digits which is exactly divisible by 12, 15 and 18 is

  1. 10010
  2. 10015
  3. 10020
  4. 10080

469. The greatest number of four digits which is divisible by 15, 25, 40 and 75 is

  1. 9000
  2. 9400
  3. 9600
  4. 9800

470. The number between 4000 and 5000 which is divisible by 12, 18, 21 and 32 is (P.C.S., 2006)

  1. 4023
  2. 4032
  3. 4203
  4. 4302

471. The number nearest to 43582 divisible by each of 25, 50 and 75 is

  1. 43500
  2. 43550
  3. 43600
  4. 43650

472. The least number which should be added to 2497 so that the sum is exactly divisible by 5, 6, 4 and 3 is

  1. 3
  2. 13
  3. 23
  4. 33

473. The greatest number which when subtracted from 5834, gives a number exactly divisible by each of 20, 28, 32 and 35 is (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 1120
  2. 4714
  3. 5200
  4. 5600

474. The least number which is a perfect square and is divisible by each of the numbers 16, 20 and 24, is

  1. 1600
  2. 3600
  3. 6400
  4. 14400

475. The smallest number which when diminished by 7, is divisible by 12, 16, 18, 21 and 28 is

  1. 1008
  2. 1015
  3. 1022
  4. 1032

476. The least number which when increased by 5 is divisible by each one of 24, 32, 36 and 54 is

  1. 427
  2. 859
  3. 869
  4. 4320

477. The least number, which when divided by 12, 15, 20 and 54 leaves in each case a remainder of 8 is

  1. 504
  2. 536
  3. 544
  4. 548

478. A number less than 500, when divided by 4, 5, 6, 7 leaves remainder 1 in each case. The number is (Hotel Management, 2007)

  1. 211
  2. 420
  3. 421
  4. 441

479. What is the greatest number of 3 digits which when divided by 6, 9 and 12 leaves a remainder of 3 in each case? (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. 903
  2. 939
  3. 975
  4. 996

480. The largest four-digit number which when divided by 4, 7 or 13 leaves a remainder of 3 in each case, is

  1. 8739
  2. 9831
  3. 9834
  4. 9893

481. Let the least number of six digits, which when divided by 4, 6, 10 and 15, leaves in each case the same remainder of 2, be N. The sum of the digits in N is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

482. The least multiple of 13, which on dividing by 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 leaves remainder 2 in each case is

  1. 840
  2. 842
  3. 2520
  4. 2522

483. Find the least number which when divided by 12, leaves a remainder of 7; when divided by 15, leaves a remainder of 10 and when divided by 16, leaves a remainder of 11. (L.D.C., 2006)

  1. 115
  2. 235
  3. 247
  4. 475

484. The least number, which when divided by 48, 60, 72, 108 and 140 leaves 38, 50, 62, 98 and 130 as remainders respectively is (P.C.S., 2011)

  1. 11115
  2. 15110
  3. 15120
  4. 15210

485. Find the least multiple of 23, which when divided by 18, 21 and 24 leaves remainders 7, 10 and 13 respectively.

  1. 3002
  2. 3013
  3. 3024
  4. 3036

486. What is the third term in a sequence of numbers that leave remainders of 1, 2 and 3 when divided by 2, 3 and 4 respectively? (M.A.T., 2004)

  1. 11
  2. 17
  3. 19
  4. 35

487. Find the greatest number of 4 digits which when divided by 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 leaves 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 as remainders. (M.C.A., 2005)

  1. 9237
  2. 9240
  3. 9840
  4. 9999

488. The least number which when divided by 5, 6, 7 and 8 leaves a remainder 3, but when divided by 9 leaves no remainder, is (Section Officers’, 2005; L.I.C., 2007)

  1. 1677
  2. 1683
  3. 2523
  4. 3363

489. Find the least number which when divided by 16, 18, 20 and 25 leaves 4 as remainder in each case, but when divided by 7 leaves no remainder.

  1. 17004
  2. 18000
  3. 18002
  4. 18004

490. A gardener has to plant trees in rows containing equal number of trees. If he plants in rows of 6, 8, 10 or 12, then five trees are left unplanted. But if he plants in rows of 13 trees each, then no tree is left. What is the number of trees that the gardener plants? (J.M.E.T., 2004)

  1. 485
  2. 725
  3. 845
  4. None of these

491. When Seeta made necklaces of either 16 beads, 20 beads or 36 beads, not a single bead was left over. What could be the least number of beads Seeta had?

  1. 700
  2. 720
  3. 750
  4. 780

492. An electronic device makes a beep after every 60 sec. Another device makes a beep after every 62 sec. They beeped together at 10 a.m. The next time, when they would beep together at the earliest is (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. 10.30 a.m.
  2. 10.31 a.m.
  3. 10.59 a.m.
  4. 11 a.m.

493. Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10 and 12 seconds respectively. In 30 minutes, how many times do they toll together? (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 4
  2. 10
  3. 15
  4. 16

494. Four bells begin to toll together and toll respectively at intervals of 6, 7, 8 and 9 seconds. In 1.54 hours, how many times do they toll together and in what interval (seconds)? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 14, 504
  2. 14, 480
  3. 12, 504
  4. 16, 580

495. Four different electronic devices make a beep after every 30 minutes, 1 hour, 11 2 hour and 1 hour 45 minutes respectively. All the devices beeped together at 12 noon. They will again beep together at

  1. 12 midnight
  2. 3 a.m.
  3. 6 a.m.
  4. 9 a.m.

496. Three girls start jogging from the same point around a circular track and each one completes one round in 24 seconds, 36 seconds and 48 seconds respectively. After how much time will they meet at one point? (Specialist Officers’, 2009)

  1. 2 minutes 20 seconds
  2. 2 minutes 24 seconds
  3. 3 minutes 36 seconds
  4. 4 minutes 12 seconds

497. Three persons walking around a circular track complete their respective single revolutions in 115 6 seconds, 116 4 seconds and 218 3 seconds respectively. They will be again together at the common starting point after an hour and

  1. 10 seconds
  2. 20 seconds
  3. 30 seconds
  4. 40 seconds

498. A, B and C start at the same time in the same direction to run around a circular stadium. A completes a round in 252 seconds, B in 308 seconds and C in 198 seconds, all starting at the same point. After what time will they meet again at the starting point?

  1. 26 minutes 18 seconds
  2. 42 minutes 36 seconds
  3. 45 minutes
  4. 46 minutes 12 seconds

499. Three wheels can complete 40, 24 and 16 revolutions per minute respectively. There is a red spot on each wheel that touches the ground at time zero. After how much time, all these spots will simultaneously touch the ground again?

  1. 17 sec2
  2. 18 sec
  3. 17 min2
  4. 18 min

500. A pendulum strikes 5 times in 3 seconds and another pendulum strikes 7 times in 4 seconds. If both pendulums start striking at the same time, how many clear strikes can be listened in 1 minute?

  1. 195
  2. 199
  3. 200
  4. 205

501. Find the HCF of 132, 204 and 228. [Indian Railways—Gr. ‘D’ Exam, 2014]

  1. 12
  2. 18
  3. 6
  4. 21

502. If three numbers are 2a, 5a and 7a, what will be their LCM? [Indian Railways—Gr. ‘D’ Exam, 2014]

  1. 70 a
  2. 65 a
  3. 75 a
  4. 70 a3

503. The product of two whole numbers is 1500 and their HCF is 10. Find the LCM. [Indian Railways—Gr. ‘D’ Exam, 2014]

  1. 15000
  2. 150
  3. 150
  4. 15

504. A number x is divided by 7. When this number is divided by 8, 12 and 16. It leaves a remainder 3 in each case. The least value of x is: [SSC—CHSL (10 + 2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 148
  2. 149
  3. 150
  4. 147

505. The number of pair of positive integers whose sum is 99 and HCF is 9 is [SSC—CHSL (10 + 2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 5
  2. 4
  3. 3
  4. 2

506. The sum of numbers is [SSC—CHSL (10 + 2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 70
  2. 140
  3. 35
  4. 105

507. The greatest four digit number which is exactly divisible by each one of the numbers 12, 18, 21 and 28 [SSC—CHSL (10 + 2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 9288
  2. 9882
  3. 9828
  4. 9928

508. The traffic lights at three different signal points change after every 45 seconds, 75 seconds and 90 seconds respectively. If all change simultaneously at 7 : 20 : 15 hours, then they will change again simultaneously at [CLAT, 2016]

  1. 7 : 28 : 00 hours
  2. 7 : 27 : 45 hours
  3. 7 : 27 : 30 hours
  4. 7 : 27 : 50 hours

509. The value of 42 10000 in decimal fraction is (L.I.C.A.D.O., 2008)

  1. .0042
  2. .00042
  3. .0420
  4. 42000

510. The fraction 101 27 100000 in decimal form is

  1. .01027
  2. .10127
  3. 101.00027
  4. 101.000027

511. When .36 is written in simplest fractional form, the sum of the numerator and the denominator is

  1. 15
  2. 34
  3. 114
  4. 135

512. The place value of 9 in 0.06945 is (L.I.C.A.D.O., 2008)

  1. 9
  2. 9 10
  3. 9 100
  4. 9 1000

513. What decimal of an hour is a second?

  1. .0025
  2. .0256
  3. .00027
  4. .000126

514. 75If 47.2506 = 4A + 2C 6E,BD+ ++ then the value of 5A + 3B + 6C + D + 3E is

  1. 53.6003
  2. 53.6031
  3. 153.6003
  4. 213.0003

515. Express 1999 2111 in decimal. (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 0.893
  2. 0.904
  3. 0.946
  4. 0.986

516. How many times is 0.1 greater than 0.01?

  1. 1 time
  2. 10 times
  3. 100 times
  4. 1000 times

517. Out of the fractions 3456 7,, ,,,7 11 9 13 12 which is the second largest?

  1. 3 7
  2. 4 11
  3. 5 9
  4. 6 13
  5. 7 12

518. Which of the following has fractions in ascending order?

  1. 237 9 8,,, ,3 5 9 11 9
  2. 32 9 78,, ,,5 3 11 9 9
  3. 327 9 8,,, ,5 3 9 11 9
  4. 8 9 723, ,,,9 11 9 3 5
  5. 8 9 732, ,,,9 11 9 5 3

519. Which of the following are in descending order of their values?

  1. 5 7 8 11,,,9 11 15 17
  2. 5 8 11 7,,,9 15 17 11
  3. 11 7 8 5,,,17 11 15 9
  4. 11 7 5 8, ,,17 11 9 15

520. What is the difference between the biggest and the smallest fraction among 23,,34 45and ?56 (S.S.C., 2006)

  1. 1 6
  2. 1 12
  3. 1 20
  4. 1 30

521. The least among the following fractions is (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 15 16
  2. 19 20
  3. 24 25
  4. 34 35

522. Out of the fractions 9364 7, , , and ,31 17 23 11 25 which is the largest?

  1. 9 31
  2. 3 17
  3. 6 23
  4. 4 11
  5. None of these

523. If the fractions 234 5 6, , , and5 8 9 13 11 are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth? (S.B.I.P.O., 2008)

  1. 2 5
  2. 3 8
  3. 4 9
  4. 5 13
  5. None of these

524. Which part contains the fractions in ascending order?

  1. 11 16 19,,14 19 21
  2. 16 11 19,,19 14 21
  3. 16 19 11,,19 21 14
  4. 19 11 16,,21 14 19

525. Which of the following fractions is the smallest?

  1. 13 16
  2. 15 19
  3. 17 21
  4. 7 8

526. Which of the following fractions is greater than 3 4 and less than 5 6 ?

  1. 1 2
  2. 2 3
  3. 4 5
  4. 9 10

527. Which of the following fractions is less than 7 8 and greater than 1 3 ?

  1. 1 4
  2. 23 24
  3. 11 12
  4. 17 24

528. Which of the following numbers does not lie between 47and ?5 13

  1. 1 2
  2. 2 3
  3. 3 4
  4. 5 7

529. The arrangement of rational numbers 7 52,,10 8 3 − −− in ascending order is

  1. 725 ,,3 8 10 − −−
  2. 752 ,,8 10 3 − −−
  3. 7 52,,10 8 3 − −−
  4. 7 25,,10 3 8 − −−

530. Which of the following fractions lies between 23and ?35

  1. 2 5
  2. 1 3
  3. 1 15
  4. 31 50

531. Which of the following fractions is less than 1 ?5 (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 8 35
  2. 8 37
  3. 8 39
  4. 2 11

532. Which of the following fractions is nearest to 2 ?5 (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 4 5
  2. 21 50
  3. 20001 50000
  4. 200001 500000

533. The rational numbers lying between 1 3 and 3 4 are

  1. 117 287,300 400
  2. 95 301,300 400
  3. 99 301,300 400
  4. 97 299,300 500

534. Three rational numbers between 1 5 and 1 6 are

  1. 4 9 17,,25 50 100
  2. 4 17 167,,25 100 1000
  3. 4 9 167,,25 50 1000
  4. 9 17 167,,50 100 1000

535. 0.3 + 3 + 3.33 + 3.3 + 3.03 + 333 =? (NABARD, 2009)

  1. 345.99
  2. 355.96
  3. 375.66
  4. 375.93
  5. None of these

536. 636.66 + 366.36 + 363.33 =?

  1. 1336.35
  2. 1363.25
  3. 1366.25
  4. 1636.25
  5. None of these

537. 24.424 + 5.656 + 1.131 + 0.089 =?

  1. 31.003
  2. 31.3
  3. 31.0003
  4. 31.03
  5. None of these

538. 555.05 + 55.5 + 5.55 + 5 + 0.55 =? (S.B.I.P.O., 2008)

  1. 621.65
  2. 634.85
  3. 647.35
  4. 655.75
  5. None of these

539. 4 + 4.44 + 0.4 + 44.04 + 444 =?

  1. 469.88
  2. 487.66
  3. 496.88
  4. 497.24
  5. None of these

540. 999.99 + 99.99 + 9.99 =?

  1. 1019.89
  2. 1099.88
  3. 1108.99
  4. 1109.99
  5. None of these

541. 10.0001 + 9.9999 – 8.9995 =?

  1. 9.0005
  2. 10.9995
  3. 11.0001
  4. 11.0005
  5. None of these

542. 48.95 – 32.006 =?

  1. 16.089
  2. 16.35
  3. 16.89
  4. 16.944

543. 58.621 – 13.829 – 7.302 – 1.214 =?

  1. 31.254
  2. 35.272
  3. 36.276
  4. 37.281
  5. None of these

544. 341.42 – 53.74 =? – 62.86

  1. 260.44
  2. 340.44
  3. 350.54
  4. 450.54
  5. None of these

545. 534.596 + 61.472 – 496.708 =? + 27.271

  1. 62.069
  2. 72.089
  3. 126.631
  4. 132.788
  5. None of these

546. 11.71 – 0.86 + 1.78 – 9.20 =?

  1. 2.43
  2. 3.13
  3. 3.43
  4. 4.13
  5. None of these

547. 726.34 + 888.12 –? = 1001.88

  1. 602.64
  2. 618.78
  3. 621.58
  4. 654.54
  5. None of these

548. 832.58 – 242.31 = 779.84 –?

  1. 179.57
  2. 199.57
  3. 295.05
  4. None of these

549. Which one of the following is wrong?

  1. 9 4 + 1.75 = 4
  2. 9 2.2 45 +=
  3. 6 2.8 45 +=
  4. 3 1.5 42 +=

550. If x = 10 and y = 0.1, which of the following is the greatest?

  1. x2 + y2
  2. x2 – y2
  3. x2 y2
  4. 2 2 x y

551. Which of the following is closest to zero? (M.C.A., 2005)

  1. (0.09)2
  2. 0.09
  3. (1 – 0.9)2
  4. 1 – (0.9)2

552. One hundredth of centimetre when written in fractions of kilometres, is equal to (M.C.A., 2005)

  1. 0.0000001
  2. 0.000001
  3. 0.0001
  4. 0.001

553. What will come in place of question mark in the following equation? 54.(?)3 + 543 + 5.43 = 603.26

  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 8
  4. None of these

554. Which of the following is equal to 3.14 × 10 6? (Hotel Management, 2003)

  1. 314
  2. 3140
  3. 3140000
  4. None of these

555. The number 518,000,000 when expressed in scientific notation, equals

  1. 51.8 × 106
  2. 51.8 × 107
  3. 5.18 × 108
  4. 5.18 × 109

556. 0.000006723 when expressed in scientific notation, is

  1. 6723 × 10–5
  2. 67.23 × 10–7
  3. 6.723 × 10–6
  4. None of these

557. If 1.125 × 10 k = 0.001125, then the value of k is:

  1. – 4
  2. – 3
  3. – 2
  4. – 1

558. (0.1 × 0.01 × 0.001 × 107) is equal to (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 1 10
  2. 1 100
  3. 10
  4. 100

559. 383 × 38 × 3.8 =?

  1. 55305.2
  2. 56305.4
  3. 57305.6
  4. 58305.8
  5. None of these

560. The product of 0.09 and 0.007 is (L.I.C.A.D.O., 2008)

  1. 0.6300
  2. 0.00063
  3. 0.00630
  4. 0.000063

561. 0.1 × 0.01 × 0.001 =? (M.C.A., 2005)

  1. 0.0001
  2. 0.00001
  3. 0.000001
  4. 0.0000001

562. 3 × 0.3 × 0.03 × 0.003 × 30 =?

  1. 0.0000243
  2. 0.000243
  3. 0.00243
  4. 0.0243

563. 14.4 × 16.5 × 8 =?

  1. 1908.0
  2. 1900.8
  3. 1912.4
  4. 1924.8

564. 47.7 × 12.4 × 8.6 =?

  1. 5086.728
  2. 5218.668
  3. 5708.428
  4. 6180.656
  5. None of these

565. 32.4 × 11.5 × 8.5 =?

  1. 3149.5
  2. 3129.1
  3. 3167.1
  4. 3162.5
  5. None of these

566. 0.04 × 0.0162 is equal to

  1. 6.48 × 10–3
  2. 6.48 × 10–4
  3. 6.48 × 10–5
  4. 6.48 × 10–6

567. How many digits will be there to the right of the decimal point in the product of 95.75 and .02554?

  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. None of these

568.   23.00625 of 5 when expressed as a vulgar fraction, equals

  1. 23 80
  2. 23 800
  3. 23 8000
  4. 125 23

569. Which is the closest approximation to the following product? 0.3333 × 0.25 × 0.499 × 0.125 × 24

  1. 1 8
  2. 3 4
  3. 3 8
  4. 2 5

570. The number 0.0561 correct to two places of decimals is

  1. 0.1
  2. 0.06
  3. 0.05
  4. 0.056

571. (0.05 × 5 – 0.005 × 5) equals (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 0.0225
  2. 0.225
  3. 0.250
  4. 0.275

572. 19.99 × 9.9 + 99.9 =? (NABARD, 2008)

  1. 129.79
  2. 297.801
  3. 1009
  4. 296.910
  5. None of these

573. 345 + 25 × 0.80 – 111 =?

  1. 254
  2. 324
  3. 666
  4. 600
  5. None of these

574. 29.92 × 2.4 + 21.28 × 4.5 =?

  1. 167.568
  2. 167.658
  3. 176.568
  4. 176.658
  5. None of these

575. 4.4 × 5.8 × 11.5 – 141.27 =?

  1. 121.17
  2. 147.51
  3. 152.21
  4. 187.95
  5. None of these

576. 875.65 divided by 83 Their correct sequence in decreasing order is:

  1. 1, 3, 2
  2. 2, 1, 3
  3. 2, 3, 1
  4. 3, 1, 2

577. 0.213 ÷ 0.00213 =?

  1. 1
  2. 10
  3. 100
  4. None of these

578. 25.025 0.025 is equal to (R.R.B., 2004)

  1. 1.01
  2. 10.1
  3. 101
  4. 1001

579. 4.036 divided by 0.04 gives (Hotel Management, 2003)

  1. 1.009
  2. 10.09
  3. 100.9
  4. None of these

580. 1 0.04 is equal to

  1. 1 40
  2. 2 5
  3. 2.5
  4. 25

581. (833.25 – 384.45) ÷ 24 =?

  1. 1.87
  2. 2.01
  3. 18.7
  4. 20.1
  5. None of these

582. 6425 ÷ 125 × 8 =?

  1. 41.12
  2. 64.25
  3. 411.2
  4. 421.25
  5. None of these

583. 7777 ÷ 77 ÷ 5 =?

  1. 15.2
  2. 18.5
  3. 22.4
  4. 50.5
  5. None of these

584. (0.75 × 4.4 × 2.4) ÷ 0.6 =?

  1. 4.752
  2. 12
  3. 13.2
  4. 15.84
  5. None of these

585. 30.05 0.25 ?0.25 0.05  +=

  1. 139.4
  2. 140
  3. 140.6
  4. 143.9

586. The value of 0.0396 ÷ 2.51 correct to 2 significant figures is

  1. 0.015
  2. 0.0157
  3. 0.016
  4. 0.017

587. 3927 + 5526 ÷ 12.5 =? (L.I.C.A.D.O., 2007)

  1. 750.24
  2. 756.24
  3. 4369.08
  4. 4369.24
  5. None of these

588. (11.6 ÷ 0.8) (13.5 ÷ 2) =? (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 98
  2. 99
  3. 100
  4. None of these

589. (0.05 × 6.25) ÷ 2.5 =?

  1. 0.95
  2. 0.105
  3. 0.115
  4. 1.25
  5. None of these

590. 0.5 × 0.5 + 0.5 ÷ 5 is equal to (L.I.C.A.D.O., 2008)

  1. 0.15
  2. 0.25
  3. 0.35
  4. 0.45

591. 400 ÷ 0.1 × 0.2 =?

  1. 0.8
  2. 8
  3. 80
  4. 8000
  5. None of these

592. 5.5 – [6.5 – {3.5 ÷ (6.5 – 5.5 – 2.5 )}] is equal to

  1. – 1
  2. 0
  3. 0.1
  4. 1

593. .04 ×? = .000016

  1. 0.0004
  2. 0.04
  3. 4
  4. None of these

594. .009 ? = .01

  1. .0009
  2. .09
  3. .9
  4. 9

595. If =144 14.4 ,0.144 x then the value of x is

  1. 0.0144
  2. 1.44
  3. 14.4
  4. 144

596. 40.04 ÷ 0.4 =? × 0.05

  1. 20.02
  2. 20.2
  3. 200.2
  4. 2002

597. 48 ÷ 75 × 84.5 ÷ 20 =?

  1. 1.527
  2. 1.834
  3. 2.704
  4. 2.914
  5. None of these

598. (5420 + 3312 +?) ÷ 600 = 25.93

  1. 6286
  2. 6584
  3. 6826
  4. 6830
  5. None of these

599. [(?)2 + (18)2] ÷ 125 = 3.56

  1. 11
  2. 12
  3. 14
  4. 15
  5. None of these

600. 786 ÷ 24 ×? = 6.55

  1. 0.2
  2. 0.4
  3. 4
  4. 5
  5. None of these

601. A maximum of how many pieces of 12.6 cm can be cut from a 857 cm long rod?

  1. 58
  2. 62
  3. 64
  4. 68

602. Vishal donates blood thrice in 2 years – each time 350 ml. How many litres of blood will he donate in 6 years?

  1. 1.2
  2. 3.15
  3. 4.5
  4. 6.3
  5. None of these

603. Terry consumes 1600 ml of milk everyday. How many litres of milk will she consume in 4 weeks?

  1. 41.6
  2. 42.6
  3. 43.4
  4. 44.8
  5. None of these

604. A tailor has 37.5 metres of cloth and he has to make 8 pieces out of a metre of cloth. How many pieces can be make out of this cloth?

  1. 320
  2. 360
  3. 400
  4. None of these

605. The price of commodity X increases by 40 paise every year, while the price of commodity Y increases by 15 paise every year. If in 2004, the price of commodity X was ₹ 4.20 and that of Y was ₹ 6.30, in which year commodity X will cost 40 paise more than the commodity Y?

  1. 2013
  2. 2014
  3. 2015
  4. 2016

606. A sum of ₹ 6.25 is made up of 80 coins which are either 10P or 5P. How many are there of each kind?

  1. 45, 35
  2. 40, 40
  3. 35, 45
  4. 25, 55

607. The number 0.121212 …… in the form p q is equal to (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 2 11
  2. 4 11
  3. 2 33
  4. 4 33

608. The rational number for the recurring decimal 0.125125 ….. is

  1. 63 487
  2. 119 993
  3. 125 999
  4. None of these

609. When 0.47 is converted into a fraction, the result is (Section Officers’, 2003)

  1. 46 90
  2. 46 99
  3. 47 90
  4. 47 99

610. 0. 36 expressed in the form p q equals

  1. 4 11
  2. 4 13
  3. 35 90
  4. 35 99

611. The least among the following is

  1. 0.2
  2. 1 ÷ 0.2
  3. 0.2
  4. (0.2)2

612. 1. 27 in the form p q is equal to (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 127 100
  2. 14 11
  3. 73 100
  4. 11 14

613. 0.4 23 is equivalent to the fraction

  1. 94 99
  2. 49 99
  3. 491 990
  4. 419 990

614. Express 0.2956 in the form p q (vulgar fraction) (R.R.B., 2005)

  1. 2956 1000
  2. 2956 10000
  3. 2927 9900
  4. None of these

615. Let F = 0.84181. When F is written as a fraction in lowest terms, the denominator exceeds the numerator by

  1. 13
  2. 14
  3. 29
  4. 87

616. The value of 4.1 2 is

  1. 114 90
  2. 114 99
  3. 371 900
  4. None of these

617. 2.8 768 is equal to

  1. 8782 999
  2. 92 10
  3. 2922 333
  4. 43942 4995

618. The value of (0.2 + 0.3 + 0. 32) is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 0.77
  2. 0.82
  3. 0.86
  4. 0.87

619. 0. 142857 ÷ 0. 285714 is equal to (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 1 2
  2. 1 3
  3. 2
  4. 10

620. 3. 87 – 2. 59 =?

  1. 1.20
  2. 1.2
  3. 1.27
  4. 1.28

621. The simplification of 3.36 – 2. 05 + 1.33 equals

  1. 2.60
  2. 2.64
  3. 2.61
  4. 2.64

622. (0.09 × 7. 3) is equal to: (S.S.C., 2003)

  1. .6
  2. .657
  3. .67
  4. .657

623. (0.3467 + 0.1333) is equal to (Hotel Management, 2002)

  1. 0.48
  2. 0.48
  3. 0.4801
  4. 0.48

624. (8.31 + 0.6 + 0.002) is equal to (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 8.912
  2. 8.912
  3. 8.979
  4. 8.979

625. The sum of 2.75 and 3.78 is

  1. 1.03
  2. 1.53
  3. 4.53
  4. 5.53

626. If 547.527 0.0082 = x, then the value of 547527 82 is

  1. 10 x
  2. 10x
  3. 100x
  4. None of these

627. If 2994 ÷ 14.5 = 172, then 29.94 ÷ 1.45 =?

  1. 0.172
  2. 1.72
  3. 17.2
  4. 172

628. If 213 × 16 = 3408, then 1.6 × 21.3 is equal to

  1. 0.3408
  2. 3.408
  3. 34.08
  4. 340.8

629. If 1 6.198 = 0.16134, then the value of 1 0.0006198 is

  1. 0.016134
  2. 0.16134
  3. 1613.4
  4. 16134

630. When 52416 is divided by 312, the quotient is 168. What will be the quotient when 52.416 is divided by 0.0168?

  1. 3.12
  2. 312
  3. 3120
  4. None of these

631. Given 168 × 32 = 5376, then 5.376 ÷ 16.8 is equal to

  1. 0.032
  2. 0.32
  3. 3.2
  4. 32

632. 54.327 × 357.2 × 0.0057 is the same as

  1. 5.4327 × 3.572 × 5.7
  2. 5.4327 × 3.572 × 0.57
  3. 54327 × 3572 × 0.0000057
  4. None of these

633. 5.3472 324.23 3.489 5.42 × × is the same as

  1. 53472 3.2423 3.489 54.2 × ×
  2. 53472 32423 3489 542 × ×
  3. 534.72 324.23 34.89 5.42 × ×
  4. 53472 3242.3 3489 542 × ×

634. 96.54 89.63 965.4 896.3 ?96.54 89.63 9.654 8.963 −− ÷=++

  1. 10– 2
  2. 10– 1
  3. 10
  4. None of these

635. If 13 + 23 + ..... + 93 = 2025, then the value of (0.11)3 + (0.22)3 + ..... + (0.99)3 is close to:

  1. 0.2695
  2. 0.3695
  3. 2.695
  4. 3.695

636. The value of 11 1 4 45 456++ × ×× correct to 4 decimal places is

  1. 0.3075
  2. 0.3082
  3. 0.3083
  4. 0.3085

637. Find the value of the following expression upto four places of decimals. 11 1 11 12 124 1248 12481 6  ++ + + × ×× ××× ××××

  1. 1.6414
  2. 1.6415
  3. 1.6416
  4. 1.6428

638. The sum of the first 20 terms of the series +++××× 111 ..... is56 67 78

  1. 0.16
  2. 1.6
  3. 16
  4. None of these

639. The last digit in the decimal representation of 20001 5  is (Hotel Management, 2010)

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

640. Which of the following is equal to 1?

  1. ( ) ( ) 2 2 0.11 1.1 0.1×
  2. ( ) ( ) 2 22 1.1 11 0.01×
  3. ( ) ( ) ( ) 2 22 0.011 1.1 0.01×
  4. ( ) 2 2 0.11 11 0.01×

641. The expression + + ++ + 3 5 7 17 19 4 36 144 5184 8100 is equal to

  1. 0.9
  2. 0.95
  3. 0.99
  4. 1.91

642. If 1.5 x = 0.04 y, then the value of yx yx  −  + is (N.M.A.T. 2006; M.B.A. 2007; S.S.C. 2010)

  1. 730 77
  2. 73 77
  3. 7.3 77
  4. None of these

643. The value of 1135.7 3 21132 32      −+ −+   ++  is

  1. 30
  2. 34.8
  3. 36.6
  4. 41.4

644. ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) 0.1667 0.8333 0.3333 0.2222 0.6667 0.1250 is approximately equal to

  1. 2
  2. 2.40
  3. 2.43
  4. 2.50

645. 3.5 1.4 ?0.7 × = (L.I.C.A.D.O., 2007)

  1. 0.7
  2. 2.4
  3. 3.5
  4. 7.1
  5. None of these

646. 1.6 3.2 ?0.08 × =

  1. 0.8
  2. 6.4
  3. 8
  4. 64
  5. None of these

647. 4.41 0.16 2.1 1.6 0.21 × ×× is simplified to (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 1
  2. 0.1
  3. 0.01
  4. 10

648. .625 .0729 28.9 ?.0081 .025 1.7 ×× =×× (I.I.F.T. 2005)

  1. 382.5
  2. 3625
  3. 3725
  4. 3825
  5. None of these

649. The value of 3.6 0.48 2.50 0.12 0.09 0.5 ×× ×× is

  1. 80
  2. 800
  3. 8000
  4. 80000

650. 0.0203 2.92 ?0.0073 14.5 0.7 × =××

  1. 0.8
  2. 1.45
  3. 2.40
  4. 3.25

651. ×× × 3.157 4126 3.198The value of is closest to63.972 2835.121

  1. 0.002
  2. 0.02
  3. 0.2
  4. 2

652. The value of 489.1375 0.0483 1.956 0.0873 92.581 99.749 ×× ×× is closet to

  1. 0.006
  2. 0.06
  3. 0.6
  4. 6

653. ×× ×× 241.6 0.3814 6.842The value of is close to0.4618 38.25 73.65

  1. 0.2
  2. 0.4
  3. 0.6
  4. 1

654. (0.2 × 0.2 + 0.01) (0.1 × 0.1 + 0.02)– 1 is equal to (Section Officers’, 2003)

  1. 5 3
  2. 9 5
  3. 41 4
  4. 41 12

655. 5 1.6 2 1.4 ?1.3 × −× =

  1. 0.4
  2. 1.2
  3. 1.4
  4. 4

656. The value of (4.7 × 13.26 + 4.7 × 9.43 + 4.7 × 77.31) is: (IGNOU, 2003)

  1. 0.47
  2. 47
  3. 470
  4. 4700

657. 0.2 0.2 0.2 0.02Simplify : .0.044 ×+×

  1. 0.004
  2. 0.4
  3. 1
  4. 2

658.  ×+×  ×−× 8.6 5.3 8.6 4.7The value of is4.3 9.7 4.3 8.7

  1. 3.3
  2. 6.847
  3. 13.9
  4. 20

659.  ×+×  × +× .896 .763 .896 .237The value of is.7 .064 .7 .936

  1. .976
  2. 9.76
  3. 1.28
  4. 12.8

660. The value of (1.25)3 – 2.25 (1.25)2 + 3.75 (0.75)2 – (0.75)3 is

  1. 1
  2. 1 2
  3. 1 4
  4. 1 8

661. (78.95)2 – (43.35)2 =? (S.B.I.P.O., 2008)

  1. 4148
  2. 4235.78
  3. 4305
  4. 4353.88
  5. None of these

662. The value of ( ) ( ) 2275.8 55.8 20 − is

  1. 20
  2. 40
  3. 121.6
  4. 131.6

663. ( ) ( ) 223.63 2.37 3.63 2.37 − + is simplified to

  1. 1.26
  2. 1.36
  3. 2.26
  4. 6

664. ( ) ( )− = 2236.54 3.46 40?

  1. 3.308
  2. 4
  3. 33.08
  4. 330.8

665. The value of ( ) ( ) 2267.542 32.458 75.458 40.374 − − is

  1. 1
  2. 10
  3. 100
  4. None of these

666. 1.49 14.9 0.51 5.1 14.9 5.1 ×−× − is equal to (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. 0.20
  2. 2.00
  3. 20
  4. 22

667. 4.2 4.2 1.9 1.9 ?2.3 6.1 ×−× =×

  1. 0.5
  2. 1
  3. 1.9
  4. 4.2

668. Simplify: ( ) ( ) 22 5.32 56 5.32 44 7.66 2.34 ×+ × ⋅ −

  1. 7.2
  2. 8.5
  3. 10
  4. 12

669. ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) 44 22 0.6 0.5 0.6 0.5 − + is equal to

  1. 0.1
  2. 0.11
  3. 1.1
  4. 11

670. (7.5 × 7.5 + 37.5 + 2.5 × 2.5) is equal to

  1. 30
  2. 60
  3. 80
  4. 100

671. The simplification of 0.2 0.2 0.02 0.02 0.4 0.02 0.36 ×+ × −× gives

  1. 0.009
  2. 0.09
  3. 0.9
  4. 9

672. (99.75)2 – 2250.0625 =?

  1. 6545.625
  2. 7700
  3. 8875
  4. 9900.625
  5. None of these

673. (55.25)2 – 637.5625 =?

  1. 25.25
  2. 625
  3. 1375
  4. 2415
  5. None of these

674. 3.25 3.20 – 3.20 3.05 0.064 ×× is equal to (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 1
  2. 1 2
  3. 1 10
  4. 10

675. The value of (.98)3 + (.02)3 + 3 × .98 × .02 – 1 is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 1.09
  4. 1.98

676. The expression (11.98 × 11.98 + 11.98 × x + 0.02 × 0.02) will be a perfect square for x equal to:

  1. 0.02
  2. 0.2
  3. 0.04
  4. 0.4

677. − ++ ×+× 22(2.697 0.498) (2.697 0.498)The value of is2.697 2.697 0.498 0.498

  1. 0.5
  2. 2
  3. 2.199
  4. 3.195

678. + −− × 22(0.137 0.098) (0.137 0.098)The value of is0.137 0.098

  1. 0.039
  2. 0.235
  3. 0.25
  4. 4

679. The value of 0.051 0.051 0.051 0.041 0.041 0.041 0.051 0.051 0.051 0.041 0.041 0.041  ××+××  ×−×+× is (S.S.C., 2003)

  1. 0.00092
  2. 0.0092
  3. 0.092
  4. 0.92

680. The value of 5.71 5.71 5.71 2.79 2.79 2.79 5.71 5.71 5.71 2.79 2.79 2.79 ××−×× ×+×+× is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 2.82
  2. 2.92
  3. 8.5
  4. 8.6

681. The value of 0.943 0.943 0.943 0.057 0.057 0.057 0.943 0.943 0.943 0.057 0.057 0.057 ×−×+× ××+×× is (M.B.A., 2005)

  1. 0.32
  2. 0.886
  3. 1.1286
  4. None of these

682.  +  ×+ − 0.125 0.027The value of is0.5 0.5 0.09 0.15 (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 0.08
  2. 0.2
  3. 0.8
  4. 1

683. 10.3 10.3 10.3 1 is equal to :10.3 10.3 10.3 1  ××+  ×−+ : (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. 9.3
  2. 10.3
  3. 11.3
  4. 12.3

684. 3 2 8 (3.75) 1 is equal to : (7.5) 6.5  +  − : (S.S.C., 2003)

  1. 9 5
  2. 2.75
  3. 4.75
  4. 8.5

685. The value of 0.1 0.1 0.1 0.02 0.02 0.02 0.2 0.2 0.2 0.04 0.04 0.04  ××+ × ×  ××+ × × is (Hotel Management 2003; S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 0.0125
  2. 0.125
  3. 0.25
  4. 0.5

686. ( ) ( ) 3 2 0.013 0.000000343 ? 0.013 0.000091 0.000049 + = −+ (I.I.F.T., 2005)

  1. 0.002
  2. 0.020
  3. 0.021
  4. 0.023
  5. None of these

687. − ++ 3 2 (2.3) .027The value of is (2.3) .69 .09 (R.R.B., 2005)

  1. 0
  2. 1.6
  3. 2
  4. 3.4

688. ++ ++ 22 2 22 2 (0.06) (0.47) (0.079)The value of is (0.006) (0.047) (0.0079) (N.M.A.T. 2006; G.B.O. 2007)

  1. 0.1
  2. 10
  3. 100
  4. 1000

689. ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) 22 2 4.53 3.07 3.07 2.15 3.07 2.15 2.15 4.53 2.15 4.53 4.53 3.07 2.15 4.53 4.53 3.07 3.07 2.15 −− +−− −− −+ −− is simplified to

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3

690. The fraction equivalent to 2 %5 is [Indian Railways Gr. ‘D’ Exam, 2014]

  1. 1 40
  2. 1 125
  3. 1 250
  4. 1 500

691. The vulgar fraction of 0.3939 is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 15 33
  2. 11 39
  3. 17 39
  4. 13 33

692. Solve ( ) 22 241.99 18.04 ? 13.11 138.99− ÷= − [IBPS—Bank Spl. Officers (IT) Exam, 2015]

  1. 48
  2. 12
  3. 72
  4. 84
  5. 128

693. Solve 3 5 of 4 7 of 5 12 of 1015 = ? [United India Insurance Co. Ltd. (UIICL) Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 220
  2. 340
  3. 240
  4. 145
  5. 190

694. Solve 16 3113 ?87 5++ = [United India Insurance Co. Ltd. (UIICL) Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 1218 140
  2. 1636 280
  3. 1979 280
  4. 1177 140
  5. None of these

695. ( ) 1/3?1.5 1 3.5 72 21 15 6 15 4 30  +− = +  [IDBI Bank Executive Officers Exam, 2015]

  1. 2
  2. 8
  3. 512
  4. 324
  5. None of these

696. Solve 323.46 + 23.04 – 43.17 – ? = 303 [NICL—AAO Exam, 2015]

  1. 0.33
  2. 1.33
  3. 1.23
  4. 0.21
  5. 0.51

697. Solve 12 112 3?27 2+=+ [NICL—AAO Exam, 2015]

  1. 2/3
  2. 2/7
  3. 5/8
  4. 7/2
  5. 1/7

698. Solve 48.2 × 2.5 × 2.2 + ? = 270 [NICL—AAO Exam, 2015]

  1. 6.5
  2. 2.8
  3. 4.9
  4. 3.4
  5. 1.2

699. Solve 2 12431?3 23+−= [NICL—AAO Exam, 2015]

  1. 12 5
  2. 52 3
  3. 31 4
  4. 11 2
  5. 16 2

700. Solve: 17292/33 ÷ 8 = ? [NICL—AAO Exam, 2015]

  1. 23.5
  2. 53.5
  3. 65.5
  4. 33.5
  5. 45.5

701. Solve 1599 ÷ 39.99 + 4 2449 120.05 ?5 ×− = [IBPS—BANK PO/MT (Pre.) Exam, 2015]

  1. 1680
  2. 1940
  3. 1640
  4. 1880
  5. 1780

702. Solve 1576 ÷ 45.02 + 23.99 × 255 = ? [IBPS—BANK PO/MT (Pre.) Exam, 2015]

  1. 340
  2. 420
  3. 380
  4. 460
  5. 360

703. Solve 3899 ÷ 11.99 – 2379 ÷ 13.97 = ? [IBPS—BANK PO/MT (Pre.) Exam, 2015]

  1. 125
  2. 250
  3. 155
  4. 135
  5. 225

704. Solve 2 1124 1?9 18 2+ −= [IBPS—RRB Office Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 54 9
  2. 74 9
  3. 85 9
  4. 16 2
  5. 25 3

705. Solve 2294 14 5 11 8 5 1.7? ÷ ×+ = ÷+ [IBPS—RRB Office Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 8
  2. 6
  3. 12
  4. 5
  5. 10

706. Solve 2.5 × 4.8 + 7.2 × 1.5 – 1.2 × 14 = ? [IBPS—RRB Office Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 1.2
  2. 6.5
  3. 4
  4. 4.8
  5. 6

707. Solve 197 6.99 626.96 ?×+ = [IBPS—Bank PO/PT Exam, 2015]

  1. 885
  2. 725
  3. 825
  4. 650
  5. 675

708. Which of the following fractions is the largest? 3757,,,2342 [ESIC—UDC Exam, 2016]

  1. 7 3
  2. 5 4
  3. 7 2
  4. 3 2

709. Solve ? 329 529 ?= [SBI Jr. Associates (Pre.) Exam, 2016]

  1. 404
  2. 408
  3. 410
  4. 414
  5. 416

710. The numerator of a fraction is decreased by 25% and the denominator is increased by 250%. If the resultant fraction is 6 5 , what is the original fraction? [SBI Jr. Associates (Pre.) Exam, 2016]

  1. 22 5
  2. 24 5
  3. 27 6
  4. 28 5
  5. 30 11

711. Solve ( ) 1 3?21.5 21 13.5 17 5 6 15 4 30  +− = +  [IBPS—Bank Sp. Officer (Marketing) Exam, 2016]

  1. 2
  2. 8
  3. 512
  4. 324
  5. None of these

712. Solve 218 455 61 ?4 19 799     ×÷=          [IBPS—Bank Sp. Officer (Marketing) Exam, 2016]

  1. 6320
  2. 6400
  3. 6350
  4. 6430
  5. 6490

713. 5 9 of a number is equal to twenty five percent of second number. Second number is equal to 1 4 of third number. The value of third number is 2960. What is 30% of first number ? [DMRC—Customer Relationship Assistant

  1. 99.9
  2. 88.8
  3. 77.7
  4. None of these

714. Solve { } 1 1 11 1117 21 1 ?2 4 42 236  − + − −− =   [UPSSSC—Lower Subordinate (Pre.) Exam, 2016]

  1. 2 9
  2. 14 2
  3. 19 2
  4. 771 228

715. What is 304 times 141?

  1. 39640
  2. 38760
  3. 42864
  4. 45942
  5. None of these

716. If A + B = 96 and A is half of B, then the value of A will be

  1. 22
  2. 32
  3. 48
  4. 64
  5. None of these

717. 1888 ÷ 32 ÷ 8 =?

  1. 7.375
  2. 9.485
  3. 29.5
  4. 472
  5. None of these

718. – 76 × 33 + 221 =? (NABARD, 2009)

  1. – 2287
  2. 2287
  3. – 19304
  4. 19304
  5. None of these

719. 4848 ÷ 24 × 11 – 222 =?

  1. 200
  2. 2444
  3. 2000
  4. 3115 8
  5. None of these

720. (425 × 4000) ÷ 16000 × 12 =?

  1. 8.85
  2. 925
  3. 1275
  4. 1700
  5. None of these

721. [(84)2 ÷ 28 × 12] ÷ 24 = 7 ×?

  1. 15
  2. 17
  3. 19
  4. 21
  5. None of these

722. (98764 + 89881 + 99763 + 66342) ÷ (1186 +? + 1040 + 1870) = 55

  1. 2254
  2. 2354
  3. 2368
  4. 2404
  5. None of these

723. 1148 ÷ 28 × 1408 ÷ 32 =? (S.B.I.P.O., 2008)

  1. 1800
  2. 1804
  3. 1814
  4. 1822
  5. None of these

724. – 224 + (– 314) × (– 9) =?

  1. – 547
  2. – 2602
  3. 547
  4. 2602
  5. None of these

725. 853 +? ÷ 17 = 1000

  1. 2482
  2. 2499
  3. 2516
  4. 16147
  5. None of these

726. (? – 968) ÷ 79 × 4 = 512

  1. 10185
  2. 10190
  3. 11075
  4. 11080
  5. None of these

727. [(125)2 ÷ 50 × 20] ÷ 25 =?

  1. 11
  2. 100
  3. 150
  4. 250
  5. None of these

728. 999 × 99 × 9 ÷ 99 ÷ 9 ÷ 3 =?

  1. 99
  2. 111
  3. 333
  4. 999
  5. None of these

729. If a, b, c, ........., x, y, z are 26 natural numbers, then the value of ( x –

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 13
  4. 26

730. Simplify: 1[ 1{ 1( 111 ) } ]−−−− −

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3

731. What mathematical operation should come at the place of '?' in the equation: 2? 6 – 12 ÷ 4 + 2 = 11.

  1. +
  2. –
  3. ×
  4. ÷

732. If 45 – [28 – {37 – (15 – *)}] = 58, then * is equal to:

  1. – 29
  2. – 19
  3. 19
  4. 29

733. 343 49 ?216 16 81 × =××

  1. 5 7 7 6
  2. 5 8 7 6
  3. 4 8 7 6
  4. 6 7 7 6
  5. None of these

734. The value of x in the equation 113 4 – 2 13 9 – 5 7 ×× ×× x = 5 is (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 21
  2. 27
  3. 35
  4. 42

735. 18 14 – 6 8 ?488 4 – 20 ×× =÷ (L.I.C.A.D.O., 2007)

  1. 1 2
  2. 3 4
  3. 2
  4. 4
  5. None of these

736. 555 55 5–?777 77 7 ++ + +=++ +

  1. 1 7
  2. 3 7
  3. 5 7
  4. 13 14

737. 3 423 ?4 323 + ÷× =+×÷

  1. 7 36
  2. 11 18
  3. 3 2
  4. 9 4

738. 4 4 1 8–6–8 ?123 6 – 146 5 +× =××

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 6.65
  4. 7.75

739. 180 15 – 12 20 ?140 8 2 55 ×× =×+×

  1. 1 7
  2. 4 5
  3. 2
  4. 4
  5. None of these

740. Evaluate: 8 – [5 – (– 3 2)] 2 |5 – 3|–|5 – 8| 3 +÷ ÷

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5

741. Given that (1 2 + 2 2 + 3 2 + ..... + 10 2) = 385, the value of (22 + 4 2 + 6 2 + ..... + 20 2) is equal to (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 770
  2. 1155
  3. 1540
  4. (385) 2

742. 1112 1 –4 ?432+=

  1. 1–1 12
  2. 11 12
  3. 11– 12
  4. 1112
  5. None of these

743. 33 34 –1 ? 27 14 28 =+

  1. 31 28
  2. 13 14
  3. 33 14
  4. 13 28
  5. None of these

744. 315111?458−+=

  1. 72 40
  2. 73 40
  3. 59 8
  4. 710 8
  5. None of these

745. 1 52412 10 – 7 – 1 ?3 6 37+=

  1. 131114
  2. 1113 14
  3. 1313 14
  4. 1114 13
  5. None of these

746. 9 426 –4 2 ?13 11 5 +=

  1. 5964 715
  2. 5214 715
  3. 3249 715
  4. 3869 715
  5. None of these

747. ++++ + 111 1 11 is equal to2 4 7 14 28

  1. 2
  2. 2.5
  3. 3
  4. 3.5

748. 11 is equal to132134 +    

  1. 7 14
  2. 12 49
  3. 14 12
  4. None of these

749. 585 3 ?169− −=

  1. 2 3
  2. 3 2
  3. 17 18
  4. 3

750. 111If 4, then ?32++= = xx

  1. 5 18
  2. 6 19
  3. 18 5
  4. 24 11

751. 532 432 ?648 588×= (L.I.C.A.D.O., 2007)

  1. 2 21
  2. 38 63
  3. 21 64
  4. 19 21
  5. None of these

752. 10 2 11 17 36 ?11 7 6××=

  1. 397 6 5
  2. 1397 2
  3. 1193 6 5
  4. 11193 2
  5. None of these

753. 35of 455 of 456 ?78 +=

  1. 448
  2. 464
  3. 476
  4. 480
  5. None of these

754. 3452 1of of of of 504 ?5 7 9 24 =

  1. 63
  2. 69
  3. 96
  4. 109
  5. None of these

755. 51 21651 74?63 32×+ ×=

  1. 1112 3
  2. 2116 3
  3. 240
  4. 663
  5. None of these

756. 4246?55÷=

  1. 3 4
  2. 5 7
  3. 5 8
  4. 7 11
  5. None of these

757. 155 11 116 ?4 98 2+×÷ =

  1. 17
  2. 27
  3. 18
  4. 42
  5. None of these

758. 225 152 43 1?836 245 77×÷=

  1. 6 49
  2. 6 11
  3. 3 28
  4. 1 7
  5. None of these

759. 21 416 – 12 3 ?5 15 81  ÷=

  1. 9119
  2. 9113
  3. 82 13
  4. 23 19
  5. None of these

760. 3618 ? 14804 37×÷ =

  1. 71112
  2. 411 5
  3. 512 12
  4. 412 5
  5. None of these

761. 3 11 25 11 33 ?2 5 44 5 15 ×÷ × ÷ =

  1. 1 2
  2. 2 3
  3. 126 125
  4. 1015 125
  5. None of these

762. If 3 2 1075×= yx , then the values of x and y respectively, would be

  1. 3, 4
  2. 5, 7
  3. 4, 3
  4. 4, 4

763. 11 2 1 2 1 is equal to 3  +÷ +÷ +  

  1. 41 5
  2. 12 4
  3. 14 5
  4. 15 4

764. 1 12 35 20Simplify: 10 of of .8 15 36 49÷

  1. 517 12
  2. 817 17
  3. 320 25
  4. 10320 250

765. −−+−++ +−+−− 124113 235354 is simplified to124114 233355

  1. 3– 10
  2. 10– 3
  3. – 2
  4. 1

766.  −+− 1111When is divided by2456  −+−  253 7 , the result is5 9 5 18

  1. 12 18
  2. 13 6
  3. 33 10
  4. 15 10

767. Which of the following can be used to compute 134 4 ? 2  × 

  1. 1( 3 04 ) 44 2 ×+ ×  
  2. 1(34 40) 34 2 ×+ ×  
  3. 13 04 ( 44 )2  × +× 
  4. 134 (30 4) (4 4)2  × + ×+× 

768. 3 of 168 15 5 ? 549 9 2358 × ÷+= ÷+

  1. 107
  2. 174
  3. 189
  4. 296
  5. None of these

769. Find the value of * in the following 22 121 *11377 436÷×= ×÷ (S.S.C., 2002)

  1. 0.006
  2. 1 6
  3. 0.6
  4. 6

770. 255?236÷=

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. None of these

771. Supply the two missing figures in order indicated by x and y in the given equation, the fractions being in their lowest terms. (IGNOU, 2003) 135 20 4×= yx

  1. 3, 1
  2. 3, 3
  3. 4, 1
  4. 5, 3

772. The difference of 3116 and its reciprocal is equal to (M.A.T., 2002)

  1. 11 8
  2. 4 3
  3. 15 16
  4. None of these

773. How many 1 8 s are there in 137 ?2

  1. 300
  2. 400
  3. 500
  4. Cannot be determined

774. Let a = (4 ÷ 3) ÷ 3 ÷ 4, b = 4 ÷ (3 ÷ 3) ÷ 4, c = 4 ÷ 3 ÷ (3 ÷ 4). The maximum value among the above three is (I.A.M., 2007)

  1. a
  2. b
  3. c
  4. All equal

775. If I = 35 46 ÷ , II = 3 ÷ [(4 ÷ 5) ÷ 6], III = [3 ÷ (4 ÷ 5)] ÷ 6, IV = 3 ÷ 4 ÷ (5 ÷ 6), then

  1. I and II are equal
  2. I and III are equal
  3. I and IV are equal
  4. All are equal

776.    ÷÷     5 6 51The value of of 1 2 3 is7 13 7 4

  1. 20 169
  2. 1
  3. 5 4
  4. 1191180

777. 321221 ?4 3 12÷÷ =

  1. 39 48
  2. 11 4
  3. 169 144
  4. None of these

778. 23The value of is52 13 of 163 4 × ÷

  1. 1 2
  2. 2 3
  3. 1
  4. 2

779. 4335 7 28914(?)24 8 528÷=

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 8
  4. None of these

780. 121 11531? 317333 55− ÷÷ + ÷=

  1. 11 2
  2. 12 3
  3. 13 4
  4. None of these

781. 2 3 179 1 of 3 5 of ?9 11 7 9− ÷= (S.S.C., 2002)

  1. 5 4
  2. 8
  3. 328 81
  4. 9

782. 56 8 33 1 7? 1 3267 9 54 3 9÷ ×− ÷ + × =

  1. 7 6
  2. 6 7
  3. 1
  4. None of these

783. 11 3 1 2 15 232 of 3 ?114 4 3 36 23 − ÷ − × += +

  1. 7 18
  2. 49 54
  3. 2 3
  4. 1 6

784. A student was asked to solve the fraction 7 151 of3 23 221 3 + + and his answer was 1 4 . By how much was his answer wrong?

  1. 1
  2. 1 55
  3. 1 220
  4. None of these

785. 1 32 1 3 45 3Simplify: .2 31 41 of of3 44 5 +−  −

  1. 1 63
  2. 23 40
  3. 23 55
  4. 23 63

786. Find the value of 2111361– .113322   +  

  1. 3 20
  2. 4 21
  3. 8 21
  4. 13 21

787. If the expression 1 31313 21 22 of of2 42222 32 3 ×÷+÷ −  is simplified, we get (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 1 2
  2. 7 8
  3. 51 8
  4. 32 5

788. The value of 2 12 51 173 1 25 2 11 51 273 1 5 −+ −  −+   − is (I.I.F.T., 2005)

  1. 3 4
  2. 24 25
  3. 1
  4. 11 24

789. { } 24 146 2 62 12 of of ?53 5 93 255 32 − − ÷ −+= −− (M.C.A., 2005)

  1. 11 3
  2. 132 49
  3. 7116
  4. 32 5

790. The expression 7 ÷+  55 6 8 3 13 38 11of 2 of31 9 11 22 56978 equals

  1. 1
  2. 1 2
  3. 7 9
  4. 5 12

791. ÷× − ÷ 111 1333The simplified value of is11 1 9of33 3

  1. 0
  2. 1 9
  3. 1 3
  4. 1

792. ÷ + 11 1 of22 2The value of is11 1 of22 2

  1. 1
  2. 11 3
  3. 22 3
  4. 3

793. − ÷− +  14 53 of45 6 is equal to11 3 14 213 5 10 5

  1. 1 6
  2. 72 12
  3. 115 2
  4. 121 2

794. 1 31175 12 424 0.61 113 ?1 32 52 −+ ÷= ++

  1. 14 3
  2. 14 2
  3. 24 3
  4. None of these

795. Which of the following pairs of fractions adds up to a number greater than 5?

  1. 53,34
  2. 7 11,35
  3. 11 8,43
  4. 13 11,56

796.   − + − +−     3 1 115 2 0.5 is equal to4 2 67

  1. 191 84
  2. 612 84
  3. 232 84
  4. 472 84

797. If [ p] means the greatest integer less than or equal to p, then 11 4 [3]44   −+ +     is equal to:

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 7

798. If x = – 3, then x3 – x2 – x will be equal to (U.P.G.I.C., 2009)

  1. – 33
  2. – 27
  3. 15
  4. 54

799. Let R = gS – 4, when S = 8 and R = 16. If S = 10, then R is equal to

  1. 11
  2. 14
  3. 20
  4. 21

800. If x = 5, y = 3 and z = 2, then () ?() − =++ xy z yx y z

  1. 1 6
  2. 1 30
  3. 1
  4. 5

801. If a = 7, b = 5, then the value of a3 – b3 + 3 a2b is

  1. 218
  2. 307
  3. 735
  4. 953

802. – 7 m – [3 n – {8 m – (4 n – 10 m)}] simplifies to (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 11 m – 5 n
  2. 11m – 7 n
  3. 11 n – 7 m
  4. 13n – 11 m

803. If a + 2 b = 6 and ab = 4, then what is 21 ?+ab (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 1 2
  2. 1 3
  3. 3 2
  4. 2
  5. 5 2

804. If ,347==abc the value of

  1. 1 7
  2. 1 2
  3. 2
  4. 7

805. The value of 2 a3 – [3 a3 + 4 b3 – {2 a3 + (– 7 a3)} + 5 a3 – 7 b3] is (Teacher's Exam, 2007)

  1. – 11 a3 + 3 b3
  2. 7b3 + 3 a3
  3. 11 a3 – 3 b3
  4. – (11 a3 + 3 b3)

806. == =++ +If ; and , then yxz ab cyz zx xy + 1 1 a + + 1 1 b + + 1 is equal to1 c

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 6
  4. x + y + z

807. If y = ( x + 3) 2, then (– 2 x – 6) 2 is equal to

  1. – 4 y2
  2. – 2 y2
  3. – 4 y
  4. 2 y
  5. 4y

808.    ++ +   ++ +    111The value of 1 1 1 123xx x  + + 11 is 4x

  1. 5 1 + + x x
  2. 1 5 + + x x
  3. 11 5+ +x
  4. 1 5+x

809. If

  1. 0.5
  2. 1
  3. 1.5
  4. None of these

810. 324If , then ?3 3 –2 +== aba b ab (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. – 1
  2. 3
  3. 5
  4. 6

811. If 6 ,5=x y then the value of 56 75 − − + xy xy is equal to

  1. 1 7
  2. 2 7
  3. 3 7
  4. 4 7

812. 22 22 1If , then ?3 xyx y xy +== − (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 10– 9
  2. 5 4
  3. 5– 4
  4. 5– 3

813. −=+ + 6 14If , the value of is2 7 19 xyx y xy

  1. 13 19
  2. 15 19
  3. 1
  4. 1119

814. −== + 22 22 4 15If and , then is5 16 caab bc ca (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. 1 7
  2. 7 25
  3. 3 4
  4. None of these

815. If x = 1 – q and y = 2 q + 1, then for what value of q, x is equal to y?

  1. – 1
  2. 0
  3. 1 2
  4. 2

816. Find if 4. 56−=xxx

  1. – 120
  2. – 100
  3. 100
  4. 120

817. 3 21If 4 5 83 and , then ? 2 22+ = = −= xx y yxy

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 7
  4. 11

818. If and , then is equal toyx abab xy xy ab== + −+

  1. 22+ xy xy
  2. 22+xy xy
  3. + x xy
  4. 2   + y xy

819. = == = = 11 1If , 2, , 3 and , then what is32 4 a bc d e b cd e f the value of ?abc def

  1. 1 4
  2. 3 4
  3. 3 8
  4. 27 4
  5. 27 8

820. 349If and , the value of is3 14 4 7 −== − mr ntmr n t nt mr (M.B.A. 2011)

  1. 1–5 2
  2. 11– 14
  3. 1–1 4
  4. 11 14

821. 11 1If 1 and 1, then is equal to+= += +ab cbc a (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 0
  2. 1 2
  3. 1
  4. 2

822. If 11 1 and 1,+= +=yx zy then what is the value of xyz?

  1. – 1
  2. 0
  3. 1 2
  4. 1

823. If ,(2 ) ( 2 ) ( 2 )===++ + + ++ yxz axyz x yz xy z then find a if x + y + z ≠ 0. (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 3 1
  2. 1 4
  3. 1 2
  4. 1 8

824. If ,===++ + abc Kbc ca ab then the value of K is

  1. 1 2±
  2. 1 or – 12
  3. – 1
  4. 1 2

825. If a – 8 = b, then determine the value of | a – b| – | b – a|.

  1. 0
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 16

826. == −− 1If and , then11 axy aa

  1. x is equal to y
  2. x is equal to y only if a < 1
  3. x is greater than y
  4. x is greater than y only if a < 1
  5. y is greater than x only if a < 1

827. If 0 < a < 1, then the value of 1+a a is

  1. less than 2
  2. greater than 2
  3. less than 4
  4. greater than 4

828. += += +If 1 and 1, then will beya bz xc xb yc az equal to:

  1. 0
  2. b y
  3. 1
  4. y b

829. If a, b, c are integers; a2 + b2 = 45 and b2 + c2 = 40, then the values of a, b and c respectively are

  1. 2, 6, 3
  2. 3, 2, 6
  3. 5, 4, 3
  4. None of these

830. If x + y = 15 and xy = 56, then what is the value of x2 + y2? (L.I.C.A.D.O., 2007)

  1. 110
  2. 113
  3. 121
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

831. If

  1. 18
  2. 20
  3. 25
  4. None of these

832. If a = bc and c = a – b, then the value of a is (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. b2 – 1
  2. 2 1− b b
  3. 1− b b
  4. None of these

833. If a + b + c = 0, find the value of 222 2 22 . (–)(–)(–) ++abc a bc b ca c ab (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 4

834. 22 22 2If , then is equal to2 +−= − + a xyx ya xy

  1. 2 8 4+ a a
  2. 2 4 4− a a
  3. 2 4 a
  4. 2 4 4+ a a

835. If 3 x + 7 = x2 + P = 7 x + 5, what is the value of P?

  1. 1 2
  2. 18 4
  3. 18 2
  4. Cannot be determined

836. 2If 3, then find the value of .42 ++ =++ ab ab ab ab

  1. 2 7
  2. 5 9
  3. 10 7
  4. 10 9

837. If (2a + 3

  1. =ac bd
  2. =ac db
  3. =ad bc
  4. =bc ad

838. If

  1. 3 2
  2. 3 2 a d
  3. 3 ad
  4. a2d2

839. The expression 2 22 () () xy xy xy xy ++ ÷− − is equal to

  1. – 1
  2. x – y
  3. 1
  4. x + y

840. 22 2 22 2 2 is equivalent to 2 a b bc c a b ab c −− − ++ −

  1. −+ ++ abc abc
  2. −− −+ abc abc
  3. −− +− abc abc
  4. ++ −+ abc abc

841. If x + y + z = 0, then x2 + xy + y2 equals

  1. y2 + yz + z2
  2. y2 – yz + z2
  3. z2 – zx + x2
  4. z2 + zx + x2

842. If a + b + c = 2 s, then the value of ( s –

  1. s2 – a2 – b2 – c2
  2. s2 + a2 + b2 + c2
  3. a2 + b2 + c2
  4. 4 s2 – a2 – b2 – c2

843. If ( x + y)2 – z2 = 4, ( y + z)2 – x2 = 9, ( z + x)2 – y2 = 36, what is/are the value( s) of x + y + z?

  1. 0
  2. ± 1
  3. ± 3
  4. ± 7

844. If a + b = 2 c, then the value of +−− ab ac bc is

  1. 1 2
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3

845. 2 12 ?11 1 ++ =−+ − xx xx x

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

846. The value of 2 22 () (–) +ab ab is (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. + ab ab
  2. 2 − ab ab
  3. + − ab ab
  4. None of these

847. If ab + bc + ca = 0, then what is the value of 2 22 111 ? ++ −−−a bc b ca c ab

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 3
  4. a + b + c

848. How many boxes are required for filling 15 kg of sweet if each box is filled with 250 grams of sweet?

  1. 30
  2. 70
  3. 80
  4. 120
  5. None of these

849. The bus fare for one person is ₹ 420 from Agra to Aligarh and the train fare between the same places for one person is equal to three-fourths the bus fare for two persons between the same places. What is the total fare paid by 3 persons travelling by bus and 4 persons travelling by train between the two places?

  1. ₹ 3360
  2. ₹ 3406
  3. ₹ 3440
  4. ₹ 3460
  5. None of these

850. The cost of 6 pens and 3 pencils is ₹ 84. One-third of the cost of one pen is equal to the cost of one pencil. What is the total cost of 4 pens and 5 pencils?

  1. ₹ 66
  2. ₹ 68
  3. ₹ 72
  4. ₹ 78
  5. None of these

851. If an amount of ₹ 4,36,563 is distributed equally amongst 69 persons, how much amount would each person get?

  1. ₹ 5876
  2. ₹ 5943
  3. ₹ 6148
  4. ₹ 6327
  5. None of these

852. 32 shirt pieces of 120 cm each can be cut from a reel of cloth. After cutting these pieces 80 cm of cloth remains. What is the length of reel of cloth in metres?

  1. 38.70 metres
  2. 39.20 metres
  3. 3870 metes
  4. 3920 metres
  5. None of these

853. A canteen requires 798 bananas for a week. Total how many bananas did it require for the months of January, February and March 2008?

  1. 10277
  2. 10374
  3. 10480
  4. 10586
  5. None of these

854. Ram has ₹ 6 more than Mohan and ₹ 9 more than Sohan. All the three have ₹ 33 in all. Ram has a share of (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. ₹ 7
  2. ₹ 10
  3. ₹ 13
  4. ₹ 16

855. What is the maximum number of half-pint bottles of cream that can be filled with a 4-gallon can of cream? (2pt. = 1qt. and 4qt. = 1gal.)

  1. 16
  2. 24
  3. 30
  4. 64

856. The sum of the weights of A and B is 80 kg. Half of the weight of A is equal to 5 6 times the weight of B. Find the weight of B.

  1. 20 kg
  2. 30 kg
  3. 40 kg
  4. 60 kg

857. If a + b + c = 130, then

  1. 34
  2. 38
  3. 42
  4. 44
  5. None of these

858. The price of item X rises by ₹ 40 per year and that of item Y by ₹ 15 per year. If the price of item X and Y in the year 2002 was ₹ 420 and ₹ 630 respectively, in which year the price of item X will be ₹ 40 more than the price of item Y?

  1. 2010
  2. 2011
  3. 2012
  4. 2013

859. How many pieces of 85 cm length can be cut from a rod 42.5 metres long?

  1. 30
  2. 40
  3. 60
  4. None of these

860. On Sports Day, if 30 children were made to stand in a column, then 16 columns could be formed. If 24 children were made to stand in a column, then how many columns could be formed?

  1. 20
  2. 22
  3. 29
  4. 45

861. The number of students in each section of a school is 24. After admitting new students, three new sec - tions were started. Now, the total number of sections is 16 and there are 21 students in each section. The number of new students admitted is

  1. 14
  2. 24
  3. 48
  4. 114

862. A man earns ₹ 20 on the first day and spends ₹ 15 on the next day. He again earns ₹ 20 on the third day and spends ₹ 15 on the fourth day. If he continues to save like this, how soon will he have ₹ 60 in hand? (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. On 17th day
  2. On 27th day
  3. On 30th day
  4. On 40th day

863. A car company sold 150 cars in a special 6-day sale. Each day, the company sold 6 more than the previous day. How many cars were sold on the 6th day?

  1. 35
  2. 40
  3. 50
  4. 60
  5. 70

864. A group of 1200 persons consisting of captains and soldiers is travelling in a train. If for every 15 soldiers there is one captain, then the number of captains in the group is

  1. 70
  2. 75
  3. 80
  4. 82

865. It costs ₹ x each to make the first thousand copies of a compact disc and ₹ y to make each subsequent copy. If z is greater than 1000, how much will it cost to make z copies of the compact disc?

  1. zx – zy
  2. 1000x + yz
  3. 1000 ( x – y) + yz
  4. 1000 ( z – y) + xz

866. The total monthly salary of 4 men and 2 women is ₹ 46,000. If a woman earns ₹ 500 more than a man, what is the monthly salary of a woman?

  1. ₹ 6500
  2. ₹ 7500
  3. ₹ 8000
  4. ₹ 9000

867. A pineapple costs ₹ 7 each. A watermelon costs ₹ 5 each. X spends ₹ 38 on these fruits. The number of pineapples purchased is

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. Data inadequate

868. Water boils at 212°F or 100°C and melts at 32°F or 0°C. If the temperature of a particular day is 35°C, it is equivalent to

  1. 85°F
  2. 90°F
  3. 95°F
  4. 99°F

869. 74 is divided into two parts so that 5 times one part and 11 times the other part are together equal to 454. The parts are (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 14, 60
  2. 60, 14
  3. 30, 44
  4. 44, 30

870. A sink contains exactly 12 litres of water. If water is drained from the sink until it holds exactly 6 litres of water less than the quantity drained away, then how many litres of water were drained away? (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 6
  4. 9

871. A family has several children. Each boy in the family has as many sisters as brothers and each girl has twice as many brothers as sisters.. How many brothers and sisters are there? (SNAP, 2005)

  1. 4 brothers, 3 sisters
  2. 4 brothers, 4 sisters
  3. 3 brothers, 4 sisters
  4. Cannot say

872. If 1 Japanese Yen = 0.01 US Dollars, 100 US Dollars = 5000 Indian Rupees (INR), how many Japanese Yens are 100 INR? (JMET, 2008)

  1. 20
  2. 200
  3. 500
  4. 2000

873. 12 buckets of water fill a tank when the capacity of each bucket is 13.5 litres. How many buckets will be needed to fill the same tank, if the capacity of each bucket is 9 litres?

  1. 8
  2. 15
  3. 16
  4. 18

874. 141 1 is equal to1 71 11 3  +÷ +  + (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. 1
  2. 11 3
  3. 11 4
  4. 11 7

875. 13 is equal to48

  1. 1 13 11 16 + +
  2. 1 12 11 8 + +
  3. 1 13 11 11 8 + + +
  4. 1 13 11 12 4 + + +

876. Find the value of 13 .1413 4133 1122 1 23 2 + +− −+ +− −

  1. 13 7
  2. 15 7
  3. 11 21
  4. 17 28

877. =+ + + 1If 2 , then the value of is11 13 4 xx

  1. 12 17
  2. 13 17
  3. 18 17
  4. 21 17

878. + = + + + 12 43 5If , then the value of is12 13 11 4 xx

  1. 1 7
  2. 3 7
  3. 1
  4. 8 7

879. − −× − − 1221578 8 is equal to12 16 6

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 8

880. +× + + 2 is simplified to22 0.3923 23 3

  1. 1 3
  2. 2
  3. 6
  4. None of these

881. 1Simplify: .2 31 8 2 91 23 1 3 + ++ −

  1. 11 13
  2. 13 15
  3. 13 11
  4. 15 13

882. If 2 3,22 22 = + + x then x is equal to

  1. 4– 7
  2. 4 7
  3. 4– 9
  4. 4 9

883. =+ + + 37 1If 2 , where , , are natural113 1 xyz x y z numbers, then x, y, z are

  1. 1, 2, 5
  2. 1, 5, 2
  3. 5, 2, 11
  4. 11, 2, 5

884. Let 11. 11 11 1 ... =+ + + +∞ x Which of the following is correct?

  1. x2 + x + 1 = 0
  2. x2 – x + 1 = 0
  3. x2 + x – 1 = 0
  4. x2 – x – 1 = 0

885. 11Let and .1112 1113 1134 4 .... .... .... .... 11 10 8 10 800 PQ== ++ ++ ++ + ++ Then, P + Q when calculated, gives

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

886.    + + −− −    ++ ++         + +−   ++     11 1111 11 11 1110 10 10 1010 10 10 10 1111 1110 1010 10 simplifies to

  1. 20 101
  2. 90 101
  3. 100 101
  4. 101 100

887. Which of the following values of x and y satisfy the following equations I and II? I. 3 x + y = 19 II. x – y = 9

  1. – 7, – 2
  2. – 7, 2
  3. 7, – 2
  4. 7, 2

888. If 4 x = p(x + 3) + q(x – 1) is an identity, then the values of p and q are (I.A.M., 2007)

  1. 1, – 3
  2. 1, 3
  3. 1, 1
  4. 3, 1

889. If x = y = 2 z and xyz = 256, then x =?

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 8
  4. None of these

890. If 3 y + 9 x = 54 and 28 140 ,13 39=x y then what is the value of y – x?

  1. – 2
  2. – 1
  3. 1
  4. 2
  5. None of these

891. If 3 x + 7 y = 75 and 5 x – 5 y = 25, then what is the value of x + y?

  1. 14
  2. 15
  3. 16
  4. 17
  5. None of these

892. If a + b = 5 and 3 a + 2 b = 20, then (3 a +

  1. 10
  2. 15
  3. 20
  4. 25

893. If 2p + 3q = 18 and 2 p – q = 2, then 2 p + q =?

  1. 6
  2. 7
  3. 10
  4. 20

894. If 2x + y = 5 and 3 x – 4 y = 2, then the value of 2 xy is

  1. 4
  2. 6
  3. 8
  4. 10

895. 5If 3 5 5 and , then what is the7 xxy xy−= = + value of 2xy is

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 9
  5. None of these

896. If 4 x + 3 y = 18 xy and 2 x – 5 y + 4 xy = 0, then the values of x and y will be respectively

  1. 11and23−−
  2. – 1 and – 3
  3. 11and23
  4. 11and43

897. If 2x + y = 17; y + 2 z = 15 and x + y = 9, then what is the value of 4 x + 3 y + z?

  1. 41
  2. 43
  3. 45
  4. 55
  5. None of these

898. If 3 x – 4 y + z = 7; 2 x – z + 3 y = 19; x + 2 y + 2 z = 24, then what is the value of z?

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 8

899. If 2x + y = 15, 2 y + z = 25 and 2 z + x = 26, what is the value of z?

  1. 4
  2. 7
  3. 9
  4. 11

900. If 2x + 3 y = 31, y – z = 4 and x + 2z = 11, then what is the value of x + y + z?

  1. 12
  2. 13
  3. 15
  4. 16

901. The price of 10 chairs is equal to that of 4 tables. The price of 15 chairs and 2 tables together is ₹ 4000. The total price of 12 chairs and 3 tables is

  1. ₹ 3500
  2. ₹ 3750
  3. ₹ 3840
  4. ₹ 3900

902. If two jeans and three shirts cost ₹ 4000 and three jeans and two shirts cost ₹ 3500, how much does a jean cost? (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. ₹ 500
  2. ₹ 1000
  3. ₹ 1500
  4. ₹ 2000

903. Cost of 8 pens and 4 pencils is ₹ 176 and the cost of 2 pens and 2 pencils is ₹ 48. What is the cost of one pen?

  1. ₹ 12
  2. ₹ 14
  3. ₹ 16
  4. ₹ 18
  5. None of these

904. The cost of two dozen apples and three dozen bananas is ₹ 136. The cost of 5 dozen bananas and one dozen apples is ₹ 110. What is the price of one dozen bananas?

  1. ₹ 16
  2. ₹ 18
  3. ₹ 20
  4. ₹ 24
  5. None of these

905. The cost of one pencil, two pens and four erasers is ₹ 22 while the cost of five pencils, four pens and two erasers is ₹ 32. How much will three pencils, three pens and three erasers cost?

  1. ₹ 21
  2. ₹ 24
  3. ₹ 27
  4. ₹ 30

906. Ram Singh goes to Pushkar Mela with ₹ 10000 to buy exactly 100 animals. He finds that cows are sold at ₹ 1000, horses at ₹ 300 and chicken at ₹ 50. How many chicken should he buy to meet his target of 100 animals? (SNAP, 2005)

  1. 88
  2. 90
  3. 92
  4. 94

907. 3 men and 4 boys can earn ₹ 756 in 7 days. 11 men and 13 boys can earn ₹ 3008 in 8 days. In what time will 7 men with 9 boys earn ₹ 2480? (P.C.S., 2006)

  1. 8 days
  2. 9 days
  3. 10 days
  4. 11 days

908. At a certain fast food restaurant, Brian can buy 3 burgers, 7 shakes and one order of fries for ₹ 120 exactly. At the same place, it would cost ₹ 164.50 for 4 burgers, 10 shakes and one order of fries. How much would it cost for an ordinary meal of one burger, one shake and one fries?

  1. ₹ 21
  2. ₹ 31
  3. ₹ 41
  4. Cannot be determined

909. If 2x2 + 12 x + 18 = 0, what is the value of x?

  1. – 3
  2. – 2
  3. 2
  4. 3
  5. More than one answer

910. If x2 – 7 x = – 12, what is the value of x?

  1. – 3 or – 4
  2. 3 or 4
  3. 3 or – 4
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

911. The roots of the equation 2 x2 – 11 x + 15 = 0 are

  1. 53, 2
  2. 35, 2
  3. 5– 3, – 2
  4. None of these

912. 111 1T h ev a l u eo f 1– 1– 1– 1– i s234       ⋅⋅⋅⋅         m (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 1
  2. 1 m
  3. 2 1 m
  4. 1 1 2 3 ( 1)⋅ ⋅ ⋅⋅⋅⋅ − mm

913. 111 1The expression 1 1 1 1345 n      + + + ⋅⋅⋅⋅ +       simplifies to (M.B.A. 2006, 2008)

  1. 1 3 +n
  2. 1+ n n
  3. 3 n
  4. 111 11 345+ ⋅ ⋅ ⋅⋅⋅⋅ n

914. When simplified, the product 12 3  − 32 5  − 5 99722 7 999   − ⋅⋅⋅⋅ −   is equal to (R.R.B., 2007)

  1. 5 999
  2. 1001 999
  3. 1 1001
  4. 1001 3

915. 3 1 2 2 6 12111 – 11 ?4 33571 3      + + + −=            

  1. 1 5
  2. 1 6
  3. 1 7
  4. None of these

916. The value of 222 111111 345    − − − ⋅⋅⋅⋅    2 11 11  − 2 11 is 12  −

  1. 11 20
  2. 13 15
  3. 13 18
  4. 15 16
  5. None of these

917. What is the value of the following expression? 222 2 111 1 (2 – 1) (4 – 1) (6 – 1) (20 – 1) + + + ⋅⋅⋅⋅ +

  1. 9 19
  2. 10 19
  3. 10 21
  4. 11 21

918. 11 1 1 1 1 1 1Find the sum : 2 6 12 20 30 42 56 72+ ++++++ 11 1 .90 110 132++ +

  1. 7 8
  2. 11 12
  3. 15 16
  4. 17 18

919. The sum of the first 35 terms of the series 111111111 ..... is :234234234+−−−+++−

  1. 1 2−
  2. 1 4−
  3. 1 4
  4. None of these

920. 11 1 11 11 111 1111 is equal to22 2 2  ++ + (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 617
  2. 618
  3. 11234 2
  4. 1236

921. 999999 7 is equal to1000  ×

  1. 76633 1000
  2. 76993 1000
  3. 9936999 1000
  4. 77000 1000

922. ×995The value of 999 999 is999

  1. 990809
  2. 998996
  3. 998999
  4. 999824

923. 123456999 999 999 999 999 999777777  +++++ is simplified to

  1. 2997
  2. 5979
  3. 5994
  4. 5997

924. The value of 2358998 998 998 99817 17 17 17+++ 16998 is17+ (I.A.M., 2007)

  1. 4990
  2. 4992
  3. 9998
  4. 10000

925. The simplest value of 111 ....1 22 33 4+++××× 1 is9 10+ × (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 1 10
  2. 9 10
  3. 1
  4. 10

926. 11 1 1 1 is equal to1.4 4.7 7.10 10.13 13.16  ++ + + (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 1 3
  2. 3 8
  3. 5 16
  4. 41 7280

927. When simplified, the sum 11 1 2 6 12++ 11 20 30+++ 1.... ( 1)nn+ + is equal to (S.S.C., 2006)

  1. 1 n
  2. 1 1+n
  3. 1+ n n
  4. 2( 1)−n n

928. ++ + × ×× 23 11 1The value of 1 is43 43 43

  1. 121 108
  2. 3 2
  3. 31 2
  4. None of these

929. +++1111 is equal to.. .. .. ..123 234 345 456

  1. 7 30
  2. 11 30
  3. 13 30
  4. 17 30

930. The value of 22 22 22 22 22 3 5 7 9 11 .....12 23 34 45 56 +++++ +++2 22 22 22 2 13 15 17 19 is....67 78 89 91 0 (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. 1 100
  2. 99 100
  3. 1
  4. 101 100

931. The sum of the first 99 terms of the series 35 7 9 ....4 36 144 400++ + +

  1. 99 100
  2. 999 1000
  3. 9999 10000
  4. 1

932. Mayank, Mirza, Little and Jaspal bought a motorbike for ₹ 60000. Mayank paid one-half of the sum of the amounts paid by the other boys, Mirza paid one-third of the sum of the amounts paid by the other boys and Little paid one-fourth of the sum of the amounts paid by the other boys. How much did Jaspal have to pay?

  1. ₹ 13000
  2. ₹ 15000
  3. 17000
  4. None of these

933. Income of a company doubles after every one year. If the initial income was ₹ 4 lakhs, what would be the income after 5 years?

  1. ₹ 1.24 crores
  2. ₹ 1.28 crores
  3. ₹ 2.52 crores
  4. ₹ 2.56 crores
  5. None of these

934. Breeding of a certain species of insects is incredible everyday the total number of such insects in a closed glass jar is double the number on the previous day. There was just one insect in the jar on 1/2/2007, and the jar was full to the brim with these insects on 28/2/2007. On which date of February was the jar quarter-full? (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 7
  2. 14
  3. 26
  4. None of these

935. The flowers in a basket double every minute and the basket gets full in one hour. In how much time, the basket was 1 32 full?

  1. 12 minutes
  2. 32 minutes
  3. 45 minutes
  4. 55 minutes

936. A man's investment doubles in every 5 years. If he invested ₹ 5000 in each of the years 1990, 1995, 2000 and 2005, then what was the total amount received by him in 2010?

  1. ₹ 30000
  2. ₹ 70000
  3. ₹ 140000
  4. ₹ 150000

937. After measuring 120 metres of a rope, it was discovered that the measuring metre rod was 3 cm longer. The true length of the rope measured is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 116 m 40 cm
  2. 121 m 20 cm
  3. 123 m
  4. 123 m 60 cm

938. Smita was asked to multiply a certain number by 36. She multiplied it by 63 instead and got an answer 3834 more than the correct one. What was the number to be multiplied ?

  1. 126
  2. 142
  3. 148
  4. 152
  5. None of these

939. A boy multiplied 423 by a number and obtained 65589 as his answer. If both the fives in the answer are wrong and all other figures are correct, the correct answer is:

  1. 60489
  2. 61189
  3. 62189
  4. 62389

940. A candidate was asked to find 7 8 of a positive number. He found 7 18 of the same by mistake. If his answer was 770 less than the correct one, then the original given number was

  1. 1260
  2. 1548
  3. 6160
  4. None of these

941. A student was asked to divide a number by 17 .8 Instead, he actually multiplied it by 17 8 and hence got 225 more than the expected answer. What was the expected answer ?

  1. 64
  2. 126
  3. 136
  4. None of these

942. One junior student is asked to divide half a num - ber by 6 and the other half by 4 and then add the quantities. Instead of doing so, the student divides the given number by 5. If the answer is 4 short of the correct answer, then the number is

  1. 320
  2. 360
  3. 400
  4. 480 (M.B.A., 2008)

943. If 23 3 is subtracted from 19 9 and the difference is multiplied by 450, what is the final answer?

  1. 2045
  2. 2250
  3. 2540
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

944. By how much is 3 4 of 968 less than 7 8 of 1008?

  1. 146
  2. 154
  3. 158
  4. 165
  5. None of these

945. If ,10=− yxy where y is a positive integer which increases in value, then x (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. first increases in value then decreases
  2. decreases in value
  3. increases in value
  4. first decreases then increases in value

946. The difference between 34th of th45 of a number and 12th of th65 of the same number is 648. What is the number?

  1. 1110
  2. 1215
  3. 1325
  4. 1440
  5. None of these

947. Which number gives the same result when added to 11 2 and when multiplied by 11?2

  1. 1
  2. 3
  3. 5
  4. 7

948. 5 12 of which sum is equal to 33 4 of ₹ 100?

  1. ₹ 750
  2. ₹ 800
  3. ₹ 900
  4. ₹ 1000

949. 3 8 is what part of 1 ?12

  1. 3 7
  2. 1 12
  3. 4 3
  4. None of these

950. The smallest fraction which should be subtracted from the sum of 31 71 ,2 ,5 ,4 2 12 113 and 234 to make the result a whole number is

  1. 5 12
  2. 7 12
  3. 1 2
  4. 7

951. What fraction should be added to the sum of 34 35 , 4 and 745 8 to make the result a whole number? (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 1 40
  2. 2 40
  3. 3 40
  4. 4 40

952. If x is a positive number, then which of the follow - ing fractions has the greatest value ?

  1. x x
  2. 1+ x x
  3. 1+x x
  4. 2 3 + + x x

953. 6 6/7By how much does exceed ?7/8 8

  1. 16 8
  2. 36 4
  3. 37 4
  4. 57 6

954. If 4 5 of an estate be worth ₹ 16,800, then the value of 3 7 of the estate is

  1. ₹ 9000
  2. ₹ 21,000
  3. ₹ 72,000
  4. ₹ 90,000

955. Two-fifth of one-fourth of three-seventh of a number is 15. What is half of that number ?

  1. 94
  2. 96
  3. 188
  4. 196
  5. None of these

956. What fraction of an hour is a second?

  1. 1 24
  2. 1 60
  3. 1 120
  4. 1 3600

957. When a ball bounces, it rises to 3 4 of the height from which it fell. If the ball is dropped from a height of 32 m, how high will it rise at the third bounce?

  1. 13 m
  2. 113 m2
  3. 114 m2
  4. None of these

958. Sanket earns twice as much in the month of March as in each of the other months of the year. What part of his entire annual earnings was earned in March?

  1. 1 7
  2. 1 6
  3. 2 11
  4. 2 13

959. If one-third of a tank holds 80 litres of water, then the quantity of water that half of the tank holds is

  1. 80 litres3
  2. 100 litres
  3. 120 litres
  4. 240 litres

960. A person travels 3.5 km from place A to place B. Out of this distance, he travels 21 km3 on bicycle, 11 km6 on scooter and the rest on foot. What portion of the whole distance does he cover on foot?

  1. 3 19
  2. 4 11
  3. 4 21
  4. 5 6

961. What fraction of 4 7 must be added to itself to make the sum 11?14

  1. 1 2
  2. 4 7
  3. 7 8
  4. 15 14

962. Express 21of34 of ₹ 25.20 as a fraction of 11 2 of ₹ 36.

  1. 5 8
  2. 5 42
  3. 7 90
  4. 11 90

963. A 70 cm long wire is to be cut into two pieces such that one piece will be 2 5 as long as the other. How many centimetres will the shorter piece be?

  1. 10
  2. 14
  3. 20
  4. 28

964. A certain amount is distributed among A, B and C. A gets 3 16 and B gets 1 4 of the whole amount. If C gets ₹ 81, then B gets

  1. ₹ 30
  2. ₹ 32
  3. ₹ 36
  4. ₹ 40

965. 1 10 of a pole is coloured red, 1 20 white, 1 30 blue, 1 40 black, 1 50 violet, 1 60 yellow and the rest is green. If the length of the green portion of the pole is 12.08 metres, then the length of the pole is (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. 16 m
  2. 18 m
  3. 20 m
  4. 30 m

966. If we multiply a fraction by itself and divide the product by its reciprocal, the fraction thus obtained is 2618 .27 The original fraction is

  1. 8 27
  2. 11 3
  3. 22 3
  4. None of these

967. The difference between the maximum and the minimum internal assessment scores is

  1. 3.3
  2. 4.8
  3. 6.6
  4. 7.4

968. One-third of Rahul’s savings in National Savings Certificate is equal to one-half of his savings in Public Provident Fund. If he has ₹ 1,50,000 as total savings, how much has he saved in Public Provident Fund?

  1. ₹ 30,000
  2. ₹ 50,000
  3. ₹ 60,000
  4. ₹ 90,000

969. In a family, the father took 1 4 of the cake and he had 3 times as much as each of the other members had. The total number of family members is

  1. 3
  2. 7
  3. 10
  4. 12

970. A waiter’s salary consists of his salary and tips. During one week his tips were 5 4 of his salary. What fraction of his income came from tips?

  1. 4 9
  2. 5 4
  3. 5 8
  4. 5 9

971. A sum of ₹ 1360 has been divided among A, B and C such that A gets 2 3 of what B gets and B gets 1 4 of what C gets. B’s share is (M.A.T., 2002)

  1. ₹ 120
  2. ₹ 160
  3. ₹ 240
  4. ₹ 300

972. Three friends had dinner at a restaurant. When the bill was received, Amita paid 2 3 as much as Veena paid and Veena paid 1 2 as much as Tanya paid. What fraction of the bill did Veena pay? (SNAP, 2005)

  1. 1 3
  2. 3 11
  3. 12 31
  4. 5 8

973. 1 4 of a tank holds 135 litres of water. What part of the tank is full if it contains 180 litres of water?

  1. 1 6
  2. 1 3
  3. 2 3
  4. 2 5

974. A tank is 2 5 full. If 16 litres of water is added to the tank, it becomes 6 7 full. The capacity of the tank is

  1. 28 litres
  2. 32 litres
  3. 35 litres
  4. 42 litres

975. A drum of kerosene is 3 4 full. When 30 litres of kerosene is drawn from it, it remains 7 12 full. The capacity of the drum is (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 120 litres
  2. 135 litres
  3. 150 litres
  4. 180 litres

976. A tin of oil was 5 8 full. When 10 bottles of oil was taken out and 8 bottles of oil was poured into it, it was 3 5 full. How many bottles of oil can the tin contain?

  1. 20
  2. 30
  3. 40
  4. 80

977. 1 m of an object is to be represented by 10 cm on the drawing scale. The representative fraction (R.F.) of the scale is

  1. 1 10
  2. 1 20
  3. 1 100
  4. None of these

978. An area of 100 sq. cm on the map represents an area of 49 sq. km on the field. The R.F. of the scale to be used is

  1. 1 10000
  2. 1 20000
  3. 1 49000
  4. 1 70000

979. The fluid contained in a bucket can fill four large bottles or seven small bottles. A full large bottle is used to fill an empty small bottle. What fraction of the fluid is left over in the large bottle when the small one is full?

  1. 2 7
  2. 3 7
  3. 4 7
  4. 5 7

980. To fill a tank, 25 buckets of water is required. How many buckets of water will be required to fill the same tank if the capacity of the bucket is reduced to two-fifth of its present?

  1. 10
  2. 35
  3. 162 2
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

981. A stationary engine has enough fuel to run 12 hours when its tank is 4 5 full. How long will it run when the tank is 1 3 full?

  1. Less than 2 hours
  2. 2 hours
  3. 3 hours
  4. 4 hours
  5. 5 hours

982. A tree grows only 3 5 as fast as the one beside it. In four years the combined growth of the trees is eight feet. How much does the shorter tree grow in 2 years?

  1. Less than 2 feet
  2. 2 feet
  3. 12 feet2
  4. 3 feet
  5. More than 3 feet

983. A car is filled with four and a half gallons of fuel for a round trip. If the amount of fuel taken while going is 1 4 more than the amount taken for coming, what is the amount of fuel consumed while coming back?

  1. Less than 2 gallons
  2. 2 gallons
  3. 12 gallons2
  4. 3 gallons
  5. More than 3 gallons

984. The lowest temperature in the night in a city is one- third more than 1 2 the highest during the day. Sum of the lowest temperature and the highest temperature is 100 degrees. Then what is the lowest temperature?

  1. 30 degrees
  2. 40 degrees
  3. 36 degrees
  4. None of these

985. In a class there are 18 boys who are over 160 cm tall. If these boys constitute three-fourths of the boys and the total number of boys is two-thirds of the number of students in the class, then what is the number of girls in the class?

  1. 6
  2. 12
  3. 18
  4. 24

986. Peter gave one-fourth of the amount he had to Michael. Michael in turn gave half of what he received from Peter to Sam. If the difference between the remaining amount with Peter and the amount received by Sam is ₹ 500, how much money did Michael receive from Peter?

  1. ₹ 100
  2. ₹ 200
  3. ₹ 400
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

987. Four children A, B, C and D divide a bag of sweets. A takes 1 3 of them, B 2 th5 of the remainder and the rest is equally shared between C and D. What fraction of the sweets did C or D get?

  1. 1 4
  2. 1 5
  3. 1 6
  4. 1 17

988. Rita travelled 1200 km by air, which formed 2 th5 of her journey. One-third of the whole journey she travelled by car and the remaining journey by train. Find the distance travelled by the train. (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 480 km
  2. 800 km
  3. 1600 km
  4. 1800 km

989. A man spends one-quarter of his income on food, one-fifth of it on rent and remaining, which is ₹ 231, on other commodities. Find his total income.

  1. ₹ 400
  2. ₹ 410
  3. ₹ 420
  4. ₹ 460

990. A boy read 3 th8 of a book on one day and 4 th5 of the remainder on another day. If there were 30 pages unread, how many pages did the book contain? (I.M.T. 2002; XAT, 2006)

  1. 240
  2. 300
  3. 600
  4. None of these

991. An institute organised a fete and 1 5 of the girls and 1 8 of the boys participated in the same. What fraction of the total number of students took part in the fete?

  1. 2 13
  2. 13 40
  3. Data inadequate
  4. None of these

992. At an International Dinner, 1 5 of the people attending were French men. If the number of French women at the dinner was 2 3 greater than the number of French men, and there were no other French people at the dinner, then what fraction of the people at the dinner were not French? (M.B.A., 2003)

  1. 1 5
  2. 2 5
  3. 2 3
  4. 7 15

993. In a class, 3 5 of the students are girls and rest are boys. If 2 9 of the girls and 1 4 of the boys are absent, what part of the total number of students is present?

  1. 17 25
  2. 18 49
  3. 23 30
  4. 23 36

994. One-third of the boys and one-half of the girls of a college participated in a social work project. If the number of participating students is 300 out of which 100 are boys, what is the total number of students in the college?

  1. 500
  2. 600
  3. 700
  4. 800

995. To win an election, a candidate needs 3 4 of the votes cast. If after 2 3 of the votes have been counted, a candidate has 5 6 of what he needs, then what part of the remaining votes does he still need? (M.A.T., 2008)

  1. 1 8
  2. 3 8
  3. 1 10
  4. 1 4

996. A fires 5 shots to B’s 3 but A kills only once in 3 shots while B kills once in 2 shots. When B has missed 27 times, A has killed

  1. 30 birds
  2. 60 birds
  3. 72 birds
  4. 90 birds

997. If every 2 out of 3 readymade shirts need alterations in the collar, every 3 out of 4 need alterations in the sleeves, and every 4 out of 5 need it in the body, how many alterations will be required for 60 shirts?

  1. 24
  2. 123
  3. 133
  4. 143

998. The sum of three fractions is 112.24 When the largest fraction is divided by the smallest, the fraction thus obtained is 7 6 which is 1 3 more than the middle one. The fractions are

  1. 342,,573
  2. 753,,864
  3. 723,,935
  4. None of these

999. A millionaire bought a lot of hats 1 4 of which were brown. The millionaire sold 2 3 of the hats including 4 5 of the brown hats. What fraction of the unsold hats were brown?

  1. 1 60
  2. 1 15
  3. 3 20
  4. 3 5
  5. 3 4

1000. Equal amounts of water were poured into two empty jars of different capacities, which made one jar 1 4 full and the other jar 1 3 full. If the water in the jar with lesser capacity is, then poured into the jar with the greater capacity, what fraction of the larger jar will be filled with water? (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 1 2
  2. 2 3
  3. 3 4
  4. 2 7

1001. Mr. X spends 1 4 of his income on food and 1 3 less than what he spent on food, on the education of his children. What fraction of his income did he spend on food and education?

  1. 2 7
  2. 1 2
  3. 5 12
  4. 7 12

1002. A body of 7300 troops is formed of 4 battalions so that 1 2 of the first, 2 3 of the second, 3 4 of the third and 4 5 of the fourth are all composed of the same number of men. How many men are there in the second battalion? (M.A.T., 2008)

  1. 1500
  2. 1600
  3. 1800
  4. 2400

1003. After reading 3 5 of the biology homework on Monday night, Sanjay read 1 3 of the remaining homework on Tuesday night. What fraction of the original homework would Sanjay have to read on Wednesday night to complete the assignment?

  1. 1 5
  2. 1 15
  3. 2 15
  4. 4 15

1004. The highest score in an inning was 3 11 of the total and the next highest was 3 11 of the remainder. If the scores differed by 9, the total score was

  1. 110
  2. 121
  3. 132
  4. 143

1005. Mechanics are paid twice the hourly wages of sales people. Custodial workers are paid one-third the hourly wages of mechanics. What fraction of the hourly wages of custodial workers are sales people paid? (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 1 3
  2. 1 2
  3. 2 3
  4. 3 2
  5. 4 3

1006. Ganeshi's monthly income is twice Jassi's monthly income. Two-third of Jassi's monthly income is equal to Sukhvinder's monthly income. If Sukhvinder's annual income is ₹ 2.34 lakhs, what is Ganeshi's monthly income?

  1. ₹ 14625
  2. ₹ 29250
  3. ₹ 28230
  4. ₹ 58500
  5. None of these

1007. The cost of 36 kg of rice last year was ₹ 1044 and the cost of 24 kg of rice this year is ₹ 768. What is the difference between the cost per kg of rice last year and the cost per kg of rice this year?

  1. ₹ 3
  2. ₹ 4
  3. ₹ 5
  4. ₹ 6
  5. None of these

1008. The cost of 12 belts and 30 wallets is ₹ 8940. What is the cost of 4 belts and 10 wallets?

  1. ₹ 2780
  2. ₹ 2870
  3. ₹ 2890
  4. ₹ 2980
  5. None of these

1009. The cost of 5 pendants and 8 chains is ₹ 1,45,785. What would be the cost of 15 pendants and 24 chains?

  1. ₹ 3,25,285
  2. ₹ 4,39,355
  3. ₹ 5,50,000
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1010. The cost of 21 tables and 35 chairs is ₹ 41825. What is the cost of 9 tables and 15 chairs?

  1. ₹ 17775
  2. ₹ 17925
  3. ₹ 18075
  4. ₹ 18725
  5. None of these

1011. The cost of 13 kg of sugar is ₹ 195, the cost of 17 kg of rice is ₹ 544 and the cost of 21 kg of wheat is ₹ 336. What is the total cost of 21 kg of sugar, 26 kg of rice and 19 kg of wheat? (M.A.T., 2009)

  1. ₹ 1306
  2. ₹ 1451
  3. ₹ 1500
  4. ₹ 1636

1012. The most economical price among the following is

  1. 10 kilo for ₹ 160
  2. 2 kilo for ₹ 30
  3. 4 kilo for ₹ 70
  4. 20 kilo for ₹ 340
  5. 8 kilo for ₹ 130

1013. There are 200 questions on a 3 hour examination. Among these questions are 50 Mathematics problems. It is suggested that twice as much time be spent on each Maths problem as for each other question. How many minutes should be spent on Mathematics problems?

  1. 36
  2. 60
  3. 72
  4. 100

1014. What part of an hour elapses from 4.56 P.M. to 5.32 P.M.? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 1 4
  2. 1 2
  3. 3 5
  4. 3 4

1015. 72 hours 6 minutes ÷ 14 =?

  1. 59 minutes
  2. 5 hours 9 minutes
  3. 6 hours 9 minutes
  4. 7 hours 8 minutes

1016. A class starts at 10 a.m. and lasts till 1.27 p.m. Four periods are held during this interval. After every period, 5 minutes are given free to the students. The exact duration of each period is

  1. 42 minutes
  2. 48 minutes
  3. 51 minutes
  4. 53 minutes

1017. A light was seen at intervals of 13 seconds. It was seen for the first time at 1 hr. 54 min. 50 secs. a.m. and the last time at 3 hrs. 17 min. 49 secs. a.m. How many times was the light seen?

  1. 360
  2. 375
  3. 378
  4. 384

1018. A woman works continuously for 7 days in the kitchen and refuses to work on the 8th day when her husband takes over. If she starts her work on a Sunday, then the 10th time she rests will be on which day of the week?

  1. Sunday
  2. Monday
  3. Tuesday
  4. Friday

1019. If x * y = x2 + y2 – xy, then the value of 9 * 11 is

  1. 93
  2. 103
  3. 113
  4. 121

1020. If , find the value of 3 (3 1).* **=− + abab ab

  1. – 3
  2. – 1.5
  3. – 1
  4. 2 3

1021. If a * b = 2 a – 3 b + ab, then 3 * 5 + 5 * 3 is equal to

  1. 22
  2. 24
  3. 26
  4. 28

1022. If x ⊕ y = x2 + 2 y, what is the value of p if 4 ⊕ (3 ⊕ p) = 50?

  1. 4
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 12.5

1023. If a * b * c means +ab c for all numbers except 0, then

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. ++abc ab
  4. ++a b ac bc
  5. ab bc ca abc ++ ++

1024. 6

  1. 13
  2. 30
  3. 31.03
  4. 31.36

1025. 2.5

  1. 8.10
  2. 8.51
  3. 18.05
  4. 80.50

1026. 5

  1. 2.80
  2. 12.80
  3. 20.08
  4. 21.80

1027. If the operation ∧ is defined by the equation x ∧ y = 2x + y, what is the value of a in 2 ∧ a = a ∧ 3?

  1. 0
  2. – 1
  3. 1
  4. 4

1028. If ⊕ is an operation such that 2 2 , when , when , , when a ab ab ab ab a ab > += + <   = then (5 7) (4 4) 3(5 5) (15 11) 3 ⊕+⊕  ⊕− ⊕ − is equal to

  1. 1 3
  2. 2 3
  3. 14 13
  4. 14 23

1029. At Srinagar, starting at 9 a.m. on a certain day, snow began to fall at a rate of 11 4 inches every two hours until 3 p.m. If there was already 12 4 inches of snow on the ground at 9 a.m., how many inches of snow was on the ground at 3 p.m. that day ?

  1. 33 4
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. 17 2

1030. A squirrel starts climbing up a tree at the speed of 6 metres a minute but after every 6 metres it slips down 4 metres in the next minute. It will be able to reach the top 120 metres high in (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 20 minutes
  2. 60 minutes
  3. 115 minutes
  4. 11 hours2

1031. Ram had ₹ 1000 in his Savings Bank Account. Every month in the first week he needs money, so he with - draws ₹ 500, but by the end of the month, he deposits ₹ 750. After how many months the original amount will grow three times? (R.R.B., 2005)

  1. 6 months
  2. 7 months
  3. 8 months
  4. 9 months

1032. The growth of a medicinal plant of height 1 metre, is 1 cm/day and it is growing straight vertically upward. A man cuts 6 cm from the top, at a regular interval of every 11 days. Its height will be 2 metres after (I.A.M., 2007)

  1. 220 days
  2. 250 days
  3. 275 days
  4. None of these

1033. A stairway 10 ft. high is such that each step accounts for half a foot upward and one foot forward. What distance will an ant travel if it starts from ground level to reach the top of the stairway? (R.R.B., 2009)

  1. 30 ft.
  2. 33 ft.
  3. 10 ft.
  4. 29 ft.

1034. The sum of all proper fractions whose denominators are less than or equal to 100, is

  1. 122 4
  2. 1925
  3. 2475
  4. None of these

1035. The value of 4211 1 is1 (1 – ) −+ ÷×+ xx x x xx

  1. 1
  2. 1 – x2
  3. 1 x
  4. 1 + x
  5. None of these

1036. 17 17 2 2 17 4 – is equal to15 15 15 15 15 15×+× ×

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 10
  4. 11

1037. 3111 3 32 13 5 5 5 13 13 ?4444 4 4× ×+×+ × =

  1. 311
  2. 316
  3. 361
  4. 380

1038. The simplification of 75983 75983 – 45983 45983 30000 ×× yields the result

  1. 121796
  2. 121866
  3. 121956
  4. 121966

1039. 4 43313 13 8 87 777Simplify: 4313 877 × +× + (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 18
  2. 20
  3. 22
  4. 24

1040. 2( )( ) .–4 2− −+ =ab ab x ay On simplifying the given equation, which of the following equations will be obtained ?

  1. xy = b
  2. bx = y
  3. ab = x
  4. yb = x
  5. ay = x

1041. What is 77 5575 88 6683 77 55 –8866 ×+×+× ×× equal to? (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 41 24
  2. 1 24
  3. 41
  4. None of these

1042. The simplified value of 19982 – 19972 + 19962 – 19952 + 19942 – 1993 2 is

  1. 11953
  2. 11958
  3. 11963
  4. 11973

1043. 22(856 167) (856 167) ?856 856 167 167 + +− =×+×

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 689
  4. 1023

1044. 22(469 174) (469 174) ?469 174 + −− =× (M.B.A., 2002)

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 295
  4. 643

1045. If a – b = 3 and a2 + b2 = 29, find the value of ab. (R.R.B., 2003)

  1. 10
  2. 12
  3. 15
  4. 18

1046. 2 1If 4, ? 1 − ==+ x xx

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 5
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1047. 22 22 21 2132 3232 32 ?3131 4343 4343  − − ÷=  −− 

  1. 37 97
  2. 74 97
  3. 231 74
  4. None of these

1048. The simplified value of      + + −− −      ++ ++             + +−   ++      11 1111 11 11 1111 11100 100 100 100 is 1111 1111 100 100

  1. 100
  2. 200 101
  3. 200
  4. 202 100

1049. 769435 770001 – 566The value of is769435 770001 769434 × +×

  1. – 1
  2. – 2
  3. 1
  4. 2

1050. If a – b = 1, then the value of a3 – b3 – 3 ab will be

  1. – 3
  2. – 1
  3. 1
  4. 3

1051. If x – y = 1 and x2 + y2 = 41, then the value of x + y will be

  1. 5 or 4
  2. – 5 or – 4
  3. ± 9
  4. ± 1

1052. If x4 + y4 = 17 and x + y = 1, then what is the value of x2y2 – 2 xy?

  1. 8
  2. 10
  3. 12
  4. 16

1053. If x = a + m, y = b + m, z = c + m, the value of 222 222 ––– is ––– ++ ++ x y z yz zx xy a b c ab bc ca

  1. 1
  2. ++ ++ xyz abc
  3. ++ ++ abc xyz
  4. not possible to find

1054. If a + b + c = 13, a2 + b2 + c2 = 69, then find ab + bc + ca.

  1. – 50
  2. 50
  3. 69
  4. 75

1055. 222 64If 2 and 3 , then thexyz xy zxy yz zx ++− =− + =−− value of z is

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. None of these

1056.  ××+××  ×+×−× 785 785 785 435 435 435 simplifies to785 785 435 435 785 435

  1. 350
  2. 785
  3. 1220
  4. 1320

1057. 147 147 147 143 143 143 ?147 147 147 143 143 143  ×+×+× = ×× −××

  1. 1 4
  2. 290
  3. 1 290
  4. 4

1058. 33 22 (13) 7 20 (13) 7 ? + = +−

  1. 6
  2. 20
  3. 91
  4. None of these

1059.   −     −   33 22 32 55The value of is 32 55 (S.S.C., 2003)

  1. 1 5
  2. 19 25
  3. 21 25
  4. 1

1060. 38 38 38 34 34 34 28 28 28 38 34 84 38 38 34 34 28 28 38 34 34 28 38 28 ××+××+××−×× ×+×+×−×−×−× is equal to

  1. 24
  2. 32
  3. 44
  4. 100

1061. − +− +− − −− 333( )( )( )The value of isequal to9( )( )( ) xy yz zx xy yz zx

  1. 0
  2. 1 9
  3. 1 3
  4. 1

1062. If x = 5, y = 3, the value of 33 22 –3 – – + x y xy xyxy will be (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 1
  2. 1 2
  3. 3 2
  4. 5 2

1063. If a + b + c = 11 and ab + bc + ca = 20, then the value of the expression a3 + b3 + c3 – 3 abc will be

  1. 121
  2. 341
  3. 671
  4. 781

1064. 333 2 23 2 23 2 23 ( )( )( )The value of is ( – )( – )( – ) − +− +− ++ xy yz zx xy yz zx

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. [2 ( x + y + z)]– 1
  4. [( x + y) ( y + z) ( z + x)]– 1

1065. If a + b + c = 0, the value of 222 ++abc bc ca ab is

  1. 3abc
  2. 1 3
  3. 1
  4. 3

1066. If a = 29, b = 24, c = 27, the value of a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc is

  1. 1420
  2. 1520
  3. 1620
  4. 1920

1067. 26 3 –1 –1If 4, then is=xx x x

  1. 63
  2. 66
  3. 75
  4. 76

1068. (32)3 + (79) 3 – (111) 3 + 3 × 32 × 79 × 111 is equal to

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 10000
  4. 30007

1069. If (x + y) = 3, xy = 2, then what is the value of x3 + y3?

  1. 6
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 9
  5. None of these

1070. The value of 22 22 22 22 22 22 () () () is () () () x yz y xz z xy xz y xy z yz x −− −− −− ++ +− +− +− (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. – 1
  2. 0
  3. 1
  4. None of these

1071. If 1++=pq r abc and 0++=abc pqr where a, b, c, p, q, r are non-zero real numbers, then 22 2 2 22++pq r abc is equal to

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 3
  4. 9

1072. If x4 – y4 = 15, then find the value of x4 + y4, where x and y are natural numbers.

  1. 17
  2. 31
  3. 71
  4. 113

1073. Along a yard 225 metres long, 26 trees are planted at equal distances, one tree being at each end of the yard. What is the distance between two consecutive trees?

  1. 8 metres
  2. 9 metres
  3. 10 metres
  4. 15 metres

1074. In a garden, there are 10 rows and 12 columns of mango trees. The distance between the two trees is 2 metres and a distance of one metre is left from all sides of the boundary of the garden. The length of the garden is

  1. 20 m
  2. 22 m
  3. 24 m
  4. 26 m

1075. A farmer has decided to build a wire fence along one straight side of his property. For this, he planned to place several fence-posts at 6 m intervals, with posts fixed at both ends of the side. After he bought the posts and wire, he found that the number of posts he had bought was 5 less than required. However, he discovered that the number of posts he had bought would be just sufficient if he spaced them 8 m apart. What is the length of the side of his property and how many posts did he buy? (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 100 m, 15
  2. 100 m, 16
  3. 120 m, 15
  4. 120 m, 16

1076. On a 2 km road, a total number of 201 trees are planted on each side of the road at equal distances. How many such trees in all will be planted on both sides of a 50 km road such that the distance between two consecutive trees is the same as that of the consecutive trees on the 2 km road?

  1. 501
  2. 5000
  3. 5001
  4. 5025
  5. 5050

1077. When all the students in a school are made to stand in rows of 54, 30 such rows are formed. If the students are made to stand in rows of 45, how many such rows will be formed?

  1. 25
  2. 32
  3. 36
  4. 42
  5. None of these

1078. There are x trees and y parrots. If in each tree only one parrot is sitting, then one parrot remains without a tree. If in each tree, two parrots are sitting, then one tree remains without a parrot. Therefore, x and y are respectively

  1. 3 and 4
  2. 4 and 5
  3. 5 and 6
  4. 6 and 7

1079. In a classroom, there are certain number of benches. If 6 students are made to sit on a bench, then to accommodate all of them, one more bench is needed. However, if 7 students are made to sit on a bench, then after accommodating all of them, space for 5 students is left. What is the total number of students in the class?

  1. 30
  2. 42
  3. 72
  4. None of these

1080. There are benches in a classroom. If 4 students sit on each bench, then three benches are left vacant and if 3 students sit on each bench, then 3 students are left standing. The total number of students in the class is

  1. 36
  2. 42
  3. 48
  4. 54

1081. Students of a class are preparing for a drill and are made to stand in rows. If 4 students are extra in a row, then there would be 2 rows less. But there would be 4 more rows if 4 students are less in a row. The number of students in the class is (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 56
  2. 65
  3. 69
  4. 96

1082. If a sum of ₹ 275 is to be divided between Ram and Shyam so that Ram gets 3 th4 more of what Shyam gets, then the share of Ram will be

  1. ₹ 100
  2. ₹ 160
  3. ₹ 175
  4. ₹ 200

1083. Sweets were distributed equally among 64 children. After giving 7 sweets to each child 15 sweets were left out. Total how many sweets were there?

  1. 436
  2. 446
  3. 448
  4. 463
  5. None of these

1084. X gives 1 2 of his property to his wife and 1 2 of the rest to his son. The remainder is divided equally between his two daughters. The share of each daughter is

  1. 1 4
  2. 1 6
  3. 1 8
  4. 2 3

1085. If each child is given 10 sweets, there are 3 sweets left over. But if each is given 11, then the number of sweets is 4 less. Find the number of sweets. (R.R.B., 2009)

  1. 37
  2. 57
  3. 73
  4. 75

1086. 180 oranges are distributed among 70 boys and girls such that each boy gets 2 and each girl gets 3 oranges. The number of boys are

  1. 25
  2. 30
  3. 40
  4. 70

1087. A farmer divides his herd of cows among his four sons so that first son gets one-half of the herd, the second son gets one-fourth, the third son one-fifth and the fourth son 7 cows. The total number of cows in the herd is (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 100
  2. 140
  3. 180
  4. 240

1088. A man had two sons. To the elder, he left 5 11 of his property, to the younger 5 11 of the remainder, the rest to the widow. Find the share of the sons if the widow gets ₹ 3600. (M.B.A. 2007)

  1. ₹ 1200, ₹ 1000
  2. ₹ 6600, ₹ 2000
  3. ₹ 7500, ₹ 1000
  4. None of these

1089. If ₹ 370 are divided among 10 men, 12 women and 20 boys such that each man gets an amount equal to that received by one woman and one boy together and each woman gets twice the amount received by a boy, then the amount received by 10 men would be

  1. ₹ 100
  2. ₹ 120
  3. ₹ 130
  4. ₹ 150

1090. A sum of ₹ 750 is distributed among A, B, C and D in such a manner that A gets as much as B and C together, B gets ₹ 125 more than C and D gets as much as C. What is A’s share?

  1. ₹ 100
  2. ₹ 225
  3. ₹ 275
  4. ₹ 325

1091. A bonus of ₹ 1000 is to be divided among three people so that Rohit receives twice as much as Sachin, who receives one-fifth as much as Gagan. How much money should Gagan receive?

  1. ₹ 100
  2. ₹ 250
  3. ₹ 375
  4. ₹ 625

1092. Three boys agree to divide a bag of marbles in the following manner. The first boy takes one more than half the marbles. The second takes a third of the number remaining. The third boy finds that he is left with twice as many marbles as the second boy. The original number of marbles (M.B.A., 2011)

  1. is 8 or 38
  2. is 14 or 32
  3. is 20 or 26
  4. Cannot be determined from the given data

1093. A man has divided his total money in his will in such a way that half of it goes to his wife, 2 rd3 of the remaining among his three sons equally and the rest among his four daughters equally. If each daughter gets ₹ 20,000, how much money will each son get?

  1. ₹ 48,233.33
  2. ₹ 50,333.33
  3. ₹ 53,333.33
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

1094. Anand, Bijoy, Chetan and Dharma together have ₹ 47 with them. Anand and Bijoy together have ₹ 27; Chetan and Anand have ₹ 25 and Dharma and Anand have ₹ 23. How much money does Bijoy have?

  1. ₹ 9
  2. ₹ 11
  3. ₹ 13
  4. ₹ 28

1095. When a sum of money was distributed to 12 persons instead of 16 persons, each person got ₹ 400 more. What was the sum?

  1. ₹ 14400
  2. ₹ 16000
  3. ₹ 19200
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

1096. After distributing the sweets equally among 25 chil - dren, 8 sweets remain. Had the number of children been 28, 22 sweets would have been left after equally distributing. What was the total number of sweets?

  1. 328
  2. 348
  3. 358
  4. Data inadequate

1097. On a school's Annual Day sweets were to be equally distributed amongst 112 children. But on that particular day, 32 children were absent. Thus the remaining children got 6 extra sweets. How many sweets was each child originally supposed to get?

  1. 15
  2. 18
  3. 24
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1098. A sum of money is equally divided among a number of children. Had there been 16 children more, each would have received ₹ 2 less and had there been 16 fewer, each would have received ₹ 3 more. Find the sum of the money distributed.

  1. ₹ 880
  2. ₹ 896
  3. ₹ 928
  4. ₹ 960

1099. Vidushi and Sanya distributed ₹ 100 each in charity. Vidushi distributes money to 5 more people than Sanya and Sanya gives each ₹ 1 more than Vidushi. How many people are recipients of the charity?

  1. 45
  2. 60
  3. 90
  4. None of these

1100. In a classroom the number of boys is three times the number of girls. Which of the following numbers does not represent the total number of students in the classroom?

  1. 40
  2. 42
  3. 44
  4. 48

1101. There are some boys and girls in a room. The square of the number of girls is less than the square of the number of boys by 28. If there were two more girls, the number of boys would have been the same as that of the girls. The total number of boys and girls in the room is

  1. 7
  2. 10
  3. 14
  4. 56

1102. A classroom has equal number of boys and girls. Eight girls left to play kho-kho, leaving twice as many boys as girls in the classroom. What was the total number of girls and boys present initially?

  1. 16
  2. 24
  3. 32
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1103. What is the value of the expression (1 + x) (1 + x2) (1 + x4) (1 + x8) (1 – x)?

  1. x8 + 1
  2. x16 – 1
  3. 1 + x16
  4. 1 – x16

1104. The expression 24 11 2 4 11 11xx xx −− −−+ ++ is equal to

  1. 8 8 1+x
  2. 8 8 1−x
  3. 7 8 1−x
  4. 7 8 1+x

1105. 22 22 11 1 1 1 1 is equal toxxx xxx xx      + − + − ++           (S.S.C., 2006)

  1. 6 6 1–x x
  2. 8 8 1–x x
  3. 6 6 1+x x
  4. 8 8 1+x x

1106. 2 2 11If 3, then ?  += + =   xx x x

  1. 7
  2. 9
  3. 10
  4. 27

1107. 2 2 11If , then is equal to  −= +   apa a a

  1. p
  2. p – 2
  3. p + 2
  4. None of these

1108. 2 1 1If 3, then the value of 1 is− =+x x x

  1. 9
  2. 10
  3. 11
  4. None of these

1109. 2 2 11If 34, then is equal to  += +   xx xx

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. None of these

1110. 11If 2, then is equal to += −   xx xx (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 5

1111. 4 4 11If 6, then ?  += + =   aa a a (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 1154
  2. 1158
  3. 1160
  4. 1164

1112. 4 4 11If 2, then the value of isxx x x   −= +  

  1. 4
  2. 8
  3. 12
  4. 34

1113. 2 2 1 11If 21, the value of is    −= + +   x xxxx x

  1. 42
  2. 63
  3. 115
  4. 120
  5. 125

1114. 4 4 11If 322, the value of is  += −  xx xx

  1. 4
  2. 32
  3. 6
  4. 8

1115. 3 3 11If , the value of is+= +xp xx x

  1. 3 3 1+p p
  2. p3 – 3 p
  3. p3
  4. p3 + 3 p

1116. If 1– 1, =x x then the value of 3 3 1–x x is equal to

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 8

1117. If 4 4 1 1154, +=  a a then the value of 3 3 1 ? +=  a a

  1. 198
  2. 200
  3. 216
  4. None of these

1118. If 1 3, +=  x x then the value of 6 6 1 +  x x is

  1. 322
  2. 364
  3. 414
  4. 927

1119. If 1 13, +=  x x then the value of 3 3 1 −  x x is

  1. 26
  2. 27
  3. 30
  4. 36

1120. 23 23 11If 4 2, then 8 ?  += +=    bb bb (S.S.C., 2008)

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 5

1121. If 12 4, += p p the value of 3 3 1 8  + p p is (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 8
  4. 15

1122. In a herd of cows, the number of legs are 14 more than twice the number of heads. The number of cows in the herd is (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 5
  2. 7
  3. 10
  4. 12

1123. In a group of buffaloes and ducks, the number of legs is 24 more than twice the number of heads. What is the number of buffaloes in the group?

  1. 6
  2. 8
  3. 10
  4. 12

1124. Krishan has some hens and some cows. If the total number of animal heads is 59 and the total number of feet is 190, how many cows does Krishan have? (M.A.T., 2009)

  1. 23
  2. 32
  3. 36
  4. Cannot be determined

1125. There are some parrots and some tigers in a forest. If the total number of animal heads in the forest is 858 and the total number of animal legs is 1846, what is the number of parrots in the forest?

  1. 800
  2. 833
  3. 845
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1126. A certain number of horses and an equal number of men are going somewhere. Half of the owners are on their horses' back while the remaining ones are walking along leading their horses. If the number of legs walking on the ground is 70, then how many horses are there?

  1. 10
  2. 12
  3. 14
  4. 16

1127. A railway half-ticket costs half the full fare and the reservation charge is the same on half ticket as on full ticket. One reserved first class ticket from Chennai to Trivandrum costs ₹ 216 and one full reserved and one half reserved first class tickets cost ₹ 327. What is the basic first class full fare and what is the reservation charge ? (R.R.B., 2009)

  1. ₹ 105, ₹ 6
  2. ₹ 216, ₹ 12
  3. ₹ 210, ₹ 6
  4. ₹ 210, ₹ 12

1128. An employee may claim ₹ 7 for each km when he travels by taxi and ₹ 6 for each km if he drives his own car. If in one week he claimed ₹ 675 for travelling 90 km, how many kms did he travel by taxi? (L.I.C.A.A.O., 2007)

  1. 135
  2. 155
  3. 162
  4. 170

1129. In a party 15 people shake their hands with each other. How many times did the hand-shakes take place? (R.R.B., 2009)

  1. 105
  2. 120
  3. 135
  4. 165

1130. In a group of children, each child exchanges a gift with every other child. If the number of gifts is 132, then the number of children in the group is

  1. 10
  2. 11
  3. 12
  4. 13

1131. A man has 1044 candles. After burning, he can make a new candle from 9 stubs left behind. Find the maximum number of candles that can be made.

  1. 116
  2. 120
  3. 130
  4. 140

1132. A computer printed 176400 lines in a given day. If the printer was in operation for 7 hours during the day, how many lines did it print per minute?

  1. 280
  2. 360
  3. 420
  4. 440

1133. A man takes 8 minutes to type a page. If 1710 pages are to be typed in the afternoon between 1 o' clock to 2 o' clock, how many men are required? (R.R.B., 2009)

  1. 221
  2. 249
  3. 256
  4. None of these

1134. Ashu reads at an average rate of 30 pages per hour while Neeru reads at an average rate of 40 pages per hour. If Ashu starts reading a novel at 2: 30 and Neeru begins reading an identical copy of the same book at 3: 20, at what time will they be reading the same page?

  1. 5: 00
  2. 5: 50
  3. 6: 40
  4. 7: 00
  5. 7: 30

1135. In a test, a candidate secured 336 marks out of maximum marks x. If the maximum marks x had been converted into 400 marks, he would have secured 192 marks. What was the maximum marks of the test?

  1. 500
  2. 650
  3. 700
  4. 750
  5. 800

1136. The difference between the maximum and the minimum internal assessment scores is

  1. 3.3
  2. 4.8
  3. 6.6
  4. 7.4

1137. In an examination, a student scores 4 marks for every correct answer and loses 1 mark for every wrong answer. A student attempted all the 200 questions and scored in all 200 marks. The number of questions he answered correctly was (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 60
  2. 68
  3. 80
  4. 82

1138. On a 26 question test, five points were deducted for each wrong answer and eight points were credited for each correct answer. If all the questions were answered, how many were correct if the score was zero?

  1. 6
  2. 9
  3. 10
  4. 13

1139. In an examination, a student attempted 15 questions correctly and secured 40 marks. If there were two types of questions (2 marks and 4 marks questions), how many questions of 2 marks did he attempt correctly?

  1. 5
  2. 10
  3. 20
  4. 40

1140. In an examination there are 30 questions. 1 mark is given for each correct answer and 0.25 is deducted for every incorrect answer. Ankur attempted all the questions and scored 13.75. How many incorrect answers did he have? (XAT, 2009)

  1. 10
  2. 11
  3. 12
  4. 15
  5. None of these

1141. For aiming at a target a person gets one rupee each time when he hits it and loses one rupee when he misses it. If he gets ₹ 30 after aiming at the target one hundred times, then how many times did he miss the target? (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 25
  2. 35
  3. 40
  4. 45

1142. There are some cows, bulls and 45 hens in a group. One caretaker looks after 15 animals. The number of bulls is twice the number of cows. If the number of heads is less than the total number of feet by 186 (including the caretakers), how many caretakers are there?

  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 8
  4. 9
  5. None of these

1143. A man's basic pay for a 40 hours' week is ₹ 200. Overtime is paid at 25% above the basic rate. In a certain week, he worked overtime and his total was ₹ 300. He, therefore, worked for a total of (in hours) (L.I.C.A.A.O., 2007)

  1. 52
  2. 56
  3. 58
  4. 62

1144. In a regular week, there are 5 working days and for each day, the working hours are 8. A man gets ₹ 24 per hour for regular work and ₹ 32 per hour for overtime. If he earns ₹ 4320 in 4 weeks, then how many hours does he work for?

  1. 160
  2. 175
  3. 180
  4. 195

1145. David gets on the elevator at the 11th floor of a building and rides up at the rate of 57 floors per minute. At the same time, Albert gets on an elevator at the 51st floor of the same building and rides down at the rate of 63 floors per minute. If they continue travelling at these rates, then at which floor will their paths cross? (M.B.A., 2008)

  1. 19th
  2. 28th
  3. 30th
  4. 37th

1146. Mr. Shah decided to walk down the escalator of a tube station. He found that if he walks down 26 steps, he requires 30 seconds to reach the bottom. However, if he steps down 34 stairs he would only require 18 seconds to get to the bottom. If the time is measured from the moment the top step begins to descend to the time he steps off the last step at the bottom, find out the height of the stairway in steps.

  1. 42
  2. 46
  3. 52
  4. 54

1147. Mohan engaged a servant on the condition that he would pay him ₹ 200 and a uniform after 10 days. The servant served only for 5 days and got ₹ 20 and a uniform. Find the price of the uniform. (R.R.B. 2006)

  1. ₹ 80
  2. ₹ 120
  3. ₹ 140
  4. ₹ 160

1148. A labourer was engaged for 20 days on the condition that he will receive ₹ 60 for each day he works and he will be fined ₹ 5 for each day he is absent. If he received ₹ 745 in all, then the number of days on which he remained absent is

  1. 3
  2. 5
  3. 7
  4. 9

1149. The taxi charges in a city comprise of a fixed charge, together with the charge of the distance covered. For a j ourney of 16 km, the charges paid are ₹ 156 and for a journey of 24 km, the charges paid are ₹ 204. What will a person have to pay for travelling a distance of 30 km?

  1. ₹ 236
  2. ₹ 240
  3. ₹ 248
  4. ₹ 252

1150. M men agree to purchase a gift for ₹ D. If three men drop out how much more will each have to contribute towards the purchase of the gift?

  1. 3− D M
  2. 3 MD
  3. 3− M D
  4. 2 3 –3 D MM

1151. N number of persons decided to raise ₹ 3 lakhs by equal contributions from each. Had they contributed ₹ 50 each extra, the contribution would have been ₹ 3.25 lakhs. How many persons are there?

  1. 400
  2. 450
  3. 600
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1152. Each boy contributed rupees equal to the number of girls and each girl contributed rupees equal to the number of boys in a class of 60 students. If the total contribution thus collected is ₹ 1600, how many boys are there in the class? (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 25
  2. 30
  3. 50
  4. Data inadequate

1153. Eight people are planning to share equally the cost of a rental car. If one person withdraws from the arrangement and the others share equally the entire cost of the car, then the share of each of the remain - ing persons increased by

  1. 1 7
  2. 1 8
  3. 1 9
  4. 7 8

1154. A person on tour has ₹ 360 for his daily expenses. If he extends his tour for 4 days, he has to cut his daily expenses by ₹ 3. Find the original duration of the tour.

  1. 15 days
  2. 20 days
  3. 24 days
  4. 30 days

1155. Some students planned a picnic. The budget for food was ₹ 500. But, 5 of them failed to go and thus the cost of food for each member increased by ₹ 5. How many students attended the picnic? (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 15
  2. 20
  3. 25
  4. 30

1156. A class decided to have a party at a total cost of ₹ 720. Four students decided to stay out of the party. To meet the expenses the remaining students had to increase their share by ₹ 9. What is the original cost per student? (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. ₹ 18
  2. ₹ 20
  3. ₹ 24
  4. ₹ 36

1157. A group of boys decided to buy a few CDs whose total price was between ₹ 200 and ₹ 250. But at the time of purchase, two of the boys declined to con - tribute as a result of which the remaining boys had to pay Re 1 more than they had originally planned. What was the price of the CDs if the boys contributed equally and in whole number of rupees?

  1. ₹ 210
  2. ₹ 220
  3. ₹ 230
  4. ₹ 240

1158. Rahul owes ₹ X and gives a ₹ 50 note in payment. He receives the following change : 3 X fifty-paise coins, 14 ten-paise coins and 4 X five-paise coins. X is equal to:

  1. 12
  2. 16
  3. 18
  4. 22

1159. A total of 324 coins of 20 paise and 25 paise make a sum of ₹ 71. The number of 25-paise coins is

  1. 120
  2. 124
  3. 144
  4. 200

1160. A man has one-rupee, 5-rupee and 10-rupee currency notes of worth ₹ 480. If the number of notes of each denomination be same, then the total number of notes will be (R.R.B., 2007)

  1. 45
  2. 60
  3. 75
  4. 90

1161. The total value of a collection of coins of denominations Re 1, 50-paise, 25-paise, 10-paise and 5-paise is ₹ 380. If the number of coins of each denomination is the same, then the number of one-rupee coins is

  1. 160
  2. 180
  3. 200
  4. 220

1162. A bag contains three types of coins — 1-rupee coins, 50 p-coins and 25 p-coins totalling 175 coins. If the total value of the coins of each kind be the same, the total amount in the bag is

  1. ₹ 75
  2. ₹ 126
  3. ₹ 175
  4. ₹ 300

1163. In a box, there are a certain number of coins which amount to ₹ 25. There are 2-rupee coins, 50-paise coins and 25-paise coins. If there are at least one 2-rupee coin, two 50-paise coins and two 25-paise coins, then what could be the minimum number of coins in the box?

  1. 12
  2. 14
  3. 16
  4. 18

1164. How many children took exactly one ride?

  1. 5
  2. 10
  3. 15
  4. 20

1165. How many children did not try any of the rides?

  1. 5
  2. 10
  3. 15
  4. 20

1166. In a class of 50 students, 25 take Bengali, 16 take Hindi, 12 students take no language. How many take both Bengali and Hindi? (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 9
  4. 13

1167. Out of 100 students in a class, 60 take tea, 40 take coffee and 25 take both. The number of students not taking either tea or coffee is (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 25
  2. 28
  3. 30
  4. 32

1168. In a class of 25 students, 12 have taken Mathematics, 8 have taken Mathematics but not Biology. The number of students who have taken both Mathematics and Biology is (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 4
  2. 8
  3. 24
  4. 36

1169. In a group of 52 persons, 16 drink tea but not coffee and 33 drink tea. How many drink coffee but not tea? (M.B.A., 2008)

  1. 3
  2. 7
  3. 17
  4. 19

1170. In a town with population of 4000, 3000 people are egg eaters, 2000 meat eaters and 1500 eat both eggs and meat. How many are pure vegetarians?

  1. 400
  2. 500
  3. 1000
  4. 1500

1171. There are 50 students admitted to a nursery class. Some students can speak only English and some can speak only Hindi. Ten students can speak both English and Hindi. If the number of students who can speak English is 21, then how many students can speak Hindi, how many can speak only Hindi and how many can speak only English?

  1. 21, 11 and 29 respectively
  2. 28, 18 and 22 respectively
  3. 37, 27 and 13 respectively
  4. 39, 29 and 11 respectively

1172. In an office, 3 4 of the staff can neither type nor take shorthand. However, 1 5 th can type and 1 rd3 can take shorthand. What part of the whole staff can do both?

  1. 1 5
  2. 3 40
  3. 13 40
  4. 17 60

1173. In a group of players in a college, 20 are in the basketball team, 24 in the hockey team and 27 in the cricket team. If 12 play hockey and basketball, 10 play cricket and basketball, 14 play hockey and cricket and 7 play all the three games, then the total number of players in the group is

  1. 42
  2. 43
  3. 45
  4. 49

1174. In the cinema set of a movie, 125 mechanical aliens were created. Some of these aliens had peculiar features. 40 had two noses, 30 had three legs, 20 had four ears, 10 had two noses and three legs, 12 had three legs and four ears, 5 had two noses and four ears and 3 had all the three unusual features. How many were there without any of these unusual features?

  1. 5
  2. 35
  3. 80
  4. None of these

1175. How many children play football as well as cricket?

  1. 4
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. 15
  5. None of these

1176. In all, how many children play badminton?

  1. 12
  2. 13
  3. 14
  4. 17
  5. None of these

1177. In all, how many children play football?

  1. 8
  2. 14
  3. 15
  4. 17
  5. None of these

1178. How many children play badminton as well as cricket?

  1. 4
  2. 6
  3. 9
  4. 10
  5. None of these

1179. Total how many children are there in the class?

  1. 31
  2. 33
  3. 35
  4. 36
  5. None of these

1180. A survey on a sample of 25 new cars being sold at a local auto dealer was conducted to see which of the three popular options – air-conditioning, radio and power windows – were already installed. (M.A.T., 2006) The survey found: 15 had air-conditioning 2 had air-conditioning and power windows but not radios 12 had radio 6 had air-conditioning and radio but no power-windows 11 had power-windows 4 had radio and power windows 3 had all three options What is the number of cars that had none of the options?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

1181. In a class of 50 students, 23 speak English, 15 speak Hindi and 18 speak Punjabi. 3 speak only English and Hindi, 6 speak only Hindi and Punjabi and 6 speak only English and Punjabi. If 9 speak only English, then how many speak all the three ?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 5

1182. In a hospital, there were 200 Diabetes, 150 Hyperglycaemia and 150 Gastro-enteritis patients. Of these, 80 patients were treated for both Diabetes and Hyperglycaemia. Sixty patients were treated for Gastro-enteritis and Hyperglycaemia, while 70 were treated for Diabetes and Gastro-enteritis. Some of these patients have all the three diseases. Doctor Dennis treats patients with only Diabetes. Doctor Hormis treats patients with only Hyperglycaemia and Doctor Gerard treats patients with only Gastro-enteritis. Doctor Paul is a Generalist. Therefore, he can treat patients with multiple diseases. Patients always prefer a specialist for their disease. If Dr. Dennis had 80 patients, then the other three doctors can be arranged in terms of the number of patients treated as

  1. Paul > Hormis > Gerard
  2. Gerard > Paul > Hormis
  3. Paul > Gerard > Hormis
  4. None of these

1183. In a joint family of 18 members, 10 take milk, 8 take tea and 6 take coffee; 5 take milk as well as tea but none takes milk and coffee. The number of members who take tea as well as coffee is

  1. None
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3

1184. Find the number of members reading Hindi newspaper.

  1. 750
  2. 980
  3. 1000
  4. 1020
  5. None of these

1185. How many members read only one newspaper?

  1. 1540
  2. 1560
  3. 1640
  4. 1650
  5. None of these

1186. Find the number of members reading no newspaper.

  1. 150
  2. 460
  3. 550
  4. 750
  5. None of these

1187. How many members read at least two newspapers?

  1. 500
  2. 600
  3. 800
  4. 1000
  5. None of these

1188. Find the difference between the number of members reading English as well as Marathi newspaper and the number of members reading English as well as Hindi newspaper.

  1. 50
  2. 100
  3. 200
  4. 300
  5. None of these

1189. In a garrison, there was some pilferage of ration everyday. If the pilferage was 12 kg a day, the ration would have lasted for 75 days. If the pilferage was restricted to 8 kg per day, the ration would have lasted for 90 days. For how many days would the ration have lasted, if there was no pilferage?

  1. 105
  2. 120
  3. 150
  4. 180

1190. Two candles having the same lengths are such that one burns out completely in 3 hours at a uniform rate and the other in 4 hours. At what time should both the candles be lighted together so that at 4 P.M. the length of one is twice the length of the other?

  1. 1: 24 P.M.
  2. 1: 30 P.M.
  3. 1: 36 P.M.
  4. 1: 42 P.M.

1191. A man purchased 40 fruits – apples and oranges – for ₹ 17. Had he purchased as many oranges as apples and as many apples as oranges, he would have paid ₹ 15. Find the cost of one pair of an apple and an orange. (SNAP, 2007)

  1. 60 paise
  2. 70 paise
  3. 80 paise
  4. 1 rupee

1192. A buyer purchased few books of equal value for a total cost of ₹ 720. If the value of each were ₹ 2 less than the price at which the buyer originally bought, she could have purchased 4 more books than what she had bought. How many books did she originally purchase? (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 18
  2. 20
  3. 34
  4. 36

1193. A small confectioner bought a certain number of pastries flavoured pineapple, mango and black-forest from the bakery, giving for each pastry as many rupees as there were pastry of that kind; altogether he bought 23 pastries and spent ₹ 211. Find the number of each kind of pastry that he bought, if mango pastry is cheaper than pineapple pastry and dearer than black-forest pastry. (I.I.F.T., 2010)

  1. (10, 9, 4)
  2. (11, 9, 3)
  3. (10, 8, 5)
  4. (11, 8, 4)

1194. One test tube contains some acid and another test tube contains an equal quantity of water. To prepare a solution, 20 grams of the acid is poured into the second test tube. The n, two-thirds of the so-formed solution is poured from the second tube into the first. If the fluid in first test tube is four times that in the second, what quantity of water was taken initially? (M.A.T. 2009; N.M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 40 grams
  2. 60 grams
  3. 80 grams
  4. 100 grams

1195. One bottle is half-full of milk and another bottle with twice the capacity is one-quarter full of milk. If water is added so that both the bottles are full and the contents of both are then poured into a third bottle that is empty and large enough to hold the contents of both, what fraction of the contents in the third bottle is milk?

  1. 1 4
  2. 1 3
  3. 2 3
  4. 3 8

1196. A train started with 540 passengers. At the first stop 1 9 of them got down and 24 got up. On its second stop 1 8 of the passengers then existing got down and 9 got up. With how many passengers did it reach the third stop? (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 450
  2. 500
  3. 540
  4. 550

1197. A train started from a station with a certain number of passengers. At the first halt, half of the passengers got down and 125 passengers got in. At the second halt, half of the passengers left and 100 entered. Then the train left for its destination with 250 passengers. The number of passengers in the train at the start was

  1. 250
  2. 350
  3. 450
  4. 550

1198. The total number of digits used in numbering the pages of a book having 366 pages, is (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 732
  2. 990
  3. 1098
  4. 1305

1199. A printer numbers the pages of a book starting with 1 and uses 3189 digits in all. How many pages does the book have?

  1. 1000
  2. 1074
  3. 1075
  4. 1080

1200. I n a class, there are two sections A and B. If 10 students of section B shift over to section A, the strength of A becomes three times the strength of B. But if 10 students shift over from A to B, both A and B become equal in strength. How many students are there in sections A and B? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 80, 40
  2. 90, 40
  3. 45, 15
  4. 50, 30

1201. Recently my brother and I played chess for chocolates. Whoever lost the game gave the other a chocolate. After the last game we counted the chocolates. I had 20 more chocolates than I started with, although he won 7 games. There were no draws. How many games did we play?

  1. 27
  2. 34
  3. 37
  4. 54

1202. Robin says, "If Jai gives me ₹ 40, he will have half as much as Atul, but if Atul gives me ₹ 40, then the three of us will have the same amount." What is the total amount of money that Robin, Jai and Atul have between them?

  1. ₹ 240
  2. ₹ 320
  3. ₹ 360
  4. ₹ 420

1203. A, B, C and D play a game of cards. A says to B, "If I give you 8 cards, you will have as many as C has and I shall have 3 less than what C has. Also, if I take 6 cards from C, I shall have twice as many as D has." If B and D together have 50 cards, how many cards has A got?

  1. 23
  2. 27
  3. 37
  4. 40

1204. A, B, C, D and E play a game of cards. A says to B, "If you give me 3 cards, you will have as many as E has and if I give you 3 cards, you will have as many as D has." A and B together have 10 cards more than what D and E together have. If B has 2 cards more than what C has and the total number of cards be 133, how many cards does B have?

  1. 22
  2. 23
  3. 25
  4. 35

1205. A gives B as many rupees as B has and C as many rupees as C has. Similarly, B then gives A and C as many rupees as each then has. C, similarly, then gives A and B as many rupees as each then has. If each finally has ₹ 16, with how many rupees does A start? (M.B.A., 2010)

  1. 26
  2. 28
  3. 30
  4. 32

1206. Iqbal dealt some cards to Mushtaq and himself from a pack of playing cards and laid the rest aside. Iqbal then said to Mushtaq, “If you give me a certain num- ber of your cards, I will have four times as many cards as you have. If I give you the same number of cards, I will have thrice as many cards as you.” How many cards did Iqbal have?

  1. 9
  2. 12
  3. 31
  4. 35
  5. None of these

1207. While out on picnic, a group of boys came upon an apple tree. One of the boys climbed the tree and picked enough apples for each boy to have three, with none left over. Then along came three boys, making it impossible to divide the picked apples evenly. However, after picking one more apple and adding it to the total, every boy had two apples, with none left over. How many apples were finally divided?

  1. 10
  2. 12
  3. 16
  4. 18

1208. A teacher bought a certain number of friendship bands for the students in the classroom for Friendship Day celebrations. Each student gives a friendship band to every other student. However, on the Friendship Day, 2 students were absent as a result of which 122 friendship bands were not utilized. But one out of the two absent students came late. Find the number of friendship bands which finally remained unutilized.

  1. 57
  2. 59
  3. 62
  4. 64

1209. Reena bought chocolates to distribute among her friends on her 18th birthday. If she gives 3 chocolates to each friend, one friend will get only 2 chocolates. Also, if she gives 2 chocolates to each friend, she will be left with 15 chocolates. How many chocolates did she buy?

  1. 44
  2. 47
  3. 50
  4. None of these

1210. A certain organisation has three committees. Only two persons are members of all committees, but every pair of committees have three members in common. What is the least possible number of members on any one committee?

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. None of these

1211. In a certain game, each player scores either 2 points or 5 points. If n players score 2 points and m players score 5 points, and the total number of points scored is 50, what is the least possible difference between m and n?

  1. 1
  2. 3
  3. 5
  4. 7

1212. A school has to buy at least 15 chairs within a budgetary ceiling of ₹ 2000. A chair with arms costs ₹ 160 and one without arms costs ₹ 100. What is the maximum number of chairs with arms that the school can buy?

  1. 7
  2. 8
  3. 9
  4. 12

1213. On Monday, a certain animal shelter housed 55 cats and dogs. By Friday, exactly 1 5 of the cats and 1 4 of the dogs had been adopted; no new cats or dogs were brought to the shelter during this period. What is the greatest possible number of pets that could have been adopted from the animal shelter between Monday and Friday?

  1. 11
  2. 12
  3. 13
  4. 14

1214. Out of two-thirds of the total number of basketball matches, a team has won 17 matches and lost 3 of them. What is the maximum number of matches that the team can lose and still win more than three-fourth of the total number of matches if it is true that no match can end in a tie?

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

1215. Manick visited his cousin Aniket during the summer vacation. In the mornings, they both would go for swimming. In the evenings, they would play tennis. They would engage in at most one activity per day i.e., either they went swimming or played tennis each day. There were days when they took rest and stayed home all day long. There were 32 mornings when they did nothing, 18 evenings when they stayed at home, and a total of 28 days when they swam or played tennis. What duration of the summer vacation did Manick stay with Aniket? (M.B.A. 2011)

  1. 36 days
  2. 39 days
  3. 46 days
  4. 58 days

1216. 10 cows can graze in a field for 15 days and 20 cows can graze in the same field for 10 days. For how many days can 30 cows graze in the field?

  1. 5 days
  2. 17 days2
  3. 27 days3
  4. 18 days3
  5. Cannot be determined

1217. Grass in a lawn grows equally thick and at a uniform rate. It takes 24 days for 70 cows and 60 days for 30 cows to eat the whole of the grass. How many cows are needed to eat the grass in 96 days?

  1. 18
  2. 20
  3. 24
  4. 36
  5. None of these

1218. The number of lakes in the holy city is

  1. 4
  2. 6
  3. 8
  4. 10

1219. The number of pilgrims in the group is

  1. 4
  2. 6
  3. 8
  4. 10

1220. From a number of apples, a man sells half the number of existing apples plus 1 to the first customer, sells 1 rd3 of the remaining apples plus 1 to the second customer and 1 th5 of the remaining apples plus 1 to the third customer. He then finds that he has 3 apples left. How many apples did he have originally?

  1. 15
  2. 18
  3. 20
  4. 25

1221. Ravi has two examinations on Wednesday – Engineering Mathematics in the morning and Engineering Drawing in the afternoon. He has a fixed amount of time to read the textbooks of both these subjects on Tuesday. During this time he can read 80 pages of Engineering Mathematics and 100 pages of Engineering Drawing. Alternatively, he can also read 50 pages of Engineering Mathematics and 250 pages of Engineering Drawing. Assume that the amount of time it takes to read one page of the textbook of either subject is constant. Ravi is confident about Engineering Drawing and wants to devote full time to reading Engineering Mathematics. The number of Engineering Mathematics text book pages he can read on Tuesday is (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. 60
  2. 100
  3. 300
  4. 500

1222. Rohan went to the post-office to buy five-rupee, two- rupee and one-rupee stamps. He paid the clerk ₹ 20, and since he had no change, he gave Rohan three more one-rupee stamps. If the number of stamps of each type that he had ordered initially was more than one, what was the total number of stamps that he bought?

  1. 8
  2. 9
  3. 10
  4. 12

1223. Aditya went to a stationery shop to buy some Parker pens. Gel pens cost ₹ 300 each while fountain pens cost ₹ 400 each. Aditya spent a total of ₹ 3600 on pens. If he had bought as many fountain pens as the number of gel pens he actually bought and vice versa, he would have saved an amount equal to half the cost of one pen of one of the two types. Find the total number of pens he bought.

  1. 8
  2. 9
  3. 10
  4. 12

1224. If Roopa leaves home with 30 flowers, the number of flowers she offers to each deity is

  1. 30
  2. 31
  3. 32
  4. 33

1225. The minimum number of flowers that could be offered to each deity is

  1. 0
  2. 15
  3. 16
  4. Cannot be determined

1226. The minimum number of flowers with which Roopa leaves home is

  1. 0
  2. 15
  3. 16
  4. Cannot be determined

1227. The owner of a local jewellery store hired 3 watch - men to guard his diamonds, but a thief still got in and stole some diamonds. On the way out the thief met each watchman, one at a time. To each he gave 1 2 of the diamonds he had then, and 2 more besides. He escaped with one diamond. How many did he steal originally?

  1. 25
  2. 36
  3. 40
  4. None of these

1228. Three friends returning from a movie, stopped to eat at a restaurant. After dinner , they paid their bill and noticed a bowl of mints, at the front counter. Divya took 1 3 of the mints, but returned four because she had a momentary pang of guilt. Reema then took one-fourth of what was left but returned three for similar reasons. Shweta then took half of the remainder but threw two back into the bowl. The bowl had only 17 mints left when the raid was over. How many mints were originally in the bowl?

  1. 31
  2. 38
  3. 41
  4. None of these

1229. At a stationery shop it costs ₹ 185 for 4 gel-pens, 8 ball-point pens and one marker pen and ₹ 315 for 7 gel-p ens, 15 ball-point pens and one marker pen. Then what would be the cost of one gel-pen, one ball-point pen and one marker pen?

  1. ₹ 45
  2. ₹ 55
  3. ₹ 60
  4. ₹ 70

1230. In a cricket match, Team A scored 232 runs without losing a wicket. The score consisted of byes, wides and runs scored by two opening batsmen, Ram and Shyam. The runs scored by the two batsmen are 26 times wides. There are 8 more byes than wides. If the ratio of runs scored by Ram and Shyam is 6: 7, then the runs scored by Ram is (M.B.A., 2008)

  1. 88
  2. 96
  3. 102
  4. 112
  5. None of these

1231. Balls are arranged in rows to form an equilateral triangle. The first row consists of one ball, the second row consists of two balls and so on. If 669 more balls are added, then all the balls can be arranged in the shape of a square and each of the sides then contains 8 balls less than each side of the triangle had. The initial number of balls is

  1. 1500
  2. 1540
  3. 1600
  4. 1690

1232. What was the number of crates shifted on the third day?

  1. 26
  2. 137
  3. 152
  4. 169
  5. None of these

1233. What was the number of men on the fifth day?

  1. 1
  2. 7
  3. 13
  4. 19
  5. None of these

1234. 20 8 0.5 12.20 ? +× =− Find the value in place of (?) [Indian Railway Group ‘D’ Exam, 2014]

  1. 2
  2. 8
  3. 18
  4. None of these

1235. If 2ab ba+= , then the value of

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. –1
  4. 0

1236. 24.962 ÷ (34.11 ÷ 20.05) + 67.96 – 89.11 = ? [IBPS—Bank Spl. Officers (IT) Exam, 2015]

  1. 884
  2. 346
  3. 252
  4. 424
  5. 366

1237. If 1 1 xa xb + =− and 1 1 y b ya − =+ , then the value of 1 xy xy − + is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 22 2ab ab −
  2. 22 2 ab ab −
  3. 22 2 ab ab +
  4. 22ab ab −

1238. 200 ÷ 25 × 4 + 12 – 3 = ? [United India Insurance Co. Ltd. (UIICL) Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 35
  2. 40
  3. 30
  4. 41
  5. 50

1239. 14 × 627 ÷ ( )31089 ? 141=+ [IDBI Bank Executive Officers Exam, 2015]

  1. 55
  2. (125) 3
  3. 25
  4. 5
  5. None of these

1240. Evaluate: (923 – 347) / ? = 32 [NICL—AAO Exam, 2015]

  1. 35
  2. 20
  3. 18
  4. 15
  5. 40

1241. 1559.95 – 7.99 × 24.96 – ? 2 = 1154 [IBPS Bank PO/MT (Pre.) Exam, 2015]

  1. 14
  2. 24
  3. 32
  4. 18
  5. 8

1242. Solve 41 20 280 25 ?5 +− ÷= [IBPS—RRB Office Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 8 1 5
  2. 9 1 2
  3. 11 1 2
  4. 10 3 5
  5. 12 1 5

1243. ((64 – 38) × 4) ÷ 13 = ? [IBPS—RRB Office Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 4
  2. 1
  3. 8
  4. 2
  5. 5

1244. If x + y = 2 a then the value of aa xa ya+−− is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 2
  2. 0
  3. –1
  4. 1

1245. 421 ÷ 35 × 299.97 ÷ 25.05 = ? 2 [IBPS—Bank PO/MT Exam, 2015]

  1. 22
  2. 24
  3. 28
  4. 12
  5. 18

1246. 19.99 × 15.98 + 224.98 + 125.02 = ? [IBPS—Bank PO/MT Exam, 2015]

  1. 620
  2. 580
  3. 670
  4. 560
  5. 520

1247. 3625 × ? = 1450 [United India Insurance (UIICL) Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 1 3
  2. 2 5
  3. 1 5
  4. 4 5
  5. 3 5

1248. Solve: 128.43 + 30.21 + ? = 173 [NICL—AAO Exam, 2015]

  1. 35.66
  2. 29.66
  3. 43.66
  4. 24.66
  5. 14.36

1249. Evaluate :123 × 999 + 123

  1. 246999
  2. 123000
  3. 246000
  4. 123999 [ESIC—UDC Exam, 2016]

1250. Simplify ( ) ( )22359 256 359 256 359 359 256 256 + +− ×+× [ESIC—UDC Exam, 2016]

  1. 1089
  2. 615
  3. 516
  4. 2

1251. 84368 + 65466 – 72009 – 13964 = ? [SBI—Jr. Associates (Pre.) Exam, 2016]

  1. 61481
  2. 62921
  3. 63861
  4. 64241
  5. None of these

1252. Solve 4376 + 3209 – 1784 + 97 = 3125 + ? [SBI—Jr. Associates (Pre.) Exam, 2016]

  1. 2713
  2. 2743
  3. 2773
  4. 2793
  5. 2737

1253. Solve ( ) ( )314 627 1089 ? 141×÷ = + [IBPS—Bank Spl. Officer (Marketing) Exam, 2016]

  1. 55
  2. (125) 3
  3. 25
  4. 5
  5. None of these

1254. If 1 3,x x  += then  + 2 2 1x x is [UPSSSC—Lower Subordinate (Pre.) Exam, 2016]

  1. 10 3
  2. 82 9
  3. 7
  4. 11

1255. If x + y + z = 0, then, x3 + y3 + z3 + 3 xyz is equal to [CDS 2016]

  1. 0
  2. 6 xyz
  3. 12 xyz
  4. xyz

1256. What is the remainder when 4 96 is divided by 6? [CDS 2016]

  1. 4
  2. 3
  3. 2
  4. 1

1257. 53824 ?=

  1. 202
  2. 232
  3. 242
  4. 332

1258. The square root of 41209 is equal to (L.I.C.A.D.O., 2008)

  1. 103
  2. 203
  3. 303
  4. 403

1259. The square root of 123454321 is (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 111111
  2. 12341
  3. 11111
  4. 11211

1260. The number of digits in the square root of 625685746009 is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 7

1261. 17956 24025 ?+=

  1. 19
  2. 155
  3. 256
  4. 289
  5. None of these

1262. 44944 52441 ?+=

  1. 17
  2. 312
  3. 441
  4. 485
  5. None of these

1263. One-fourth of the sum of prime numbers, greater than 4 but less than 16, is the square of (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 7

1264. The value of 10 25 108 154 225+ +++ is

  1. 4
  2. 6
  3. 8
  4. 10

1265. Evaluate 41 21 19 9 .−+−

  1. 3
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 6.4

1266. 176 2401+ is equal to

  1. 14
  2. 15
  3. 18
  4. 24

1267. 196 441 120 ?77 225 ×× = (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 48
  2. 54
  3. 58
  4. 84

1268. 225 25 16 ?729 144 81  − ÷=

  1. 1 48
  2. 5 48
  3. 5 16
  4. None of these

1269. (15)2 + (18) 2 – 20 = ?

  1. 22
  2. 23
  3. 529
  4. 279841
  5. None of these

1270. ? 484 1034×= (L.I.C.A.D.O., 2007)

  1. 2025
  2. 2209
  3. 2304
  4. 2401
  5. None of these

1271. 11881 ? 10137×=

  1. 8281
  2. 8649
  3. 9216
  4. 9409
  5. None of these

1272. In the equation 4050 450, x = the value of x is (L.I.C.A.D.O., 2008)

  1. 9
  2. 49
  3. 81
  4. 100

1273. 16 ? 16 256 25 25 25 625× ×= (R.R.B. 2008)

  1. 5
  2. 8
  3. 16
  4. None of these

1274. The square root of (272 2 – 128 2) is

  1. 144
  2. 200
  3. 240
  4. 256

1275. If x * y = ,x y xy++ the value of 6 * 24 is

  1. 41
  2. 42
  3. 43
  4. 44

1276. If y = 5, then what is the value of 3210 ?yy y −

  1. 50 2
  2. 100
  3. 200 5
  4. 500

1277. 1110 ?4 =

  1. 10.25
  2. 10.5
  3. 11.5
  4. 19.5

1278. 25 1 ?81 9−= (Hotel Management, 2002)

  1. 2 3
  2. 4 9
  3. 16 81
  4. 25 81

1279. 222( 81) (?) = (Specialist Officers, 2006)

  1. 8
  2. 9
  3. 4096
  4. 6561
  5. None of these

1280. The digit in the unit’s place in the square root of 15876 is

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 8

1281. Which of the following is closest to 3? (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 1.69
  2. 173 100
  3. 1.75
  4. 9 5

1282. How many two-digit numbers satisfy this property: The last digit (unit’s digit) of the square of the two-digit number is 8?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. None of these

1283. What percentage of the numbers from 1 to 50 have squares that end in the digit 1? (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 1
  2. 5
  3. 10
  4. 11
  5. 20

1284. While solving a mathematical problem, Samidha squared a number and then subtracted 25 from it rather than the required i.e., first subtracting 25 from the number and then squaring it. But she got the right answer. What was the given number?

  1. 13
  2. 38
  3. 48
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1285. How many perfect squares lie between 120 and 300? (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. 8

1286. The number of perfect square numbers between 50 and 1000 is

  1. 21
  2. 22
  3. 23
  4. 24 (Section Officers’, 2003)

1287. A man born in the first half of the nineteenth century was x years old in the year x2. He was born in (M.B.A., 2011)

  1. 1806
  2. 1812
  3. 1825
  4. 1836

1288. R is a positive number. It is multiplied by 8 and then squared. The square is now divided by 4 and the square root is taken. The result of the square root is Q. What is the value of Q? (SNAP, 2010)

  1. 3R
  2. 4R
  3. 7 R
  4. 9 R

1289. The smallest natural number which is a perfect square and which ends in 3 identical digits lies between

  1. 1000 and 2000
  2. 2000 and 3000
  3. 3000 and 4000
  4. 4000 and 5000

1290. 212 2  + is equal to (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 12 2
  2. 13 2
  3. 14 2
  4. 15 2

1291. If the product of four consecutive natural numbers increased by a natural number p, is a perfect square, then the value of p is

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 8

1292. What is the square root of 0.16?

  1. 0.004
  2. 0.04
  3. 0.4
  4. 4

1293. The value of 0.000441 is (S.S.C., 2002)

  1. 0.00021
  2. 0.0021
  3. 0.021
  4. 0.21

1294. 0.00004761 equals

  1. 0.00069
  2. 0.0069
  3. 0.0609
  4. 0.069

1295. 21.5 0.0225 ?×=

  1. 0.0375
  2. 0.3375
  3. 3.275
  4. 32.75

1296. 0.01 0.0064 ?+=

  1. 0.03
  2. 0.3
  3. 0.42
  4. None of these

1297. The value of +++0.01 0.81 1.21 0.0009 is (S.S.C., 2002)

  1. 2.03
  2. 2.1
  3. 2.11
  4. 2.13

1298. .0025 2.25 .0001 ?×× =

  1. .000075
  2. .0075
  3. .075
  4. None of these

1299. 1.5625 ?= (S.B.I.P.O., 2003)

  1. 1.05
  2. 1.25
  3. 1.45
  4. 1.55

1300. If .00000676 .0026,= the square root of 67,60,000 is:

  1. 1 26
  2. 26
  3. 260
  4. 2600

1301. If 18225 135,= then the value of ++ +( 182.25 1.8225 0.018225 0.00018225) is

  1. 1.49985
  2. 14.9985
  3. 149.985
  4. 1499.85

1302. If 4096 64,= then the value of 40.96 0.4096 0.004096 0.00004096++ + up to two places of decimals is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 7.09
  2. 7.10
  3. 7.11
  4. 7.12

1303. Given that 13 3.605 and 130= =11.40, find the value of 1.3 1300+ 0.013.+

  1. 36.164
  2. 36.304
  3. 37.164
  4. 37.304

1304. If 52 169 ,289x = the value of x is

  1. 52
  2. 58
  3. 62
  4. 68

1305. For what value of * the statement ** 15 135         = 1 is true? (S.S.C., 2002)

  1. 15
  2. 25
  3. 35
  4. 45

1306. Which number should replace both the question marks in the following equation?

  1. 343
  2. 414
  3. 644
  4. 543
  5. None of these

1307. Which number can replace both the question marks in the equation 14 ?2 .? 32=

  1. 1
  2. 7
  3. 17 2
  4. None of these

1308. What should come in place of both the question marks in the equation ? 162 .?128 =

  1. 12
  2. 14
  3. 144
  4. 196

1309. If ,xxxx yy+= where x and y are positive real numbers, then y is equal to (Hotel Mgmt, 2010)

  1. x + 1
  2. x – 1
  3. x2 + 1
  4. x2 – 1

1310. The number 25 64 × 64 25 is the square of a natural number n. The sum of the digits of n is

  1. 7
  2. 14
  3. 21
  4. 28

1311. If 0.13 ÷ p2 = 13, then p equals

  1. 0.01
  2. 0.1
  3. 10
  4. 100

1312. What number should be divided by 0.25 to give the result as 25?

  1. 12.5
  2. 25
  3. 50
  4. 125

1313. If 3n = 729, then the value of n is (Section Officers, 2003)

  1. 6
  2. 8
  3. 10
  4. 12

1314. If 18 14 x×× = 84, then x equals

  1. 22
  2. 24
  3. 28
  4. 32

1315. 328 ? 1426 4+= of 2872

  1. 576
  2. 676
  3. 1296
  4. 1444

1316. ? 54 169 39=

  1. 108
  2. 324
  3. 2916
  4. 4800

1317. If 441x ÷ = 0.02, then the value of x is

  1. 0.1764
  2. 1.764
  3. 1.64
  4. 2.64

1318. .0196 0.2? =

  1. 0.49
  2. 0.7
  3. 4.9
  4. None of these

1319. 0.0169 ? 1.3×= (Hotel Management, 2001)

  1. 10
  2. 100
  3. 1000
  4. None of these

1320. If 1369 .0615 x++ = 37.25, then x is equal to

  1. 10 – 1
  2. 10– 2
  3. 10 – 3
  4. None of these

1321. If ( 1) ( 2) 7,xy− += x and y being positive whole numbers, then the values of x and y respectively are

  1. 8, 5
  2. 15, 12
  3. 22, 19
  4. None of these

1322. If ×× = ××.04 .4 .004 .4 , then is aab b

  1. 16 × 10 – 3
  2. 16 × 10 – 4
  3. 16 × 10 – 5
  4. None of these

1323. Three-fifth of the square of a certain number is 126.15. What is the number?

  1. 14.5
  2. 75.69
  3. 145
  4. 210.25

1324. 0.361 ?0.00169 =

  1. 1.9 13
  2. 19 13
  3. 1.9 130
  4. 190 13

1325. 48.4 0.289 is equal to (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. 5117
  2. 112 17
  3. 1612 17
  4. 7129 17

1326. If 141, 169 13 x+= then x is equal to

  1. 1
  2. 13
  3. 27
  4. None of these

1327. 551 1,729 27 x+ =+ then the value of x is

  1. 1
  2. 3
  3. 5
  4. 7

1328. 43–?34 = (R.R.B., 2005)

  1. 43 6
  2. 1 23
  3. 1
  4. 1– 23

1329. The value of 2 upto three places of decimal is

  1. 1.410
  2. 1.412
  3. 1.413
  4. 1.414

1330. (2 27 75 12)−+ is equal to

  1. 3
  2. 23
  3. 33
  4. 43

1331. By how much does 12 18 exceed 3 2 ?++

  1. 2 43−
  2. 3 22+
  3. 2( 3 2)−
  4. 3( 3 2)−

1332. 24 216 ? 96 + =

  1. 26
  2. 2
  3. 62
  4. 2 6

1333. The value of 80 112 45 63 − − is

  1. 3 4
  2. 11 3
  3. 71 9
  4. 31 4

1334. If 3 5 125 17.88,+= then what will be the value of 80 6 5 ?+

  1. 13.41
  2. 20.46
  3. 21.66
  4. 22.35

1335. ×50 98 is equal to

  1. 63.75
  2. 65.95
  3. 70
  4. 70.25

1336. Given 2 1.414.= The value of 8 2 32 3 128 4 50+− + is: (S.S.C., 2003)

  1. 8.426
  2. 8.484
  3. 8.526
  4. 8.876

1337. The approximate value of 3 12 2 21 2 28 98 ÷ is (Section Officers, 2003)

  1. 1.0605
  2. 1.0727
  3. 1.6007
  4. 1.6026

1338. 110.25 0.01 0.0025 – 420.25×÷ equals (SNAP, 2010)

  1. 0.50
  2. 0.64
  3. 0.73
  4. 0.75

1339. .081 .484 .0064 6.25 × × is equal to

  1. 0.9
  2. 0.99
  3. 9
  4. 99

1340. 0.204 42 0.07 3.4 × × is equal to

  1. 1 6
  2. 0.06
  3. 0.6
  4. 6

1341. 0.081 0.324 4.624 1.5625 0.0289 72.9 64 ×× × ×× is equal to

  1. 0.024
  2. 0.24
  3. 2.4
  4. 24

1342. 9.5 .085 .0017 .19 × × equals

  1. .05
  2. 5
  3. 50
  4. 500

1343. The value of 22 2 22 2 (0.03) (0.21) (0.065) (0.003) (0.021) (0.0065) ++ ++ is (S.S.C., 2002)

  1. 0.1
  2. 10
  3. 10 2
  4. 103

1344. The square root of (7 3 5) (7 3 5)+− is (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. 5
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 35

1345. 2 13 3  − simplifies to

  1. 3 4
  2. 4 3
  3. 4 3
  4. None of these

1346. If a = 0.1039, then the value of 24 4 13aa a− ++ is

  1. 0.1039
  2. 0.2078
  3. 1.1039
  4. 2.1039

1347. The square root of 3 2(0.75) [0.75 (0.75) 1]1 0.75 ++ +− is

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

1348. If 3a = 4b = 6c and a + b + c = 22227 29, then abc++ is

  1. 3 29
  2. 81
  3. 87
  4. None of these

1349. The square root of 0.4 is (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. 0.6
  2. 0.7
  3. 0.8
  4. 0.9

1350. Which one of the following numbers has rational square root?

  1. 0.4
  2. 0.09
  3. 0.9
  4. 0.025

1351. The value of 0.4 is

  1. 0.02
  2. 0.2
  3. 0.51
  4. 0.63

1352. 0.2 ?= (R.R.B., 2007)

  1. 0.02
  2. 0.2
  3. 0.447
  4. 0.632

1353. The value of 0.121 is

  1. 0.011
  2. 0.11
  3. 0.347
  4. 1.1

1354. The value of 0.064 is

  1. 0.008
  2. 0.08
  3. 0.252
  4. 0.8

1355. The value of 0.16 0.4 is (IGNOU, 2003)

  1. 0.02
  2. 0.2
  3. 0.63
  4. None of these

1356. The value of 1 0.01 1 0.1 + − is close to

  1. 0.6
  2. 1.1
  3. 1.6
  4. 1.7

1357. The square root of 535.9225 is (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 23.15
  2. 23.45
  3. 24.15
  4. 28.25

1358. If 5 = 2.236, then the value of 1 5 is

  1. .367
  2. .447
  3. .745
  4. None of these

1359. If 24 = 4.899, the value of 8 3 is

  1. 0.544
  2. 1.333
  3. 1.633
  4. 2.666

1360. If 6 = 2.449, then the value of 32 23 is

  1. 0.6122
  2. 0.8163
  3. 1.223
  4. 1.2245

1361. If 5 = 2.236, then the value of 5 10 1252 5 −+ is equal to

  1. 5.59
  2. 7.826
  3. 8.944
  4. 10.062

1362. If 2 * 3 = 13 and 3 * 4 = 5, then the value of 5 * 12 is

  1. 17
  2. 29
  3. 12
  4. 13

1363. If 1537 * is a perfect square, then the digit which replaces * is (Hotel Management, 2007)

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

1364. The smallest perfect square that is divisible by 7! is (I.I.F.T., 2010)

  1. 19600
  2. 44100
  3. 176400
  4. 705600

1365. The least perfect square number divisible by 3, 4, 5, 6 and 8 is

  1. 900
  2. 1200
  3. 2500
  4. 3600

1366. The least perfect square, which is divisible by each of 21, 36 and 66, is

  1. 213444
  2. 214344
  3. 214434
  4. 231444

1367. The least number by which 294 must be multiplied to make it a perfect square, is

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 6
  4. 24

1368. Find the smallest number by which 5808 should be multiplied so that the product becomes a perfect square.

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 7
  4. 11

1369. The least number by which 1470 must be divided to get a number which is a perfect square, is

  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 15
  4. 30

1370. What is the smallest number to be subtracted from 549162 in order to make it a perfect square?

  1. 28
  2. 36
  3. 62
  4. 81

1371. What is the least number which should be subtracted from 0.000326 to make it a perfect square?

  1. 0.000002
  2. 0.000004
  3. 0.02
  4. 0.04

1372. What is the least number to be added to 7700 to make it a perfect square?

  1. 77
  2. 98
  3. 131
  4. 221
  5. None of these

1373. The smallest number to be added to 680621 to make the sum a perfect square is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 8

1374. The greatest four-digit perfect square number is

  1. 9000
  2. 9801
  3. 9900
  4. 9981

1375. The least number of 4 digits which is a perfect square is

  1. 1000
  2. 1016
  3. 1024
  4. 1036

1376. The sum of 18 consecutive natural numbers is a perfect square. What is the smallest possible value of this sum?

  1. 169
  2. 225
  3. 289
  4. 441

1377. + ++ +++23 · 223 · 2223 ++· 2 – 223 is equal to

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 6

1378. Given 15 2.2361, 3 1.7321, then 53 == − is equal to

  1. 1.98
  2. 1.984
  3. 1.9841
  4. 2

1379. −+− −−−− 1111 ( 9 8) ( 8 7) ( 7 6) ( 6 5) + − 1 ( 5 4) is equal to (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. 0
  2. 1 3
  3. 1
  4. 5

1380. Determine the value of 111 1 . 1 2 2 3 3 4 120 121 + + ++ +++ +  (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 8
  2. 10
  3. 120
  4. 12 2

1381. The expression 111– 1 3 1– 3 + + equals (M.B.A., 2011)

  1. 1– 3
  2. 1
  3. –3
  4. 3

1382. 1122 2 2 22  ++ + +− simplifies to (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. 22−
  2. 2
  3. 22+
  4. 22

1383. What is the value of 1 23 –? 53 35 33 + +++ (I.I.F.T., 2005)

  1. 1– 2
  2. 0
  3. 1 2
  4. 1

1384. If 2 = 1.4142, the value of 7 (3 2)+ is (R.R.B., 2005)

  1. 1.5858
  2. 3.4852
  3. 3.5858
  4. 4.4142

1385. 32 43 6 ? 63 62 81 2  −− = −−− (Teachers’ Exam, 2010)

  1. 32−
  2. 32+
  3. 53
  4. 1

1386. 75 75 + − is equal to

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 6 35−
  4. 6 35+

1387. If 5 23 3, 7 43 ab+ =+ + then (R.R.B., 2010)

  1. a = – 11, b = – 6
  2. a = – 11, b = 6
  3. a = 11, b = – 6
  4. a = 6, b = 11

1388. If 2 = 1.414, the square root of 21 21 − + is nearest to

  1. 0.172
  2. 0.414
  3. 0.586
  4. 1.414

1389. Given that 3 = 1.732, the value of 36 5 3 2 12 32 50 + − −+ is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 1.414
  2. 1.732
  3. 2.551
  4. 4.899

1390. 2 3 2 3 31 2 3 2 3 31  +− − ++ −+ + simplifies to (S.S.C., 2008)

  1. 16 3−
  2. 43−
  3. 23−
  4. 23+

1391. If x = 5 3 5– 3and = , 5– 3 5 3 y+ + then ( x + y) equals (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 2( 5 3)+
  2. 2 15
  3. 8
  4. 16

1392. 2 (2 3) 2 (2 – 3) 3 ( 3 1) 3 ( 3 – 1) + × + is equal to

  1. 32
  2. 2 3
  3. 2 3
  4. 1 3

1393. 12 3 5 22++ is equal to (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 1 – 5 2 10++
  2. 1 5 2 – 10++
  3. 1 5 – 2 10++
  4. 1 –5 –2 1 0 +

1394. 11 2 3– 5 2– 3– 5  + + in simplified form equals (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 0
  2. 1 2
  3. 1
  4. 2

1395. If x = (7 – 4 3), then the value of 1x x  + is

  1. 33
  2. 83
  3. 14
  4. 14 8 3+

1396. If x = 2 2 13 8, then x x ++ is equal to (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 30
  2. 34
  3. 36
  4. 38

1397. If a = 3 2 3– 2,, 3– 2 3 2 b+ = + then the value of a2+ b2would be (M.B.A., 2008)

  1. 10
  2. 98
  3. 99
  4. 100

1398. If a = +− = −+ 51 51and , the value 51 51 b  ++  −+ 22 22of a ab b a ab b is

  1. 3 4
  2. 4 3
  3. 3 5
  4. 5 3

1399. If x = 111+++ ∞  then the positive value of x is (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 71 2 +
  2. 61 2 +
  3. 51 2 +
  4. 31 2 +

1400. 222+++  is equal to (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 1
  2. 1.5
  3. 2
  4. 2.5

1401. If a = 333 ,+++  then which of the following is true? (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. 2 < a < 3
  2. a > 3
  3. 3 < a < 4
  4. a = 3

1402. 3 3– 2. 3 – 3– xx xx ++ = + Then x is equal to (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 5 7
  2. 7 5
  3. 5 12
  4. 12 5

1403. One-fourth of a herd of camels was seen in the forest. Twice the square root of the herd had gone to mountains and the remaining 15 camels were seen on the bank of a river. Find the total number of camels. (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 32
  2. 34
  3. 35
  4. 36

1404. A gardener plants 17956 trees in such a way that there are as many rows as there are trees in a row. The number of trees in a row are (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 134
  2. 136
  3. 144
  4. 154

1405. The number of trees in each row of a garden is equal to the total number of rows in the garden. After 111 trees have been uprooted in a storm, there remain 10914 trees in the garden. The number of rows of trees in the garden is

  1. 100
  2. 105
  3. 115
  4. 125

1406. 1250 oranges were distributed among a group of girls of a class. Each girl got twice as many oranges as the number of girls in that group. The number of girls in the group was (P.C.S., 2006)

  1. 25
  2. 45
  3. 50
  4. 100

1407. A General wishes to draw up his 36581 soldiers in the form of a solid square. After arranging them, he found that some of them are left over. How many are left?

  1. 65
  2. 81
  3. 100
  4. None of these

1408. A group of students decided to collect as many paise from each member of the group as is the number of members. If the total collection amounts to ₹ 59.29, the number of members in the group is

  1. 57
  2. 67
  3. 77
  4. 87

1409. A mobile company offered to pay the Indian Cricket Team as much money per run scored by the side as the total number it gets in a one-dayer against Australia. Which one of the following cannot be the total amount to be spent by the company in this deal? (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 21,904
  2. 56,169
  3. 1,01,761
  4. 1,21,108

1410. 3 148877 ?= (L.I.C.A.D.O., 2007)

  1. 43
  2. 49
  3. 53
  4. 59

1411. 3 681472 ?=

  1. 76
  2. 88
  3. 96
  4. 98

1412. 31728 262144 ? – 288 4491÷ ×=

  1. 148
  2. 156
  3. 173
  4. 177

1413. 99 × 21 – 3 ? = 1968 (NABARD, 2008)

  1. 1367631
  2. 111
  3. 1366731
  4. 1367

1414. The cube root of .000216 is

  1. .6
  2. .06
  3. .006
  4. None of these

1415. 3 124?125 =

  1. 21 5
  2. 31 5
  3. 41 5
  4. 22 5

1416. 3 .000064 ?=

  1. .02
  2. .2
  3. 2
  4. None of these

1417. The smallest positive integer n, for which 864 n is a perfect cube, is

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

1418. Value of 3.01 .008 – .02× is (P.C.S., 2006)

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3

1419. The value of 3 0.2 0.2 0.2 0.04 0.04 0.04 0.4 0.4 0.4 0.08 0.08 0.08 ××+ × × ××+ × × is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 0.125
  2. 0.25
  3. 0.5
  4. 0.75

1420. A rationalising factor of 33( 9 – 3 1) + is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 3 3–1
  2. 3 31+
  3. 3 9–1
  4. 3 91+

1421. The largest four-digit number which is a perfect cube, is

  1. 8000
  2. 9261
  3. 9999
  4. None of these

1422. By what least number must 21600 be multiplied so as to make it a perfect cube? (M.A.T., 2002)

  1. 6
  2. 10
  3. 20
  4. 30

1423. What is the smallest number by which 3600 be divided to make it a perfect cube?

  1. 9
  2. 50
  3. 300
  4. 450

1424. Which smallest number must be added to 710 so that the sum is a perfect cube? (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 11
  2. 19
  3. 21
  4. 29

1425. Solve 7921 ?= [Indian Railway Gr. ‘D’ Exam, 2014]

  1. 89
  2. 87
  3. 37
  4. 47

1426. Solve ( ) 34 625 ? = [Indian Railway Gr. ‘D’ Exam, 2014]

  1. 3 1875
  2. 25
  3. 125
  4. None of these

1427. If 4yx= , then 2x y is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 2
  2. 1 16
  3. 1 4
  4. 4

1428. 2025.11 256.04 399.95 ? 33.98 40.11× + ×= × [IBPS—Bank Spl. Officer (IT) Exam, 2015]

  1. 1682
  2. 1024
  3. 1582
  4. 678

1429. If 7 = 2.645, then the value of 1 28 up to three places of decimal is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 0.183
  2. 0.185
  3. 0.187
  4. 0.189

1430. Solve: 25 64 16 ?9 81 324  −÷ =

  1. 4.5
  2. 2.5
  3. 1.5
  4. 3.5 [United India Insurance Co. Ltd. (UIICL) Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

1431. Solve 31728 262144 ? 288 4491÷ ×− =

  1. 148
  2. 156
  3. 173
  4. 177
  5. 185 [United India Insurance Co. Ltd. (UIICL) Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

1432. Solve: ( ) ( ) 12 37 11 ? 2 847 122+=+ +

  1. 36 44 7+
  2. 6
  3. 216
  4. 36 [IDBI Bank Executive Officers Exam, 2015]

1433. ( ) ( )? 784 6 324− =× (NICL—AAO Exam, 2015]

  1. 128
  2. 160
  3. 236
  4. 136

1434. ( ) ( )2116 1600 ?−= [NICL—AAO Exam, 2015]

  1. 20
  2. 64
  3. 81
  4. 36

1435. Solve ( )27 5 ? 15 5.4 6 0.3÷× + = ÷+ [IBPS—RRB Office Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 2
  2. 6
  3. 10
  4. 4

1436. 24 0.5 1 18 0.6 6÷+ + ÷+ = ?

  1. 19
  2. 13
  3. 12
  4. 15 [IBPS—RRB Office Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

1437. ( ) ( )63 252 175 28 ?+ × += [IBPS—RRB Office Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 16 7
  2. 441
  3. 16
  4. 77

1438. 29 25 30xx +− can be expressed as the square of [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 3 x2 – 25
  2. 3 x – 5
  3. –3 x – 5
  4. 3 x – 5

1439. If 33 5.745= , then the value of the following is approximately 3 11 [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 1
  2. 6.32
  3. 0.5223
  4. 2.035

1440. ? 14 2601+= [SBI Jr. Associates (Pre.) Exam, 2016]

  1. 1521
  2. 1369
  3. 1225
  4. 961

1441. If 3 ,2a = then 1 1?aa++ −= [DMRC—Train Operator (Station Controller) Exam, 2016]

  1. ( )23−
  2. ( )23+
  3. 3 2  
  4. 3

1442. What is 5 10 5 5 2 20 32 50 + − −+ equal to? [CDS 2016]

  1. 5
  2. 52
  3. 55
  4. 5

1443. 10 2 6 2 10 2 15++ + is equal to

  1. ( )235++
  2. ( )235+−
  3. ( )253+−
  4. None of these [DMRC—Customer Relationship Assistant

1444. The body weight of seven students of a class is recorded as 54 kg, 78 kg, 43 kg, 82 kg, 67 kg, 42 kg and 75 kg. What is the average body weight of all the seven students?

  1. 63 kg
  2. 69 kg
  3. 71 kg
  4. 73 kg
  5. None of these

1445. Find the average of the following sets of scores: 385, 441, 876, 221, 536, 46, 291, 428

  1. 221
  2. 403
  3. 428
  4. 536
  5. None of these

1446. The monthly incomes of five persons are ₹ 1132, ₹ 1140, ₹ 1144, ₹ 1136 and ₹ 1148 respectively. What is their arithmetic mean? (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. ₹ 1100
  2. ₹ 1120
  3. ₹ 1132
  4. ₹ 1140

1447. Among five people with monthly income (in ₹) 15000, 26000, 16000, 19000 and 50000, how many will have income less than the mean income of five people? (P.C.S., 2006)

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

1448. The arithmetic mean of 15 numbers is 41.4. Then the sum of these numbers is (P.C.S., 2010)

  1. 414
  2. 420
  3. 620
  4. 621

1449. If 25 a + 25 b = 115, what is the average of a and b?

  1. 2.5
  2. 3.4
  3. 4.5
  4. 4.6
  5. None of these

1450. The following table shows the number of working hours and the number of employees employed in a small scale industry. No. of working hours No. of employees 3 – 5 7 5 – 7 10 7 – 9 18 9 – 11 57 11 – 13 14 13 – 15 8 The average number of working hours of an employee is

  1. 8.5
  2. 9.5
  3. 10.5
  4. None of these

1451. If the arithmetic mean of 0, 5, 4, 3 is a, that of – 1, 0, 1, 5, 4, 3 is b and that of 5, 4, 3 is c, then the relation between a, b and c is (Hotel Management, 2007)

  1. a = b = c
  2. a : b : c = 3 : 2 : 4
  3. 4 a = 5b = c
  4. a + b + c = 12

1452. Kunal bought 65 books for ₹ 1050 from one shop and 50 books for ₹ 1020 from another. What is the average price he paid per book?

  1. ₹ 18
  2. ₹ 18.20
  3. ₹ 24
  4. ₹ 36.40
  5. None of these

1453. The average of the reciprocals of x and y is

  1. () (–) xy xy +
  2. () 2 xy xy +
  3. 2( )xy xy +
  4. 2 () xy xy+

1454. The average of two numbers is XY. If one number is X, the other is (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 2 Y
  2. Y
  3. 2 XY – X
  4. X (Y – 1)

1455. There are five boxes in a cargo hold. The weight of the first box is 200 kg and the weight of the second box is 20% more than the weight of the third box, whose weight is 25% more than the first box’s weight. The fourth box at 350 kg is 30% lighter than the fifth box. The difference in the average weight of the four heaviest boxes and the four lightest boxes is (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 37.5 kg
  2. 51.5 kg
  3. 75 kg
  4. 112.5 kg

1456. In Arun’s opinion, his weight is greater than 65 kg but less than 72 kg. His brother does not agree with Arun and he thinks that Arun’s weight is greater than 60 kg but less than 70 kg. His mother’s view is that his weight cannot be greater than 68 kg. If all of them are correct in their estimation, what is the average of different probable weights of Arun?

  1. 67 kg
  2. 68 kg
  3. 69 kg
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

1457. The average of 20 numbers is zero. Of them, at the most, how many may be greater than zero ? (Hotel Management, 2002)

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 10
  4. 19

1458. The mean of the first ten even natural numbers is (Hotel Management, 2010)

  1. 9
  2. 10
  3. 11
  4. 12

1459. The arithmetic mean of first 11 natural numbers is (P.C.S. 2009)

  1. 5
  2. 5.5
  3. 6.0
  4. 6.5

1460. Find the average of all the numbers between 6 and 34 which are divisible by 5.

  1. 18
  2. 20
  3. 24
  4. 30

1461. The average of the first five multiples of 3 is

  1. 3
  2. 9
  3. 12
  4. 15

1462. The average of the first nine prime numbers is

  1. 9
  2. 11
  3. 111 9
  4. 211 9

1463. A student was asked to find the arithmetic mean of the numbers 3, 11, 7, 9, 15, 13, 8, 19, 17, 21, 14 and x. He found the mean to be 12. What should be the number in place of x?

  1. 3
  2. 7
  3. 17
  4. 31

1464. The average of 2, 7, 6 and x is 5 and the average of 18, 1, 6, x and y is 10. What is the value of y ?

  1. 5
  2. 10
  3. 20
  4. 30

1465. The total marks obtained by a student in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics together is 120 more than the marks obtained by him in Chemistry. What is the average marks obtained by him in Physics and Mathematics together?

  1. 40
  2. 60
  3. 120
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1466. The average of the first 100 positive integers is (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 49.5
  2. 50.5
  3. 51
  4. 100

1467. The average of odd numbers up to 100 is (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 49
  2. 49.5
  3. 50
  4. 50.5

1468. In a family, the average age of a father and a mother is 35 years. The average age of the father, mother and their only son is 27 years. What is the age of the son? (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 10 years
  2. 10.5 years
  3. 11 years
  4. 12 years

1469. The average of X1, X2 and X3 is 14. Twice the sum of X2 and X3 is 30. What is the value of X1?

  1. 12
  2. 16
  3. 20
  4. 27

1470. The average of x1, x2, x3 and x4 is 16. Half the sum of x2, x3, x4 is 23. What is the value of x1? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 17
  2. 18
  3. 19
  4. 20

1471. If the mean of 5 observations x, x + 2, x + 4, x + 6 and x + 8 is 11, then the mean of the last three observations is

  1. 11
  2. 13
  3. 15
  4. 17

1472. If the mean of a, b, c is M and ab + bc + ca = 0, then the mean of a2, b2, c2 is

  1. M2
  2. 3M2
  3. 6M2
  4. 9M2

1473. The average of the two-digit numbers, which remain the same when the digits interchange their positions, is

  1. 33
  2. 44
  3. 55
  4. 66

1474. Company C sells a line of 25 products with an average retail price of ₹ 1200. If none of these prod - ucts sells for less than ₹ 420 and exactly 10 of the products sell for less than ₹ 1000, then what is the greatest possible selling price of the most expensive product? (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. ₹ 2600
  2. ₹ 3900
  3. ₹ 7800
  4. ₹ 11800

1475. The average sale of a car dealership was 15 cars per week. After a promotional scheme the average sale increased to 21 cars per week. The percentage increase in the sale of cars was (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. 39.33%
  2. 40%
  3. 642 %7
  4. 140%

1476. The mean of 1 2, 2 2, 3 2, 4 2, 5 2, 6 2, 7 2 is

  1. 10
  2. 20
  3. 30
  4. 40

1477. The average of a non-zero number and its square is 5 times the number. The number is

  1. 9
  2. 17
  3. 29
  4. 295

1478. Total of Arun’s marks in Sanskrit and Mathematics together are 80 more than his marks in Science. His average marks in the three subjects are 100. What are his marks in Science?

  1. 80
  2. 110
  3. 120
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

1479. The arithmetic mean of the series 1, 2, 4, 8, 16,..., 2 n is

  1. 2 –1 1 n n +
  2. 21n n +
  3. 2 –1n n
  4. 12 –1 1 n n + +

1480. The average of two numbers is 6.5 and square root of their product is 6. What are the numbers? (S.S.C., 2006)

  1. 11 and 2
  2. 8 and 5
  3. 9 and 4
  4. 10 and 3

1481. Of four numbers whose average is 60, the first is one-fourth of the sum of the last three. The first number is (S.S.C., 2006)

  1. 15
  2. 42
  3. 45
  4. 48

1482. Which of the following integers is higher of the remaining two integers?

  1. 39
  2. 48
  3. 76
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1483. The average of 7 consecutive numbers is 20. The largest of these numbers is

  1. 20
  2. 22
  3. 23
  4. 24

1484. The average of five consecutive odd numbers is 95. What is the fourth number in the descending order?

  1. 91
  2. 95
  3. 97
  4. 99
  5. None of these

1485. A, B, C and D are four consecutive even numbers respectively and their average is 65. What is the product of A and D?

  1. 3968
  2. 4092
  3. 4216
  4. 4352
  5. None of these

1486. The sum of the three consecutive even numbers is 44 more than the average of these numbers. Which of the following is the third largest of these numbers?

  1. 16
  2. 18
  3. 24
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1487. The average marks of a student in 4 subjects is 75. If the student obtained 80 marks in the fifth subject, then the new average is (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 72.5
  2. 76
  3. 77
  4. 77.5

1488. The average age of the boys in a class is 16 years and that of the girls is 15 years. The average age for the whole class is

  1. 15 years
  2. 15.5 years
  3. 16 years
  4. Cannot be computed with the given information

1489. The average annual income (in ₹) of certain agricultural workers is S and that of other workers is T. The number of agricultural workers is 11 times that of other workers. Then the average monthly income (in ₹) of all the workers is (S.S.C. 2004)

  1. 2 ST+
  2. 11 2 ST+
  3. 1 11 TS +
  4. 11 12 ST+

1490. A family consists of grandparents, parents and three grandchildren. The average age of the grandparents is 67 years, that of the parents is 35 years and that of the grandchildren is 6 years. What is the average age of the family?

  1. 428 years7
  2. 531 years7
  3. 132 years7
  4. None of these

1491. A library has an average of 510 visitors on Sundays and 240 on other days. The average number of visi - tors per day in a month of 30 days beginning with a Sunday is

  1. 250
  2. 276
  3. 280
  4. 285

1492. In a class there are 32 boys and 28 girls. The average age of the boys in the class is 14 years and the average age of the girls in the class is 13 years. What is the average age of the whole class (rounded to two digits after decimal)? (NABARD, 2009)

  1. 12.51
  2. 13.42
  3. 13.50
  4. 13.53
  5. None of these

1493. The average weight of 16 boys in a class is 50.25 kgs and that of the remaining 8 boys is 45.15 kgs. Find the average weight of all the boys in the class.

  1. 47.55 kgs
  2. 48 kgs
  3. 48.55 kgs
  4. 49.25 kgs

1494. The mean of 5 observations is 60, the mean of 10 observations is 30 and the mean of 15 observations is 20. The mean of all the 30 observations is (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 20
  2. 25
  3. 30
  4. 40

1495. The average expenditure of a man for the first five months of a year is ₹ 5000 and for the next seven months it is ₹ 5400. He saves ₹ 2300 during the year. His average monthly income is

  1. ₹ 5425
  2. ₹ 5446
  3. ₹ 5500
  4. ₹ 5600

1496. A school has 4 sections of Chemistry in Class X having 40, 35, 45 and 42 students. The mean marks obtained in Chemistry test are 50, 60, 55 and 45 respectively for the 4 sections. Determine the overall average of marks per student. (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 50.25
  2. 51.25
  3. 52.25
  4. 53.25

1497. If the average of m numbers is n2 and that of n numbers is m2, then the average of ( m + n) numbers is (S.S.C., 2008)

  1. m – n
  2. mn
  3. m + n
  4. m n

1498. The average of five consecutive numbers is x. If the next two numbers are also included, how shall the average vary? (M.A.T., 2005, C.P.O., 2006, C.P.F. 2008)

  1. It shall increase by 1
  2. It shall remain the same
  3. It shall increase by 1.4
  4. It shall increase by 2

1499. A person purchases 1 kg of tomatoes from each of the 4 places at the rate of 1 kg, 2 kg, 3 kg, 4 kg per rupee respectively. On an average, he has purchased x kg of tomatoes per rupee. Then the value of x is (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 1.92
  2. 2
  3. 2.5
  4. None of these

1500. In a certain factory there are five workers A, B, C, D and E. A can complete a work in 4 minutes, B in 5 minutes, C in 6 minutes, D in 10 minutes and E in 12 minutes. The average number of units of work completed per worker per minute will be (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 0.16
  2. 0.172
  3. 0.80
  4. 0.87

1501. A car owner buys petrol at ₹ 17, ₹ 19 and ₹ 20 per litre for three consecutive years. Compute the average cost per litre, if he spends ₹ 6460 per year.

  1. ₹ 18.49
  2. ₹ 18.58
  3. ₹ 19.2
  4. ₹ 21.66

1502. The average of six numbers is x and the average of three of these is y. If the average of the remaining three is z, then

  1. x = y + z
  2. 2x = y + z
  3. x = 2 y + 2 z
  4. None of these

1503. Out of 9 persons, 8 persons spent ₹ 30 each for their meals. The ninth one spent ₹ 20 more than the average expenditure of all the nine. The total money spent by all of them was

  1. ₹ 260
  2. ₹ 290
  3. ₹ 292.50
  4. ₹ 400.50

1504. There were 35 students in a hostel. If the number of the students is increased by 7, then the expenses of the mess increase by ₹ 42 per day, while the average expenditure per head diminishes by ₹ 1. The original expenditure of the mess per day was (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. ₹ 400
  2. ₹ 420
  3. ₹ 432
  4. ₹ 442

1505. The average price of three items of furniture is ₹ 15000. If their prices are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 7, the price of the cheapest item is

  1. ₹ 9000
  2. ₹ 15000
  3. ₹ 18000
  4. ₹ 21000

1506. Of the four numbers, the first is twice the second, the second is one-third of the third and the third is 5 times the fourth. The average of the numbers is 24.75. The largest of these numbers is

  1. 9
  2. 25
  3. 30
  4. None of these

1507. Out of three numbers, the first is twice the second and is half of the third. If the average of the three numbers is 56, then difference of first and third numbers is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 12
  2. 20
  3. 24
  4. 48

1508. Of the three numbers, the first is twice the second and the second is twice the third. The average of the reciprocal of the numbers is 7 .72 The numbers are :

  1. 16, 8, 4
  2. 20, 10, 5
  3. 24, 12, 6
  4. 36, 18, 9

1509. Of the three numbers, the average of the first and the second is greater than the average of the second and the third by 15. What is the difference between the first and the third of the three numbers?

  1. 15
  2. 45
  3. 60
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

1510. How many marks did Tarun secure in English? I. The average marks obtained by Tarun in four subjects including English is 60. II. The total marks obtained by him in English and Mathematics together is 170. III. The total marks obtained by him in Mathematics and Science together is 180.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. All I, II and III
  5. None of these

1511. What is the average weight of girls in the class? (S.B.I.P.O., 2005) I. Average weight of all the 60 students is 42 kg. II. Average weight of boys is 43 kg. III. Total weight of all girls together is 1144 kg.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. All I, II and III
  4. Any two of the three
  5. Question cannot be answered even with information in all three statements

1512. What is the average of the six members A, B, C, D, E and F in the family? I. Total age of D and E is 14 years. II. Average age of A, B, C and F is 50 years. III. Average age of A, B, D and E is 40 years.

  1. Only I and II
  2. Only I and III
  3. Only II and III
  4. All I, II and III
  5. None of these

1513. Find three positive consecutive even numbers. (M.A.T., 2006) I. The average of four consecutive even numbers starting from the last of the given numbers is 17. II. The difference of the highest and the lowest numbers is 4. III. The sum of the squares of the three numbers is 440.

  1. I only
  2. III only
  3. I and II only
  4. Either I or III only
  5. None of these

1514. Is the average of the largest and the smallest of four given numbers greater than the average of the four numbers? (M.A.T., 2006) I. The difference between the largest and the second largest numbers is less than the difference between the second largest and the second smallest numbers. II. The difference between the largest and the second largest numbers is greater than the difference between the second smallest and the smallest numbers. III. The difference between the largest and the second smallest numbers is greater than the difference between the second largest and the smallest numbers.

  1. I only
  2. Either II or III
  3. I and either II or III
  4. Any two of them

1515. By how much is 3 4 th of 568 lesser than 7 th8 of 1008?

  1. 444
  2. 448
  3. 452
  4. 456
  5. None of these

1516. The difference between a number and its three-fifths is 50. What is the number?

  1. 75
  2. 100
  3. 125
  4. None of these

1517. If a number is added to two-fifths of itself, the value so obtained is 455. What is the number?

  1. 325
  2. 350
  3. 400
  4. 420
  5. None of these

1518. If a number is multiplied by two-thirds of itself the value so obtained is 864. What is the number?

  1. 34
  2. 36
  3. 38
  4. 44
  5. 46

1519. If a number is decreased by 4 and divided by 6, the result is 8. What would be the result if 2 is subtracted from the number and then it is divided by 5?

  1. 29 3
  2. 10
  3. 110 5
  4. 111 5
  5. None of these

1520. A number when multiplied by 13 is increased by 180. The number is (P.C.S., 2004)

  1. 5
  2. 12
  3. 15
  4. 45

1521. The sum of twice a number and three times of 42 is 238. What is the sum of thrice the number and two times of 42?

  1. 245
  2. 250
  3. 252
  4. 264
  5. None of these

1522. If one-third of one-fourth of a number is 15, then three-tenths of that number is

  1. 35
  2. 36
  3. 45
  4. 54

1523. The difference between 3 th5 of 2 rd3 of a number and 2 th5 of 1 th4 of the same number is 288. What is the number?

  1. 850
  2. 895
  3. 955
  4. 960

1524. A number is doubled and 9 is added. If the resultant is trebled, it becomes 75. What is that number?

  1. 3.5
  2. 6
  3. 8
  4. None of these

1525. Three-fourth of a number is 60 more than its one- third. The number is

  1. 84
  2. 108
  3. 144
  4. None of these

1526. A number whose fifth part increased by 4 is equal to its fourth part diminished by 10, is (SNAP, 2010)

  1. 240
  2. 260
  3. 270
  4. 280

1527. When 24 is subtracted from a number, it reduces to its four-seventh. What is the sum of the digits of that number?

  1. 1
  2. 9
  3. 11
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

1528. Find the number which when multiplied by 15 is increased by 196. (L.I.C., 2003)

  1. 14
  2. 20
  3. 26
  4. 28

1529. If a number, when divided by 4, is reduced by 21, the number is

  1. 18
  2. 20
  3. 28
  4. 38

1530. A number whose fifth part increased by 4 is equal to its fourth part diminished by 10, is

  1. 240
  2. 260
  3. 270
  4. 280

1531. The difference of two numbers is 20% of the larger number. If the smaller number is 12, the larger one is

  1. 15
  2. 16
  3. 18
  4. 20

1532. If one-seventh of a number exceeds its eleventh part by 100, then the number is

  1. 770
  2. 1100
  3. 1825
  4. 1925

1533. If the sum of one-half and one-fifth of a number exceeds one-third of that number by 17,3 the number is

  1. 15
  2. 18
  3. 20
  4. 30

1534. If doubling a number and adding 20 to the result gives the same answer as multiplying the number by 8 and taking away 4 from the product, the number is

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 6

1535. If 50 is subtracted from two-third of a number, the result is equal to sum of 40 and one-fourth of that number. What is the number? (R.R.B., 2002)

  1. 174
  2. 216
  3. 246
  4. 336

1536. A student was asked to divide the half of a certain number by 6 and the other half by 4 and then to add the two quantities so obtained. Instead of doing so the student divided the number by 5 and the result fell short by 4. The given number was (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 240
  2. 288
  3. 384
  4. 480

1537. One-third of a two-digit number exceeds one-fourth of its successive number by 1. The number is

  1. 12
  2. 15
  3. 18
  4. 21

1538. If the sum of a number and its square is 182, what is the number?

  1. 15
  2. 26
  3. 28
  4. 91
  5. None of these

1539. If (73) 2 is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 5075. What is the number? (L.I.C.A.D.O., 2007)

  1. 96
  2. 98
  3. 102
  4. 106

1540. Twenty times a positive integer is less than its square by 96. What is the integer?

  1. 20
  2. 24
  3. 30
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1541. Thrice the square of a natural number decreased by 4 times the number is equal to 50 more than the number. The number is (S.S.C., 2003)

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 10

1542. The sum of a number and its reciprocal is one-eighth of 34. What is the product of the number and its square root?

  1. 8
  2. 27
  3. 32
  4. None of these

1543. Two-third of a positive number and 25 216 of its reciprocal are equal. The number is

  1. 5 12
  2. 12 5
  3. 25 144
  4. 144 25

1544. Find the whole number which when increased by 20 is equal to 69 times the reciprocal of the number. (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 2.5
  2. 3
  3. 5
  4. 7

1545. A positive number when decreased by 4 is equal to 21 times the reciprocal of the number. The number is

  1. 3
  2. 5
  3. 7
  4. 9

1546. The sum and product of two numbers are 12 and 35 respectively. The sum of their reciprocals will be (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 12 35
  2. 1 35
  3. 35 8
  4. 7 32

1547. The sum of a positive number and its reciprocal is thrice the difference of the number and its reciprocal. The number is

  1. 2
  2. 1 2
  3. 3
  4. 1 3

1548. The product of two whole numbers is 37. The square root of the difference of the numbers is

  1. 4.5
  2. 6
  3. 7.5
  4. 8

1549. The product of two natural numbers is 17. Then, the sum of the reciprocals of their squares is

  1. 1 289
  2. 289 290
  3. 290 289
  4. 289

1550. If 12 2 is added to a number and the sum multiplied by 14 2 and 3 is added to the product and the sum is divided by 11,5 the quotient becomes 25. What is the number?

  1. 12 2
  2. 13 2
  3. 14 2
  4. 15 2

1551. Three numbers are in the ratio 4 : 5 : 6 and their average is 25. The largest number is

  1. 30
  2. 32
  3. 36
  4. 42

1552. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 6 and their product is 1944. The largest of these numbers is (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 6
  2. 12
  3. 18
  4. None of these

1553. The ratio between a two-digit number and the sum of the digits of that number is 4 : 1. If the digit in the unit’s place is 3 more than the digit in the ten’s place, then the number is (M.B.A., 2004)

  1. 24
  2. 36
  3. 63
  4. 96

1554. Two numbers are such that the square of one is 224 less than 8 times the square of the other. If the numbers be in the ratio of 3 : 4, the numbers are

  1. 6, 8
  2. 9, 12
  3. 12, 16
  4. None of these

1555. Two numbers are such that the ratio between them is 4 : 7. If each is increased by 4, the ratio becomes 3 : 5. The larger number is

  1. 36
  2. 48
  3. 56
  4. 64

1556. The sum of three numbers is 264. If the first number be twice the second and third number be one-third of the first, then the second number is: (R.R.B., 2004)

  1. 48
  2. 54
  3. 72
  4. 84

1557. The sum of two numbers is 22. Five times one number is equal to 6 times the other. The bigger of the two numbers is

  1. 10
  2. 12
  3. 15
  4. 16

1558. One-fifth of a number is equal to 5 8 of another number. If 35 is added to the first number, it becomes four times of the second number. The second number is

  1. 25
  2. 40
  3. 70
  4. 125

1559. The sum of two numbers is 25 and their difference is 13. Find their product.

  1. 104
  2. 114
  3. 315
  4. 325

1560. If the sum of two numbers is 33 and their difference is 15, the smaller number is

  1. 9
  2. 12
  3. 15
  4. 18

1561. The sum of two numbers is 40 and their difference is 4. The ratio of the numbers is

  1. 11 : 9
  2. 11 : 18
  3. 21 : 19
  4. 22 : 9

1562. The product of two numbers is 192 and the sum of these two numbers is 28. What is the smaller of these two numbers?

  1. 12
  2. 14
  3. 16
  4. 18
  5. None of these

1563. There are two numbers such that the sum of twice the first number and thrice the second number is 100 and the sum of thrice the first number and twice the second number is 120. Which is the larger number?

  1. 12
  2. 14
  3. 32
  4. 35
  5. None of these

1564. What is the greater of the two numbers whose product is 1092 and the sum of the two numbers exceeds their difference by 42? (S.B.I.P.O., 2008)

  1. 44
  2. 48
  3. 52
  4. 54
  5. None of these

1565. The difference between two integers is 5. Their product is 500. Find the numbers. (Hotel Management, 2003)

  1. 15, 20
  2. 20, 25
  3. 30, 25
  4. 21, 26

1566. Two numbers differ by 5. If their product is 336, then the sum of the two numbers is

  1. 21
  2. 28
  3. 37
  4. 51

1567. Two different natural numbers are such that their product is less than their sum. One of the numbers must be

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. None of these

1568. The product of two numbers is 9375 and the quotient, when the larger one is divided by the smaller, is 15. The sum of the numbers is (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. 380
  2. 395
  3. 400
  4. 425

1569. The difference between two numbers is 1365. When the larger number is divided by the smaller one, the quotient is 6 and the remainder is 15. The smaller number is

  1. 240
  2. 270
  3. 295
  4. 360

1570. The difference between two numbers is 16. If one- third of the smaller number is greater than one- seventh of the larger number by 4, then the two numbers are

  1. 9 and 25
  2. 12 and 28
  3. 33 and 49
  4. 56 and 72

1571. The sum of two numbers is 40 and their product is 375. What will be the sum of their reciprocals?

  1. 1 40
  2. 8 75
  3. 75 4
  4. 75 8

1572. The sum of two positive integers multiplied by the bigger number is 204, and their difference multiplied by the smaller number is 35. The numbers are

  1. 12, 5
  2. 13, 4
  3. 14, 3
  4. 24, 10

1573. If the sum and difference of two numbers are 20 and 8 respectively, then the difference of their squares is

  1. 12
  2. 28
  3. 160
  4. 180

1574. The product of two numbers is 120 and the sum of their squares is 289. The sum of the numbers is (R.R.B., 2004)

  1. 20
  2. 23
  3. 169
  4. None of these

1575. The product of two numbers is 45 and the sum of their squares is 106. The numbers are (R.R.B., 2002)

  1. 3 and 5
  2. 5 and 9
  3. 5 and 19
  4. 45 and 1

1576. The sum of the squares of two numbers is 3341 and the difference of their squares is 891. The numbers are (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 25, 36
  2. 25, 46
  3. 35, 46
  4. None of these

1577. The difference between two positive integers is 3. If the sum of their squares is 369, then the sum of the numbers is (S.S.C., 2003)

  1. 25
  2. 27
  3. 33
  4. 81

1578. If the sum of two numbers is 22 and the sum of their squares is 404, then the product of the numbers is

  1. 40
  2. 44
  3. 80
  4. 88

1579. The difference between the squares of two numbers is 256000 and the sum of the numbers is 1000. The numbers are

  1. 600, 400
  2. 628, 372
  3. 640, 360
  4. None of these

1580. The difference between two numbers is 3 and the difference between their squares is 63. Which is the larger number?

  1. 9
  2. 12
  3. 15
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1581. A, B, C, D and E are five consecutive odd numbers. The sum of A and C is 146. What is the value of E?

  1. 71
  2. 75
  3. 79
  4. 81
  5. None of these

1582. Out of six consecutive natural numbers if the sum of first three is 27, what is the sum of the other three? (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 24
  2. 25
  3. 35
  4. 36

1583. The sum of seven consecutive numbers is 175. What is the difference between twice the largest number and thrice the smallest number?

  1. 7
  2. 8
  3. 10
  4. 12
  5. None of these

1584. The sum of five consecutive odd numbers is 575. What is the sum of the next set of five consecutive odd numbers? (NABARD, 2009)

  1. 595
  2. 615
  3. 635
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1585. The sum of three consecutive odd numbers and three consecutive even numbers together is 231. Also, the smallest odd number is 11 less than the smallest even number. What is the sum of the largest odd number and the largest even number?

  1. 74
  2. 82
  3. 83
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1586. Three times the first of three consecutive odd integers is 3 more than twice the third. The third integer is (M.B.A., 1998)

  1. 9
  2. 11
  3. 13
  4. 15

1587. The sum of four consecutive even integers is 1284. The greatest of them is

  1. 320
  2. 322
  3. 324
  4. 326

1588. The sum of three consecutive odd numbers is 20 more than the first of these numbers. What is the middle number?

  1. 7
  2. 9
  3. 11
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

1589. The product of three consecutive even numbers when divided by 8 is 720. The product of their square roots is (Hotel Management, 2006)

  1. 12 10
  2. 24 10
  3. 120
  4. None of these

1590. The sum of three consecutive multiples of 3 is 72. What is the largest number?

  1. 21
  2. 24
  3. 27
  4. 36

1591. What is the sum of two consecutive even numbers, the difference of whose squares is 84? (S.S.C., 2003)

  1. 34
  2. 38
  3. 42
  4. 46

1592. The sum of the squares of three consecutive natural numbers is 2030. What is the middle number?

  1. 25
  2. 26
  3. 27
  4. 28

1593. If the product of three consecutive integers is 120, then the sum of the integers is (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 9
  2. 12
  3. 14
  4. 15
  5. 18

1594. There are two numbers such that the sum of twice the first and thrice the second is 39, while the sum of thrice the first and twice the second is 36. The larger of the two is

  1. 6
  2. 8
  3. 9
  4. 12

1595. In a two-digit number, the digit in the unit’s place is four times the digit in ten’s place and sum of the digits is equal to 10. What is the number?

  1. 14
  2. 41
  3. 82
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

1596. A number of two digits has 3 for its unit’s digit, and the sum of digits is 1 7 of the number itself. The number is (L.I.C., 2003)

  1. 43
  2. 53
  3. 63
  4. 73

1597. If a number of two digits is k times the sum of its digits, then the number formed by interchanging the digits is the sum of the digits multiplied by (M.B.A., 2005)

  1. k – 1
  2. 11 – k
  3. 9 + k
  4. 10 – k

1598. A two-digit number exceeds the sum of the digits of that number by 18. If the digit at the unit’s place is double the digit in the ten’s place, what is the number?

  1. 24
  2. 42
  3. 48
  4. Data inadequate

1599. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the digits is 3. What is the two-digit number?

  1. 69
  2. 78
  3. 96
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1600. A two-digit number is 7 times the sum of its two digits. The number that is formed by reversing its digits is 18 less than the original number. What is the number? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 42
  2. 52
  3. 62
  4. 72

1601. If the digit in the unit’s place of a two-digit number is halved and the digit in the ten’s place is doubled, the number thus obtained is equal to the number obtained by interchanging the digits. Which of the following is definitely true? (NMAT, 2005)

  1. Sum of the digits is a two-digit number.
  2. Digit in the unit’s place is half of the digit in the ten’s place.
  3. Digit in the unit’s place and the ten’s place are equal.
  4. Digit in the unit’s place is twice the digit in the ten’s place.

1602. In a two-digit number, if it is known that its unit’s digit exceeds its ten’s digit by 2 and that the product of the given number and the sum of its digits is equal to 144, then the number is

  1. 24
  2. 26
  3. 42
  4. 46

1603. A number consists of two digits. If the digits inter - change places and the new number is added to the original number, then the resulting number will be divisible by (S.S.C., 2003)

  1. 3
  2. 5
  3. 9
  4. 11

1604. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 9 less than the number. Which of the following digits is at unit’s place of the number?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. Data inadequate

1605. The difference between a two-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the positions of its digits is 36. What is the difference between the two digits of that number?

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 9
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1606. Which is the smaller of the two numbers?

  1. 29
  2. 70
  3. 92
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1607. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 1 5 of the difference between the number and the number obtained by interchanging the positions of the digits. What is definitely the difference between the digits of that number?

  1. 5
  2. 7
  3. 9
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

1608. The number obtained by interchanging the two digits of a two-digit number is lesser than the original number by 54. If the sum of the two digit of the number is 12, then what is the original number?

  1. 28
  2. 39
  3. 82
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1609. The difference between a two-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the digits is 36. What is the difference between the sum and the difference of the digits of the number if the ratio between the digits of the number is 1 : 2?

  1. 4
  2. 8
  3. 16
  4. None of these

1610. What is 40% of the original number?

  1. 15.6
  2. 24
  3. 37.2
  4. 39
  5. None of these

1611. A number consists of 3 digits whose sum is 10. The middle digit is equal to the sum of the other two and the number will be increased by 99 if its digits are reversed. The number is (Hotel Management, 2003)

  1. 145
  2. 253
  3. 370
  4. 352

1612. A two-digit number becomes five-sixth of itself when its digits are reversed. The two digits differ by one. The number is

  1. 45
  2. 54
  3. 56
  4. 65

1613. A number consists of two digits such that the digit in the ten’s place is less by 2 than the digit in the unit’s place. Three times the number added to 6 7 times the number obtained by reversing the digits equals 108. The sum of the digits in the number is (S.S.C., 2003)

  1. 6
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 9

1614. The digit in the unit’s place of a number is equal to the digit in the ten’s place of half of that number and the digit in the ten’s place of that number is less than the digit in unit’s place of half of the number by 1. If the sum of the digits of the number is 7, then what is the number? (S.B.I.P.O., 2001)

  1. 34
  2. 52
  3. 162
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

1615. In a two-digit number, the digit in the unit’s place is more than twice the digit in ten’s place by 1. If the digits in the unit’s place and the ten’s place are interchanged, difference between the newly formed number and the original number is less than the original number by 1. What is the original number?

  1. 25
  2. 37
  3. 49
  4. 52
  5. 73

1616. A certain number of two digits is three times the sum of its digits and if 45 be added to it, the digits are reversed. The number is (N.M.A.T. 2006; L.I.C.A.A.O., 2003)

  1. 23
  2. 27
  3. 32
  4. 72

1617. A two-digit number is such that the product of the digits is 8. When 18 is added to the number, then the digits are reversed. The number is (M.B.A., 2003)

  1. 18
  2. 24
  3. 42
  4. 81

1618. In a number of three digits, the digits in the unit’s place and in the hundred’s place are equal and the sum of all the digits is 8. The number of such numbers is

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

1619. In a three-digit number, the digit in the unit’s place is 75% of the digit in the ten’s place. The digit in the ten’s place is greater than the digit in the hundred’s place by 1. If the sum of the digits in the ten’s place and the hundred’s place is 15, what is the number?

  1. 687
  2. 786
  3. 795
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1620. The product of two fractions is 14 15 and their quotient is 35 .24 The greater fraction is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 4 5
  2. 7 6
  3. 7 4
  4. 7 3

1621. In a pair of fractions, fraction A is twice the fraction B and the product of two fractions is 2 .25 What is the value of fraction A?

  1. 1 5
  2. 1 25
  3. 2 5
  4. Data inadequate

1622. If the difference between the reciprocal of a positive proper fraction and the fraction itself be 9 20 , then the fraction is

  1. 3 5
  2. 4 5
  3. 5 4
  4. 3 10

1623. The sum of the numerator and denominator of a fraction is 11. If 1 is added to the numerator and 2 is subtracted from the denominator, it becomes 2 .3 The fraction is

  1. 5 6
  2. 6 5
  3. 3 8
  4. 8 3

1624. The denominator of a fraction is 3 more than the numerator. If the numerator as well as the denominator is increased by 4, the fraction becomes 4 .5 What was the original fraction?

  1. 8 11
  2. 5 8
  3. 10 13
  4. 7 10

1625. The difference between the numerator and the de - nominator of a fraction is 5. If 5 is added to its denominator, the fraction is decreased by 11.4 Find the value of the fraction.

  1. 1 6
  2. 12 4
  3. 13 4
  4. 6

1626. The numerator and denominator of a fraction are in the ratio of 2 : 3. If 6 is subtracted from the numerator, the result is a fraction that has a value 2 3 of the original fraction. The numerator of the original fraction is

  1. 6
  2. 18
  3. 27
  4. 36

1627. If 1 is added to the denominator of a fraction, the fraction becomes 1 .2 If 1 is added to the numerator of the fraction, the fraction becomes 1. The fraction is

  1. 1 3
  2. 2 3
  3. 3 4
  4. 3 2

1628. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 2 and the denominator is increased by 3, the fraction becomes 7 9 and if both the numerator as well as the denominator are decreased by 1, the fraction becomes 4 .5 What is the original fraction?

  1. 5 6
  2. 9 11
  3. 13 16
  4. 17 21

1629. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 1 4 and the denominator is decreased by 1 ,3 the new fraction obtained is 33 64 ⋅ What was the original fraction?

  1. 3 7
  2. 5 7
  3. 7 9
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1630. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the denominator is increased by 300%, the resultant fraction is 15 .26 What was the original fraction? (S.B.I.P.O., 2008)

  1. 8 11
  2. 10 11
  3. 9 13
  4. 10 13
  5. None of these

1631. When the numerator of a fraction increases by 4, the fraction increases by 2 3 ⋅ The denominator of the fraction is

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 6

1632. A fraction is such that if the double of the numera - tor and the triple of the denominator is changed by + 10 percent and –30 percent respectively, then we get 11 percent of 16 21 ⋅ Find the fraction.

  1. 2 25
  2. 3 25
  3. 4 25
  4. None of these

1633. 54 is to be divided into two parts such that the sum of 10 times the first and 22 times the second is 780. The bigger part is

  1. 24
  2. 34
  3. 30
  4. 32

1634. 243 has been divided into three parts such that half of the first part, one-third of the second part and one-fourth of the third part are equal. The largest part is

  1. 74
  2. 86
  3. 92
  4. 108

1635. The sum of four numbers is 64. If you add 3 to the first number, 3 is subtracted from the second number, the third is multiplied by 3 and the fourth is divided by 3, then all the results are equal. What is the difference between the largest and the smallest of the original numbers?

  1. 21
  2. 27
  3. 32
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1636. The sum of the squares of three numbers is 138, while the sum of their products taken two at a time is 131. Their sum is (Hotel Management, 1999)

  1. 20
  2. 30
  3. 40
  4. None of these

1637. The sum of three numbers is 136. If the ratio between first and second be 2 : 3 and that between second and third is 5 : 3, then the second number is

  1. 40
  2. 48
  3. 60
  4. 72

1638. Of the three numbers, the sum of the first two is 73; the sum of the second and the third is 77 and the sum of the third and thrice the first is 104. The third number is (NABARD, 2008)

  1. 25
  2. 39
  3. 48
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1639. If the product of two numbers is 5 and one of the number is 3 2 , then the sum of two numbers is [Indian Railways—Gr. ‘D’ Exam, 2014]

  1. 4 1 3
  2. 4 2 3
  3. 4 5 6
  4. 5 1 6

1640. The sum of the squares of two positive integers is 100 and the difference of their squares is 28. The sum of the numbers is [Indian Railways—Gr. ‘D’ Exam, 2014]

  1. 12
  2. 13
  3. 14
  4. 15

1641. The sum of two number is 37 and the difference of their squares is 185, then the difference between the two numbers is: [SSC—CHSL (10 +2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 10
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 3

1642. A man bought some eggs of which 10% are rotten. He gives 80% of the remainder to his neighbors. Now he is left out with 36 eggs. How many eggs he bought? [SSC—CHSL (10 +2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 40
  2. 100
  3. 200
  4. 72

1643. The sum of two numbers is 75 and their difference is 25. The product of the two numbers is: [SSC—CHSL (10 +2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 1350
  2. 1250
  3. 125
  4. 1000

1644. In a Mathematics examination the number scored by 5 candidates are 5 successive odd integers. If their total marks are 185, the highest score is [NICL—AAO Exam, 2015]

  1. 39
  2. 43
  3. 41
  4. 47

1645. The difference between two numbers is 10 and one-fifth of their sum is equal to 8. Find the smaller number [ESIC—UDC Exam, 2016]

  1. 28
  2. 45
  3. 35
  4. 15

1646. What is the two-digit number? (M.B.A., 2002) I. Sum of the digits is 7. II. Difference between the number and the number ob - tained by interchanging the digits is 9. III. Digit in the ten’s place is bigger than the digit in the unit’s place by 1.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. All I, II and III
  5. None of these

1647. What is the sum of the digits of the two-digit number? I. The ratio between the ten’s digit and unit’s digit of the number is 3 : 2. II. The number obtained on revering the order of its digits is 18 less than the original number. III. The product of the digits is 24.

  1. Any two of the three
  2. I only or II and III only
  3. All I, II and III
  4. I and II only
  5. None of these

1648. What will be the sum of two numbers? I. Among the two numbers, the bigger number is greater than the smaller number by 6. II. 40% of the smaller number is equal to 30% of the bigger number. III. The ratio between half of the bigger number and one-third of the smaller number is 2 : 1.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. All I, II and III
  4. Any two of the three
  5. None of these

1649. What is the two-digit number? (M.A.T., 2005) I. The difference between the two-digit number and the number formed by interchanging the digits is 27. II. The difference between the two digits is 3. III. The digit at unit’s place is less than that at ten’s place by 3.

  1. I and II only
  2. I and III only
  3. All I, II and III
  4. I, and either II or III
  5. Even with all I, II and III, answer cannot be given.

1650. What is the two-digit number?

  1. I and II only
  2. I and III only
  3. Any two of the three
  4. I and either II or III only
  5. None of these

1651. Find three positive consecutive even numbers. (M.A.T., 2006) I. The average of four consecutive even numbers starting from the last of the given numbers is 17. II. The difference of the highest and the lowest numbers is 4. III. The sum of the squares of the three numbers is 440.

  1. I only
  2. I and II only
  3. III only
  4. Either I or III

1652. II. Sum of the digits of the number is 14. III. Difference between the two digits of the number is 2.

  1. Any two of the three
  2. Only I and III
  3. II and either I or III
  4. III and either I or II
  5. All of these

1653. The ratio of the present ages of a mother and her daughter is 7 : 1. Four years ago, the ratio of their ages was 19 : 1. What will be the mother’s age four years from now? (S.B.I. P.O., 2010)

  1. 42 years
  2. 38 years
  3. 46 years
  4. 36 years
  5. None of these

1654. The ages of Nishi and Vinnee are in the ratio 6 : 5 respectively. After 9 years, the ratio of their ages will be 9 : 8. What is the difference in their ages now ?

  1. 3 years
  2. 5 years
  3. 7 years
  4. 9 years
  5. None of these

1655. The present ages of Amit and his father are in the ratio 2 : 5 respectively. Four years hence, the ratio of their ages becomes 5 : 11 respectively. What was the father’s age five years ago?

  1. 30 years
  2. 35 years
  3. 40 years
  4. 45 years
  5. None of these

1656. The ratio of the ages of a father and his son is 17 : 7 respectively. Six years ago, the ratio of their ages was 3 : 1 respectively. What is the father’s present age ?

  1. 64 years
  2. 51 years
  3. 48 years
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1657. The ages of Shakti and Kanti are in the ratio of 8 : 7 respectively. After 10 years, the ratio of their ages will be 13 : 12. What is the difference between their ages ?

  1. 2 years
  2. 4 years
  3. 8 years
  4. 6 years
  5. None of these

1658. The ages of A and B are in the ratio 6 : 5 and the sum of their ages is 44 years. What will be the ratio of their ages after 8 years? (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 7 : 6
  2. 8 : 7
  3. 9 : 8
  4. 3 : 4

1659. Farah got married 8 years ago. Today her age is 217 times her age at the time of her marriage. At present her daughter‘s age is one-sixth of her age. What was her daughter’s age 3 years ago?

  1. 4 years
  2. 3 years
  3. 6 years
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1660. The age of a mother today is thrice that of her daughter. After 12 years, the age of the mother will be twice that of her daughter. The present age of the daughter is: (S.S.C., 2006)

  1. 12 years
  2. 14 years
  3. 16 years
  4. 18 years

1661. The present age of Mr. Sanyal is three times the age of his son. Six years hence, the ratio of their ages will be 5 : 2. What is the present age of Mr. Sanyal? (L.I.C., 2007)

  1. 48 years
  2. 50 years
  3. 54 years
  4. 60 years
  5. None of these

1662. The average of the ages of a man and his daughter is 34 years. If the respective ratio of their ages four years from now is 14 : 5, what is daughter’s present age?

  1. 10 years
  2. 12 years
  3. 18 years
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1663. Ratio of Rani’s and Komal’s ages is 3 : 5 respectively. Ratio of Komal’s and Pooja’s ages is 2 : 3 respectively. If Rani is two-fifth of Pooja’s age, what is Rani’s age?

  1. 10 years
  2. 15 years
  3. 14 years
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1664. The age of a father 10 years ago was thrice the age of his son. 10 years hence, the father’s age will be twice that of his son. The ratio of their present ages is (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 8 : 5
  2. 7 : 3
  3. 9 : 5
  4. 5 : 2

1665. The ratio between the ages of Ram and Mohan is 4 : 5 and that between the ages of Ram and Anil is 5 : 6. If the sum of the ages of the three is 69 years, what is Mohan’s age? (Railways, 2008)

  1. 20 years
  2. 24 years
  3. 25 years
  4. 30 years

1666. At present, Suresh’s age is twice the age of his daughter. After 6 years from now, the ratio of the ages of Suresh and his daughter will be 23 : 13. What is the present age of Suresh?

  1. 36 years
  2. 40 years
  3. 46 years
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1667. The difference between the present ages of Arun and Deepak is 14 years. Seven years ago, the ratio of their ages was 5 : 7 respectively. What is Deepak’s present age?

  1. 35 years
  2. 42 years
  3. 49 years
  4. 56 years
  5. None of these

1668. Ten years ago, a man was seven times as old as his son. Two years hence, twice his age will be equal to five times the age of his son. What is the present age of the son? (Railways, 2006)

  1. 12 years
  2. 13 years
  3. 14 years
  4. 15 years

1669. The ages of Samina and Suhana are in the ratio of 7 : 3 respectively. After 6 years, the ratio of their ages will be 5 : 3. What is the difference in their ages?

  1. 6 years
  2. 8 years
  3. 10 years
  4. 12 years
  5. None of these

1670. The ages of Sulekha and Arunima are in the ratio of 9 : 8 respectively. After 5 years, the ratio of their ages will be 10 : 9. What is the difference in their ages?

  1. 4 years
  2. 5 years
  3. 6 years
  4. 7 years
  5. None of these

1671. The ages of A and B are presently in the ratio of 5 : 6 respectively. Six years hence, this ratio will become 6 : 7 respectively. What was B’s age 5 years ago?

  1. 25 years
  2. 30 years
  3. 31 years
  4. 36 years
  5. None of these

1672. The age of the mother today is thrice that of her daughter. After 12 years, the age of the mother will be twice that of her daughter. The age of the daughter today is (S.S.C., 2006)

  1. 12 years
  2. 14 years
  3. 16 years
  4. 18 years

1673. The sum of the ages of a daughter and her mother is 56 years. After four years, the age of the mother will be three times that of the daughter. At present their ages are (S.S.C., 2006)

  1. 10 years, 46 years
  2. 12 years, 44 years
  3. 11 years, 45 years
  4. 13 years, 43 years

1674. The present age of son is half of the present age of his mother. Ten years ago, his mother’s age was thrice the age of her son. What is the present age of the son? (Railways, 2006)

  1. 20 years
  2. 25 years
  3. 30 years
  4. 40 years

1675. Ram’s son’s age is 1 3 of Ram’s wife’s age. Ram’s wife’s age is 4 5 of Ram’s age and Ram’s age is 3 5 of Ram’s father’s age. Find the age of Ram’s son, if Ram’s father is 50 years old. (Railways, 2005)

  1. 6 years
  2. 8 years
  3. 10 years
  4. 12 years

1676. Ratio between the ages of Subhash, Prasad and Amar is 3 : 6 : 7. If the difference between the ages of Prasad and Amar is 10 years, then what is the difference between the ages of Subhash and Prasad? (Railways, 2006)

  1. 5 years
  2. 10 years
  3. 20 years
  4. 30 years

1677. Rajan got married 8 years ago. His present age is 6 5 times his age at the time of his marriage. Rajan’s sister was 10 years younger to him at the time of his marriage. The age of Rajan’s sister is (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 32 years
  2. 36 years
  3. 38 years
  4. 40 years

1678. The ages of two persons differ by 20 years. If 5 years ago, the older one be 5 times as old as the younger one, then their present ages are (M.A.T., 2004)

  1. 25 years, 5 years
  2. 30 years, 10 years
  3. 35 years, 15 years
  4. 50 years, 30 years

1679. A couple has a son and a daughter. The age of the father is four times that of the son and the age of the daughter is one-third of that of her mother. The wife is 6 years younger to her husband and the sister is 3 years older than her brother. The mother’s age is (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 42 years
  2. 48 years
  3. 54 years
  4. 63 years

1680. The present ages of three persons are in the propor - tion 4 : 7 : 9. Eight years ago, the sum of their ages was 56 years. The present age of the eldest person is

  1. 28 years
  2. 36 years
  3. 45 years
  4. None of these

1681. In 10 years, A will be twice as old as B was 10 years ago. If A is now 9 years older than B, the present age of B is

  1. 19 years
  2. 29 years
  3. 39 years
  4. 49 years
  5. None of these

1682. Reenu’s father was 38 years of age when she was born while her mother was 36 years old when her brother 4 years younger to her was born. What is the difference between the ages of her parents?

  1. 2 years
  2. 4 years
  3. 6 years
  4. 8 years
  5. None of these

1683. The sum of the ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. What is the age of the youngest child?

  1. 4 years
  2. 6 years
  3. 8 years
  4. 10 years
  5. None of these

1684. A man was asked to state his age in years. His reply was, “Take my age 3 years hence, multiply it by 3 and then subtract 3 times my age 3 years ago and you will know how old I am.” What is the age of the man? (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. 18 years
  2. 20 years
  3. 24 years
  4. 32 years

1685. The sum of the ages of Jayant, Prem and Paras is 93 years. Ten years ago, the ratio of their ages was 2 : 3 : 4. What is the present age of Paras?

  1. 24 years
  2. 28 years
  3. 32 years
  4. 34 years
  5. 38 years

1686. The man’s age is

  1. 40 years
  2. 45 years
  3. 50 years
  4. 55 years
  5. None of these

1687. The ratio of a man’s age and his son’s age is 7 : 3 and the product of their ages is 756. The ratio of their ages after 6 years will be

  1. 5 : 2
  2. 2 : 1
  3. 11 : 7
  4. 13 : 9
  5. None of these

1688. Sonal is 40 years old and Nitya is 60 years old. How many years ago was the ratio of their ages 3 : 5?

  1. 5 years
  2. 10 years
  3. 20 years
  4. 37 years
  5. None of these

1689. The ratio between the present ages of A and B is 5 : 3 respectively. The ratio between A’s age 4 years ago and B’s age 4 years hence is 1 : 1. What is the ratio between A’s age 4 years hence and B’s age 4 years ago?

  1. 1 : 3
  2. 3 : 1
  3. 2 : 1
  4. 4 : 1
  5. None of these

1690. The ratio of the ages of a man and his wife is 4 : 3. After 4 years, this ratio will be 9 : 7. If at the time of their marriage, the ratio of their ages was 5 : 3, then how many years ago were they married?

  1. 8 years
  2. 10 years
  3. 12 years
  4. 15 years
  5. None of these

1691. The ratio between the ages of Neelam and Shiny is 5 : 6 respectively. If the ratio between the one-third age of Neelam and half of Shiny’s age is 5 : 9, then what is Shiny’s age?

  1. 25 years
  2. 30 years
  3. 36 years
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1692. 18 years ago, a man was three times as old as his son. Now, the man is twice as old as his son. The sum of the present ages of the man and his son is (S.S.C., 2003)

  1. 54 years
  2. 72 years
  3. 105 years
  4. 108 years

1693. A man is aged three times more than his son Ronit. After 8 years, he would be two and a half times of Ronit’s age. After further 8 years, how many times would he be of Ronit’s age?

  1. 2 times
  2. 12 times2
  3. 32 times4
  4. 3 times

1694. One year ago, Promila was four times as old as her daughter Sakshi. Six years hence, Promila’s age will exceed her daughter’s age by 9 years. The ratio of the present ages of Promila and her daughter is

  1. 9 : 2
  2. 11 : 3
  3. 12 : 5
  4. 13 : 4
  5. None of these

1695. The age of a man 10 years ago was thrice the age of his son. 10 years hence, the man’s age will be twice the age of his son. The ratio of their present ages is (L.I.C., 2003)

  1. 5 : 2
  2. 7 : 3
  3. 9 : 2
  4. 13 : 4

1696. Tanya’s grandfather was 8 times older to her 16 years ago. He would be 3 times of her age 8 years from now. 8 years ago, what was the ratio of Tanya’s age to that of her grandfather? (S.S.C., 2003)

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 1 : 5
  3. 3 : 8
  4. None of these

1697. The difference between the ages of two men is 10 years. 15 years ago, the elder one was twice as old as the younger one. The present age of the elder man is

  1. 25 years
  2. 35 years
  3. 45 years
  4. 52 years
  5. 55 years

1698. 6 years ago, the ratio of the ages of Kunal and Sagar was 6 : 5. Four years hence, the ratio of their ages will be 11 : 10. What is Sagar’s age at present?

  1. 16 years
  2. 18 years
  3. 20 years
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1699. Sneh’s age is 1 th6 of her father’s age. Sneh’s father’s age will be twice of Vimal’s age after 10 years. If Vimal’s 8th birthday was celebrated 2 years ago, then what is Sneh’s present age?

  1. 26 years3
  2. 10 years
  3. 12 years
  4. 15 years
  5. None of these

1700. The ages of Samina and Suhana are in the ratio of 7 : 3 respectively. After 6 years, the ratio of their ages will be 5 : 3. What is the difference in their ages?

  1. 6 years
  2. 8 years
  3. 10 years
  4. 12 years
  5. None of these

1701. The ages of Sulekha and Arunima are in the ratio 9 : 8 respectively. After 5 years, the ratio of their ages will be 10 : 9. What is the difference in their ages?

  1. 4 years
  2. 5 years
  3. 6 years
  4. 7 years
  5. None of these

1702. Three years ago, the ratio of the ages of Amisha and Nimisha was 8 : 9 respectively. 3 years hence, the ratio of their ages will be 11 : 12 respectively. What is the present age of Amisha?

  1. 16 years
  2. 19 years
  3. 21 years
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

1703. If 10 years are subtracted from the present age of Mr. Roy and the remainder divided by 14, then you would get the present age of his grandson Sachin. If Sachin is 9 years younger to Saloni whose age is 14 years, then what is the present age of Mr. Roy?

  1. 60 years
  2. 70 years
  3. 74 years
  4. 80 years
  5. None of these

1704. X’s age 3 years ago was three times the present age of Y. At present, Z’s age is twice the age of Y. Also Z is 12 years younger than X. What is the present age of Z? [IBPS—RRB Officer’s Gr. ‘B’ Exam, 2015]

  1. 15 year
  2. 24 year
  3. 12 year
  4. 18 year
  5. 6 year

1705. Eight year ago, Poorvi’s age was equal to the sum of the present ages of her one son and one daughter. Five years hence, the respective ratio between the ages of her daughter and her son that time will be 7 : 6. If Poorvi’s husband is 7 years elder to her and his present age is three times the present age of their son, what is the present age of the daughter? (in years) [RBI Gr. ‘B’ (Phase I) Exam, 2015]

  1. 15 years
  2. 23 years
  3. 19 years
  4. 27 years
  5. 13 years

1706. The sum of present ages of a father and his son is 8 years more than the present age of the mother. The mother is 22 years older than the son. What will be the age of the father after 4 years? [United India Insurance Co. Ltd., (UIICL) Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 34 years
  2. 36 years
  3. 40 years
  4. 38 years
  5. 28 years

1707. Rahul is as much younger than Sagar as he is older than Purav. If the sum of the ages of Purav and Sagar is 66 years, and Sagar’s age is 48 years, then what is Purav’s age? (in years) [NICL—AAO Exam, 2015]

  1. 18
  2. cannot be determined
  3. 16
  4. 20
  5. 12

1708. 4 years ago, the ratio of 1/2 of A’s age at that time and four times of B’s age at the time was 5 : 12. Eight years hence, 1/2 of A’s age at that time will be less than B’s age at that time by 2 years. What is B’s present age? [IBPS—RRB Officers Exam, 2015]

  1. 10 years
  2. 14 years
  3. 12 years
  4. 5 years
  5. 8 years

1709. Ten years hence, the respective ratio between Simmi’s age and Niti’s age will be 7 : 9. Two years ago, the respective ratio between Simmi’s age and Niti’s age was 1 : 3. If Abhay is 4 years older to his sister Niti, what is Abhay’s present age? (in years) [CET—Maharashtra (MBA) Exam, 2016]

  1. 8
  2. 4
  3. 16
  4. 12
  5. 20

1710. What is the present age of A ? I. The sum of the ages of A and B is 21 years. II. The difference of the ages of A and B is 5 years. III. The product of the ages of A and B is 104 years.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. Any two of the three
  5. None of these

1711. What is the present age of Tanya ?

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. All I, II and III
  5. Any two of the three

1712. What is the difference between the ages of Y and X? I. The ratio between the ages of X and Y is 2 : 3. II. Y’s age is 50% more than X’s age. III. One-fourth of X’s age is equal to one-sixth of Y’s age.

  1. All I, II and III
  2. Any two of the three
  3. III, and either I or II
  4. Only I and II
  5. Question cannot be answered even with information in all three statements

1713. What is Arun’s present age ? I. Five years ago, Arun’s age was double that of his son’s age at that time. II. Present ages of Arun and his son are in the ratio of 11 : 6 respectively. III. Five years hence, the respective ratio of Arun’s age and his son’s age will become 12 : 7.

  1. Only I and II
  2. Only II and III
  3. Only I and III
  4. Any two of the three
  5. None of these

1714. What is Ravi’s present age ? I. The present age of Ravi is half of that of his father. II. After 5 years, the ratio of Ravi’s age to that of his father’s age will be 6 : 11. III. Ravi is 5 years younger than his brother.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. All I, II and III
  5. Even with all the three statements answer cannot be given.

1715. What is the ratio of the present ages of Anna and her mother ? I. The sum of the ages of Anna, her mother and her father is 62. II. Five years ago, Anna’s age was one-fifth of her father’s age. III. Two years ago, the sum of the ages of Anna and her father was 36.

  1. I or II only
  2. II or III only
  3. III only
  4. I or III only
  5. All I, II and III are required.

1716. What will be the ratio between the ages of Sam and Albert after 5 years ? I. Sam’s present age is more than Albert’s present age by 4 years. II. Albert’s present age is 20 years. III. The ratio of Albert’s present age to Sam’s pres - ent age is 5 : 6.

  1. I or II or III only
  2. II only
  3. III only
  4. I or III only
  5. II or III only.

1717. What is the difference between the present ages of Ayush and Deepak ? I. The ratio between Ayush’s present age and his age after 8 years is 4 : 5. II. The ratio between the present ages of Ayush and Deepak is 4 : 3. III. The ratio between Deepak’s present age and his age four years ago is 6 : 5.

  1. Any two of I, II and III
  2. I or III only
  3. Any one of the three
  4. All I, II and III are required
  5. Even with all I, II and III, the answer cannot be obtained.

1718. 3 5 is a surd of the order (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 1 3
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3

1719. 50 × 8 =? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 0
  2. 8
  3. 40
  4. 200

1720. Which of the following are equal in value? I. 41 II. 14 III. 40 IV. 04

  1. I and II
  2. II and III
  3. III and IV
  4. I and IV

1721. If 289 = 1 517 , x then x =?

  1. 2 5
  2. 8
  3. 16
  4. 32
  5. None of these

1722. (81)4 ÷ (9) 5 =?

  1. 9
  2. 81
  3. 729
  4. 6561
  5. None of these

1723. The value of 24 16 9 18 3  ×  is (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 3 2
  2. 4 9
  3. 16 81
  4. 32 243

1724. [43 × 5 4] ÷ 4 5 =?

  1. 29.0825
  2. 30.0925
  3. 35.6015
  4. 39.0625
  5. None of these

1725. 93 × 6 2 ÷ 3 3 =? (L.I.C.A.D.O., 2007)

  1. 948
  2. 972
  3. 984
  4. 1012
  5. None of these

1726. (19)12 × (19) 8 ÷ (19) 4 = (19) ?

  1. 6
  2. 8
  3. 12
  4. 24
  5. None of these

1727. (64)4 ÷ (8) 5 =?

  1. (8) 8
  2. (8) 2
  3. (8) 12
  4. (8) 4
  5. None of these

1728. (1000)12 ÷ (10) 30 =?

  1. (1000) 2
  2. 10
  3. 100
  4. (100) 2
  5. None of these

1729. (3)8 × (3) 4 =?

  1. (27) 3
  2. (27) 5
  3. (729) 2
  4. (729) 3
  5. None of these

1730. 343 49 216 16 81 × ×× =?

  1. 5 7 7 6
  2. 5 8 7 6
  3. 6 7 7 6
  4. 4 8 7 6
  5. None of these

1731. 16 32 9 27 81 × ×× =?

  1. 92 3 
  2. 112 3 
  3. 122 3 
  4. 132 3 
  5. None of these

1732. 93 × (81) 2 ÷ (27) 3 = (3) ?

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6
  5. None of these

1733. (6)4 ÷ (36) 3 × 216 = 6 (? – 5)

  1. 1
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 7
  5. None of these

1734. (0.2)2, 11 321 , (0.01) , (0.008) .100 Of these, which one is the greatest? (P.C.S., 2004)

  1. 1 3(0.008)
  2. 1 2 (0.01)
  3. (0.2) 2
  4. 1 100

1735. Which of the following expressions has the greatest value?

  1. [(2 –1)0]2
  2. 21 0 2(4 ) −  
  3. [(2 –2)–1]2
  4. [(2–1)2]2

1736. (10)24 × (10) – 21 =?

  1. 3
  2. 10
  3. 100
  4. 1000
  5. None of these

1737. The value of 5 4 (256) is

  1. 512
  2. 984
  3. 1024
  4. 1032

1738. The value of 1 3 ( 8) is

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 2
  4. 8

1739. The value of 4 5 32 243 −  is

  1. 4 9
  2. 9 4
  3. 16 81
  4. 81 16

1740. The value of 2 3 1 216 − − is

  1. 36
  2. – 36
  3. 1 36
  4. 1 36−

1741. The value of 2 3 27 − lies between

  1. 0 and 1
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 3 and 4

1742. The value of 3 4 5622 2 − is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 5 3 2
  4. 25

1743. 22222 ? = (R.R.B., 2007)

  1. 29 312
  2. 31 322
  3. 9 22
  4. 11 22

1744. The value of 2 5 (0.03125) − is (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 4
  2. 9
  3. 12
  4. 31.25

1745. 1 2 1 2 −  is equal to (Section Officer's, 2005)

  1. 1 2
  2. 22
  3. 2−
  4. 2

1746. Simplified form of 55 335 5x − −    is (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 1 x
  2. x
  3. x– 5
  4. x5

1747. What will come in place of both the question marks in the following question?

  1. 10
  2. 10 2
  3. 20
  4. 20
  5. 210

1748. The value of 1 0.2545 (125)× is :

  1. 5
  2. 5
  3. 55
  4. 25

1749. The value of 2 31 3 45 1 11 (256)(216) (32) − −− ++ is (M.B.A., 2003)

  1. 102
  2. 105
  3. 107
  4. 109

1750. (2.4 × 10 3) ÷ (8 × 10 – 2 ) =?

  1. 3 × 10 – 5
  2. 3 × 10 4
  3. 3 × 10 5
  4. 30

1751. 24 3311 ?216 27 −−    ÷=    

  1. 3 4
  2. 2 3
  3. 4 9
  4. 1 8

1752. 2 55 7 77(48) (16) (3) ? − −− × ×= (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 1 3
  2. 1 48
  3. 1
  4. 48

1753. If 10x = 1 ,2 then 10 –8x =? (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 1 256
  2. 16
  3. 80
  4. 256

1754. If 3 6 2133 3 ,55 5 x−−   =    then x is equal to (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. – 2
  2. – 1
  3. 1
  4. 2

1755. 49 × 49 × 49 × 49 = 7 ?

  1. 4
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 16

1756. The value of (8 – 25 – 8 – 26 ) is

  1. 7 × 8 – 25
  2. 7 × 8 – 26
  3. 8 × 8 – 26
  4. None of these

1757. 41 52(64) ( 32) −− −− =?

  1. 1 8
  2. 3 8
  3. 1 16
  4. 3 16
  5. None of these

1758. If 13 , xxab ba −−   =    then the value of x is (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 1 2
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 7 2

1759. If 21 3 12, 8 n n − −= then the value of n is

  1. – 2
  2. 0
  3. 2
  4. 3

1760. If 5a = 3125, then the value of 5

  1. 25
  2. 125
  3. 625
  4. 1625

1761. If 3 23 255 5 5 5 , a− +×÷ = then the value of a is (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 8

1762. If 2 64,n = then the value of n is

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 12

1763. If 52( 3) 9 3 3 3, n×=× then the value of n is

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5

1764. If 53 4 9 3 (27) 27, 3 (81) n ×× = × then the value of n is

  1. 0
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

1765. If 198 2 .,4 27 3 xx −    =     then the value of x is

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

1766. If 32 32,x = then x is equal to

  1. 5
  2. 3
  3. 3 5
  4. 5 3

1767. If 11 552 8 2,x ×= then x is equal to

  1. 1 5
  2. 1 5−
  3. 2 5
  4. 2 5−

1768. If 5(x + 3) = 25 (3x – 4) , then the value of x is

  1. 5 11
  2. 11 5
  3. 11 3
  4. 13 5

1769. 4 3 2 2(2 ) 2(2 ) n n n + + − when simplified is (M.B.A., 2011)

  1. 1 12 8 n + −
  2. – 2 n + 1
  3. 1 – 2 n
  4. 7 8

1770. Simplify 44 3663 99 ;aa   the result is (M.B.A. , 2011)

  1. a4
  2. a8
  3. a12
  4. a16

1771. (256)0.16 × (256)0.09 =? (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. 4
  2. 16
  3. 64
  4. 256.25

1772. (0.04)– 1.5 =?

  1. 25
  2. 125
  3. 250
  4. 625

1773. (17)3.5 × (17)? = 17 8

  1. 2.29
  2. 2.75
  3. 4.25
  4. 4.5

1774. 61.2 × 36 ? × 30 2.4 × 25 1.3 = 30 5 (Specialist Officers', 2006)

  1. 0.1
  2. 0.7
  3. 1.4
  4. 2.6
  5. None of these

1775. 23.6 × 43.6 × 43.6 × (32)2.3 =(32)? (Specialist Officers', 2007)

  1. 5.9
  2. 7.7
  3. 9.5
  4. 13.1
  5. None of these

1776. 33.5 × 21 2 × 42 2.5 ÷ 2 2.5 × 7 3.5 = 21 ?

  1. 6.5
  2. 8
  3. 10
  4. 12.5
  5. None of these

1777. 80.4 × 4 1.6 × 2 1.6 =?

  1. 48
  2. 52
  3. 64
  4. 76
  5. None of these

1778. 87 × 2 6 ÷ 8 2.4 = 8 ?

  1. 6.6
  2. 8.6
  3. 9.6
  4. 10.6
  5. None of these

1779. 252.7 × 5 4.2 ÷ 5 5.4 = 25 ?

  1. 1.6
  2. 1.7
  3. 3.2
  4. 3.6
  5. None of these

1780. 82.4 × 2 3.7 – (16) 1.3 = 2 ?

  1. 4.8
  2. 5.7
  3. 5.8
  4. 7.1
  5. None of these

1781. (0.04)2 ÷ (0.008) × (0.2)6 = (0.2)?

  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 8
  4. 9
  5. None of these

1782. (18)3.5 ÷ (27)3.5 × 6 3.5 = 2 ?

  1. 3.5
  2. 4.5
  3. 6
  4. 7
  5. None of these

1783. (25)7.5 × (5)2.5 ÷ (125) 1.5 = 5 ?

  1. 8.5
  2. 13
  3. 16
  4. 17.5
  5. None of these

1784. The value of 0.13 0.07 0.25 0.075 0.2 (243) (243) (7) (49) (343) × ×× is

  1. 3 7
  2. 7 3
  3. 31 7
  4. 22 7

1785. 2 33 3(64 27 ) ?xa −−÷= (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 9 16 ax
  2. 9 16ax
  3. 22 9 16xa
  4. 223 4 xa−−

1786. If 2n + 4 – 2 n + 2 = 3, then n is equal to

  1. 0
  2. 2
  3. – 1
  4. – 2

1787. If 2n – 1 + 2 n + 1 = 320, then n is equal to

  1. 6
  2. 8
  3. 5
  4. 7

1788. If 3x – 3 x – 1 = 18, then the value of xx is

  1. 3
  2. 8
  3. 27
  4. 216

1789. 4 3 ( 3) 2 22 2 22 n n n + − + −× + × is equal to

  1. 2n + 1
  2. 9 28 n −
  3. 1 12 8 n +−+
  4. 1

1790. The value of 34 1 1 32 28 82 xx xx ++ ++ + − is

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

1791. The value of 1 41 22 22 n n nn − ++ − + is

  1. 1 36−
  2. 2 3
  3. 1 13
  4. 5 13

1792. If x = 15 2 6 , then x x +− is

  1. 22
  2. 23
  3. 32+
  4. 32−

1793. (4 7 ),+ expressed as a perfect square, is equal to (Section Officers', 2005)

  1. 2(2 7 )+
  2. 2 71 22  +
  3. 21 ( 7 1)2  +
  4. 2( 3 4)+

1794. 8 2 15− is equal to

  1. 35−
  2. 53−
  3. 53−
  4. 53+

1795. 6 4 3 16 8 3− +− is equal to

  1. 13−
  2. 31−
  3. 2 (2 3)−
  4. 2 (2 3)+

1796. The value of 12 12 140 8 60 10 84 1 −− −−+ is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3

1797. The value of the expression 4 15 4 15 12 4 5++ −− − is

  1. an irrational number
  2. a negative integer
  3. a natural number
  4. a non-integer rational number

1798. If N = 52 52 3 2 2, 51 ++ − −− + then the value of N is

  1. 22 1 −
  2. 3
  3. 1
  4. 2

1799. Given that 10 0.48 = x, 100.70 = y and xz = y2, then the value of z is close to

  1. 1.45
  2. 1.88
  3. 2.9
  4. 3.7

1800. If m and n are whole numbers suchthat mn = 121, then the value of ( m – 1) n + 1 is (S.S.C., 2001)

  1. 1
  2. 10
  3. 121
  4. 1000

1801. Number of prime factors in 3 21 5 55(216) (2500) (300)×× is

  1. 6
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. None of these

1802. Number of prime factors in 12 28 16 12 11 6 (35) (15) (14) (21) ×× × is

  1. 56
  2. 66
  3. 112
  4. None of these

1803. 1 + (3 + 1) (3 2 + 1) (3 4 + 1) (3 8 + 1) (3 16 + 1) (332 + 1) is equal to (Section Officers', 2005)

  1. 6431 2 −
  2. 6431 2 +
  3. 3 64 – 1
  4. 3 64 + 1

1804. () () 11 ? 11 nm mnaa −− += ++ (M.B.A., 2003; NMAT, 2006)

  1. 0
  2. 1 2
  3. 1
  4. am + n

1805. If a + b + c = 0, then the value of 2 22 ( ) .( ) .( )a bc b ca c ababcxxx − −− is equal to

  1. – 2
  2. – 1
  3. 0
  4. 1

1806. () () () () () () 11 11 1 ? 1 ba ca ab cb bc ac xx xx xx −− −− −− + ++ ++ += ++ (M.B.A., 2003)

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. xa – b – c
  4. None of these

1807. () () () .. ? bca cab abcbca cab xxx xxx +− +− +−    =     (NMAT, 2005; L.I.C., 2003)

  1. xabc
  2. 1
  3. xab + bc + ca
  4. xa + b + c

1808. () () () .. ? ab bc caabc bca xxx xxx + ++    =     (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 0
  2. xabc
  3. xa + b + c
  4. 1

1809. 111 .. ? abc ab bc ca bca xxx xxx    =    

  1. 1
  2. 1 abcx
  3. 1 ()ab bc cax ++
  4. None of these

1810. The expression 11 . 11 . ab ab xx yy yy xx  +−    +−   reduces to

  1. abx y −  
  2. aby x − 
  3. abx y +  
  4. aby x + 

1811. The value of ( ) ( ) ( ) 111 .. bc ca abab bc ca ca ab bcxxx +++ − −− −−− is

  1. 1
  2. a
  3. b
  4. c

1812. If 11 1 pq rxyz== and xyz = 1, then the value of p + q + r would be (M.B.A. 2008)

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. a rational number

1813. If ax = by = cz and b2 = ac, then y equals

  1. xz xz+
  2. 2( ) xz xz−
  3. 2( ) xz zx−
  4. 2 () xz xz+

1814. If ax = b, by = c and cz = a, then the value of xyz is (M.B.A., 2005; R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 1 abc
  4. abc

1815. If 2x = 4 y = 8 z and 1 1 1 24 ,246 7xyz  ++ = then the value of z is

  1. 7 16
  2. 7 32
  3. 7 48
  4. 7 64

1816. Suppose 4a = 5, 5 b = 6, 6 c = 7, 7 d = 8, then the value of abcd is

  1. 1
  2. 3 2
  3. 2
  4. 5 2

1817. If abc = 1, then 11 1 11 11 ?1 1 ab bc ca −− −  + ++ ++ = + ++

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 1 ab
  4. ab

1818. If a, b, c are real numbers, then the value of 1 11.. isab bc ca− −−

  1. abc
  2. abc
  3. 1 abc
  4. 1

1819. If 3(x – y) = 27 and 3 (x + y) = 243, then x is equal to (R.R.B., 2003)

  1. 0
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 6

1820. If xy = yx, then x yx y   is equal to (M.C.A., 2005)

  1. y xx
  2. 1x yx −
  3. 1
  4. x yx

1821. If 4x + y = 1 and 4 x - y = 4, then the values of x and y respectively are

  1. 11and22−
  2. 11and22−−
  3. 11and22 −
  4. 11and22

1822. If 22x – 1 + 4 x = 11 222 2, xx−+ + then x equals

  1. 1 2
  2. 2 3
  3. 3 2
  4. 1

1823. If 32x – y = 3x + y = 27 , the value of y is (R.R.B., 2005)

  1. 1 2
  2. 1 4
  3. 3 2
  4. 3 4

1824. If 3x = 5 y = 45 z, then

  1. 211 zyx=−
  2. 211 yxz=−
  3. 211 xzy=−
  4. x + y + z = 0

1825. Given 2x = 8 y + 1 and 9 y = 3 x – 9 , the value of x + y is (M.B.A., 2010)

  1. 18
  2. 21
  3. 24
  4. 27

1826. What are the values of x and y that satisfy the equation 2 0.7x . 3 –1.25y = 86 ?27

  1. x = 2.5, y = 6
  2. x = 3, y = 5
  3. x = 3, y = 4
  4. x = 5, y = 2

1827. Let r be the result of doubling both thebase and the exponent of ab, b ≠ 0. If r equals the product of ab by xb, then x equals (M.B.A., 2010)

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 2 a
  4. 4a

1828. Which of the following is the greatest? (Section Officers', 2005)

  1. 2
  2. 3 3
  3. 4 4
  4. 6 6

1829. The greatest of 36 42, 3, 4, 5 is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 2
  2. 3 4
  3. 4 5
  4. 6 3

1830. The largest number in the sequence 1111 3241, 2 , 3 , 4 , ..., nn is (I.I.F.T., 2005)

  1. 1 22
  2. 1 3 3
  3. 1 5 5
  4. 1 66

1831. If x = 5 2 6,+ then ( 1)x x − is equal to

  1. 2
  2. 22
  3. 3
  4. 23

1832. If 1 11 3 33 ,xyz+= then {( x + y – z)3 + 27 xyz} equals

  1. – 1
  2. 0
  3. 1
  4. 27

1833. If x = 21 33 2 2 2,++ then the value of x3 – 6 x2 + 6 x is (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. None of these

1834. Find the value of ( ) ( ) ( )5 5322 3 −−× × [ESIC—UDC Exam, 2016]

  1. –108
  2. 27
  3. ( ) ( )25 323 ×
  4. –27

1835. The quotient when 10 100 is divided by 5 75 is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 25 752 10×
  2. 10 25
  3. 2 75
  4. 2 75 × 10 25

1836. The exponential form of 23× is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 6
  2. 1 26
  3. 1 36
  4. 1 46

1837. 21 ? × 21 6.5 = 21 12.4 [United India Insurance Co. Ltd., UIICL—Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 18.9
  2. 4.4
  3. 5.9
  4. 13.4

1838. 5.4 3 16 2 1 8563 ÷× + ÷×÷ [United India Insurance Co. Ltd., UIICL—Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 8

1839. ( ) ( ) 25 16 4 ?32 10 64 2 10 10 −−−× ×÷ × = [IBPS—RRB Office Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 6
  2. 10
  3. –8
  4. –6

1840. The value of log 2 16 is

  1. 1 8
  2. 4
  3. 8
  4. 16

1841. The value of log 343 7 is

  1. 1 3
  2. – 3
  3. − 1 3
  4. 3

1842. The value of log5 (125) (625) 25 is equal to (M.B.A., 2011)

  1. 725
  2. 5
  3. 3125
  4. 6

1843. The value of 2log 32 is

  1. 5 2
  2. 5
  3. 10
  4. 1 10

1844. Determine the value of 32 1log . 18 (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 2
  2. – 2
  3. 2
  4. 3

1845. The value of log 10 (.0001) is

  1. 1 4
  2. 1– 4
  3. – 4
  4. 4

1846. The value of log .01(1000) is

  1. 1 3
  2. 1– 3
  3. 3 2
  4. 3– 2

1847. What is the value of [log 10 (5 log 10 100)] 2? (M.B.A., 2010)

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 10
  4. 25

1848. The logarithm of 0.0625 to the base 2 is

  1. – 4
  2. – 2
  3. 0.25
  4. 0.5

1849. The logarithm of 0.00001 to the base 0.01 is equal to

  1. 5– 2
  2. 5 2
  3. 3
  4. 5

1850. If log3 x = – 2, then x is equal to

  1. – 9
  2. – 6
  3. – 8
  4. 1 9

1851. If log8x = 2 ,3 then the value of x is

  1. 3 4
  2. 4 3
  3. 3
  4. 4

1852. If log8 p = 25 and log 2 q = 5, then

  1. p = q15
  2. p2 = q3
  3. p = q5
  4. p3 = q

1853. If 91log ,16 2x  =− then x is equal to

  1. 3– 4
  2. 3 4
  3. 81 256
  4. 256 81

1854. If logx 4 = 0.4, then the value of x is

  1. 1
  2. 4
  3. 16
  4. 32

1855. If log10000 x = 1–, 4 then x is equal to (N.M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 1 10
  2. 1 100
  3. 1 1000
  4. 1 10000

1856. If logx 4 = 1 ,4 then x is equal to

  1. 16
  2. 64
  3. 128
  4. 256

1857. If logx (0.1) = – 1 ,3 then the value of x is

  1. 10
  2. 100
  3. 1000
  4. 1 1000

1858. If log32 x = 0.8, then x is equal to

  1. 25.6
  2. 16
  3. 10
  4. 12.8

1859. If log x y = 100 and log 2 x = 10, then the value of y is

  1. 2 10
  2. 2 100
  3. 2 1000
  4. 2 10000

1860. The value of log (– 1/3) 81 is equal to

  1. – 27
  2. – 4
  3. 4
  4. 27

1861. The value of 23log (1728) is

  1. 3
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 9

1862. log 8 log 8 is equal to (M.B.A. 2004, I.A.F., 2002)

  1. 1 8
  2. 1 4
  3. 1 2
  4. 1 8

1863. Which of the following statements is not correct ? (M.B.A., 2003)

  1. log10 10 = 1
  2. log (2 + 3) = log (2 × 3)
  3. log10 1 = 0
  4. log (1 + 2 + 3) = log 1 + log 2 + log 3

1864. The value of 10 10 6 log 1000 3 log 100 is equal to

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3

1865. log10 (10 × 10 2 × 10 3 × ...... × 10 9) is

  1. 10
  2. 20
  3. 45
  4. 55

1866. The value of log 2 (log 5 625) is :

  1. 2
  2. 5
  3. 10
  4. 15

1867. If log2 [log 3 (log2 x)] = 1, then x is equal to : (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. 0
  2. 12
  3. 128
  4. 512

1868. log10 log 10 log 10 (101010) is equal to

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 10
  4. 100

1869. The value of log 2 log 2 log 3 log 3 27 3 is

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3

1870. The value of log 2 [log 2 {log4 (log 4 256 4)}] is

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 4

1871. If ax = by, then

  1. =log ax by
  2. =log log a x by
  3. =log log a y bx
  4. None of these

1872. log 360 is equal to

  1. 2 log 2 + 3 log 3
  2. 3 log 2 + 2 log 3
  3. 3 log 2 + 2 log 3 – log 5
  4. 3 log 2 + 2 log 3 + log 5

1873. 10 10 10 10 26 119 13 64log log – log – log51 91 32 39+ is equal to

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3

1874. The value of  −+ 10 10 10 1 log 125 2 log 4 log 323 is

  1. 0
  2. 4 5
  3. 1
  4. 2

1875. The value of log10 ++ 10 111 log 123  up to 198 terms is equal to

  1. 0
  2. 2
  3. 10
  4. 100

1876. What is the value of the following expression?    +   9 15 35log – log log14 16 24 (I.I.F.T., 2005)

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3

1877. +− =10 10 10 12 log 5 log 8 log 4 ? 2 (M.B.A., 2002)

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 2 + 2 log 10 2
  4. 4 – 4 log 10 2

1878. The value of log 102 + 16 log 10 ++ 10 10 16 25 8112 log 7 log15 24 80 is

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3

1879. If loga

  1. 1 x
  2. + 1 x x
  3. −1 x x
  4. –1 x x

1880. If logam = x, then 1 1log a m equals

  1. 1– x
  2. 1 x
  3. – x
  4. x

1881. If log102 = a and log 103 = b, then log 5 12 equals (M.B.A., 2010)

  1. + +1 ab a
  2. + + 2 1 ab a
  3. + + 2 1 ab a
  4. +2 1– ab a

1882. If log 2 = x, log 3 = y and log 7 = z, then the value of log 3(4. 63) is

  1. +−212 33xyz
  2. ++212 33xyz
  3. −+212 33xyz
  4. −+ + 212 33xyz

1883. If log4 x + log 2 x = 6, then x is equal to

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 8
  4. 16

1884. If log10 (x2 – 6 x + 10) = 0, then the value of x is

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

1885. If log 10 x + log 10 y = 3 and log 10 x – log 10 y = 1, then x and y are respectively

  1. 10 and 100
  2. 100 and 10
  3. 1000 and 100
  4. 100 and 1000

1886. If log10 x + log 10 5 = 2, then x equals

  1. 15
  2. 20
  3. 25
  4. 100

1887. If 88 11log log , 63x += then the value of x is

  1. 12
  2. 16
  3. 18
  4. 24

1888. If log10 125 + log 10 8 = x, then x is equal to (M.B.A., 2005)

  1. 1 3
  2. .064
  3. – 3
  4. 3

1889. The value of (log 9 27 + log 8 32) is

  1. 7 2
  2. 19 6
  3. 4
  4. 7

1890. (log5 3) × (log 3 625) equals

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

1891. (log5 5) (log 4 9) (log 3 2) is equal to

  1. 1
  2. 3 2
  3. 2
  4. 5

1892. If log12 27 = a, then log 6 16 is

  1. 3 4 (3 ) a a − +
  2. 3 4 (3 ) a a + −
  3. 4(3 ) (3 ) a a + −
  4. 4 (3 – ) (3 ) a a+

1893. If log10 5 + log10 (5x + 1) = log10 (x + 5) + 1, then x is equal to

  1. 1
  2. 3
  3. 5
  4. 10

1894. If log 5 ( x2 + x) – log 5 ( x + 1) = 2, then the value of x is (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. 5
  2. 10
  3. 25
  4. 32

1895. 1 (log log )2 xy+ will equal log 2 xy+ if (R.R.B., 2005)

  1. y = 0
  2. xy=
  3. x = y
  4. 2 yx =

1896. The value of 345 111 log 60 log 60 log 60  ++  is

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 5
  4. 60

1897. The value of (log 3 4) (log 4 5) (log 5 6) (log 6 7) (log 7 8) (log 8 9) is

  1. 2
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 33

1898. The value of 16 log45 is

  1. 5 64
  2. 5
  3. 16
  4. 25

1899. If log x + log y = log ( x + y), then

  1. x = y
  2. xy = 1
  3. 1xy x −=
  4. 1 xy x= −

1900. If log logab ba+ = log

  1. a + b = 1
  2. a – b = 1
  3. a = b
  4. a2 – b2 = 1

1901. 222 log log logabc bc ac ab    ++         is equal to (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. abc

1902. 111 log log logabcbca×× is equal to (Hotel Management, 2010)

  1. a + b + c
  2. abc
  3. 0
  4. 1

1903. 111 (log ) 1 (log ) 1 (log ) 1abcbc ca ab  ++ +++ is equal to (I.I.F.T., 2005)

  1. 1
  2. 3 2
  3. 2
  4. 3

1904. The value of ( / )( / )( / ) 111 log log logpq qr rpxxx  ++  is

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3

1905. If a = bx, b = cy and c = az, then the value of xyz is equal to

  1. – 1
  2. 0
  3. 1
  4. abc

1906. If log x – 5 log 3 = – 2, then x equals (M.B.A., 2011)

  1. 0.8
  2. 0.81
  3. 1.25
  4. 2.43

1907. If a = b2 = c3 = d4, then the value of loga

  1. log a1 + log a2 + log a3 + log a4
  2. log a 24
  3. 1111 234+++
  4. 1111 2! 3! 4!+++

1908. If log3x + log 9 x2 + log 27x3 = 9, then x equals (M.B.A., 2010)

  1. 3
  2. 9
  3. 27
  4. None of these

1909. If log7 log 5 ( 5 ) 0,xx++ = what is the value of x? (M.B.A., 2009)

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5

1910. If a = log 8 225 and b = log 2 15, then a in terms of b, is (M.B.A., 2010)

  1. 2 b
  2. 3 b2
  3. b
  4. 3 2 b

1911. If log 27 = 1.431, then the value of log 9 is

  1. 0.934
  2. 0.945
  3. 0.954
  4. 0.958

1912. If log10 2 = 0.3010, then log 2 10 is equal to

  1. 699 301
  2. 1000 301
  3. 0.3010
  4. 0.6990

1913. If log10 2 = 0.3010, the value of log 10 5 is

  1. 0.3241
  2. 0.6911
  3. 0.6990
  4. 0.7525

1914. If log10 2 = 0.3010, the value of log 10 80 is

  1. 1.6020
  2. 1.9030
  3. 3.9030
  4. None of these

1915. If log 3 = 0.477 and (1000) x = 3, then x equals

  1. 0.0159
  2. 0.0477
  3. 0.159
  4. 10

1916. If log10 2 = 0.3010, the value of log 10 25 is

  1. 0.6020
  2. 1.2040
  3. 1.3980
  4. 1.5050

1917. If log 1020 = 1.3010 and log 1030 = 1.4771, then log 10 (60000) is equal to

  1. 0.7781
  2. 1.7781
  3. 2.7781
  4. 4.7781

1918. If log 2 = 0.3010 and log 3 = 0.4771, the value of log5 512 is (M.A.T., 2002)

  1. 2.870
  2. 2.967
  3. 3.876
  4. 3.912

1919. If log103 = 0.4771 and log107 = 0.8451, then the value of log10 123 3  is equal to

  1. 0.368
  2. 1.356
  3. 1.368
  4. 1.477

1920. If log 10 2 = 0.3010 and log 10 3 = 0.4771, then the value of log 10 1.5 is

  1. 0.1761
  2. 0.7116
  3. 0.7161
  4. 0.7611

1921. If log 10 2 = 0.3010 and log 10 7 = 0.8451, then the value of log 10 2.8 is

  1. 0.4471
  2. 1.4471
  3. 2.4471
  4. None of these

1922. If log (0.57) = 1.756, then the value of log 57 + log (0.57)3 + log 0.57 is

  1. 0.902
  2. 2.146
  3. 1.902
  4. 1.146

1923. If the logarithm of a number is – 3.153, what are characteristic and mantisa? (M.B.A., 2009)

  1. Characteristic = – 4, mantissa = 0.847
  2. Characteristic = – 3, mantissa = – 0.153
  3. Characteristic = 4, mantissa = – 0.847
  4. Characteristic = 3, mantissa = – 0.153

1924. If log 2 = 0.30103, the number of digits in 2 64 is

  1. 18
  2. 19
  3. 20
  4. 21

1925. If log 2 = 0.30103, the number of digits in 4 50 is (Hotel Management, 2009)

  1. 30
  2. 31
  3. 100
  4. 200

1926. If log 2 = 0.30103, then the number of digits in 5 20 is

  1. 14
  2. 16
  3. 18
  4. 25

1927. If log 2 = 0.30103, log 3 = 0.47712, then the number of digits in 6 20 is

  1. 15
  2. 16
  3. 17
  4. 18

1928. The number of digits in 4 9 × 5 17, when expressed in usual form, is

  1. 16
  2. 17
  3. 18
  4. 19

1929. If log 3 log (3 x – 2) and log (3 x + 4) are in arithmetic progression, then x is equal to (IIFT, 2012)

  1. 8/3
  2. log 3 8
  3. log 23
  4. 8

1930. If log10a = p and log 10b = q , then what is log 10

  1. p2 + q2
  2. p2 – q2
  3. p2q2
  4. 2 2 p q

1931. How is 3 4 expressed as percentage? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 0.75%
  2. 7.5%
  3. 75%
  4. 60%

1932. The ratio 5: 4 expressed as a percent equals

  1. 12.5%
  2. 40%
  3. 80%
  4. 125%

1933. 3.5 can be expressed in terms of percentage as

  1. 0.35%
  2. 3.5%
  3. 35%
  4. 350%

1934. When expressed as a fraction 64% would mean

  1. 16 25
  2. 9 64
  3. 8 81
  4. 12 121

1935. Half of 1 percent written as a decimal is (L.I.C.A.D.O., 2008)

  1. 0.005
  2. 0.05
  3. 0.02
  4. 0.2

1936. 12% of 5000 =?

  1. 600
  2. 620
  3. 680
  4. 720

1937. 38% of 341 =?

  1. 120.68
  2. 129.58
  3. 135.78
  4. 136.28
  5. None of these

1938. (550% of 250) ÷ 275 =?

  1. 15
  2. 0.5
  3. 1.5
  4. 25
  5. None of these

1939. 280% of 3940 =? (L.I.C.A.D.O., 2007)

  1. 10132
  2. 11032
  3. 11230
  4. 11320
  5. None of these

1940. 92.5% of 550 =?

  1. 506.45
  2. 508.75
  3. 518.55
  4. 521.65
  5. None of these

1941. 2% of 2 =?

  1. 0.04
  2. 0.4
  3. 0.02
  4. 0.004

1942. 10% of 5 and 5% of 10 add up to (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 0.10
  2. 0.25
  3. 1.0
  4. 2.5

1943. 36% of 245 – 40% of 210 = 10 –?

  1. 4.2
  2. 4.9
  3. 5.6
  4. 6.8
  5. None of these

1944. 45% of 300 + ? = 56% of 750 – 10% of 250 (R.R.B., 2009)

  1. 60
  2. 130
  3. 260
  4. 67600

1945. 15% of 578 + 22.5% of 644 =?

  1. 231.4
  2. 231.6
  3. 231.8
  4. 233.6
  5. None of these

1946. 140% of 56 + 56% of 140 =?

  1. 78.4
  2. 87.4
  3. 156.6
  4. 158.6
  5. None of these

1947. (7.9% of 134) – (3.4% of 79) =?

  1. 7.3
  2. 7.8
  3. 8.1
  4. 8.6
  5. None of these

1948. (23.6% of 1254) – (16.6% of 834) =? (S.B.I.P.O., 2008)

  1. 153.5
  2. 155.5
  3. 157.5
  4. 159.5
  5. None of these

1949. (0.85% of 405) + (2.25% of 550) =?

  1. 13.8175
  2. 14.7125
  3. 15.7150
  4. 16.7175
  5. None of these

1950. What is 45% of 25% of 4 th of 850?5

  1. 67.5
  2. 69.5
  3. 76.5
  4. 83.5
  5. None of these

1951. What is 28% of 36% of 5 th of 5000 ?7

  1. 360
  2. 375
  3. 420
  4. 480
  5. None of these

1952. (0.56% of 225) × (3.25% of 430) =?

  1. 15.3195
  2. 15.6175
  3. 17.3075
  4. 17.6085
  5. None of these

1953. An agent sells goods of value of ₹ 15000. The commission which he receives at the rate of 112 %2 is (SNAP, 2010)

  1. ₹ 1875
  2. ₹ 2000
  3. ₹ 2125
  4. ₹ 2700

1954. One-eighth of a number is 41.5. What will 69% of that number be?

  1. 219.12
  2. 225.76
  3. 229.08
  4. 232.4
  5. None of these

1955. Ten percent of twenty plus twenty percent of ten equals

  1. 10 percent of 20
  2. 20 percent of 10
  3. 1 percent of 200
  4. 2 percent of 200

1956. 60% of 264 is the same as

  1. 10% of 44
  2. 15% of 1056
  3. 30% of 132
  4. None of these

1957. 270 candidates appeared for an examination, of which 252 passed. The pass percentage is:

  1. 80%
  2. 183 %2
  3. 90 %3 1
  4. 193 %3

1958. 5 out of 2250 parts of earth is sulphur. What is the percentage of sulphur in earth?

  1. 11 50
  2. 2 9
  3. 1 45
  4. 2 45

1959. In an examination Sumit scores a total of 626 marks out of 850. What is his approximate percentage in the examination?

  1. 64
  2. 67
  3. 74
  4. 79
  5. 83

1960. The marks obtained by a student are given below. What is his total percentage in all the subjects? Subjects Total Marks Marks Obtained Mathematics 100 100 Science 100 84 Social Studies 100 67 English 50 25 Hindi 50 24

  1. 56%
  2. 68%
  3. 75%
  4. 80%

1961. The following table gives the marks obtained by a student in the first and second semester examinations in four subjects in a given year. Subjects 1st Semester 2nd Semester Maximum Marks Physics 35 30 50 Chemistry 30 25 50 Mathematics 65 45 100 Social Science 80 85 100 The aggregate percentage of marks obtained by the student in the given year is nearly

  1. 56
  2. 61
  3. 64
  4. 66

1962. I paid ₹ 27.20 as sales tax on a watch worth ₹ 340. Find the rate of sales tax.

  1. 8%
  2. 9%
  3. 10%
  4. 12%

1963. What percent of 88 is 33?

  1. 34.5%
  2. 35.5%
  3. 36.5%
  4. 37.5%

1964. 0.01 is what percent of 0.1? (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 1 100
  2. 1 10
  3. 10
  4. 100

1965. What percent is 1 minute and 12 seconds of an hour?

  1. 2%
  2. 10%
  3. 12%
  4. 20%

1966. The enrolment of students in a school increases from 560 to 581. What is the percent increase in the enrolment?

  1. 2.75%
  2. 3.25%
  3. 3.72%
  4. 3.75%

1967. What percent of 7.2 kg is 18 gms?

  1. .025%
  2. .25%
  3. 2.5%
  4. 25%

1968. What percent of ₹ 2650 is ₹ 1987.50?

  1. 60%
  2. 75%
  3. 80%
  4. 90%

1969. What percent of a day is 3 hours?

  1. 112 %2
  2. 216 %3
  3. 218 %3
  4. 122 %2

1970. The price for a pair of cuff links is ₹ 1.00. The price for a 5-pair package of cuff links is ₹ 3.40. The 5-pair package is what percent cheaper per pair than 5 pairs purchased separately? (M.A.T., 2004)

  1. 32%
  2. 47%
  3. 62%
  4. 63%

1971. A bakery opened with its daily supply of 40 dozen rolls. Half of the rolls were sold by noon and 60% of the remaining rolls were sold between noon and closing time. How many dozen rolls were left unsold? (SNAP, 2010)

  1. 6
  2. 8
  3. 10
  4. 12

1972. 5 kg of metal A and 20 kg of metal B are mixed to form an alloy. The percentage of metal A in the alloy is

  1. 20%
  2. 25%
  3. 40%
  4. None of these

1973. 30% apples out of 450 are rotten. How many apples are in good condition? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 125
  2. 180
  3. 240
  4. 315

1974. A company pays rent of ₹ 25000 per month for office space to its owner. But if the company pays the annual rent at the beginning of the year the owner gives a discount of 5% on the total annual rent. What is the annual amount the company pays to the owner after the discount?

  1. ₹ 2,75,000
  2. ₹ 2,85,000
  3. ₹ 2,95,000
  4. ₹ 3,00,000
  5. None of these

1975. An interval of 3 hours 40 minutes is wrongly estimated as 3 hours 45.5 minutes. The error percentage is (S.S.C., 2006)

  1. 2.5
  2. 5
  3. 5.2
  4. 5.5

1976. The following table gives the income distribution of 200 households of a village: Monthly Income (in ₹ ) Number of Households < 1000 < 2000 < 5000 < 10000 25 80 170 200 What is the percentage of households whose monthly income is above ₹ 2000 but below ₹ 5000? (P.C.S., 2006)

  1. 32.5
  2. 45
  3. 85
  4. 90

1977. In two successive years 100 and 75 students of a school appeared at the final examination. Respectively 75% and 60% of them passed. The average rate of pass is

  1. 468 %7
  2. 78%
  3. 80%
  4. 180 %2

1978. A toy merchant announces 25% rebate in prices of balls. If one needs to have a rebate of ₹ 40, then how many balls each costing ₹ 32, he should purchase? (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. 10

1979. 1.14 expressed as a percent of 1.9 is (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 6%
  2. 10%
  3. 60%
  4. 90%

1980. Kamal has 160 toffees. He gave 5% toffees to Ravi, 15% toffees to Anita and one-fourth of the toffees to Gagan. How many toffees are left with Kamal after the distribution?

  1. 78
  2. 69
  3. 88
  4. 79
  5. None of these

1981. A shopkeeper sells note-books at the rate of ₹ 45 each and earns a commission of 4%. He also sells pencil boxes at the rate of ₹ 80 each and earns a commission of 20%. How much amount of commission will he earn in two weeks if he sells 10 note-books and 6 pencil boxes a day?

  1. ₹ 1496
  2. ₹ 1586
  3. ₹ 1596
  4. ₹ 1956
  5. None of these

1982. It costs ₹ 1 to photocopy a sheet of paper. However, 2% discount is allowed on all photocopies done after first 1000 sheets. How much will it cost to copy 5000 sheets of paper? (IGNOU, 2003)

  1. ₹ 3920
  2. ₹ 3980
  3. ₹ 4900
  4. ₹ 4920

1983. A housewife saved ₹ 2.50 in buying an item on sale. If she spent ₹ 25 for the item, approximately how much percent she saved in the transaction? (Section Officers’, 2003)

  1. 8%
  2. 9%
  3. 10%
  4. 11%

1984. How many litres of pure acid are there in 8 litres of a 20% solution?

  1. 1.4
  2. 1.5
  3. 1.6
  4. 2.4

1985. Rajeev buys goods worth ₹ 6650. He gets a rebate of 6% on it. After getting the rebate, he pays sales tax @ 10%. Find the amount he will have to pay for the goods. (M.A.T., 2002)

  1. ₹ 6876.10
  2. ₹ 6999.20
  3. ₹ 6654
  4. ₹ 7000

1986. Which one of the following shows the best percent - age?

  1. 384 540
  2. 425 500
  3. 570 700
  4. 480 660

1987. In a class of 65 students and 4 teachers, each student got sweets that are 20% of the total number of students and each teacher got sweets that are 40% of the total number of students. How many sweets are there?

  1. 104
  2. 845
  3. 949
  4. 897
  5. None of these

1988. A student scores 55% marks in 8 papers of 100 marks each. He scores 15% of his total marks in English. How much does he score in English?

  1. 44
  2. 45
  3. 66
  4. 77
  5. None of these

1989. A, B, C and D have ₹ 40, 50, 60 and 70 respectively when they go to visit a fair. A spends ₹ 18, B spends ₹ 21, C spends ₹ 24 and D spends ₹ 27. Who has done the highest expenditure proportionate to his resources?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

1990. A country follows a progressive taxation system under which the income tax rate applicable varies for different slabs of income. Total tax is computed by calculating the tax for each slab and adding them up. The rates applicable are as follows: (M.A.T., 2005, 2006) Annual Income Slab (in ₹ ) Tax Rate Applicable 0 – 50,000 0% 50,001 – 60,000 10% 60,001 – 1,50,000 20% > 1,50,000 30% If my annual income is ₹ 1,70,000, then what is the tax payable by me?

  1. ₹ 17000
  2. ₹ 25000
  3. ₹ 34000
  4. ₹ 51000

1991. 40% of 60% of 3 th5 of a number is 504. What is 25% of 2 th5 of that number? (NABARD, 2009)

  1. 175
  2. 180
  3. 350
  4. 360
  5. None of these

1992. 125% of 3060 – 85% of? = 408

  1. 3890
  2. 3940
  3. 4015
  4. 4020
  5. None of these

1993. 40% of 265 + 35% of 180 = 50% of?

  1. 84.5
  2. 169
  3. 253.5
  4. 338
  5. None of these

1994. ? % of 450 + 46% of 285 = 257.1

  1. 21
  2. 28
  3. 32
  4. 34
  5. None of these

1995. 36% of 365 +? % of 56.2 = 156.69

  1. 30
  2. 35
  3. 40
  4. 45
  5. None of these

1996. 35568 ÷? % of 650 = 456

  1. 12
  2. 14
  3. 16
  4. 18
  5. None of these

1997. 23% of 8040 + 42% of 545 =? % of 3000

  1. 56.17
  2. 63.54
  3. 69.27
  4. 71.04
  5. None of these

1998. 3.2% of 500 × 2.4% of? = 288 (S.B.I.P.O., 2008)

  1. 600
  2. 650
  3. 700
  4. 750

1999. 85% of 485.5 = 50% of?

  1. 675.75
  2. 735.65
  3. 825.35
  4. 915.5
  5. None of these

2000. 40% of 4.5 +? % of 2 3 = 20% of 10

  1. 20
  2. 25
  3. 30
  4. 35
  5. None of these

2001. 30% of 28% of 480 is the same as

  1. 15% of 56% of 240
  2. 60% of 28% of 240
  3. 60% of 56% of 240
  4. None of these

2002. What is 25% of 25% equal to?

  1. 0.00625
  2. 0.0625
  3. 0.625
  4. 6.25

2003. What percent is 3% of 5%?

  1. 15%
  2. 30%
  3. 50%
  4. 60%

2004. 64% of a number is 2592. What is 88% of that number?

  1. 3202
  2. 3458
  3. 3564
  4. 3826
  5. None of these

2005. 42% of a number is 892.5. What is 73% of that number?

  1. 1466.25
  2. 1508.75
  3. 1551.25
  4. 1636.25
  5. None of these

2006. 15% of 45% of a number is 105.3. What is 24% of that number?

  1. 374.4
  2. 375
  3. 385.5
  4. 390
  5. None of these

2007. If 0.03 is X % of 0.3, then the value of X is (I.A.M., 2007)

  1. 3
  2. 10
  3. 30
  4. Cannot be determined

2008. 40% of 60% of 32% of an amount is ₹ 432. What is the amount?

  1. ₹ 5000
  2. ₹ 5600
  3. ₹ 6400
  4. None of these

2009. Find the greatest possible number for which 30% of that number is less than 100.

  1. 325
  2. 328
  3. 331
  4. 333
  5. 335

2010. If ₹ 2800 is 2 7 percent of the value of a house, the worth of the house (in ₹) is

  1. 8,00,000
  2. 9,80,000
  3. 10,00,000
  4. 12,00,000

2011. 15% of? % of 582 = 17.46

  1. 2
  2. 10
  3. 20
  4. None of these

2012. In a year, a man manages to sell only 65% of the chicken he owns. How many chicken should the man own to sell 47775 chicken in a year? (M.B.A., 2005)

  1. 55000
  2. 68500
  3. 73000
  4. 82500
  5. None of these

2013. If 35% of a number is 175, then what percent of 175 is that number?

  1. 35%
  2. 65%
  3. 280%
  4. None of these

2014. If an electricity bill is paid before due date, one gets a reduction of 4% on the amount of the bill. By paying the bill before due date a person got a reduction of ₹ 13. The amount of his electricity bill was (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. ₹ 125
  2. ₹ 225
  3. ₹ 325
  4. ₹ 425

2015. In an examination X secures 58% marks and Y secures 105 marks less than X. If the maximum marks were 700, then what percent of marks did Y secure?

  1. 42 percent
  2. 43 percent
  3. 52 percent
  4. None of these

2016. Ms. Pooja invests 13% of her monthly salary, i.e. ₹ 8554 in Mediclaim Policies. Later she invests 23% of her monthly salary on Child Education Policies ; also she invests another 8% of her monthly salary on Mutual Funds. What is the total annual amount invested by Ms. Pooja? (S.B.I.P.O., 2008)

  1. ₹ 28952
  2. ₹ 43428
  3. ₹ 173712
  4. ₹ 347424
  5. None of these

2017. Nupur invests ₹ 89856, which is 26% of her annual income, in mutual funds. What is her monthly income?

  1. ₹ 23980.50
  2. ₹ 28800
  3. ₹ 28990
  4. ₹ 33606.25
  5. None of these

2018. David and his wife each receives an 8 percent annual rise. If David receives a raise of ₹ 800 and his wife receives a raise of ₹ 840, what is the difference between their annual incomes after their raises?

  1. ₹ 40
  2. ₹ 460
  3. ₹ 500
  4. ₹ 540

2019. If the average of a number, its 75% and its 25% is 240, then the number is (P.C.S., 2006)

  1. 280
  2. 320
  3. 360
  4. 400

2020. A company bought a total of 60 computers and 20 printers to modernise billing operations. If the price of each computer was three times the price of each printer, what percent of the total cost of the purchase was the total cost of the printers?

  1. 10%
  2. 11%
  3. 15%
  4. 20%

2021. An individual pays 30% income tax. On this tax he has to pay a surcharge of 10%. Thus the net tax rate, he has to pay, is

  1. 27%
  2. 33%
  3. 40%
  4. 45%

2022. Anand has drawn an angle of measure 45° 27 ′ when he was asked to draw an angle of 45°. The percentage error in his drawing is

  1. 0.5
  2. 1.0
  3. 1.5
  4. 2.0

2023. The value of which of the following fractions is less than twenty percent?

  1. 5 6
  2. 2 3
  3. 2 5
  4. 1 4
  5. 2 11

2024. The difference between 54% of a number and 26% of the same number is 22526. What is 66% of that number?

  1. 48372
  2. 49124
  3. 51218
  4. 53097
  5. None of these

2025. The difference between 38% of a number and 24% of the same number is ₹ 135.10. What is 40% of that number? (M.A.T., 2009)

  1. 370
  2. 378
  3. 386
  4. 394

2026. 76% of the students in a school are boys. If the number of girls is 204, then the total number of students is (R.R.B., 2010)

  1. 760
  2. 800
  3. 850
  4. 900

2027. In an examination, 65% of the total examinees passed. If the number of failures is 420, the total number of examinees is

  1. 1000
  2. 1200
  3. 1500
  4. 1625

2028. There are 340 vacancies for a particular post in an organisation. Experience shows that 15% of the candidates interviewed get rejected. How many candidates should be interviewed to fill all the vacancies?

  1. 226
  2. 391
  3. 400
  4. 420
  5. None of these

2029. Rajan got 76 percent marks and Sonia got 480 marks in a test. The maximum marks of the test is equal to the marks obtained by Rajan and Sonia together. How many marks did Rajan score in the test?

  1. 1450
  2. 1520
  3. 1540
  4. 2000
  5. None of these

2030. If a bucket is 80% full, then it contains 2 litres more water than when it is 266 %3 full. What is the capacity of the bucket? (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 10 litres
  2. 15 litres
  3. 216 litres3
  4. 20 litres

2031. Vinay decided to donate 5% of his salary. On the day of donation he changed his mind and donated ₹ 1687.50, which was 75% of what he had decided earlier. How much is Vinay's salary?

  1. ₹ 33750
  2. ₹ 37500
  3. ₹ 45000
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

2032. One-fourth of sixty percent of a number is equal to two-fifths of twenty percent of another number. What is the respective ratio of the first number to the second number?

  1. 4: 7
  2. 5: 9
  3. 8: 13
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

2033. The sum of two numbers is 2490. If 6.5% of one number is equal to 8.5% of the other, the greater number is (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 1079
  2. 1250
  3. 1380
  4. 1411

2034. The number of students who opted for IT courses decreased by 23%. If the number is 1540 now, then the original number of students opting for IT courses was

  1. 1600
  2. 1800
  3. 2000
  4. 2200

2035. If the monthly salary of an employee is increased by 22 %,3 he gets ₹ 72 more. His monthly salary (in ₹) is

  1. 2000
  2. 2700
  3. 3600
  4. 7200

2036. A store raised the price of an item by exactly 10 percent. Which of the following could not be the resulting price of the item?

  1. ₹ 5.50
  2. ₹ 7.60
  3. ₹ 11.00
  4. ₹ 12.10

2037. A number increased by 137 %2 gives 33. The number is (Hotel Management, 2005)

  1. 22
  2. 24
  3. 25
  4. 27

2038. Three-fourths of a number is equal to 60% of an - other number and the difference between these two numbers is 20. What is the sum of these two numbers?

  1. 170
  2. 180
  3. 220
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

2039. The number which exceeds 16% of it by 42 is

  1. 50
  2. 52
  3. 58
  4. 60

2040. What percentage of numbers from 1 to 70 have squares that end in the digit 1?

  1. 1
  2. 14
  3. 20
  4. 21

2041. By how much percent is four-fifths of 70 lesser than five-sevenths of 112? (G.B.O., 2007)

  1. 24%
  2. 30%
  3. 36%
  4. 42%

2042. If a number x is 10% less than another number y and y is 10% more than 125, then x is equal to

  1. 123.75
  2. 140.55
  3. 143
  4. 150

2043. If 75% of a number is added to 75, then the result is the number itself. The number is (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 50
  2. 60
  3. 300
  4. 400

2044. When 125 is subtracted from a number, it reduces to its 37.5 percent. What is 25 percent of that number?

  1. 50
  2. 75
  3. 125
  4. 175
  5. None of these

2045. Which of the following multipliers will cause a number to be increased by 29.7%?

  1. 1.297
  2. 12.97
  3. 129.7
  4. 1297

2046. The sum of two numbers is 28 25 of the first number. The second number is what percent of the first?

  1. 12%
  2. 14%
  3. 16%
  4. 18%

2047. A number reduced by 25% becomes 225. What percent should it be increased so that it becomes 390? (R.R.B., 2010)

  1. 25%
  2. 30%
  3. 35%
  4. 45%

2048. If 25% of a number is subtracted from a second number, the second number reduces to its five-sixths. What is the ratio of the first number to the second number?

  1. 1: 3
  2. 2: 3
  3. 3: 2
  4. Data inadequate

2049. The difference of two numbers is 20% of the larger number. If the smaller number is 20, then the larger number is:

  1. 25
  2. 45
  3. 50
  4. 80

2050. When any number is divided by 12, then dividend becomes 1 th4 of the other number. By how much percent first number is greater than the second number?

  1. 150
  2. 200
  3. 300
  4. Data inadequate

2051. If one number is 80% of the other and 4 times the sum of their squares is 656, then the numbers are

  1. 4, 5
  2. 8, 10
  3. 16, 20
  4. None of these

2052. Two numbers A and B are such that the sum of 5% of A and 4% of B is two-thirds of the sum of 6% of A and 8% of B. Find the ratio of A : B. (M.A.T., 2009)

  1. 2: 3
  2. 1: 1
  3. 3: 4
  4. 4: 3

2053. Three candidates contested an election and received 1136, 7636 and 11628 votes respectively. What per - centage of the total votes did the winning candidate get?

  1. 57%
  2. 60%
  3. 65%
  4. 90%

2054. The population of a town increased from 1,75,000 to 2,62,500 in a decade. The average percent increase of population per year is

  1. 4.37%
  2. 5%
  3. 6%
  4. 8.75%

2055. A student multiplied a number by 3 5 instead of 5 3 What is the percentage error in the calculation?

  1. 34%
  2. 44%
  3. 54%
  4. 64%

2056. A tempo is insured to the extent of 4 5 of its original value. If the premium on it at the rate of 1.3 percent amounts to ₹ 910, the original value of the tempo is

  1. ₹ 78,500
  2. ₹ 80,000
  3. ₹ 82,500
  4. ₹ 87,500

2057. When 15% is lost in grinding wheat, a country can export 30 lakh tons of wheat. On the other hand, if 10% is lost in grinding, it can export 40 lakh tons of wheat. The production of wheat in the country is:

  1. 20 lakh tons
  2. 80 lakh tons
  3. 200 lakh tons
  4. 800 lakh tons

2058. In a competitive examination in State A, 6% candidates got selected from the total appeared candidates. State B had an equal number of candidates appeared and 7% candidates got selected with 80 more candidates got selected than A. What was the number of candidates appeared from each State?

  1. 7600
  2. 8000
  3. 8400
  4. Data inadequate

2059. The price of a car is ₹ 3,25,000. It was insured to 85% of its price. The car was damaged completely in an accident and the insurance company paid 90% of the insurance. What was the difference between the price of the car and the amount received?

  1. ₹ 32,500
  2. ₹ 48,750
  3. ₹ 76,375
  4. ₹ 81,250

2060. Gauri went to the stationers and bought things worth ₹ 25, out of which 30 paise went on sales tax on taxable purchases. If the tax rate was 6%, then what was the cost of the tax free items?

  1. ₹ 15
  2. ₹ 15.70
  3. ₹ 19.70
  4. ₹ 20

2061. A batsman scored 110 runs which included 3 boundaries and 8 sixes. What percent of his total score did he make by running between the wickets? (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. 45%
  2. 545 %11
  3. 654 %11
  4. 55%

2062. After deducting a commission of 5%, a T.V. set costs ₹ 9595. Its marked price is:

  1. ₹ 10,000
  2. ₹ 10,075
  3. ₹ 10,100
  4. ₹ 10,500

2063. A person who spends 266 %3 of his income is able to save ₹ 1200 per month. His monthly expenses (in ₹) are

  1. ₹ 1200
  2. ₹ 2400
  3. ₹ 3000
  4. ₹ 3200

2064. Twenty-five percent of Reena’s yearly income is equal to seventy-five percent of Anubhav‘s monthly income. If Anubhav‘s yearly income is ₹ 240000, what is Reena's monthly income?

  1. ₹ 60000
  2. ₹ 12000
  3. ₹ 5200
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

2065. Twelve percent of Kaushal‘s monthly salary is equal to sixteen percent of Nandini’s monthly salary. Sonal’s monthly salary is half that of Nandini’s. If Sonal’s annual salary is ₹ 1.08 lacs, what is Kaushal’s monthly salary?

  1. ₹ 18000
  2. ₹ 20000
  3. ₹ 24000
  4. ₹ 26000
  5. None of these

2066. Aman’s expense is 30% more than Vimal’s and Vimal’s expense is 10% less than Raman’s. If the sum of their expenses is ₹ 6447, then what would be Aman’s expense?

  1. ₹ 1890
  2. ₹ 2100
  3. ₹ 2200
  4. ₹ 2457
  5. None of these

2067. Two tailors X and Y are paid a total of ₹ 550 per week by their employer. If X is paid 20 percent more than the sum paid to Y, how much is Y paid per week?

  1. ₹ 200
  2. ₹ 250
  3. ₹ 300
  4. None of these

2068. Prithvi spent ₹ 89745 on his college fees, ₹ 51291 on Personality Development Classes and the remaining 27% of the total amount he had as cash with him. What was the total amount?

  1. ₹ 185400
  2. ₹ 189600
  3. ₹ 191800
  4. ₹ 193200
  5. None of these

2069. If a number is reduced by 40% it becomes two- thirds of another number. What is the ratio of the first number to the second number?

  1. 8: 9
  2. 9: 8
  3. 10: 9
  4. 9: 10
  5. None of these

2070. To meet a government requirement, a bottler must test 5 percent of its spring water and 10 percent of its sparkling water for purity. If a customer ordered 120 cases of spring water and 80 cases of sparkling water, then what percent of all the cases must the bottler test before he can send it out? (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 6.5%
  2. 7.0%
  3. 7.5%
  4. 8.0%

2071. When income tax is 3 paise in a rupee, a person's net income is ₹ 237650. What will it be when the income tax is raised to 7 paise? (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. ₹ 233000
  2. ₹ 231650
  3. ₹ 227850
  4. None of these

2072. A monthly return railway ticket costs 25 percent more than a single ticket. A week’s extension can be had for the former by paying 5 percent of the monthly ticket’s cost. If the money paid for the monthly ticket (with extension) is ₹ 84, the price of the single ticket is (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. ₹ 48
  2. ₹ 64
  3. ₹ 72
  4. ₹ 80

2073. In limestone, 40% is calcium and the rest is carbon and oxygen. If in 20 kg of limestone, there is 9.4 kg of oxygen, then what is the percentage of carbon in it?

  1. 12%
  2. 13%
  3. 14%
  4. 15%

2074. In a class of 72 children, children are seated in rows and columns in such a way that the number of chil - dren in each row is 12.5% more than the number of children in each column. How many children are there in each row?

  1. 8
  2. 9
  3. 12
  4. 18
  5. None of these

2075. The owner of a boutique decides to calculate the percentage of customers who purchase hats. If 40 percent of the store’s customers decide to purchase items, and of those customers 15 percent purchase hats, what percent of the store’s customers purchase hats?

  1. 4%
  2. 6%
  3. 15%
  4. 24%

2076. In a market research project, 20% opted for Nirma detergent whereas 60% opted for Surf Blue detergent. The remaining individuals were not certain. If the difference between those who opted for Surf Blue and those who were uncertain was 720, how many respondents were covered in the survey? (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. 1440
  2. 1800
  3. 3600
  4. Data inadequate

2077. In an examination it is required to get 36% of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 198 marks and is declared failed by 36 marks. What is the maximum aggregate marks a student can get? (L.I.C.A.D.O., 2007)

  1. 480
  2. 550
  3. 650
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

2078. In a test, minimum passing percentage for girls and boys is 35% and 40% respectively. A boy scored 483 marks and failed by 117 marks. What is the minimum passing marks for girls?

  1. 425
  2. 500
  3. 520
  4. 625
  5. None of these

2079. In an examination it is required to get 40% of the aggregate marks to pass. A student get 261 marks and is declared failed by 4% marks. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get?

  1. 700
  2. 730
  3. 745
  4. 765
  5. None of these

2080. A candidate has to obtain minimum 33% of the total marks to pass. He got 25% of the total marks and failed by 40 marks. The maximum marks are

  1. 300
  2. 400
  3. 500
  4. 600

2081. In an examination it is required to get 296 of the total maximum aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 259 marks and is decided failed. The difference of marks obtained by the student and that required to pass is 5%. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get? (M.A.T., 2009)

  1. 690
  2. 740
  3. 780
  4. Cannot be determined

2082. Two candidates fought an election. One of them got 62% of the total votes and won by 432 votes. What is the total number of votes polled?

  1. 1500
  2. 1600
  3. 1800
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

2083. In a college election between two candidates, one candidate got 55% of the total valid votes. 15% of the votes were invalid. If the total votes were 15200, what is the number of valid votes the other candidate got?

  1. 5814
  2. 6840
  3. 7106
  4. 8360
  5. None of these

2084. At an election involving two candidates, 68 votes were declared invalid. The winning candidate se - cures 52% and wins by 98 votes. The total number of votes polled is

  1. 2382
  2. 2450
  3. 2518
  4. None of these

2085. In a certain assembly constituency election, 80% of voters exercised their voting right and the winning candidate got elected with 65% of votes polled. What percent of total votes did he poll?

  1. 35
  2. 52
  3. 55
  4. 57

2086. In an election, a total of 5,00,000 voters participated. A candidate got 2,55,000 votes which was 60% of the total valid votes. What was the percentage of invalid votes?

  1. 10%
  2. 12%
  3. 15%
  4. 300 %17

2087. 10% of the voters did not cast their vote in an election between two candidates. 10% of the votes polled were found invalid. The successful candidate got 54% of the valid votes and won by a majority of 1620 votes. The number of voters enrolled on the voters’ list was

  1. 25000
  2. 33000
  3. 35000
  4. 40000

2088. 8% of the people eligible to vote are between 18 and 21 years of age. In an election, 85% of those eligible to vote, who were between 18 and 21, actu - ally voted. In that election, the number of persons between 18 and 21, who actually voted, was what percent of those eligible to vote?

  1. 4.2
  2. 6.4
  3. 6.8
  4. 8

2089. In an election, 30% of the voters voted for candidate A whereas 60% of the remaining voted for candidate B. The remaining voters did not vote. If the difference between those who voted for candidate A and those who did not vote was 1200, how many individuals were eligible for casting vote in that election?

  1. 10,000
  2. 45,000
  3. 60,000
  4. 72,000

2090. While purchasing one item costing ₹ 400, I had to pay the sales tax at 7% and on another costing ₹ 6400, the sales tax was 9%. What percent of the sales tax I had to pay, taking the two items together on an average?

  1. 8%
  2. 138%17
  3. 158%17
  4. 18%2

2091. A student secures 90%, 60% and 54% marks in test papers with 100, 150 and 200 respectively as maxi - mum marks. The percentage of his aggregate is

  1. 64
  2. 68
  3. 70
  4. None of these

2092. 1100 boys and 700 girls are examined in a test; 42% of the boys and 30% of the girls pass. The percentage of the total who failed is

  1. 58%
  2. 262 %3
  3. 64%
  4. 78%

2093. In a certain school, 20% of students are below 8 years of age. The number of students above 8 years of age is 2 3 of the number of students of 8 years age which is 48. What is the total number of students in the school?

  1. 72
  2. 80
  3. 120
  4. 150
  5. None of these

2094. In an examination, 5% of the applicants were found ineligible and 85% of the eligible candidates belonged to the general category. If 4275 eligible candidates belonged to other categories, then how many candidates applied for the examination?

  1. 30,000
  2. 35,000
  3. 37,000
  4. None of these

2095. Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more than the other and his marks was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by them are:

  1. 39, 30
  2. 41, 32
  3. 42, 33
  4. 43, 34

2096. At a special sale, 5 tickets can be purchased for the price of 3 tickets. If 5 tickets are purchased at the sale, the amount saved will be what percent of the original price of the 5 tickets?

  1. 20%
  2. 133 %3
  3. 40%
  4. 60%

2097. In September 2009, the sales of a product were 2 rd3 of that in July 2009. In November 2009, the sales of the product were higher by 5% as compared to September 2009. How much is the percentage of increase in sales in November 2009 with respect to the base figure in July 2009? (SNAP, 2010)

  1. – 20%
  2. 25%
  3. – 30%
  4. + 40%

2098. If earth’s rotational motion increases by 12%, then the relation between a day and hours will be (I.A.M., 2007)

  1. 12 hours = 1 day
  2. 520 hours = 1 day7
  3. 321 hours = 1 day7
  4. None of these

2099. A and B are two fixed points 5 cm apart and C is a point on AB such that AC is 3 cm. If the length of AC is increased by 6%, the length of CB is decreased by (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 6%
  2. 7%
  3. 8%
  4. 9%

2100. On time x% Up to 15 minutes delayed 43% 15-30 minutes delayed 17% 30-60 minutes delayed 12% More than 60 minutes delayed 3% The chart above describes departures from a certain airport on a certain day. If 1200 flights were delayed, how many flights departed on time? (N.M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 250
  2. 300
  3. 350
  4. 400

2101. A shopkeeper has a certain number of eggs of which 5% are found to be broken. He sells 93% of the remainder and still has 266 eggs left. How many eggs did he originally have?

  1. 3800
  2. 4000
  3. 4200
  4. None of these

2102. Ganpat went to fruit market with a certain amount of money. With this money he can buy either 50 oranges or 40 mangoes. He retains 10% of the money for taxi fare. If he buys 20 mangoes, the number of oranges he can buy is

  1. 6
  2. 18
  3. 20
  4. 25

2103. A 14.4 kg gas cylinder runs for 104 hours when the smaller burner on the gas stove is fully opened while it runs for 80 hours when the larger burner on the gas stove is fully opened. Which of these values is the closest to the percentage difference in the usage of gas per hour, of the smaller burner over the larger burner? (SNAP, 2008)

  1. 23.07%
  2. 26.23%
  3. 30%
  4. 32.23%

2104. The city with the lowest number of magazine-readers is

  1. Q
  2. R
  3. S
  4. T

2105. Which city has the highest number of magazine- readers who read only one magazine a week?

  1. P
  2. Q
  3. R
  4. S

2106. The highest number of magazine-readers in any given city is

  1. 17500
  2. 18000
  3. 24000
  4. 30000

2107. How many magazine-readers in city Q read only one magazine a week?

  1. 14000
  2. 18000
  3. 12500
  4. 16500

2108. The total number of all the magazine-readers in the five cities who read only one magazine a week is

  1. 19400
  2. 24000
  3. 41200
  4. 42000

2109. If X is 90% of Y, then what percent of X is Y?

  1. 90%
  2. 1101 %9
  3. 1111 %9
  4. 190%

2110. x% of y is y% of

  1. x
  2. 100x
  3. 100 x
  4. 100 y

2111. If 20% of a = b, then b% of 20 is the same as

  1. 4% of a
  2. 5% of a
  3. 20% of a
  4. None of these

2112. If x% of y is the same as 4 5 of 80, then the value of xy is

  1. 320
  2. 400
  3. 640
  4. None of these

2113. If x% of y is 100 and y% of z is 200, find a relation between x and z.

  1. 2 xz =
  2. z = 2 x
  3. 4 xz =
  4. z = 4 x

2114. If x% of 500 = y% of 300 and x% of y% of 200 = 60, then x =?

  1. 10 2
  2. 20 2
  3. 15 2
  4. 30 2
  5. None of these

2115. If x, y, z are three positive integers such that x is greater than y and y is greater than z, then which of the following is definitely true?

  1. x% of y is greater than y% of z
  2. y% of x is greater than z% of y
  3. z% of x is greater than y% of z
  4. All of these

2116. If 20% of A = 50% of B, what percentage of A is B?

  1. 20
  2. 30
  3. 40
  4. 50

2117. If p% of p is 36, then p is equal to

  1. 15
  2. 60
  3. 600
  4. 3600

2118. If x% of y is equal to z, what percent of z is x?

  1. 2 100 y
  2. 2100 y
  3. 100 y
  4. 2100 y

2119. If x is 80% of y, then what percent of 2 x is y?

  1. 40%
  2. 162 %2
  3. 266 %3
  4. 80%

2120. Subtracting 6% of x from x is equivalent to multiplying x by how much?

  1. 0.094
  2. 0.94
  3. 9.4
  4. 94

2121. (x% of y + y% of x) =? (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. x% of y
  2. y% of x
  3. 2% of xy
  4. xy% of 3

2122. x% of x is the same as 10% of (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. 10 x
  2. 2 10 x
  3. 3 10 x
  4. None of these

2123. If a exceeds b by x%, then which one of the following equations is correct? (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. – 100 xab =
  2. b = a + 100 x
  3. a = 100 bx x+
  4. 100 bxab=+

2124. If A is 150 percent of B, then B is what percent of

  1. 133 %3
  2. 40%
  3. 266 %3
  4. 75%

2125. If 8% of x = 4% of y, then 20% of x is

  1. 10% of y
  2. 16% of y
  3. 80% of y
  4. None of these

2126. If 20% of A = B and 40% of B = C, then 60% of

  1. 30% of C
  2. 60% of C
  3. 75% of C
  4. None of these

2127. If x% of a is the same as y% of b, then z% of b is

  1. % ofxy az
  2. % ofyz ax
  3. % ofxz ay
  4. None of these

2128. If A = x% of y and B = y% of x, then which of the following is true?

  1. A is smaller than B.
  2. A is greater than B.
  3. Relationship between A and B cannot be determined.
  4. If x is smaller than y, then A is greater than B.
  5. None of these

2129. If 50% of ( x – y) = 30% of ( x + y), then what percent of x is y?

  1. 25%
  2. 133 %3
  3. 40%
  4. 400%

2130. If a is 60% of b, then what percent of 4 a is 5 b?

  1. 25 %12
  2. 148%
  3. 625 %3
  4. 240%

2131. If x = 63% of y, then y2 is approximately what percent of x2? (M.C.A., 2005)

  1. 125
  2. 200
  3. 250
  4. 350

2132. If a = b × ; , andd bc dc are each increased by 10%, then by how much does a increase?

  1. 10%
  2. 11%
  3. 20%
  4. 21%

2133. If a% of x is equal to b% of y, then c% of y is what % of x?

  1. abc%
  2. %bc a
  3. %ac b
  4. c%

2134. The firm uses the following function to calculate the production output (PO): PO = 5.3 C 2 L15, where C = capital invested and L = labour employed. If the capital invested

  1. 20% decrease
  2. 32% increase
  3. 44% increase
  4. 56% increase

2135. A company received two shipments of ball bearings. In the first shipment, 1 percent of the ball bearings were defective. In the second shipment, which was twice as large as the first, 4.5 percent of the ball bearings were defective. If the company received a total of 100 defective ball bearings, how many ball bearings were in the first shipment?

  1. 990
  2. 1000
  3. 2000
  4. 3000

2136. In a graduate class of 200, 40% are women and 1 5 become lecturers. If the number of men who become lecturers is twice that of women, calculate approximate percentage of men who became lecturers. (SNAP, 2004)

  1. 16%
  2. 18%
  3. 20%
  4. 27%

2137. The contents of a certain box consist of 14 apples and 23 oranges. How many oranges must be removed from the box so that 70% of the pieces of fruit in the box will be apples? (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 6
  2. 12
  3. 17
  4. 36

2138. The weight of an empty bucket is 25% of the weight of the bucket when filled with some liquid. Some of the liquid has been removed. Then, the bucket, along with the remaining liquid, weighed three-fifths of the original weight. What percentage of the liquid has been removed? (N.M.A.T., 2008)

  1. 40%
  2. 162 %2
  3. 256 %3
  4. 153 %3

2139. A part of ₹ 9600 is invested at a 5% annual return, while the remainder is invested at a 3% annual return. If the annual income from both portions is the same, what is the total income from the two investments? (M.B.A., 2011)

  1. ₹ 320
  2. ₹ 380
  3. ₹ 410
  4. ₹ 440
  5. None of these

2140. A salesman’s commission is 5% on all sales up to ₹ 10000 and 4% of all sales exceeding this amount. He remits ₹ 31100 to the parent company after deducting his commission. His sales were worth (M.B.A., 2008)

  1. ₹ 32500
  2. ₹ 35000
  3. ₹ 35100
  4. ₹ 36100

2141. In a co-educational school there are 15 more girls than boys. If the number of girls is increased by 10% and the number of boys is also increased by 16%, there would be nine more girls than boys. What is the number of students in the school?

  1. 125
  2. 140
  3. 255
  4. 265

2142. 5 kg of tea and 8 kg of sugar together cost ₹ 172. The price of tea has risen by 20% and that of sugar by 10%. Hence the same quantities of tea and sugar now cost ₹ 199.20. What is the original price of tea per kg? (R.R.B., 2005)

  1. ₹ 16
  2. ₹ 18
  3. ₹ 19
  4. ₹ 20

2143. 605 sweets were distributed equally among children in such a way that the number of sweets received by each child is 20% of the total number of children. How many sweets did each child receive?

  1. 11
  2. 24
  3. 45
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

2144. In a certain organisation, 40% employees are matriculates, 50% of the remaining are graduates and the remaining 180 are post-graduates. What is the number of graduate employees? (R.R.B., 2007)

  1. 180
  2. 240
  3. 300
  4. 360

2145. Gaurav spends 30% of his monthly income on food articles, 40% of the remaining on conveyance and clothes and saves 50% of the remaining. If his monthly salary is ₹ 18,400, how much money does he save every month?

  1. ₹ 3624
  2. ₹ 3864
  3. ₹ 4264
  4. ₹ 5888

2146. A spider climbed 162 %2 of the height of the pole in one hour and in the next hour it covered 112 %2 of the remaining height. If the height of the pole is 192 m, then distance climbed in second hour is

  1. 3 m
  2. 5 m
  3. 7 m
  4. 9 m

2147. A man spends 35% of his income on food, 25% on children’s education and 80% of the remaining on house rent. What percent of his income he is left with?

  1. 8%
  2. 10%
  3. 12%
  4. 14%

2148. Mr. More spent 20% of his monthly income on food and 15% on children’s education. 40% of the remaining he spent on entertainment and transport together and 30% on medical. He is left with an amount of ₹ 8775 after all these expenditures. What is Mr. More’s monthly income?

  1. ₹ 35000
  2. ₹ 38000
  3. ₹ 40000
  4. ₹ 42000
  5. None of these

2149. From the salary of an officer, 10% is deducted as house rent, 20% of the rest, he spends on conveyance, 20% of the rest he pays as income tax and 10% of the balance, he spends on clothes. Then, he is left with ₹ 15,552. Find his total salary. (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. ₹ 25,000
  2. ₹ 30,000
  3. ₹ 35,000
  4. ₹ 40,000

2150. Aman gave 40% of the amount he had to Rohan. Rohan in turn gave one-fourth of what he received from Aman to Sahil. After paying ₹ 200 to the taxi driver out of the amount he got from Rohan, Sahil now has ₹ 600 left with him. How much amount did Aman have?

  1. ₹ 4000
  2. ₹ 8000
  3. ₹ 12,000
  4. Data inadequate

2151. On a test consisting of 250 questions, Jassi answered 40% of the first 125 questions correctly. What percent of the other 125 questions does she need to answer correctly for her grade on the entire exam to be 60%?

  1. 60
  2. 75
  3. 80
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

2152. In a certain month a baseball team that played 60 games had won 30% of its games played. After a phenomenal winning streak this team raised its average to 50%. How many games must the team have won in a row to attain this average?

  1. 12
  2. 20
  3. 24
  4. 30

2153. The sum of the number of boys and girls in a school is 150. If the number of boys is x, then the number of girls becomes x% of the total number of students. The number of boys is

  1. 40
  2. 50
  3. 60
  4. 90

2154. In an examination of n questions, a student replied 15 out of the first 20 questions correctly. Of the remaining questions, he answered one-third correctly. All the questions have the same credit. If the student gets 50% marks, the value of n is

  1. 20
  2. 40
  3. 50
  4. 100

2155. The salaries of A and B together amount to ₹ 2000. A spends 95% of his salary and B, 85% of his. If now, their savings are the same, what is A’s salary?

  1. ₹ 750
  2. ₹ 1250
  3. ₹ 1500
  4. ₹ 1600

2156. A’s marks in Biology are 20 less than 25% of the total marks obtained by him in Biology, Maths and Drawing. If his marks in Drawing be 50, what are his marks in Maths?

  1. 40
  2. 45
  3. 50
  4. Cannot be determined

2157. In an examination, there are three papers and a candidate has to get 35% of the total to pass. In one paper, he gets 62 out of 150 and in the second 35 out of 150. How much must he get, out of 180, in the third paper to just qualify for a pass?

  1. 60.5
  2. 68
  3. 70
  4. 71

2158. In a History examination, the average for the entire class was 80 marks. If 10% of the students scored 95 marks and 20% scored 90 marks, what was the average marks of the remaining students of the class?

  1. 65.5
  2. 72.5
  3. 75
  4. 85

2159. A scored 30% marks and failed by 15 marks. B scored 40% marks and obtained 35 marks more than those required to pass. The pass percentage is

  1. 33%
  2. 38%
  3. 43%
  4. 46%

2160. In an area, of the total people 40% were women and 45% coffee drinkers. One-third of the males are coffee drinkers. Suppose the total number of persons in the area is 100, then the number of female non- coffee drinkers is (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 15
  2. 20
  3. 25
  4. None of these

2161. A city has a population of 3,00,000 out of which 1,80,000 are males. 50% of the population is literate. If 70% of the males are literate, then the percentage of females who are literate is (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 20%
  2. 25%
  3. 35%
  4. 45%

2162. In a company there are 75% skilled workers and the remaining are unskilled. 80% of skilled workers and 20% of unskilled workers are permanent. If the number of temporary workers is 126, then what is the total number of workers? (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 360
  2. 377
  3. 480
  4. 510

2163. A clothing supplier stores 800 coats in a warehouse, of which 15 percent are full-length coats. If 500 of the short-length coats are removed form the warehouse, then what percent of the remaining coats are full length? (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 5.62%
  2. 9.37%
  3. 35%
  4. 40%

2164. At the college entrance examination, each candidate is admitted or rejected according to whether he has passed or failed the tests. Of the candidates who are really capable, 80% pass the tests and of the incapable, 25% pass the test. Given that 40% of the candidates are really capable, the proportion of capable college students is about (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 68%
  2. 70%
  3. 73%
  4. 75%

2165. In a public school, 1 th5 of girls and 1 th4 of boys are under 12 years of age. If the number of girls is 2 th5 of the total, what part of the total strength of the school is accounted for by those who are 12 years or more of age? (M.B.A., 2008)

  1. 23%
  2. 45%
  3. 55%
  4. 77%

2166. In a city, 35% of the population is composed of migrants, 20% of whom are from rural areas. Of the local population, 48% is female while this figure for rural and urban migrants is 30% and 40% respectively. What percent of the total population comprises of females? (N.M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 42.75%
  2. 44.5%
  3. 48%
  4. None of these

2167. In a recent survey, 40% houses contained two or more people. Of those houses containing only one person, 25% were having only a male. What is the percentage of all houses, which contain exactly one female and no males?

  1. 15
  2. 40
  3. 75
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

2168. 137 %2 of the candidates in an examination were girls, 75% of the boys and 162 %2 of the girls passed and 342 girls failed. The number of boys failed was:

  1. 350
  2. 360
  3. 370
  4. 380

2169. 5 9 part of the population in a village are males. If 30% of the males are married, the percentage of unmarried females in the total population is

  1. 20%
  2. 727 %9
  3. 40%
  4. 70%

2170. The boys and girls in a college are in the ratio 3: 2. If 20% of the boys and 25% of the girls are adults, the percentage of students who are not adults is

  1. 58%
  2. 67.5%
  3. 78%
  4. 82.5%

2171. A debtor can pay 87 paise in the rupee, but if his creditors would take 20% of his debts, he could pay them and have ₹ 42 left. His debts and assets respectively are:

  1. ₹ 400, ₹ 520
  2. ₹ 500, ₹ 521
  3. ₹ 600, ₹ 522
  4. ₹ 1000, ₹ 525

2172. Of the 50 researchers in a workgroup, 40% will be assigned to Team A and the remaining 60% to Team B. However, 70% of the researchers prefer Team A and 30% prefer Team B. What is the least possible number of researchers who will not be assigned to the team they prefer? (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 15
  2. 20
  3. 30
  4. 35

2173. A train starts from station A with some passengers. At station B 10% of the passengers get down and 100 passengers get in. At station C 50% get down and 25 get in. At station D 50% get down and 50 get in making the total number of passengers 200. The number of passengers who boarded the train at station A was (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 400
  2. 500
  3. 600
  4. 700

2174. The charges for a five-day trip by a tourist bus for one full ticket and a half-ticket are ₹ 1440 inclusive of boarding charges which are same for a full ticket and a half-ticket. The charges for the same trip for 2 full tickets and one half-ticket inclusive of boarding charges are ₹ 2220. The fare for a half-ticket is 75% of the full ticket. Find the fare and the boarding charges separately for one full ticket.

  1. ₹ 580, ₹ 400
  2. ₹ 280, ₹ 200
  3. ₹ 480, ₹ 300
  4. ₹ 380, ₹ 400

2175. Asha’s monthly income is 60% of Deepak’s monthly income and 120% of Maya’s monthly income. What is Maya’s monthly income if Deepak’s monthly income is ₹ 78000? (NABARD, 2009)

  1. ₹ 36000
  2. ₹ 39000
  3. ₹ 42000
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

2176. Raju’s monthly salary is 20 percent more than Anuj’s monthly salary. Ravi’s monthly salary is ₹ 1500 more than Anuj’s salary. The sum of Raju’s, Ravi’s and Anuj’s yearly salaries is ₹ 325200. What is the sum of the monthly salaries of Raju and Anuj together?

  1. ₹ 16600
  2. ₹ 17500
  3. ₹ 17600
  4. ₹ 17680
  5. None of these

2177. A sum of ₹ 2236 is divided among A, B and C in such a way that A receives 25% more than C and C receives 25% less than B. What is A’s share in the amount?

  1. ₹ 460
  2. ₹ 780
  3. ₹ 890
  4. ₹ 1280
  5. None of these

2178. A sum of ₹ 6100 was divided among 8 men, 10 women and 12 children in such a way that each man received 25% more than a woman and each woman received 25% more than a child. How much did each woman receive? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. ₹ 201.68
  2. ₹ 203.68
  3. ₹ 206.08
  4. ₹ 206.68

2179. In an examination in which full marks were 800, A gets 20% more than B, B gets 20% more than C, and C gets 15% less than D. If A got 576, what percentage of full marks did D get

  1. 45.7
  2. 51.2
  3. 58.8
  4. 61.7

2180. In an examination, the percentage of students qualified to the number of students appeared from school A is 70%. In school B, the number of students appeared is 20% more than the students appeared from school A and the number of students qualified from school B is 50% more than the students qualified from school A. What is the percentage of students qualified to the number of students appeared from school B ?

  1. 30%
  2. 70%
  3. 78.5%
  4. 87.5%

2181. If the price of a book is first decreased by 25% and then increased by 20%, then the net change in the price will be

  1. No change
  2. 5% increase
  3. 5% decrease
  4. 10% decrease

2182. The price of a shirt is increased by 15% and then reduced by 15%. The final price of the shirt is

  1. does not change
  2. increases by 2.25%
  3. decreases by 2.25%
  4. None of these

2183. A number is first decreased by 10% and then increased by 10%. The number so obtained is 50 less than the original number. The original number is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 5000
  2. 5050
  3. 5500
  4. 5900

2184. A shopkeeper first increased the price of an article by 25% and then by 20%. What is the total percent increase? (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 40%
  2. 45%
  3. 50%
  4. 55%

2185. Two successive price increases of 10% each on an article are equivalent to a single price increase of (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 19%
  2. 20%
  3. 21%
  4. 22%

2186. The price of an article was first increased by 10% and then again by 20%. If the last increased price be ₹ 33, the original price was (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. ₹ 25
  2. ₹ 26.50
  3. ₹ 27.50
  4. ₹ 30

2187. The price of an article was increased by r%. Later the new price was decreased by r%. If the latest price was ₹ 1, then the original price was

  1. ₹ 1
  2. 21– 100 r ₹
  3. 21– 100 r₹
  4. 2 10000 10000 – r   ₹

2188. In a factory, producing parts for an automobile, the parts manufactured on the shop floor are required to go through three quality checks, each conducted after a specific part of the processing on the raw material is completed. Only parts that are not rejected at one stage are put through the subsequent stages of production and testing. If average rejection rates at these testing machines during a month are 10%, 5% and 2% respectively, then what is the effective rejection rate for the whole plant? (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 15.20%
  2. 16.21%
  3. 16.48%
  4. 17%

2189. Peter could save 10% of his income. But two years later when his income is increased by 20%, he could save the same amount only as before. By how much percent has his expenditure increased?

  1. 22%
  2. 222 %9
  3. 123 %3
  4. 24%

2190. A man spends 80% of his income. With an increase in the cost of living, his expenditure increases by 137 %2 and his income increases by 216 %.3 His present percent savings are

  1. 35%7
  2. 55%7
  3. 16%3
  4. 26%3

2191. A person spends 75% of his income. If his income increases by 20% and expenses increase by 15%, his saving will increase by (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 17 %2 1
  2. 20%
  3. 133 %2
  4. 35%

2192. Madan pays income tax at the rate of 10%. If his income increased by 10% and his tax rate increases to 15%, his net income would increase by ₹ 350. What is Madan’s income?

  1. ₹ 8000
  2. ₹ 10,000
  3. ₹ 12,000
  4. ₹ 14,000

2193. Mr. X, a businessman had the income in the year 2010, such that he earned a profit of 20% on his investment in the business. In the year 2011, his investment was less by ₹ 5000 but still had the same income (Income = Investment + Profit) as that in 2010. Thus, the percent profit earned in 2011 increased by 6%. What was his investment in 2010?

  1. ₹ 1,02,000
  2. ₹ 1,05,000
  3. ₹ 1,50,500
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

2194. In the expression xy 2, the values of both variables x and y are decreased by 20%. By this, the value of the expression is decreased by

  1. 40%
  2. 48.8%
  3. 51.2%
  4. 80%

2195. When water is changed into ice, its volume increases by 9%. If ice changes into water, the percentage decrease in volume is (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 288%109
  2. 9%
  3. 10%
  4. 18%

2196. If the price of a commodity is decreased by 20% and its consumption is increased by 20%, what will be the increase or decrease in the expenditure on the commodity? (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 4% increase
  2. 4% decrease
  3. 8% increase
  4. 8% decrease

2197. Income tax is raised from 4 paise to 5 paise in a rupee but the revenue is increa-sed by 10% only. Find the decrease percent in the amount taxed. (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. 12
  2. 14
  3. 16
  4. None of these

2198. The ticket for admission to an exhibition was ₹ 5 and it was later reduced by 20%. As a result, the sale proceeds of tickets increased by 44%. What was the percentage increase in number of visitors?

  1. 25%
  2. 50%
  3. 75%
  4. 80%

2199. The income of a broker remains unchanged though the rate of commission is increased from 4% to 5%. The percentage of slump in business is

  1. 1%
  2. 8%
  3. 20%
  4. 80%

2200. By how much percent must a motorist increase his speed in order to reduce by 20%, the time taken to cover a certain distance? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 20
  2. 25
  3. 30
  4. 35

2201. What percent decrease in salaries would exactly cancel out the 20 percent increase?

  1. 216 3
  2. 18
  3. 20
  4. 133 3

2202. The price of an article is reduced by 25%. In order to retain the original price, the present price has to be increased by (P.C.S., 2007)

  1. 20%
  2. 25%
  3. 133 %3
  4. 50%

2203. A number is increased by 20% and then again by 20%. By what percent should the increased number be reduced so as to get back the original number?

  1. 1119 %31
  2. 530 %9
  3. 40%
  4. 44%

2204. A person’s salary is decreased by steps of 20%, 15% and 10%. Approximately by what percent should the reduced salary be increased so as to get back the original salary?

  1. 39%
  2. 44%
  3. 56%
  4. 63%

2205. In a fraction, if numerator is increased by 40% and denominator is increased by 80%, then what fraction of the original is the new fraction?

  1. 1 2
  2. 7 9
  3. 7 18
  4. Data inadequate

2206. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 240% and the denominator of the fraction is decreased by 50%, the resultant fraction is 52.6 What is the original fraction? (NABARD, 2009)

  1. 1 4
  2. 2 3
  3. 5 12
  4. 4 11
  5. None of these

2207. The price of a certain item is increased by 15%. If a consumer wants to keep his expenditure on the item same as before, how much percent must he reduce his consumption of that item? (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 2010 %23
  2. 113 %23
  3. 216 %3
  4. 15%

2208. If the price of oil is increased by 30%, then by how much percent a family should reduce its consumption so that the expenditure would remain the same? (R.R.B., 2005)

  1. 115 %23
  2. 315 %14
  3. 123 %13
  4. 1276 %13

2209. The price of wheat falls by 16%. By what percentage a person can increase the consumption of wheat so that his overall budget does not change?

  1. 16%
  2. 18%
  3. 18.5%
  4. 19%

2210. The price of oil is increased by 25%. If the expenditure is not allowed to increase, the ratio between the reduction in consumption and the original consumption is

  1. 1: 3
  2. 1: 4
  3. 1: 5
  4. 1: 6

2211. The price of sugar per kg increased from ₹ 16 to ₹ 20. The percentage reduction in the use of sugar so that the expenditure does not increase, should be (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 15%
  2. 20%
  3. 25%
  4. 40%

2212. The price of sugar increases by 32%. A family reduces its consumption so that the expenditure of the sugar is up only by 10%. If the total consumption of the sugar before the price rise was 10 kg per month, then the consumption of sugar per month at present (in kg) is

  1. 18 3
  2. 18 2
  3. 38 4
  4. 9

2213. Prices register an increase of 10% on foodgrains and 15% on other items of expenditure. If the ratio of an employee’s expenditure on foodgrains and other items be 2: 5, by how much should his salary be increased in order that he may maintain the same level of consumption as before, his present salary being ₹ 2590?

  1. ₹ 323.75
  2. ₹ 350
  3. ₹ 360.50
  4. None of these

2214. In the year 2010, 5000 students were admitted in a college. It is found that the number of students admitted is constantly increasing by 24 percent per year. How many students will be admitted in the college in the year 2012?

  1. 7400
  2. 7480
  3. 7688
  4. 7868

2215. The salary of an employee increases consistently by 50% every year. If his salary today is ₹ 10000, what will be the salary after another 4 years? (S.B.I. P.O., 2005)

  1. ₹ 26500
  2. ₹ 33750
  3. ₹ 50625
  4. ₹ 62500
  5. None of these

2216. A district has 64000 inhabitants. If the population increases at the rate of 12%2 per annum, then the number of inhabitants at the end of 3 years will be

  1. 68911
  2. 68921
  3. 69200
  4. 70000

2217. If inflation increases at a rate of 8% p.a., what will a ₹ 20 article cost at the end of two years?

  1. Between ₹ 20 and ₹ 21
  2. Between ₹ 21 and ₹ 22
  3. Between ₹ 22 and ₹ 23
  4. Between ₹ 23 and ₹ 24

2218. The population of a town is 4.2 × 10 6. If the population increases by 75 per 1000 per annum, then what will be the population after 2 years? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 4633628
  2. 4853625
  3. 5253495
  4. 5853615

2219. The population of a town is 8500. It increases by 20% in the first year and by another 25% in the second year. What would be the population of the town after 2 years?

  1. 10950
  2. 11950
  3. 12550
  4. 12750
  5. None of these

2220. The population of a town was 1,60,000 three years ago. If it increased by 3%, 2.5% and 5% respectively in the last three years, then the present population is

  1. 1,77,000
  2. 1,77,366
  3. 1,77,461
  4. 1,77,596

2221. The population of a town 2 years ago was 62,500. Due to migration to big cities, it decreases every year at the rate of 4%. The present population of the town is

  1. 56,700
  2. 57,600
  3. 58,800
  4. 60,000

2222. Depreciation applicable to an equipment is 20%. The value of the equipment 3 years from now will be less by (M.B.A., 2009)

  1. 45%
  2. 48.8%
  3. 51.2%
  4. 60%

2223. A papaya tree was planted 2 years ago. It grows at the rate of 20% every year. If at present, the height of the tree is 540 cm, what was it when the tree was planted? (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 324 cm
  2. 375 cm
  3. 400 cm
  4. 432 cm

2224. A merchant invests a certain sum and his annual gain percent is 25. If at the end of the third year, his capital is ₹ 10000, then the amount invested by him is equal to

  1. ₹ 5120
  2. ₹ 5210
  3. ₹ 5500
  4. ₹ 25714 7

2225. The population of a town is 1771561. If it had been increasing at 10% per annum, its population 6 years ago was (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 1000000
  2. 1100000
  3. 1210000
  4. 1331000

2226. The value of a machine depreciates at the rate of 12 percent per annum. It was purchased three years ago. Its present value is ₹ 29644.032. What was the purchase price of the machine? (S.B.I.P.O., 2008)

  1. ₹ 38900
  2. ₹ 39000
  3. ₹ 43500
  4. ₹ 48700
  5. None of these

2227. The value of a fixed asset depreciates at the rate of 10% of the value at the beginning of each year. If the value of the asset, two years ago, was ₹ 12000 more than the value of the asset one year ago, then find the present value of the asset, given that the asset was bought two years ago.

  1. ₹ 14520
  2. ₹ 17520
  3. ₹ 96000
  4. ₹ 97200

2228. A tree increases annually by 1 8 of its height. By how much will it increase after 12 2 years if it stands today 8 m high? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 10.75 m
  2. 11.85 m
  3. 12.25 m
  4. 15.60 m

2229. The population of a town is 189000. It decreases by 8% in the first year and increases by 5% in the second year. What is the population of the town at the end of 2 years?

  1. 182574
  2. 185472
  3. 191394
  4. 193914
  5. None of these

2230. Ashish started a business with an initial investment of ₹ 500000. In the first year, he incurred a loss of 4%. However, during the second year, he earned a profit of 5% which in the third year rose to 10%. Calculate his net profit for the entire period of three years.

  1. ₹ 48800
  2. ₹ 54400
  3. ₹ 55000
  4. None of these

2231. The present value of an optical instrument is ₹ 20000. If its value will depreciate 5% in the first year, 4% in the second year and 2% in the third year, what will be its value after 3 years? (M.B.A., 2009)

  1. ₹ 16534.5
  2. ₹ 16756.5
  3. ₹ 17556.8
  4. ₹ 17875.2

2232. The population of a variety of tiny bush in an experimental field increased by 10% in the first year, increased by 8% in the second year but decreased by 10% in the third year. If the present number of bushes in the experimental field is 26730, then the number of bushes in the beginning was (M.A.T., 2002)

  1. 25000
  2. 27000
  3. 28000
  4. 24600

2233. The production of a company has ups and downs every year. The production increases for two consecutive years consistently by 15% and in the third year it decreases by 10%. Again in the next two years it increases by 15% each year and decreases by 10% in the third year. If we start counting from the year 2008, approximately what will be the effect on production of the company in 2012?

  1. 27% increase
  2. 32% increase
  3. 37% increase
  4. 42% increase
  5. 52% increase

2234. The present population of a country estimated to be 10 crores is expected to increase to 13.31 crores during the next three years. The uniform rate of growth is

  1. 8%
  2. 10%
  3. 12.7%
  4. 15%

2235. The price of a commodity which was ₹ 250 three years ago is ₹ 2000 now. The annual rate of increase in the price is (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 100%
  2. 200%
  3. 2266 %3
  4. None of these

2236. Raju’s factory kept increasing its output by the same percentage every year. Find the percentage if it is known that his output is doubled after two years. (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. 100 2%
  2. 100( 2 1)%+
  3. 100( 2 – 1)%
  4. 50( 3 – 1)%

2237. The population of a colony was 3600 three years back. It is 4800 right now. What will be the population three years down the line, if the rate of growth of population has been co stant over the years and has been compounding annually? (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. 6000
  2. 6400
  3. 7200
  4. 9600

2238. The value of a flat worth ₹ 500000 is depreciating at the rate of 10% p.a. In how many years will its value be reduced to ₹ 364500?

  1. 3 years
  2. 4 years
  3. 5 years
  4. 6 years

2239. A building worth ₹ 1,33,100 is constructed on land worth ₹ 72,900. After how many years will the value of both be the same if land appreciates at 10% p.a. and building depreciates at 10% p.a.? (G.B.O., 2007)

  1. 11 2
  2. 2
  3. 12 2
  4. 3

2240. Given that carbon-14 decays at a constant rate in such a way that it reduces to 50% in 5568 years, find the age of an old wooden piece in which the carbon is only 12.5% of the original.

  1. 15836 years
  2. 16668 years
  3. 16704 years
  4. 17552 years

2241. The population of a town increases 4% annually but is decreased by emigration annually to the extent of (1/2)%. What will be the increase percent in 3 years?

  1. 9.8
  2. 10
  3. 10.5
  4. 10.8

2242. The current birth rate per thousand is 32, whereas the corresponding death rate is 11 per thousand. The net growth rate in terms of population increase in percent is given by

  1. 0.0021%
  2. 0.021%
  3. 2.1%
  4. 21%

2243. Mr. Jones’ total annual gross salary, which was ₹ 10 lakhs per year in 2007, was reduced by 10% in 2008. In 2007 his family expenditure for food items was 40% of the total annual gross salary. The prices of average food items increased by 5% between 2007 and 2008. Assuming that the family consumed the same amount of food in 2008, the percentage expenditure on food items, calculated on total annual gross salary in 2008, is (J.M.E.T., 2009)

  1. 43%
  2. 45%
  3. 47%
  4. 49%

2244. A man’s income is increased by ₹ 1200 and at the same time, the rate of tax to be paid is reduced from 12% to 10%. He now pays the same amount of tax as before. What is his increased income if 20% of his income is exempted from tax in both cases? (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. ₹ 4500
  2. ₹ 6300
  3. ₹ 6500
  4. ₹ 7200

2245. If A’s income is 10% more than B’s, how much percentage is B’s income less than A’s? (P.C.S., 2009, 2008; S.S.C., 2007; C.P.O., 2006)

  1. 9%
  2. 19%2
  3. 19%11
  4. 10%

2246. A’s income is 25% more than B’s income. B’s income in terms of A’s income is (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 75%
  2. 80%
  3. 90%
  4. 96%

2247. If A’s wage with respect to B’s wage is 20% more, then how much percent is B’s wage less with respect to A’s wage?

  1. 216 %3
  2. 17%
  3. 18%
  4. None of these

2248. If A’s income is 50% less than that of B, then B’s income is what percent more than that of A? (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 50
  2. 75
  3. 100
  4. 125

2249. If x is 25% less than y, then what percent is y more than x? (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. 116 %2
  2. 29%
  3. 133 %3
  4. None of these

2250. p is six times as large as q. The percent that q is less than p, is

  1. 216 3
  2. 60
  3. 183 3
  4. 90

2251. Two numbers are respectively 20% and 25% lower than a third number. By how much percentage is the second number lower than the first? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 5%
  2. 16%4
  3. 18%2
  4. 10%

2252. Two numbers are respectively 112 %2 and 25% more than a third number. The first number as a percentage of the second number is

  1. 50
  2. 60
  3. 75
  4. 90

2253. A’s salary is 40% of B’s salary which is 25% of C’s salary. What percentage of C’s salary is A’s salary?

  1. 5%
  2. 10%
  3. 15%
  4. 20%

2254. Peter earned 40% more money than Albert. Albert earned 20% less than Michael. Peter earned more than Michael by

  1. 10%
  2. 12%
  3. 20%
  4. 25%

2255. Fresh fruit contains 68% water and dry fruit contains 20% water. How much dry fruit can be obtained from 100 kg of fresh fruits?

  1. 32 kg
  2. 40 kg
  3. 52 kg
  4. 80 kg

2256. A large watermelon weighs 20 kg with 96% of its weight being water. It is allowed to stand in the sun and some of the water evaporates so that only 95% of its weight is water. Its reduced weight will be

  1. 16 kg
  2. 16.5 kg
  3. 17 kg
  4. 18 kg

2257. Fresh grapes contain 80 percent water while dry grapes contain 10 percent water. If the weight of dry grapes is 250 kg what was its total weight when it was fresh? (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 1000 kg
  2. 1100 kg
  3. 1125 kg
  4. 1225 kg

2258. An alloy of gold and silver weighs 50 g. It contains 80% gold. How much gold should be added to the alloy so that percentage of gold is increased to 90? (SNAP, 2010)

  1. 30 g
  2. 40 g
  3. 50 g
  4. 60 g

2259. In a mixture of milk and water, the proportion of water by weight was 75%. If in the 60 gms mixture 15 gm of water was added, what would be the percentage of water?

  1. 75%
  2. 88%
  3. 90%
  4. 100%
  5. None of these

2260. One litre of water is evaporated from a 6 litre solution containing 4% sugar. The percentage of sugar in the remaining solution is (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 13%3
  2. 4%
  3. 44%5
  4. 5%

2261. The quantity of water (in ml) needed to reduce 9 ml shaving lotion containing 50% alcohol to a lotion containing 30% alcohol, is

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 7

2262. 1 litre of water is added to 5 litres of alcohol-water solution containing 40% alcohol strength. The strength of alcohol in the new solution will be (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 30%
  2. 133 %3
  3. 233 %3
  4. 33%

2263. To strengthen 400 ml of 15% alcohol solution to 32% alcohol solution, a pharmacist would need additional pure alcohol amounting to

  1. 50 ml
  2. 75 ml
  3. 100 ml
  4. 125 ml

2264. 6 c.c. of a 20% solution of alcohol in water is mixed with 4 c.c. of a 60% solution of alcohol in water. The alcoholic strength of the mixture is (M.C.A., 2005)

  1. 20%
  2. 26%
  3. 36%
  4. 40%

2265. One type of liquid contains 20% water and the second type of liquid contains 35% of water. A glass is filled with 10 parts of first liquid and 4 parts of second liquid. The percentage of water in the new mixture in the glass is

  1. 20%
  2. 224 %7
  3. 37%
  4. 40%

2266. In some quantity of ghee, 60% is pure ghee and 40% is vanaspati. If 10 kg of pure ghee is added, then the strength of vanaspati ghee becomes 20%. The original quantity was (Hotel Management, 2003)

  1. 10 kg
  2. 15 kg
  3. 20 kg
  4. 25 kg

2267. From 5 litres of a 20% solution of alcohol in water, 2 litres of solution is taken out and 2 litres of water is added to it. Find the strength of alcohol in the new solution. (S.S.C., 2008)

  1. 10%
  2. 12%
  3. 15%
  4. 18%

2268. After 30 kg of water had been evaporated from a solution of salt and water, which had 15% salt, the remaining solution had 20% salt. The weight of the original solution was (S.S.C., 2008)

  1. 80 kg
  2. 90 kg
  3. 120 kg
  4. 135 kg

2269. 85% and 92% alcoholic solutions are mixed to get 35 litres of an 89% alcoholic solution. How many litres of each solution are there in the new mixture?

  1. 10 of the first and 25 of the second
  2. 20 of the first and 15 of the second
  3. 15 of the first and 20 of the second
  4. 12 of the first and 23 of the second

2270. How many litres of a 30% alcohol solution should be added to 40 litres of a 60% alcohol solution to prepare a 50% solution? (SNAP, 2010)

  1. 20
  2. 24
  3. 30
  4. 32

2271. A 27 quartz capacity car radiator is filled with 18% alcohol solution. How many quartz be drained and then be replaced by a 90% alcohol solution for resulting solution to contain 42% alcohol? (SNAP, 2004)

  1. 7 quartz
  2. 9 quartz
  3. 11 quartz
  4. 14 quartz

2272. Two vessels contain equal quantities of 40% alcohol. Sachin changed the concentration of the first vessel to 50% by adding extra quantity of pure alcohol. Vivek changed the concentration of the second vessel to 50% replacing a certain quantity of the solution with pure alcohol. By what percentage is the quantity of alcohol added by Sachin more/less than that replaced by Vivek?

  1. 111 % less9
  2. 111 % more9
  3. 216 % less3
  4. 20% more

2273. From a container having pure milk, 20% is replaced by water and the process is repeated thrice. At the end of the third operation, the milk is

  1. 40% pure
  2. 50% pure
  3. 51.2% pure
  4. 58.8% pure

2274. An empty fuel tank of a car was filled with A type petrol. When the tank was half-empty, it was filled with B type petrol. Again when the tank was half- empty, it was filled with A type petrol. When the tank was half-empty again, it was filled with B type petrol. What is the percentage of A type petrol at present in the tank?

  1. 33.5%
  2. 37.5%
  3. 40%
  4. 50%

2275. A bag contains 600 coins of 25 p denomination and 1200 coins of 50 p denomination. If 12% of 25 p coins and 24% of 50 p coins are removed, the percentage of money removed from the bag is nearly

  1. 15.6%
  2. 17.8%
  3. 21.6%
  4. 30%

2276. The price of rice is reduced by 2%. How many kilograms of rice can now be bought for the money which was sufficient to buy 49 kg of rice earlier?

  1. 48 kg
  2. 49 kg
  3. 50 kg
  4. 51 kg

2277. If the price of erasers goes down by 25%, a man can buy 2 more erasers for a rupee. How many erasers are available for a rupee? (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 8

2278. A reduction of 21% in the price of wheat enables a person to buy 10.5 kg more for ₹ 100. What is the reduced price per kg?

  1. ₹ 2
  2. ₹ 2.25
  3. ₹ 2.30
  4. ₹ 2.50

2279. Due to an increase of 30% in the price of eggs, 3 eggs less are available for ₹ 7.80. The present rate of eggs per dozen is

  1. ₹ 8.64
  2. ₹ 8.88
  3. ₹ 9.36
  4. ₹ 10.40

2280. The price of sugar having gone down by 10%, Sharad can buy 6.2 kg more for ₹ 279. The difference between the original and the reduced price (per kg) is

  1. ₹ 0.50
  2. ₹ 1
  3. ₹ 1.50
  4. ₹ 4.50

2281. If the price of sugar falls by 12 %,2 a person can buy 9 kg more of sugar for ₹ 1260 than before. If the price had risen by 112 %,2 how much sugar would he have bought for the same sum?

  1. 288 kg
  2. 312 kg
  3. 328 kg
  4. 336 kg

2282. In a survey of a city, it was found that 90 percent of the people in the city own a refrigerator and 15 percent own a washing machine. If everybody owns at least one appliance, what percentage owns both?

  1. 5 percent
  2. 8 percent
  3. 10 percent
  4. None of these

2283. In an examination, 34% of the students failed in Mathematics and 42% failed in English. If 20% of the students failed in both the subjects, then the percentage of students who passed in both the subjects was

  1. 44
  2. 50
  3. 54
  4. 56

2284. 40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper?

  1. 10%
  2. 15%
  3. 20%
  4. 25%

2285. Out of 450 students of a school, 325 play football, 175 play cricket and 50 neither play football nor cricket. How many students play both football and cricket?

  1. 50
  2. 75
  3. 100
  4. 225

2286. In a hotel, 60% had vegetarian lunch while 30% had non-vegetarian lunch and 15% had both types of lunch. If 96 people were present, how many did not eat either type of lunch?

  1. 20
  2. 24
  3. 26
  4. 28

2287. There are 600 boys in a hostel. Each plays either hockey or football or both. If 75% play hockey and 45% play football, how many play both?

  1. 48
  2. 60
  3. 80
  4. 120

2288. In a certain office, 72% of the workers prefer tea and 44% prefer coffee. If each of them prefers tea or coffee and 40 like both, the total number of workers in the office is

  1. 200
  2. 240
  3. 250
  4. 320

2289. In an examination, 30% and 35% students respec - tively failed in History and Geography while 27% students failed in both the subjects. If the number of students passing the examination is 248, find the total number of students who appeared in the examination. (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. 380
  2. 400
  3. 425
  4. 725

2290. In an examination, 35% candidates failed in one subject and 42% failed in another subject while 15% failed in both the subjects. If 2500 candidates appeared at the examination, how many passed in either subject but not in both?

  1. 325
  2. 1175
  3. 2125
  4. None of these

2291. Arnav ordered 4 pairs of black socks and some additional pairs of blue socks. The price of the black socks per pair was twice that of the blue socks. When the order was filled, it was found that the number of pairs of the two colours had been interchanged. This increased the bill by 50%. The ratio of the number of pairs of black socks to the number of pairs of blue socks in the original order was (M.B.A., 2011)

  1. 1: 2
  2. 1: 4
  3. 2: 1
  4. 4: 1

2292. A man ordered a length of rope by telephone from his nearest hardware shop. But when a worker in the shop brought the rope, he found that the man on the telephone had miswritten the order by in - terchanging feet and inches. As a result of this, the length of rope received was only 30% of the length he had ordered. The length of the rope which the man ordered was between

  1. 6 ft and 17 ft2
  2. 17 ft and 9 ft2
  3. 19 ft and 10 ft2
  4. 110 ft and 12 ft2

2293. A gardener has supply of fertilizer A which con - sists of 10% nitrogen and 6% phosphoric acid and fertilizer B which consists of 5% nitrogen and 10% phosphoric acid. After testing the soil conditions, he finds that he needs at least 14 kg of nitrogen and 14 kg of phosphoric acid for his crop. If fertilizer A costs ₹ 10.60 per kg and fertilizer B costs ₹ 8.40 per kg, what is the minimum cost at which the farmer can meet the nutrient requirement by using a combination of both types of fertilizers?

  1. ₹ 1488
  2. ₹ 1576
  3. ₹ 1648
  4. ₹ 1732

2294. I bought 5 pens, 7 pencils and 4 erasers. Rajan bought 6 pens, 8 erasers and 14 pencils for an amount which was half more than that I had paid. What percent of the total amount paid by me was paid for the pen?

  1. 37.5%
  2. 50%
  3. 62.5%
  4. None of these

2295. The majority against a certain motion is equal to 8% of the total number of voting. If 14 of those who voted against it had voted for it, the motion would have been carried by 4 votes. Find the number of votes for and against the motion.

  1. 112, 126
  2. 138, 162
  3. 128, 144
  4. 148, 172

2296. The number of votes not cast for the Praja Party increased by 25% in the National General Election over those not cast for it in the previous Assembly polls and the Praja Party lost by a majority twice as large as that by which it had won the previous Assembly polls. If a total 2,60,000 people voted each time how many voted for the Praja Party in the previous Assembly polls?

  1. 110000
  2. 120000
  3. 140000
  4. 150000

2297. Solve ( )180% of ? 2 504÷= [Indian Railway Gr. ‘D’ Exam, 2014]

  1. 400
  2. 480
  3. 560
  4. 600

2298. What will come in the place of (?) in the expression below: x% of y is y% of (?) [Indian Railway Gr. ‘D’ Exam, 2014]

  1. x
  2. 100 x
  3. 100 x
  4. 100 y

2299. How much 66 2 %3 of ₹ 312 exceeds ₹ 200? [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. ₹ 96
  2. ₹ 4
  3. ₹ 8
  4. ₹ 104

2300. Solve: 105.27% of 1200.11 + 11.80% of 2360.85 = 21.99% of (?) + 140.29 [IBPS—Bank Spl. Officers (IT) Exam, 2015]

  1. 500
  2. 240
  3. 310
  4. 550

2301. State Electricity Board gives 15% discount on electric bills if it is paid before due date. One person gets ₹ 54 as discount. The amount of actual bill was:

  1. ₹ 362
  2. ₹ 359
  3. ₹ 360
  4. ₹ 361 [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

2302. 32% of 825 + 25% of 1440 = 1025 – (?) [NICL—AAO Exam 2015]

  1. 456
  2. 206
  3. 223
  4. 401

2303. In a village 60% votes were cast in an election. A and B were the contestants. A won by 600 votes. If B had got 40% more votes, there would have been a tie between them. Find the number of recognized voters in the village. [RBI Officer Gr. ‘B’ (Phase I) Online Exam, 2014]

  1. 4500
  2. 2800
  3. 3500
  4. 3600

2304. ? + 30.01% of 651 ÷ 25.05% of 59.98 = 135 [IBPS—Bank PO/MT Exam, 2015]

  1. 68
  2. 140
  3. 122
  4. 128.5

2305. 4 3 of 25% of 18 19 of 57 = ? [IBPS—RRB Officer Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 36
  2. 8
  3. 18
  4. 12

2306. ?% of 1239.96 + 59.87% of 449.95 = 579.05 [IBPS—PO (Pre.) Exam, 2015)

  1. 35
  2. 15
  3. 25
  4. 20

2307. In an examination, 96% of students passed and 500 students failed. How many students did appear at the examination? [ESIC—UDC Exam, 2016]

  1. 14000
  2. 12500
  3. 12000
  4. 13500

2308. Madhur’s present salary is ₹ 3500. It will increase by 10% next year. What will be Madhur’s salary after the increment? [ESIC—UDC Exam, 2016]

  1. ₹ 3850
  2. ₹ 3950
  3. ₹ 4000
  4. ₹ 3900

2309. (12% of 555) + (15% of 666) = ? [SBI Jr. Associates (Pre.) Exam, 2016]

  1. 166.5
  2. 167.5
  3. 168.5
  4. None of these

2310. 85% of 420 + ?% of 1080 = 735 [SBI Jr. Associates (Pre.) Exam, 2016]

  1. 25
  2. 30
  3. 35
  4. 40

2311. 30% of 1225 – 64% of 555 = ? [SBI Jr. Associates (Pre.) Exam, 2016]

  1. 10.7
  2. 12.3
  3. 13.4
  4. None of these

2312. Nagaraj could save 10% of his income. But 2 years later, when his income increased by 20%, he could save the same amount only as before. By how much percentage has his expenditure increased? [CDS, 2016]

  1. 22 2 %9
  2. 23 1 %3
  3. 24 2 %9
  4. 25 2 %9

2313. 14% of 14 + 28% of 28 + 92% of 96 – 15% of 85 = ? [DMRC—Customer Relations Assistant

  1. 8.37
  2. 85.37
  3. 89.37
  4. None of these

2314. The marked price of an article is ₹ 2400. The shopkeeper gives successive discounts of x% and 15% to the customer. If the customer pays ₹ 1876.8 for the article, find the value of x. [DMRC—Customer Relation Assistant

  1. 9%
  2. 8%
  3. 12%
  4. 11%

2315. Out of a total of 85 children playing Badminton or Table Tennis or both, total number of girls in the group is 70% of the total number of boys in the group, the number of boys playing only Badminton is 50% of the number of boys and total number of boys playing Badminton is 60% of the total number of boys. Number of children only playing table Tennis is 40% of the total number of children and a total of 12 children play both Badminton and Table Tennis. What is the number of girls playing only Badminton? [DMRC—Customer Relations Assistant

  1. 16
  2. 14
  3. 17
  4. None of these

2316. Nandini Basu bought an article for ₹ 5844. She gave ₹ 156 to a mechanic to remove its defect. She then sold it for ₹ 5700. What was her loss per cent? [ESI—UDC Exam, 2016]

  1. 5%
  2. 5.5%
  3. 2.5%
  4. 2.46%

2317. A wrist watch of cost price ₹ 1250 was sold by Sharel for ₹ 1500. What was the profit percent? [ESIC—UDC Exam, 2016]

  1. 21%
  2. 24%
  3. 25%
  4. 20%

2318. In a village three people contested for the post of village Pradhan. Due to their own interest, all the voters voted and no one vote was invalid. The losing candidate got 30% votes. What could be the minimum absolute margin of votes by which the winning candidate led by the nearest rival, if each candidate got an integral per cent of votes? [SBI Jr. Associates (Pre.) Exam, 2016]

  1. 4
  2. 2
  3. 1
  4. None of these

2319. What is Ritu's present salary? I. The salary increases every year by 15%. II. Her salary at the time of joining was ₹ 10000. III. She had joined exactly 5 years ago.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. All I, II and III
  5. None of these

2320. A, B and C secured 45%, 50% and 60% marks respectively in Biology. D's marks in Biology are 10 more than A's marks and 20 less than C's marks. Find out the total marks of the four students. (M.A.T., 2006) I. Maximum marks for Biology are 200. II. Total of D's and A's marks is 190. III. C has obtained 120 marks.

  1. I and II
  2. III only
  3. Either I and II together or III alone
  4. Any one of the three
  5. All the three together

2321. What is the overall percentage of marks obtained by Sangeeta in all five subjects? (S.B.I.P.O., 2005) I. Sangeeta scored 75% marks in Maths and Science together. II. Her aggregate marks in History and Science are 72%. III. She has scored 85% marks in Sanskrit.

  1. Any two of the three
  2. All I, II and III
  3. I and either II or III
  4. III and either I or II
  5. Question cannot be answered even with the information in all three statements

2322. How many children are there in the class? I. 20% children in the class can speak only Hindi. II. 44 children can speak languages other than Hindi. III. There are 30 boys in the class.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and either I or III
  3. All I, II and III
  4. Any two of the three
  5. None of these

2323. How much profit did the company earn in the year 2011? I. The company earned 40% more profit in the year 2012 than that in the year 2010. II. The company earned a total profit of ₹ 20 crores in the years 2010 and 2011 taken together. III. In the year 2012, the company earned 80 percent profit of that in 2011.

  1. I and II or III
  2. Any two of the three
  3. Either I and II or II and III
  4. All I, II and III
  5. Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III

2324. What was the total number of candidates appeared at the examination? I. 30% of appeared candidates succeeded in the examination. II. The number of unsuccessful candidates was 1000 more than the successful candidates. III. 1750 candidates were unsuccessful.

  1. Any two of the three
  2. Only I and II
  3. Only I and either II or III
  4. All I, II and III
  5. Even with all the three statements answer cannot be given.

2325. What is Sumit's present salary? I. The salary increases every year by 12%. II. His salary at the time of joining was ₹ 3500. III. He had joined exactly 7 years ago.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. All I, II and III
  5. None of these

2326. A 25 m long wire is cut into 3 pieces. How long is the longest piece? (S.B.I.P.O., 2005) I. Two pieces are each 1 m shorter that the longest piece. II. Two pieces of the wire are of the same length. III. The longest piece of the wire is 12.5% more than the smallest piece.

  1. I only
  2. Either I alone or II alone or II and III together
  3. Only II and III together
  4. II and either I or III

2327. What is the monthly income of Mr. X? (R.B.I., 2009) I. Mr. X spends 85% of his income on various items and the remaining amount is saved. II. The monthly savings of Mr. X are ₹ 4500. III. Out of the total money spent by Mr. X in a month, one-fifth is spent on food and an amount of ₹ 20400 on other items.

  1. Only II
  2. Only III
  3. Only either II or III
  4. Question cannot be answered even with the information in all the three statements
  5. None of these

2328. Mr Kashyap purchased an airconditioner for ₹ 12000 and sold it for ₹ 15000. What was the profit percentage?

  1. 15
  2. 20
  3. 25
  4. 35
  5. None of these

2329. In terms of percentage profit, which is the best transaction? C.P. (in ₹) P r o fi t ( i n ₹)

  1. 36 17
  2. 50 24
  3. 40 19
  4. 60 29

2330. If books bought at prices ranging from ₹ 200 to ₹ 350 are sold at prices ranging from ₹ 300 to ₹ 425, what is the greatest possible profit that might be made in selling eight books?

  1. ₹ 400
  2. ₹ 600
  3. Cannot be determined
  4. None of these

2331. A shopkeeper bought an article for ₹ 2090.42. Approximately, what will be the percentage profit if he sold that article for ₹ 2602.58?

  1. 15%
  2. 20%
  3. 25%
  4. 30%

2332. The cost price of an article is ₹ 7840. What should be the selling price of the article so that there is a profit of 7%? (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. ₹ 8000
  2. ₹ 8300
  3. ₹ 8388.80
  4. ₹ 8500.50

2333. Rakesh purchased a mobile phone for ₹ 5400 and a refrigerator for ₹ 9600. He sold the mobile phone at three-fourths of its cost price and the refrigerator at 11 3 of its cost price. What was the profit/loss?

  1. ₹ 1580
  2. ₹ 1750
  3. ₹ 1850
  4. ₹ 1870
  5. None of these

2334. Rajni purchased a mobile phone and a refrigerator for ₹ 12000 and ₹ 10000 respectively. She sold the refrigerator at a loss of 12 percent and the mobile phone at a profit of 8 percent. What is her overall loss/profit?

  1. Loss of ₹ 280
  2. Loss of ₹ 240
  3. Profit of ₹ 2060
  4. Profit of ₹ 2160
  5. None of these

2335. Mohanlal purchased a TV set for ₹ 12500 and spent ₹ 300 on transportation and ₹ 800 on installation. At what price should he sell it so as to earn an overall profit of 15%? (Specialist Officers, 2009)

  1. ₹ 14375
  2. ₹ 14560
  3. ₹ 15375
  4. ₹ 15460
  5. None of these

2336. Harshad bought 15 pieces of DVD players @ ₹ 4500 each and sold all of them at the total price of ₹ 81000. What is the percent profit earned in the deal?

  1. 216 3
  2. 20
  3. 120 2
  4. 25
  5. None of these

2337. Alfred buys an old scooter for ₹ 4700 and spends ₹ 800 on its repairs. If he sells the scooter for ₹ 5800, his gain percent is

  1. 44%7
  2. 55%11
  3. 10%
  4. 12%

2338. A shopkeeper purchased 70 kg of potatoes for ₹ 420 and sold the whole lot at the rate of ₹ 6.50 per kg. What will be his gain percent? (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 14%6
  2. 16%4
  3. 18%3
  4. 20%

2339. Sam purchased 20 dozens of toys at the rate of ₹ 375 per dozen. He sold each one of them at the rate of ₹ 33. What was his percentage profit?

  1. 3.5
  2. 4.5
  3. 5.6
  4. 6.5
  5. None of these

2340. 100 oranges are bought at the rate of ₹ 350 and sold at the rate of ₹ 48 per dozen. The percentage of profit or loss is

  1. 214 % gain7
  2. 15% gain
  3. 214 % loss7
  4. 15% loss

2341. A sells an article which costs him ₹ 400 to B at a profit of 20%. B then sells it to C, making a profit of 10% on the price he paid to A. How much does C pay B?

  1. ₹ 472
  2. ₹ 476
  3. ₹ 528
  4. ₹ 532

2342. By selling an article for ₹ 100, a man gains ₹ 15. Then, his gain % is (R.R.B., 2010)

  1. 15%
  2. 212 %3
  3. 1117 %17
  4. 117 %4

2343. A trader buys some goods for ₹ 150. If the overhead expenses be 12% of cost price, then at what price should it be sold to earn 10%? (R.R.B., 2007)

  1. ₹ 184.80
  2. ₹ 185.80
  3. ₹ 187.80
  4. ₹ 188.80

2344. A man buys 10 articles for ₹ 8 and sells them at the rate of ₹ 1.25 per article. His profit is

  1. 119 %2
  2. 20%
  3. 50%
  4. 156 %4

2345. If an article is sold at 200 percent profit, then the ratio of its cost price to its selling price will be (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 2 : 1
  3. 1 : 3
  4. 3 : 1

2346. If the ratio of cost price and selling price of an article be 10 : 11, the percentage of profit is (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 8
  2. 10
  3. 11
  4. 15

2347. A trader sells an article and loses 112 %.2 The ratio of cost price to the selling price is (Hotel Management, 2007)

  1. 7 : 8
  2. 9 : 8
  3. 8 : 7
  4. 8 : 9

2348. A person buys an article for ₹ p and sells it for ₹ q thereby gaining r%. The selling price in terms of cost price may be written as (R.R.B., 2005)

  1. 100 pr
  2. (100 ) 100 rp +
  3. (100 ) 100 pr +
  4. (100 – ) 100 pr

2349. The owner of a furniture shop charges his customer 28% more than the cost price. If a customer paid ₹ 23680 for a dining table set, then what was the original price of the dining set?

  1. ₹ 15700
  2. ₹ 16250
  3. ₹ 17500
  4. ₹ 18500
  5. None of these

2350. A gold bracelet is sold for ₹ 14500 at a loss of 20%. What is the cost price of the gold bracelet?

  1. ₹ 15225
  2. ₹ 16800
  3. ₹ 17400
  4. ₹ 18125
  5. None of these

2351. A shopkeeper expects a gain of 122 %2 on his cost price. If in a week, his sale was of ₹ 392, what was his profit?

  1. ₹ 18.20
  2. ₹ 70
  3. ₹ 72
  4. ₹ 88.25

2352. The sale price of an article including the sales tax is ₹ 616. The rate of sales tax is 10%. If the shopkeeper has made a profit of 12%, then the cost price of the article is

  1. ₹ 500
  2. ₹ 515
  3. ₹ 550
  4. ₹ 600

2353. A shopkeeper buys 144 eggs at 90 paise each. On the way 20 eggs were broken. He sold the remaining eggs at ₹ 1.20 each. The percentage gain or loss is (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 4.8% loss
  2. 8.5% loss
  3. 12.9% gain
  4. 14.8% gain

2354. Abhishek purchased 140 shirts and 250 trousers @ ₹ 450 and @ ₹ 550 respectively. What should be the overall average selling price of shirts and trousers so that 40% profit is earned? (rounded off to next integer) (Specialist Officers’, 2009)

  1. ₹ 700
  2. ₹ 710
  3. ₹ 720
  4. ₹ 725
  5. None of these

2355. A person purchased 10 dozen pens at the rate of ₹ 4 per dozen. On checking, he found that 20 pens were not working. In order to earn 25% profit, he should sell the remaining pens each at (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 40 paise
  2. 44 paise
  3. 50 paise
  4. 55 paise

2356. Saransh purchased 120 reams of paper at ₹ 80 per ream. He spent ₹ 280 on transportation, paid octroi at the rate of 40 paise per ream and paid ₹ 72 to the coolie. If he wants to have a gain of 8%, what must be the selling price per ream?

  1. ₹ 86
  2. ₹ 87.48
  3. ₹ 89
  4. ₹ 90

2357. A person bought 20 litres of milk at the rate of ₹ 8 per litre. He got it churned after spending ₹ 10 and 5 kg of cream and 20 litres of toned milk were obtained. If he sold the cream at ₹ 30 per kg and toned milk at ₹ 4 per litre, his profit in the transaction is

  1. 25%
  2. 35.3%
  3. 37.5%
  4. 42.5%

2358. Jacob bought a scooter for a certain sum of money. He spent 10% of the cost on repairs and sold the scooter for a profit of ₹ 1100. How much did he spend on repairs if he made a profit of 20%?

  1. ₹ 400
  2. ₹ 440
  3. ₹ 500
  4. ₹ 550

2359. A manufacturer undertakes to supply 2000 pieces of a particular component at ₹ 25 per piece. According to his estimates, even if 5% fail to pass the quality tests, then he will make a profit of 25%. However, as it turned out, 50% of the components were rejected. What is the loss to the manufacturer? (M.A.T., 2003)

  1. ₹ 12,000
  2. ₹ 13,000
  3. ₹ 14,000
  4. ₹ 15,000

2360. Ronit and Vinit purchased a scooter for ₹ 25000 and sold the same for ₹ 26250. If at the time of purchase Ronit paid 11 2 times as much as Vinit, how much did Vinit receive out of profit? (P.C.S., 2004)

  1. ₹ 400
  2. ₹ 500
  3. ₹ 600
  4. ₹ 700

2361. A trader buys a chair for ₹ 600 and sells it for ₹ 765 at a credit of 4 months. Reckoning money worth 6% p.a., his gain percent is

  1. 20%
  2. 122 %2
  3. 25%
  4. 127 %2

2362. By selling a bicycle for ₹ 2850, a shopkeeper gains 14%. If the profit is reduced to 8% then the selling price will be (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. ₹ 2600
  2. ₹ 2700
  3. ₹ 2800
  4. ₹ 3000

2363. When a plot is sold for ₹ 18,700, the owner loses 15%. At what price must the plot be sold in order to gain 15%?

  1. ₹ 21,000
  2. ₹ 22,500
  3. ₹ 25,300
  4. ₹ 25,800

2364. A fruitseller sells mangoes at the rate of ₹ 9 per kg and thereby loses 20%. At what price per kg, he should have sold them to make a profit of 5%?

  1. ₹ 11.81
  2. ₹ 12
  3. ₹ 12.25
  4. ₹ 12.31

2365. Raju purchased an item for ₹ 8200 and sold it at a gain of 25%. From that amount he purchased another item and sold it at a loss of 20%. What is his overall gain/loss?

  1. Loss of ₹ 120
  2. Gain of ₹ 120
  3. Loss of ₹ 140
  4. Neither loss nor gain

2366. A property dealer sells a house for ₹ 6,30,000 and in the bargain makes a profit of 5%. Had he sold it for ₹ 5,00,000, then what percentage of loss or gain he would have made?

  1. 12 % gain4
  2. 10% loss
  3. 112 % loss2
  4. 216 % loss3

2367. A shopkeeper sells one transistor for ₹ 840 at a gain of 20% and another for ₹ 960 at a loss of 4%. His total gain or loss percent is

  1. 155 % loss17
  2. 155 % gain17
  3. 26 % gain3
  4. None of these

2368. If selling price of an article is 4 3 of its cost price, the profit in the transaction is (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 216 %3
  2. 120 %2
  3. 125 %2
  4. 133 %3

2369. The ratio between the sale price and the cost price of an article is 7 : 5. What is the ratio between the profit and the cost price of that article?

  1. 2 : 7
  2. 5 : 2
  3. 7 : 2
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

2370. If an article is sold for ₹ x, there is a loss of 15%. If the same article is sold for ₹ y, there is a profit of 15%. The ratio of ( y – x) to ( y + x) is (Hotel Mgmt, 2010)

  1. 3 : 20
  2. 20 : 3
  3. 17 : 23
  4. 20 : 23

2371. By selling an article at some price, a man gains 10%. If the article is sold at twice of the price, the gain percent will be (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 20%
  2. 60%
  3. 100%
  4. 120%

2372. If selling price is doubled, the profit triples. Find the profit percent.

  1. 266 3
  2. 100
  3. 1105 3
  4. 120

2373. At what profit percent must an article be sold so that by selling at half that price, there may be a loss of 30%?

  1. 25%
  2. 36%
  3. 40%
  4. 42%

2374. The C.P. of an article is 40% of the S.P. The percent that the S.P. is of C.P. is

  1. 250
  2. 240
  3. 60
  4. 40

2375. By selling a pen for ₹ 15, a man loses one-sixteenth of what it costs him. The cost price of the pen is

  1. ₹ 16
  2. ₹ 18
  3. ₹ 20
  4. ₹ 21

2376. By selling an article, Michael earned a profit equal to one-fourth of the price he bought it. If he sold it for ₹ 375, what was the cost price?

  1. ₹ 281.75
  2. ₹ 300
  3. ₹ 312.50
  4. ₹ 350

2377. 10% loss on selling price is what percent loss on the cost price?

  1. 19%11
  2. 29%11
  3. 10%
  4. 11%

2378. If loss is 1 3 of S.P., the loss percentage is

  1. 216 %3
  2. 20%
  3. 25%
  4. 133 %3

2379. In a certain store, the profit is 320% of the cost. If the cost increases by 25% but the selling price remains constant, approximately what percentage of the selling price is the profit?

  1. 30%
  2. 70%
  3. 100%
  4. 250%

2380. Ashok buys a car at 20% discount of the price and sells it at 20% higher price. His percentage gain is (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 20%
  2. 40%
  3. 50%
  4. 266 %3

2381. The profit earned after selling an article for ₹ 1754 is the same as loss incurred after selling the article for ₹ 1492. What is the cost price of the article?

  1. ₹ 1523
  2. ₹ 1589
  3. ₹ 1623
  4. ₹ 1689
  5. None of these

2382. The profit earned by selling an article for ₹ 832 is equal to the loss incurred when the same article is sold for ₹ 448. What should be the sale price for making 50% profit?

  1. ₹ 920
  2. ₹ 960
  3. ₹ 1060
  4. ₹ 1200
  5. None of these

2383. The profit earned by selling an article for ₹ 900 is double the loss incurred when the same article is sold for ₹ 450. At what price should the article be sold to make 25% profit?

  1. ₹ 600
  2. ₹ 750
  3. ₹ 800
  4. Data inadequate

2384. The percentage profit earned by selling an article for ₹ 1920 is equal to the percentage loss incurred by selling the same article for ₹ 1280. At what price should the article be sold to make 25% profit?

  1. ₹ 2000
  2. ₹ 2200
  3. ₹ 2400
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

2385. Profit earned by selling an article for ₹ 1060 is 20% more than the loss incurred by selling the article for ₹ 950. At what price should the article be sold to earn 20% profit?

  1. ₹ 980
  2. ₹ 1080
  3. ₹ 1800
  4. None of these

2386. When an article is sold for ₹ 116, the profit percent is thrice as much as when it is sold for ₹ 92. The cost price of the article is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. ₹ 68
  2. ₹ 72
  3. ₹ 78
  4. ₹ 80

2387. If the cost price of 15 books is equal to the selling price of 20 books, the loss percent is (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 16
  2. 20
  3. 24
  4. 25

2388. If the cost price of 10 articles is equal to the selling price of 7 articles, then the gain or loss percent is

  1. 35% loss
  2. 642 % loss7
  3. 642 % gain7
  4. 51% gain

2389. A wholeseller buys 20 pens at the marked price of 16 pens to a retailer. The retailer in turn sells them at the marked price. Determine the gain or loss percent to the retailer.

  1. 20%
  2. 23%
  3. 25%
  4. 30%

2390. A farmer bought 749 sheep. He sold 700 of them for the price paid for the 749 sheep. The remaining 49 sheep were sold at the same price per head as the other 700. Based on the cost, the percent gain on the entire transaction is (M.B.A., 2010)

  1. 6.5
  2. 6.75
  3. 7.0
  4. 7.5

2391. If by selling 110 mangoes, the C.P. of 120 mangoes is realised, the gain percent is

  1. 19%11
  2. 19%9
  3. 1010 %11
  4. 111 %9

2392. The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the sell - ing price of x articles. If the profit is 25%, then the value of x is (M.A.T., 2004)

  1. 15
  2. 16
  3. 18
  4. 25

2393. On an order of 5 dozen boxes of a consumer product, a retailer receives an extra dozen free. This is equivalent to allowing him a discount of

  1. 15%
  2. 116 %6
  3. 216 %3
  4. 20%

2394. A man sold 18 cots for ₹ 16,800, gaining thereby the cost price of 3 cots. The cost price of a cot is

  1. ₹ 650
  2. ₹ 700
  3. ₹ 750
  4. ₹ 800

2395. Mohan bought 20 dining tables for ₹ 12000 and sold them at a profit equal to the selling price of 4 dining tables. The selling price of 1 dining table is (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. ₹ 700
  2. ₹ 725
  3. ₹ 750
  4. ₹ 775

2396. By selling 100 pencils, a shopkeeper gains the selling price of 20 pencils. His gain percent is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 12
  2. 15
  3. 20
  4. 25

2397. On selling 17 balls at ₹ 720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls. The cost price of a ball is (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. ₹ 45
  2. ₹ 50
  3. ₹ 55
  4. ₹ 60

2398. A vendor loses the selling price of 4 oranges on selling 36 oranges. His loss percent is

  1. 10%
  2. 11%
  3. 112 %2
  4. None of these

2399. A man buys 2 dozen bananas at ₹ 16 per dozen. After selling 18 bananas at the rate of ₹ 12 per dozen, the shopkeeper reduced the rate to ₹ 4 per dozen. The percent loss is

  1. 25.2%
  2. 32.4%
  3. 36.5%
  4. 37.5%

2400. A man bought apples at the rate of 8 for ₹ 34 and sold them at the rate of 12 for ₹ 57. How many apples should be sold to earn a net profit of ₹ 45?

  1. 90
  2. 100
  3. 135
  4. 150

2401. Vinod makes a profit of ₹ 110 if he sells a certain number of pencils he has at the price of ₹ 2.50 per pencil and incurs a loss of ₹ 55 if he sells the same number of pencils for ₹ 1.75 per pencil. How many pencils does Vinod have?

  1. 200
  2. 220
  3. 240
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

2402. Ram bought 1600 eggs at ₹ 3.75 a dozen. He sold 900 of them at 2 for ₹ 1 and the remaining at 5 for ₹ 2. His percent gain or loss is (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 40%
  2. 42%
  3. 45%
  4. 46%

2403. A shopkeeper purchases 11 knives in ₹ 10 and sells them at the rate of 10 knives for ₹ 11. He earns a profit of (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 11%
  2. 15%
  3. 20%
  4. 21%

2404. Oranges are bought at 5 for ₹ 10 and sold at 6 for ₹ 15. The profit or loss as percentage is (R.R.B., 2009)

  1. 25%
  2. 35%
  3. 40%
  4. 50%

2405. A fruit seller buys lemons at 2 for a rupee and sells them at 5 for three rupees. His profit percent is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 10
  2. 15
  3. 20
  4. 25

2406. A man bought pencils at the rate of 6 for ₹ 4 and sold them at the rate of 4 for ₹ 6. His gain in the transaction is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 75%
  2. 80%
  3. 100%
  4. 125%

2407. A man purchased a box full of pencils at the rate of 7 for ₹ 9 and sold all of them at the rate of 8 for ₹ 11. In this transaction, he gained ₹ 10. How many pencils did the box contain?

  1. 100
  2. 112
  3. 114
  4. 115

2408. A man bought a number of clips at 3 for a rupee and an equal number at 2 for a rupee. At what price per dozen should he sell them to make a profit of 20%?

  1. ₹ 4
  2. ₹ 5
  3. ₹ 6
  4. ₹ 7

2409. A man buys eggs at 2 for ₹ 1 and an equal number at 3 for ₹ 2 and sells the whole at 5 for ₹ 3. His gain or loss percent is

  1. 22 % loss7
  2. 63 % gain7
  3. 23 % loss7
  4. 62 % gain7

2410. A person buys certain number of marbles at 20 per rupee and an equal number at 30 per rupee. He mixes them and sells them at 25 per rupee. His gain or loss in the transaction is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 2% loss
  2. 2% gain
  3. 4% loss
  4. 4% gain

2411. A man bought some oranges at ₹ 10 per dozen and bought the same number of oranges at ₹ 8 per dozen. He sold these oranges at ₹ 11 per dozen and gained ₹ 120. The total number of oranges bought by him was

  1. 30 dozens
  2. 40 dozens
  3. 50 dozens
  4. 60 dozens

2412. A person bought some articles at the rate of 5 per rupee and the same number at the rate of 4 per rupee. He mixed both the types and sold at the rate of 9 for 2 rupees. In this business he suffered a loss of ₹ 3. The total number of articles bought by him was

  1. 540
  2. 545
  3. 1080
  4. 1090

2413. A grocer purchases three qualities of lemons at dif - ferent rates. The first quality was purchased at 2 for ₹ 1, the second at 3 for ₹ 2 and the third at 4 for ₹ 3. He sold all the lemons at 5 for ₹ 4. If the ratio of the number of lemons of the three qualities is 1 : 2 : 3, then what is the approximate gain or loss percentage incurred by the grocer?

  1. 2.65% loss
  2. 17.56% loss
  3. 17.56% gain
  4. 18.65% gain
  5. None of these

2414. A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

2415. Reynolds Superink pens are bought at the rate of 8 for ₹ 100. To make a profit of 60 per cent, these must be sold at

  1. 5 for ₹ 100
  2. 6 for ₹ 100
  3. 9 for ₹ 200
  4. None of these

2416. By selling 12 toffees for a rupee, a man loses 20%. How many for a rupee should he sell to get a gain of 20%?

  1. 5
  2. 8
  3. 10
  4. 15

2417. By selling 45 lemons for ₹ 40, a man loses 20%. How many should he sell for ₹ 24 to gain 20% in the transaction?

  1. 16
  2. 18
  3. 20
  4. 22

2418. By selling 90 ball pens for ₹ 160, a person loses 20%. How many ball pens should be sold for ₹ 96 so as to have a profit of 20%?

  1. 24
  2. 36
  3. 39
  4. 42

2419. What is the approximate profit for the railways if the X-expressway runs at full occupancy on a particular day?

  1. ₹ 2,50,000
  2. ₹ 2,75,000
  3. ₹ 3,00,000
  4. Cannot be determined

2420. Assuming full occupancy, a bogie of which class exhibits the highest profit margin?

  1. 3 tier
  2. AC-3 tier
  3. AC-2 tier
  4. AC-first class

2421. The highest revenue for a journey from P to D will always be generated by

  1. AC- 2 tier
  2. 3 tier
  3. AC - 3 tier
  4. Cannot be determined

2422. Assuming full occupancy in all the classes, for a journey between P and D, the profit margin

  1. 109%
  2. 116%
  3. 127%
  4. None of these

2423. For Q. 92, the percentage of the total profit that comes out of AC bogie is approximately

  1. 50%
  2. 60%
  3. 70%
  4. 80%

2424. A shopkeeper bought three varieties A, B and C of rice in different amounts at the rates of ₹ 34.50, ₹ 28.60 and ₹ 32.40 per kg respectively. In which of the following transactions will he gain maximum? (S.B.I.P.O., 2005)

  1. He bought 25 kg of rice of variety C and sold at ₹ 42 per kg and he bought 30 kg of variety A and sold at ₹ 38 per kg.
  2. He bought 40 kg of rice of variety B and sold at ₹ 37 per kg and he bought 20 kg of variety A and sold at ₹ 40 per kg.
  3. He bought 20 kg of rice of varieties A and C each and sold at ₹ 38 and ₹ 36 per kg respectively.
  4. He bought 30 kg of rice of variety A and sold at ₹ 37 per kg and he bought 20 kg of variety B and sold at ₹ 33 per kg.
  5. He bought 20 kg of rice of variety B and sold at ₹ 40 per kg and he bought 40 kg of variety C and sold at ₹ 38 per kg.

2425. Nikita bought 30 kg of wheat at the rate of ₹ 9.50 per kg and 40 kg of wheat at the rate of ₹ 8.50 per kg and mixed them. She sold the mixture at the rate of ₹ 8.90 per kg. Her total profit or loss in the transaction was (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. ₹ 2 loss
  2. ₹ 2 profit
  3. ₹ 7 loss
  4. ₹ 7 profit

2426. Manish purchased 25 kg of rice @ ₹ 32 per kg and 15 kg of rice @ ₹ 36 per kg. He mixed the two varieties of rice and sold it @ ₹ 40.20 per kg. What is the percent profit earned?

  1. 20
  2. 25
  3. 30
  4. 40
  5. None of these

2427. One variety of sugar is sold for ₹ 3.20 per kg at a loss of 20% and another variety is sold for ₹ 6 per kg at a gain of 20%. If equal quantities of the two are mixed together and the mixture is sold at ₹ 5.40 per kg, what is the loss or gain percentage? (R.R.B., 2005)

  1. Gain 20%
  2. Loss 20%
  3. No profit, no loss
  4. None of these

2428. Arun purchased 30 kg of wheat at the rate of ₹ 11.50 per kg and 20 kg of wheat at the rate of ₹ 14.25 per kg. He mixed the two and sold the mixture. Approximately what price per kg should he sell the mixture to make 30% profit?

  1. ₹ 14.80
  2. ₹ 15.40
  3. ₹ 15.60
  4. ₹ 16.30
  5. ₹ 18.20

2429. Padam purchased 30 kg of rice at the rate of ₹ 17.50 per kg and another 30 kg rice at a certain rate. He mixed the two and sold the entire quantity at the rate of ₹ 18.60 per kg and made 20% overall profit. At what price per kg did he purchase the lot of another 30 kg rice? (N.M.A.T., 2006)

  1. ₹ 12.50
  2. ₹ 13.50
  3. ₹ 14.50
  4. ₹ 15.50
  5. None of these

2430. A person blends two varieties of tea – one costing ₹ 160 per kg and the other costing ₹ 200 per kg in the ratio 5 : 4. He sells the blended variety at ₹ 192 per kg. His profit percent is

  1. 8
  2. 9
  3. 10
  4. 12

2431. A trader mixes three varieties of groundnuts costing ₹ 50, ₹ 20 and ₹ 30 per kg in the ratio 2 : 4 : 3 in terms of weight, and sells the mixture at ₹ 33 per kg. What percentage of profit does he make?

  1. 8%
  2. 9%
  3. 10%
  4. None of these

2432. A shopkeeper bought 30 kg of wheat at the rate of ₹ 45 per kg. He sold forty percent of the total quantity at the rate of ₹ 50 per kg. Approximately at what price per kg should he sell the remaining quantity to make 25 percent overall profit?

  1. ₹ 50
  2. ₹ 52
  3. ₹ 54
  4. ₹ 56
  5. ₹ 60

2433. A dealer buys dry fruit at the rate of ₹ 100, ₹ 80 and ₹ 60 per kg. He bought them in the ratio 12 : 15 : 20 by weight. He in total gets 20% profit by selling the first two and at last he finds he has no gain no loss in selling the whole quantity which he had. What was the percentage loss he suffered for the third quantity? (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 20%
  2. 30%
  3. 40%
  4. 50%

2434. A dairyman pays ₹ 6.40 per litre of milk. He adds water and sells the mixture at ₹ 8 per litre, thereby making 37.5% profit. The proportion of water to milk received by the customers is

  1. 1 : 10
  2. 1 : 12
  3. 1 : 15
  4. 1 : 20

2435. Five litres of water is added to a certain quantity of pure milk costing ₹ 3 per litre. If by selling the mixture at the same price as before, a profit of 20% is made, then what is the amount of pure milk in the mixture? (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 20 litres
  2. 25 litres
  3. 30 litres
  4. 35 litres

2436. By mixing two brands of tea and selling the mixture at the rate of ₹ 177 per kg, a shopkeeper makes a profit of 18%. If to every 2 kg of one brand costing ₹ 200 per kg, 3 kg of the other brand is added, then how much per kg does the other brand cost ?

  1. ₹ 110
  2. ₹ 120
  3. ₹ 140
  4. None of these

2437. The manufacturer of a certain item can sell all he can produce at the selling price of ₹ 60 each. It costs him ₹ 40 in materials and labour to produce each item and he has overhead expenses of ₹ 3000 per week in order to operate the plant. The number of units he should produce and sell in order to make a profit of at least ₹ 1000 per week, is

  1. 200
  2. 250
  3. 300
  4. 400

2438. A milkman cheats his customer in two ways. He mixes 10% water in pure milk and increases the price of milk by 10%. He purchases 20 kg pure milk at a rate of ₹ 15 per kg. His total profit by selling it is (Hotel Management, 2007)

  1. ₹ 40
  2. ₹ 63
  3. ₹ 80
  4. ₹ 100

2439. A dishonest dealer uses a scale of 90 cm instead of a metre scale and claims to sell at cost price. His profit is

  1. 9%
  2. 10%
  3. 12%
  4. None of these

2440. A dealer professes to sell his goods at cost price but he uses a false weight of 950 grams for a kilogram. The gain percent of the dealer is (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 54%19
  2. 5%
  3. 55%19
  4. 119 %5

2441. A fruit seller professes to sell his fruits at cost price, but still gains 25% on his outlay. What weight does he substitute for a kilogram? (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 800 gm
  2. 850 gm
  3. 890 gm
  4. 900 gm

2442. A dishonest dealer professes to sell his goods at cost price. But he uses a false weight and thus gains 186%47 . For a kg, he uses a weight of

  1. 940 gms
  2. 947 gms
  3. 953 gms
  4. 960 gms

2443. A shopkeeper cheats to the extent of 10% while buying as well as selling, by using false weights. His total gain is (S.S.C., 2006)

  1. 10%
  2. 11%
  3. 20%
  4. 21%
  5. 222 %9

2444. Left pan of a faulty balance weighs 100 grams more than its right pan. A shopkeeper keeps the weight measure in the left pan while buying goods but keeps it in the right pan while selling his goods. He uses only 1 kg weight measure. If he sells his goods at the listed cost price, what is his gain?

  1. 00 %11 1
  2. 200 %11
  3. 100 %9
  4. 200 %9

2445. A grocer sells rice at a profit of 10% and uses weights which are 20% less than the market weight. The total gain earned by him will be

  1. 30%
  2. 35%
  3. 37.5%
  4. None of these

2446. A dishonest dealer sells the goods at 20% loss on cost price but uses 15% less weight. What is his percentage profit or loss?

  1. 115 % loss17
  2. 155 % loss17
  3. 155 % gain17
  4. 115 % gain17

2447. A merchant professes to lose 4% on a certain tea but he uses a weight equal to 840g instead of 1 kg. Find his real loss or gain percent.

  1. 214 % loss7
  2. 214 % gain7
  3. 216 % loss7
  4. 216 % gain7

2448. A shopkeeper advertises for selling cloth at 4% loss. However, by using a false metre scale he actually gains 20%. What is the actual length of the scale? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 70 cm
  2. 75 cm
  3. 80 cm
  4. 90 cm

2449. Instead of a metre scale, a cloth merchant uses a 120 cm scale while buying but uses an 80 cm scale while selling the same cloth. If he offers a discount of 20% on cash payment what is his overall profit percentage?

  1. 15%
  2. 20%
  3. 25%
  4. 40%

2450. A trader professes to sell his goods at a nominal gain percentage but actually earns 137 %2 profit by using false weight. If for a kg he uses a weight of 800 gm, what is the nominal gain percentage at which he claims to be selling his goods?

  1. 8%
  2. 10%
  3. 15%
  4. 20%

2451. A dry fruit merchant professes to sell 2 kg almond packs at a loss of 20%. However, he uses two false weights each of which is marked 1 kg and thus gains 26%3 on selling every 2 kg of almonds. If it is given that one of the weights weighs only 850 gm, then how much does the other weight weigh?

  1. 650 gm
  2. 700 gm
  3. 725 gm
  4. 750 gm

2452. A stockist wants to make some profit by selling sugar. He contemplates about various methods. Which of the following would maximize his profit?

  1. Sell sugar at 10% profit
  2. Use 900 g of weight instead of 1 kg
  3. Mix 10% impurities in sugar and sell sugar at cost price
  4. Increase the price by 5% and reduce the weight by 5%

2453. A fair price shopkeeper takes 10% profit on his goods. He lost 20% goods during theft. His loss percent is

  1. 8
  2. 10
  3. 11
  4. 12

2454. Prateek sold a music system to Kartik at 20% gain and Kartik sold it to Swastik at 40% gain. If Swastik paid ₹ 10500 for the music system, what amount did Prateek pay for the same?

  1. ₹ 6250
  2. ₹ 7500
  3. ₹ 8240
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

2455. A manufacturer sells an article to a wholesale dealer at a profit of 20% and the wholesale dealer sells it to a retail merchant at a loss of 5%. Find the resultant loss or profit. (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 12% loss
  2. 12% gain
  3. 14% loss
  4. 14% gain

2456. A bought a radio set and spent ₹ 110 on its repairs. He then sold it to B at 20% profit, B sold it to C at a loss of 10% and C sold it for ₹ 1188 at a profit of 10%. What is the amount for which A bought the radio set?

  1. ₹ 850
  2. ₹ 890
  3. ₹ 930
  4. ₹ 950

2457. A car worth ₹ 1,50,000 was sold by X to Y at 5% profit. Y sold the car back to X at 2% loss. In the entire transaction

  1. X gained ₹ 4350
  2. X lost ₹ 4350
  3. X gained ₹ 3150
  4. X lost ₹ 3150

2458. A manufacturer sold a machine to a wholesale dealer at a profit of 10%. The wholesale dealer sold it to a retailer at a profit of 20%. While transporting some defect occurred in the machine and hence the retailer sold it at a loss of 5%. The customer paid ₹ 627. Find the cost of the machine for the manufacturer. (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. ₹ 500
  2. ₹ 534
  3. ₹ 600
  4. ₹ 672

2459. Goods pass successively through the hands of three traders and each of them sells his goods at a profit of 25% of his cost price. If the last trader sold the goods for ₹ 250, then how much did the first trader pay for them? (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. ₹ 128
  2. ₹ 150
  3. ₹ 192
  4. ₹ 200

2460. An article passing through two hands is sold at a profit of 38% at the original cost price. If the first dealer makes a profit of 20%, then the profit percent made by the second is

  1. 5
  2. 10
  3. 12
  4. 15

2461. A merchant buys an article for ₹ 27 and sells it at a profit of 10 percent of the selling price. The selling price of the article is

  1. ₹ 29.70
  2. ₹ 30
  3. ₹ 32
  4. ₹ 37

2462. By selling an article, a man makes a profit of 25% of its selling price. His profit percent is (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 216 3
  2. 20
  3. 25
  4. 133 3

2463. If there is a profit of 20% on the cost price of an article, the percentage of profit calculated on its selling price will be (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 18 3
  2. 216 3
  3. 20
  4. 24

2464. Vineet calculates his profit percentage on the selling price whereas Roshan calculates his profit on the cost price. They find that the difference of their profits is ₹ 275. If the selling price of both of them are the same and Vineet gets 25% profit whereas Roshan gets 15% profit, find their selling price. (N.M.A.T., 2005)

  1. ₹ 2100
  2. ₹ 2250
  3. ₹ 2300
  4. ₹ 2350

2465. A clock was sold for ₹ 144. If the percentage of profit was numerically equal to the cost price, the cost of the clock was (S.S.C., 2005; R.R.B., 2009; P.C.S., 2009)

  1. ₹ 72
  2. ₹ 80
  3. ₹ 90
  4. ₹ 100

2466. By selling an article at 2 3 of the marked price, there is a loss of 10%. The profit percent, when the article is sold at the marked price, is

  1. 20%
  2. 30%
  3. 35%
  4. 40%

2467. Raghavan purchase a scooter at 13 15 of its selling price and sold it at 12% more than its selling price. His gain is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 20%
  2. 329 %13
  3. 30%
  4. 138 %13

2468. A man buys an article for 10% less than its value and sells it for 10% more than its value. His gain or loss percent is

  1. no profit, no loss
  2. 20% profit
  3. less than 20% profit
  4. more than 20% profit

2469. Samant bought a microwave oven and paid 10% less than the original price. He sold it with 30% profit on the price he had paid. What percentage of profit did Samant earn on the original price?

  1. 17%
  2. 20%
  3. 27%
  4. 32%
  5. None of these

2470. If 5% more is gained by selling an article for ₹ 350 than by selling it for ₹ 340, the cost of the article is

  1. ₹ 50
  2. ₹ 160
  3. ₹ 200
  4. ₹ 225

2471. If a man reduces the selling price of a fan from ₹ 400 to ₹ 380, his loss increases by 2%. The cost price of the fan is

  1. ₹ 480
  2. ₹ 500
  3. ₹ 600
  4. None of these

2472. An increase of ₹ 3 in the selling price of an article turns a loss of 17%2 into a gain of 17%2 . The cost price (in ₹) of the article is

  1. 10
  2. 15
  3. 20
  4. 25

2473. A shopkeeper sells an article at 112 %2 loss. If he sells it for ₹ 92.50 more then he gains 6%. What is the cost price of the article? (MA.T., 2008)

  1. ₹ 500
  2. ₹ 510
  3. ₹ 575
  4. ₹ 600

2474. A dealer sold an article at a loss of 12 %.2 Had he sold it for ₹ 100 more, he would have gained 17 %.2 To gain 112 %,2 he should sell it for

  1. ₹ 850
  2. ₹ 925
  3. ₹ 1080
  4. ₹ 1125

2475. A man sells a book at a profit of 20%. If he had bought it at 20% less and sold it for ₹ 18 less, he would have gained 25%. The cost price of the book is (M.A.T., 2009)

  1. ₹ 60
  2. ₹ 70
  3. ₹ 80
  4. ₹ 90

2476. A bookseller sells a book at a profit of 10%. If he had bought it at 4% less and sold it for ₹ 6 more, he would have gained 18 %4 3 . The cost price of the book is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. ₹ 130
  2. ₹ 140
  3. ₹ 150
  4. ₹ 160

2477. A watch is sold at a profit of 20%. If both the cost price and the selling price of the watch are decreased by ₹ 100, the profit would be 5% more. Original cost price of the watch is

  1. ₹ 450
  2. ₹ 500
  3. ₹ 550
  4. ₹ 600

2478. An article is sold at a profit of 20%. If the cost price is increased by 10% and the sale price by ₹ 26, then the percentage of profit reduces by 5%. Determine the cost price. (M.C.A., 2005)

  1. ₹ 300
  2. ₹ 400
  3. ₹ 500
  4. ₹ 600

2479. The difference between the cost price and sale price of an article is ₹ 240. If the profit is 20%, the selling price is

  1. ₹ 1240
  2. ₹ 1400
  3. ₹ 1600
  4. None of these

2480. The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is ₹ 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is

  1. 51 : 52
  2. 52 : 53
  3. 51 : 53
  4. 52 : 55

2481. Shailja earns 15 percent on an investment but loses 10 percent on another investment. If the ratio of the two investments is 3 : 5, then the combined loss percent is (S.S.C., 2006)

  1. 5 8
  2. 8 5
  3. 4 5
  4. 5 4

2482. A shopkeeper bought three watches w 1, w 2 and w3 from a dealer and sold them to three different customers. The ratio of the selling prices of the watches w1, w2 and w3 was 2 : 3 : 4. The shopkeeper gains 30% and 20% on the watches w 1 and w 2 respectively but loses 40% on the watch w 3. What was the shopkeeper’s approximate percent gain or loss in the whole transaction?

  1. 16% profit
  2. 16% loss
  3. 15% loss
  4. Data inadequate

2483. A man sells two articles for ₹ 240 each. On one he gains 20% and on the other he loses 20%. What is the gain or loss percent in the entire transaction? (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 1% gain
  2. 2% loss
  3. 4% gain
  4. 4% loss

2484. A shopkeeper sells two watches for ₹ 308 each. On one he gets 12% profit and on the other 12% loss. His profit or loss in the entire transaction was (R.R.B., 2006; S.S.C., 2007)

  1. Neither profit, nor loss
  2. 111 % loss25
  3. 111 % profit25
  4. 23 % loss25

2485. A man sells two flats at the rate of ₹ 1.995 lakhs each. On one he gains 5% and on the other, he loses 5%. His gain or loss percent in the whole transaction is

  1. 0.25% loss
  2. 0.25% gain
  3. 2.5% loss
  4. 25% loss

2486. A man sells two commodities for ₹ 4000 each, neither losing nor gaining in the deal. If he sold one commodity at a gain of 25%, the other commodity is sold at a loss of :

  1. 216 %3
  2. 218 %9
  3. 25%
  4. None of these

2487. A house and a shop were sold for ₹ 1 lakh each. In this transaction, the house sale resulted into 20% loss whereas the shop sale resulted into 20% profit. The entire transaction resulted in

  1. no loss, no gain
  2. loss of ₹ 1 12 lakh
  3. loss of ₹ 1 18 lakh
  4. gain of ₹ 1 24 lakh

2488. A man sells two articles at ₹ 99 each. He gains 10% on one and loses 10% on the other. Then on overall basis he (P.C.S., 2006)

  1. gains ₹ 2
  2. neither gains nor loses
  3. loses ₹ 2
  4. loses ₹ 1

2489. A man sold two steel chairs for ₹ 500 each. On one, he gains 20% and on the other, he loses 12%. How much does he gain or lose in the whole transaction? (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 1.5% gain
  2. 1.5% loss
  3. 2% gain
  4. 2% loss

2490. Ranjan purchased 120 tables at a price of ₹ 110 per table. He sold 30 tables at a profit of ₹ 12 per table and 75 tables at a profit of ₹ 14 per table. The remaining tables were sold at a loss of ₹ 7 per table. What is the average profit per table?

  1. ₹ 10.04
  2. ₹ 10.875
  3. ₹ 12.80
  4. ₹ 12.875

2491. Hemant sold 10 sarees for a total profit of ₹ 460 and 12 sarees for a total profit of ₹ 144. At what profit per saree should he sell the remaining 20 sarees so that he gets an average profit of ₹ 18 per saree?

  1. ₹ 7.40
  2. ₹ 7.60
  3. ₹ 7.80
  4. ₹ 8

2492. Sanket purchased 20 dozen notebooks at ₹ 48 per dozen. He sold 8 dozen at 10% profit and the remaining 12 dozen with 20% profit. What is his profit percentage in the transaction?

  1. 7.68
  2. 15
  3. 16
  4. 19.2

2493. In a shop, 80% of the articles are sold at a profit of 10% and the remaining at a loss of 40%. What is the overall profit/loss?

  1. 10% profit
  2. 10% loss
  3. 5% loss
  4. No profit no loss

2494. If a person makes a profit of 10% on one-fourth of the quantity sold and a loss of 20% on the rest, then what is the average percent profit or loss? (J.M.E.T., 2004)

  1. 11.25% loss
  2. 11.75% profit
  3. 12.5% profit
  4. 12.5% loss

2495. I purchased 120 exercise books at the rate of ₹ 3 each and sold 1 3 of them at the rate of ₹ 4 each, 1 2 of them at the rate of ₹ 5 each and the rest at the cost price. My profit percent is

  1. 44%
  2. 44 2 %3
  3. 44 4 %9
  4. 45%

2496. A departmental store receives a shipment of 1000 pens, for which it pays ₹ 9000. The store sells the pens at a price 80 percent above cost for one month, after which it reduces the price of the pens to 20 percent above cost. The store sells 75 percent of the pens during the first month and 50 percent of the remaining pens afterwards. How much gross income did the sales of the pens generate?

  1. ₹ 10000
  2. ₹ 10800
  3. ₹ 12150
  4. ₹ 13500

2497. If a shopkeeper sells 1 3 of his goods at a profit of 14%, 3 5 of the goods at a profit of 17.5% and the remaining at a profit of 20%, then his profit on the whole is equal to

  1. 15.5%
  2. 16%
  3. 16.5%
  4. 17%

2498. A cloth merchant sold half of his cloth at 20% profit, half of the remaining at 20% loss and the rest was sold at the cost price. In the total transaction, his gain or loss will be

  1. Neither loss nor gain
  2. 5% loss
  3. 5% gain
  4. 10% gain

2499. A person purchases 90 clocks and sells 40 clocks at a gain of 10% and 50 clocks at a gain of 20%. If he sold all of them at a uniform profit of 15%, then he would have got ₹ 40 less. The cost price of each clock is

  1. ₹ 50
  2. ₹ 60
  3. ₹ 80
  4. ₹ 90

2500. A person earns 15% on an investment but loses 10% on another investment. If the ratio of the two investments be 3 : 5, what is the gain or loss on the two investments taken together?

  1. 16 % loss4
  2. 113 % gain8
  3. 113 % loss8
  4. None of these

2501. A man bought goods worth ₹ 6000 and sold half of them at a gain of 10%. At what gain percent must he sell the remainder so as to get a gain of 25% on the whole?

  1. 25%
  2. 30%
  3. 35%
  4. 40%

2502. A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar, part of which he sells at 8% profit and the rest at 18% profit. He gains 14% on the whole. The quantity (in kg) sold at 18% profit is (L.I.C.A.A.O., 2007)

  1. 400
  2. 560
  3. 600
  4. 640

2503. A fruitseller has 24 kg of apples. He sells a part of these at a gain of 20% and the balance at a loss of 5%. If on the whole he earns a profit of 10%, the amount of apples sold at a loss is

  1. 4.6 kg
  2. 6 kg
  3. 9.6 kg
  4. 11.4 kg

2504. A man sells two horses for ₹ 1475. The cost price of the first is equal to the selling price of the second. If the first is sold at 20% loss and the second at 25% gain, what is his total gain or loss (in rupees)?

  1. ₹ 60 loss
  2. ₹ 80 gain
  3. ₹ 60 gain
  4. Neither gain nor loss

2505. Two-thirds of a consignment was sold at a profit of 6% and the rest at a loss of 3%. If however there was an overall profit of ₹ 540, the value of consignment was (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. ₹ 15000
  2. ₹ 16000
  3. ₹ 18000
  4. None of these

2506. A trader purchases a watch and a wall clock for ₹ 390. He sells them making a profit of 10% on the watch and 15% on the wall clock. He earns a profit of ₹ 51.50. The difference between the original prices of the wall clock and the watch is equal to (N.M.A.T., 2005)

  1. ₹ 80
  2. ₹ 100
  3. ₹ 110
  4. ₹ 120

2507. Albert buys 4 horses and 9 cows for ₹ 13,400. If he sells the horses at 10% profit and the cows at 20% profit, then he earns a total profit of ₹ 1880. The cost of a horse is

  1. ₹ 1000
  2. ₹ 2000
  3. ₹ 2500
  4. ₹ 3000

2508. A man purchases two clocks A and B at a total cost of ₹ 650. He sells A with 20% profit and B at a loss of 25% and gets the same selling price for both the clocks. What are the purchasing prices of A and B respectively?

  1. ₹ 225, ₹ 425
  2. ₹ 250, ₹ 400
  3. ₹ 275, ₹ 375
  4. ₹ 300, ₹ 350

2509. A farmer sold a cow and an ox for ₹ 800 and got a profit of 20% on the cow and 25% on the ox. If he sells the cow and the ox for ₹ 820 he gets a profit of 25% on the cow and 20% on the ox. The individual cost price of the cow and the ox is (N.M.A.T., 2005)

  1. ₹ 530.60, ₹ 130.60
  2. ₹ 515.60, ₹ 115.60
  3. ₹ 531.50, ₹ 135.50
  4. Cannot be determined

2510. The C.P. of two watches taken together is ₹ 840. If by selling one at a profit of 16% and the other at a loss of 12%, there is no loss or gain in the whole transaction, then the C.P. of the two watches are respectively

  1. ₹ 360, ₹ 480
  2. ₹ 480, ₹ 360
  3. ₹ 380, ₹ 460
  4. ₹ 400, ₹ 440

2511. On selling a chair at 7% loss and a table at 17% gain, a man gains ₹ 296. If he sells the chair at 7% gain and the table at 12% gain, then he gains ₹ 400. The actual price of the table is

  1. ₹ 1600
  2. ₹ 1800
  3. ₹ 2200
  4. ₹ 2400

2512. A space research company wants to sell its two products A and B. If the product A is sold at 20% loss and the product B at 30% gain, the company will not lose anything. If the product A is sold at 15% loss and the product B at 15% gain, the company will lose ₹ 6 million in the deal. What is the cost of product B? (M.B.A., 2009)

  1. ₹ 80 million
  2. ₹ 100 million
  3. ₹ 120 million
  4. ₹ 140 million

2513. A small and medium enterprise imports two components A and B from Taiwan and China respectively and assembles them with other components to form a toy. Component A contributes to 10% of production cost while component B contributes to 20% of production cost. Usually the company sells this toy at 20% above the production cost. Due to increase in the raw material and labour cost in both the countries, component A became 20% costlier and component B became 40% costlier. Owing to these reasons the company increased its selling price by 15%. Considering that cost of other components does not change, what will be the profit percentage if the toy is sold at the new price? (I.I.F.T., 2010)

  1. 15.5%
  2. 25.5%
  3. 35.5%
  4. 40%

2514. A firm of readymade garments makes both men’s and women’s shirts. Its average profit is 6% of the sales. Its profit in men’s shirts average 8% of the sales and women’s shirts comprise 60% of the out - put. The average profit per sales rupee in women’s shirts is (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 0.0166
  2. 0.0466
  3. 0.0666
  4. None of these

2515. The cost of manufacturing an article rose by 18% as a result of the increase in the cost of raw material. A manufacturer revised the selling price of the article so as to maintain the same profit percentage as before. However, he found that he now got ₹ 9 more than the earlier profit by selling each article. What was the earlier profit per article?

  1. ₹ 36
  2. ₹ 45
  3. ₹ 50
  4. ₹ 54

2516. The cost of raw materials of a product increases by 30%, the manufacturing cost increases by 20% and the selling price of the product increases by 60%. The raw material and the manufacturing cost originally formed 40% and 60% of the total cost respectively. If the original profit percentage was one-fourth the original manufacturing cost, find the approximate new profit percentage.

  1. 48.39%
  2. 54.76%
  3. 63.85%
  4. 66.72%

2517. Previously, the manufacturing cost of a product was thrice the cost of raw material. Now the cost of raw material increases in the ratio 5 : 12 and manufacturing cost increases in the ratio of 3 : 5. The previous cost of the product was ₹ 8. What should be the present selling price so that 25% profit can be made? (Hotel Management, 2007)

  1. ₹ 13.70
  2. ₹ 14.80
  3. ₹ 18.50
  4. ₹ 19.50

2518. A milk vendor mixes water with milk in the ratio 1 : 4. He then measures 800 ml instead of a litre and sells the milk at a nominal profit of 20% over the cost price. What is his actual profit percentage?

  1. 37.5%
  2. 50%
  3. 62.5%
  4. 87.5%

2519. A shopkeeper offers 2.5% discount on cash purchases. What cash amount would Rohan pay for a cycle, the marked price of which is ₹ 650? (IGNOU, 2003)

  1. ₹ 633.25
  2. ₹ 633.75
  3. ₹ 634
  4. ₹ 635

2520. If a company sells a car with a marked price of ₹ 2,72,000 and gives a discount of 4% on ₹ 2,00,000 and 2.5% on the remaining amount of ₹ 72,000, then the actual price charged by the company for the car is

  1. ₹ 2,50,000
  2. ₹ 2,55,000
  3. ₹ 2,60,100
  4. ₹ 2,62,200

2521. Garima purchased a briefcase with an additional 10% discount on the reduced price after deducting 20% on the labelled price. If the labelled price was ₹ 1400, at what price did she purchase the briefcase?

  1. ₹ 980
  2. ₹ 1008
  3. ₹ 1056
  4. ₹ 1120
  5. None of these

2522. A T-shirt bought for ₹ 50 is marked at 8 percent profit and then sold at a 10 percent sales discount on marked price. What is the selling price of the T-shirt?

  1. ₹ 48
  2. ₹ 50
  3. ₹ 52
  4. None of these

2523. An umbrella marked at ₹ 80 is sold for ₹ 68. The rate of discount is (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 15%
  2. 17%
  3. 18.5%
  4. 20%

2524. A dress shop marked down all items as following: Group Regular price Sale price A ₹ 65 ₹ 55 B ₹ 60 ₹ 50 C ₹ 70 ₹ 60 D ₹ 75 ₹ 65 Which group of items was offered at the greatest rate of discount?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

2525. Vanita bought a watch with 25% discount on the selling price. If the watch cost her ₹ 780, what is the original selling price of the watch? (M.A.T., 2009)

  1. ₹ 950
  2. ₹ 1000
  3. ₹ 1040
  4. Cannot be determined

2526. In a sale, perfume is available at a discount of 15% on the selling price. If the perfume’s discounted selling price is ₹ 3675.40, what was the original selling price of the perfume?

  1. ₹ 4294
  2. ₹ 4324
  3. ₹ 4386
  4. ₹ 4400
  5. None of these

2527. A pair of articles was bought for ₹ 37.40 at a discount of 15%. What must be the marked price of each of the articles?

  1. ₹ 11
  2. ₹ 22
  3. ₹ 33
  4. ₹ 44

2528. A shopkeeper gives 12% additional discount on the discounted price, after giving an initial discount of 20% on the labelled price of a radio. If the final sale price of the radio is ₹ 704, then what is its labelled price?

  1. ₹ 844.80
  2. ₹ 929.28
  3. ₹ 1000
  4. ₹ 1044.80

2529. A fan is listed at ₹ 1500 and a discount of 20% is of - fered on the list price. What additional discount must be offered to the customer to bring the net price to ₹ 1104 ?

  1. 8%
  2. 10%
  3. 12%
  4. 15%

2530. A discount of 15% on one article is the same as a discount of 20% on another article. The costs of the two articles can be

  1. ₹ 40, ₹ 20
  2. ₹ 60, ₹ 40
  3. ₹ 80, ₹ 60
  4. ₹ 60, ₹ 40

2531. If the S.P. of ₹ 24 results in a 20% discount on list price, what S.P. would result in a 30% discount on list price?

  1. ₹ 18
  2. ₹ 20
  3. ₹ 21
  4. ₹ 27

2532. An article was sold for ₹ y after giving a discount of x%. Then, its list price is

  1. 100 100 – y x
  2. 100 1– y x
  3. 100 1 – ( /100) y x
  4. None of these

2533. A seller allows a discount of 5% on a watch. If he allows a discount of 7% he earns ₹ 15 less in the profit. What is the marked price? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. ₹ 697.50
  2. ₹ 712.50
  3. ₹ 750
  4. ₹ 817.50

2534. Jatin bought a refrigerator with 20% discount on the labelled price. Had he bought it with 25% discount, he would have saved ₹ 500. At what price did he buy the refrigerator?

  1. ₹ 5000
  2. ₹ 10,000
  3. ₹ 12,500
  4. ₹ 15,000

2535. A sells a scooter priced at ₹ 36000. He gives a discount of 8% on the first ₹ 20000 and 5% on the next ₹ 10000. How much discount can he afford on the remaining ₹ 6000 if he is to get as much as when 7% discount is allowed on the total?

  1. 5%
  2. 6%
  3. 7%
  4. 8%

2536. Manoj sold an article for ₹ 15000. Had he offered a discount of 10% on the selling price he would have earned a profit of 8%. What is the cost price?

  1. ₹ 12250
  2. ₹ 12500
  3. ₹ 13250
  4. ₹ 13500
  5. None of these

2537. A manufacturer offers a 20% rebate on the marked price of a product. The retailer offers another 30% rebate on the reduced price. The two reductions are equivalent to a single reduction of

  1. 40%
  2. 44%
  3. 46%
  4. 50%

2538. Successive discounts of 10%, 12% and 15% amount to a single discount of (R.R.B., 2009; S.S.C., 2008)

  1. 32.68%
  2. 35.28%
  3. 36.68%
  4. None of these

2539. A discount series of p% and q% on an invoice is the same as a single discount of (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. %100 pqpq ++
  2. –% 100 pqpq +
  3. 100 – %100 pqpq ++
  4. None of these

2540. Three successive discounts of 20% on the marked price of a commodity are together equivalent to a single discount of

  1. 48.8%
  2. 50.2%
  3. 55.8%
  4. 60%

2541. A shop gives 10% discount on the purchase of an item. If paid for in cash immediately, a further discount of 12% is given. If the original price of the item is ₹ 250, what is the price of the article if a cash purchase is made? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. ₹ 190
  2. ₹ 195
  3. ₹ 198
  4. ₹ 200

2542. Find the selling price of an article if a shopkeeper allows two successive discounts of 5% each on the marked price of ₹ 80.

  1. ₹ 70.10
  2. ₹ 70.20
  3. ₹ 72
  4. ₹ 72.20

2543. A dealer buys an article marked at ₹ 25000 with 20% and 5% off. He spends ₹ 1000 on its repairs and sells it for ₹ 25000. What is his gain or loss percent? (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. Loss of 25%
  2. Gain of 25%
  3. Loss of 10%
  4. Gain of 10%

2544. If an article with marked price of ₹ 400 is sold at successive discounts of 10%, 25% and 15%, what is the approximate price the customer has to pay?

  1. ₹ 230
  2. ₹ 270
  3. ₹ 300
  4. ₹ 360

2545. For the purchase of a motor car, a man has to pay ₹ 17000 when a single discount of 15% is allowed. How much will he have to pay for it if two successive discounts of 5% and 10% respectively are allowed? (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. ₹ 17000
  2. ₹ 17010
  3. ₹ 17100
  4. ₹ 18000

2546. After successive discounts of 12% and 5% an article was sold for ₹ 209. What was the original price of the article?

  1. ₹ 226
  2. ₹ 250
  3. ₹ 252
  4. ₹ 269

2547. Applied to a bill for ₹ 1,00,000, the difference between a discount of 40% and two successive discounts of 36% and 4% is

  1. Nil
  2. ₹ 1440
  3. ₹ 2500
  4. ₹ 1960

2548. Two stores A and B mark the price of an item identically. A allows 3 successive discounts of 10% each. B allows 10% discount on the list price and a subsequent discount of 19%. Under the circumstances, which of the following is true?

  1. The price of the article is cheaper at A.
  2. The price of the article is cheaper at B.
  3. The price of the article is same at A and B.
  4. The price cannot be determined.

2549. If on a marked price, the difference of selling prices with a discount of 30% and two successive discounts of 20% and 10% is ₹ 72, then the marked price (in ₹) is (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 2400
  2. 2500
  3. 3000
  4. 3600

2550. An article is listed at ₹ 900 and two successive discounts of 8% and 8% are given on it. How much would the seller gain or lose, if he gives a single discount of 16%, instead of two discounts? (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. Gain of ₹ 4.76
  2. Loss of ₹ 5.76
  3. Loss of ₹ 4.76
  4. Gain of ₹ 5.76

2551. Two shopkeepers announce the same price of ₹ 700 for a sewing machine. The first offers successive discounts of 30% and 6% while the second offers successive discounts of 20% and 16%. The shopkeeper that offers better discount, charges .......... less than the other shopkeeper. (M.A.T., 2009)

  1. ₹ 9.80
  2. ₹ 16.80
  3. ₹ 22.40
  4. ₹ 36.40

2552. A company offers three types of successive discounts ( i) 25% and 15% ; (ii) 30% and 10% ; ( iii) 35% and 5%. Which offer is the best for a customer? (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. First offer
  2. Second offer
  3. Third offer
  4. Any one; all are equally good

2553. On a ₹ 10000 payment order, a person has choice between 3 successive discounts of 10%, 10% and 30%, and 3 successive discounts of 40%, 5% and 5%. By choosing the better one he can save (in rupees) (L.I.C.A.A.O., 2007)

  1. 200
  2. 255
  3. 400
  4. 433

2554. A shopkeeper gives 3 consecutive discounts of 10%, 15% and 15% after which he sells his goods at a percentage profit of 30.05 percent on the cost price. Find the value of the percentage profit that the shopkeeper would have earned if he had given discounts of 10% and 15% only. (M.B.A., 2008)

  1. 53%
  2. 62.5%
  3. 68.6%
  4. 72.5%

2555. A shopkeeper gives two successive discounts on an article marked ₹ 450. The first discount given is 10%. If the customer pays ₹ 344.25 for the article, the second discount given is (S.S.C., 2006)

  1. 10%
  2. 12%
  3. 14%
  4. 15%

2556. The marked price of a watch was ₹ 820. A man bought the same for ₹ 570.72 after getting two successive discounts of which the first was 20%. The rate of second discount was (S.S.C., 2008)

  1. 12%
  2. 13%
  3. 15%
  4. 18%

2557. A shopkeeper purchased 150 identical pieces of calculators at the rate of ₹ 250 each. He spent an amount of ₹ 2500 on transport and packing. He fixed the labelled price of each calculator at ₹ 320. However, he decided to give a discount of 5% on the labelled price. What is the percentage profit earned by him?

  1. 14%
  2. 15%
  3. 16%
  4. 20%
  5. None of these

2558. A person first increases the price of a commodity by 10% and then he announces a discount of 15%. The actual discount on the original price is (M.C.A., 2005; R.R.B., 2009)

  1. 5%
  2. 6.5%
  3. 7.5%
  4. 12.5%

2559. Raman bought a camera and paid 20% less than its original price. He sold it at 40% profit on the price he had paid. The percentage of profit earned by Raman on the original price was (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 12
  2. 15
  3. 22
  4. 32

2560. A trader marked the price of a product in such a way that it is 20% more than the cost price. If he allows 10% discount on the marked price to the customer then his gain is (L.I.C.A.D.O., 2008; S.S.C., 2005, 06; C.P.O., 2007; Hotel Mgmt, 2007)

  1. 8%
  2. 10%
  3. 15%
  4. 20%

2561. A trader marked the price of his commodity so as to include a profit of 25%. He allowed discount of 16% on the marked price. His actual profit was (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. 5%
  2. 9%
  3. 16%
  4. 25%

2562. A tradesman marks his goods 30% above the C.P. If he allows a discount of 16 %,4 then his gain percent is

  1. 721 %8
  2. 22%
  3. 323 %4
  4. None of these

2563. A shopkeeper earns a profit of 12% on selling a book at 10% discount on the printed price. The ratio of the cost price and the printed price of the book is (S.S.C., 2010; R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 45 : 56
  2. 50 : 61
  3. 99 : 125
  4. None of these

2564. A showroom owner sells a leather jacket for ₹ X and claims to make a profit of 10%. He plans to have a stall in the trade fair and marks the same jacket at ₹ 2X. At the stall, he allows a discount of 20%. What will be the percentage profit that he will make at the trade fair? (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 60%
  2. 76%
  3. 80%
  4. 86%

2565. The price of an article is raised by 30% and then two successive discounts of 10% each are allowed. Ultimately, the price of the article is

  1. decreased by 5.3%
  2. increased by 3%
  3. increased by 5.3%
  4. increased by 10%

2566. A retailer buys 30 articles from a wholesaler at the price of 27. If he sells them at their marked price, the gain percent in the transaction is

  1. 19%11
  2. 10%
  3. 111 %9
  4. 216 %3

2567. By selling an umbrella for ₹ 300, a shopkeeper gains 20%. During a clearance sale, the shopkeeper allows a discount of 10% on the marked price. His gain percent during the sale is

  1. 7
  2. 7.5
  3. 8
  4. 9

2568. The cost price of an article is 64% of the marked price. Calculate the gain percent after allowing a discount of 12%.

  1. 37.5%
  2. 48%
  3. 50.5%
  4. 52%

2569. A shopkeeper allows a discount of 10% on the marked price of an item but charges a sales tax of 8% on the discounted price. If the customer pays ₹ 680.40 as the price including the sales tax, then what is the marked price of the item?

  1. ₹ 630
  2. ₹ 700
  3. ₹ 780
  4. None of these

2570. At what percent above the cost price must a shopkeeper mark his goods so that he gains 20% even after giving a discount of 10% on the marked price? (S.S.C., 2004; R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 25%
  2. 30%
  3. 133 %3
  4. 137 %2

2571. A retailer allows a trade discount of 20% and a cash discount of 16%4 on the market price of the products and gets a net profit of 20% on the cost. By how much above the cost, should the products be labelled for sale?

  1. 40%
  2. 50%
  3. 60%
  4. 70%

2572. A shopkeeper marks his goods at such a price that after allowing a discount of 12.5% on the marked price, he still earns a profit of 10%. The marked price of an article which costs him ₹ 4900 is

  1. ₹ 5390
  2. ₹ 5490
  3. ₹ 6160
  4. ₹ 6260

2573. By selling an article at 2 5 of the marked price, there is a loss of 25%. The ratio of the marked price and the cost price of the article is

  1. 2 : 5
  2. 5 : 2
  3. 8 : 15
  4. 15 : 8

2574. A video magazine distributor made 3500 copies of the March issue of the magazine at a cost of ₹ 350000. He gave 500 cassettes free to some key video libraries. He also allowed a 25% discount on the market price of the cassette and gave one extra cassette free with every 29 cassettes bought at a time. In this manner, he was able to sell all the 3500 cassettes that were produced. If the market price of a cassette was ₹ 150, then what is his gain or loss percent for the March issue of video magazine? (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 10% gain
  2. 25% loss
  3. 40% gain
  4. 6.8% loss

2575. A tradesman gives 4% discount on the marked price and gives 1 article free for buying every 15 articles and thus gains 35%. The marked price is above the cost price by

  1. 20%
  2. 39%
  3. 40%
  4. 50%

2576. A trader marked the selling price of an article at 10% above the cost price. At the time of selling, he allows certain discount and suffers a loss of 1%. He allowed a discount of

  1. 9%
  2. 10%
  3. 10.5%
  4. 11%

2577. A shopkeeper fixes the marked price of an item 35% above its cost price. The percentage of discount allowed to gain 8% is

  1. 20%
  2. 27%
  3. 31%
  4. 43%

2578. A trader marked his goods at 20% above the cost price. He sold half the stock at the marked price, one quarter at a discount of 20% on the marked price and the rest at a discount of 40% on the marked price. His total gain is (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. 2%
  2. 4.5%
  3. 13.5%
  4. 15%

2579. A product when sold with 10% rebate on the listed price gave a profit of ₹ 70. What was its cost price?

  1. ₹ 200
  2. ₹ 350
  3. ₹ 700
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

2580. A manufacturer marked an article at ₹ 50 and sold it allowing 20% discount. If his profit was 25%, then the cost price of the article was (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. ₹ 30
  2. ₹ 32
  3. ₹ 35
  4. ₹ 40

2581. The labelled price of a cupboard is ₹ 6500. The shopkeeper sold it by giving 5% discount on the labelled price and earned a profit of 15%. What approximately is the cost price of the cupboard?

  1. ₹ 5000
  2. ₹ 5350
  3. ₹ 5600
  4. ₹ 5800
  5. ₹ 6000

2582. Kunal bought a suitcase with 15% discount on the labelled price. He sold the suitcase for ₹ 2880 with 20% profit on the labelled price. At what price did he buy the suitcase?

  1. ₹ 2040
  2. ₹ 2400
  3. ₹ 2604
  4. ₹ 2640
  5. None of these

2583. A shopkeeper sells a badminton racket, whose marked price is ₹ 30, at a discount of 15% and gives a shuttle cock costing ₹ 1.50 free with each racket. Even then he makes a profit of 20%. His cost price per racket is

  1. ₹ 19.75
  2. ₹ 20
  3. ₹ 21
  4. ₹ 21.25

2584. If a commission of 10% is given on the written price of an article, the gain is 20%. If the commission is increased to 20%, the gain is (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 26%3
  2. 17%4
  3. 112 %2
  4. 113 %3

2585. A shopkeeper offered a discount of 15% on the labelled price. By selling an article for ₹ 340 after giving discount he earned a profit of 113 %.3 What would have been the percent profit earned if no discount was offered?

  1. 27
  2. 128 3
  3. 130 3
  4. 133 3
  5. None of these

2586. A shopkeeper sold an air-conditioner for ₹ 25935 with a discount of 9% and earned a profit of 3.74%. What would have been the percentage of profit if no discount were offered? (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 12.3%
  2. 15.6%
  3. 16%
  4. None of these

2587. A shopkeeper sells 25 articles at ₹ 45 per article after giving 10% discount and earns 50% profit. If the discount is not given, the profit gained is

  1. 60%
  2. 260 %3
  3. 66%
  4. 266 %3
  5. None of these

2588. A shopkeeper sold sarees at ₹ 266 each after giving 5% discount on labelled price. Had he not given the discount, he would have earned a profit of 12% on the cost price. What was the cost price of each saree?

  1. ₹ 240
  2. ₹ 260
  3. ₹ 280
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

2589. The marked price of a shirt and trousers are in the ratio 1 : 2. The shopkeeper gives 40% discount on the shirt. If the total discount on the set of the shirt and trousers is 30%, the discount offered on the trousers is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 15%
  2. 20%
  3. 25%
  4. 30%

2590. If the selling price of an article is five times the discount offered and if the percentage of discount is equal to the percentage profit, find the ratio of the discount offered to the cost price.

  1. 1 : 5
  2. 1 : 6
  3. 7 : 30
  4. 11 : 30

2591. Even after reducing the marked price of a transistor by ₹ 32, a shopkeeper makes a profit of 15%. If the cost price be ₹ 320, what percentage of profit would he have made if he had sold the transistor at the marked price?

  1. 10%
  2. 20%
  3. 25%
  4. None of these

2592. A shopkeeper sold an article offering a discount of 5% and earned a profit of 23.5%. What would have been the percentage of profit earned if no discount was offered?

  1. 24.5
  2. 28.5
  3. 30
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

2593. Komal buys an article at a discount of 25%. At what percentage above the cost price should he sell it to make a profit of 25% over the original list price?

  1. 25
  2. 30
  3. 40
  4. 66.67

2594. Peter bought an item at 20% discount on its original price. He sold it with 40% increase on the price he bought it. The new sale price is by what percent more than the original price?

  1. 7.5
  2. 8
  3. 10
  4. 12
  5. None of these

2595. Tarun got 30% concession on the labelled price of an article and sold it for ₹ 8750 with 25% profit on the price he bought. What was the labelled price?

  1. ₹ 10,000
  2. ₹ 12,000
  3. ₹ 16,000
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

2596. A merchant marks his goods at 25% above the cost price. Due to a slump in the market, his cost reduces by 5%. He thus offers a discount of 8% due to which the sales go up by 25%. Compute the change in the merchant’s profit.

  1. 5% higher
  2. 17%2 higher
  3. 8% lower
  4. Unchanged

2597. Aditya, a trader, sells an item to a retailer at 20% discount, but charges 10% on the discounted price, for delivery and packaging. The retailer sells it for ₹ 2046 more, thereby earning a profit of 25%. At what price had the trader marked the item? [IBPS—RRB Officers Gr. ‘B’ Exam, 2015]

  1. ₹ 9400
  2. ₹ 9000
  3. ₹ 8000
  4. ₹ 9300

2598. A box is bought of ₹ 75 and sold at a gain of 8%. Find its selling price [Indian Railway Gr. ‘D’ Exam, 2014]

  1. 81
  2. 82
  3. 89
  4. 86

2599. Oranges are bought at 5 for ₹ 10 and sold at 6 for ₹ 15. The gain percent is [Indian Railway Gr. ‘D’ Exam, 2014]

  1. 50%
  2. 40%
  3. 35%
  4. 25%

2600. Dhar bought two articles A and B at a total cost of ₹ 8000. He sold article A at 20% profit and article B at 12% loss. In the whole deal he made no gain and no loss. At what price should Dhar have sold article B to make an overall profit of 25%? [RBI Gr. ‘B’ (Phase I) Exam, 2015]

  1. ₹ 5200
  2. ₹ 5800
  3. ₹ 6400
  4. ₹ 6200

2601. A dealer marked the price of an item 40% above the cost price. He allowed two successive discounts of 20% and 25% to a particular customer. As a result he incurred a loss of ₹448. At what price did he sell the item to the said customer? [IBPS—Bank Spl. Officer (IT) Exam, 2015]

  1. ₹ 2,416
  2. ₹ 2,352
  3. ₹ 2,268
  4. ₹ 2, 152

2602. The marked price is 10% higher than the cost price. A discount of 10% is given on the marked price. In this kind of sale, the seller [SSC—CHSL (10 + 2) Exam, 2015]

  1. gains 2%
  2. bears no loss, no gain
  3. gains 1%
  4. loses 1%

2603. The profit earned by selling a article at ₹ 5520 is equal to the loss incurred on selling the same article at ₹ 4080. What will be percent profit, if the article is sold at ₹ 6000? [United India Insurance (UIICL) Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 20
  2. 12
  3. 25
  4. 15

2604. Rajlani sold a machine for ₹ 22, 000 with a discount of 8% on the labeled price and made a profit of 22 2 3 %. What would have been the profit percent if the machine was sold without any discount on the labeled price? [NICL—AAO Exam, 2015]

  1. 36 1/3
  2. 30 2/3
  3. 27 1/3
  4. 33 1/3

2605. An item was bought for ₹ X and sold for ₹ Y, thereby earning a profit of 20%. Had the value of X been 15 less and the value of Y ₹ 76 less, a profit of 30% would have been earned. What was the value of ‘X’? [IBPS—RRB Officers Gr. ‘B’ Exam, 2015]

  1. ₹ 640
  2. ₹ 400
  3. ₹ 600
  4. ₹ 800

2606. A trader has 600 kgs of rice, a part of which he sells at 15% profit and the remaining quantity at 20% loss. On the whole, he incurs an overall loss of 6%. What is the quantity of rice he sold at 20% loss? [IBPS—Bank PO/MT Exam, 2015]

  1. 250 kgs
  2. 320 kgs
  3. 420 kgs
  4. 360 kgs

2607. When an article was sold for ₹ 696, percent profit earned was P%. When the same article was sold for ₹ 841, percent profit earned was ( p + 25%). What is the value of P? [IBPS—RRB Officer Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 10
  2. 25
  3. 15
  4. 20

2608. Raza purchased a bicycle for ₹ 6810. He had paid a VAT of 13.5%. The list price of the bicycle was [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. ₹ 6696.50
  2. ₹ 6140
  3. ₹ 5970.50
  4. ₹ 6000

2609. Srinivas sold an article for ₹ 6800 and incurred a loss. Had he sold the article for ₹ 7850, his gain would have been equal to half of the amount of loss that he incurred. At what price should he sell the article to have 20% profit? [IBPS—Bank PO (Pre.) Exam, 2015]

  1. ₹ 7500
  2. ₹ 9000
  3. ₹ 10680
  4. ₹ 9600

2610. Sanjay made a profit of 8% by selling a shirt after offering a discount of 12%. If the marked price of the shirt is ₹ 1080, find its cost price. [SBI Jr. Associates (Pre.) Exam, 2016]

  1. 890
  2. 780
  3. 880
  4. 900

2611. The sale price of an article including the sales tax is ₹ 1232. The rate of sales tax is 10%. If the shopkeeper has made a profit of 12%, then the cost price of the article is [DMRC—Train Operator (Station Controller) Exam, 2016]

  1. ₹ 900
  2. ₹ 950
  3. ₹ 1000
  4. ₹ 1120

2612. The value of a machine depreciates every year at the rate of 10% on its value at the beginning of that year. If the present value of the machine is ₹ 729, its worth three years ago was [CLAT, 2016]

  1. ₹ 947.70
  2. ₹ 1000
  3. ₹ 750.87
  4. ₹ 800

2613. Meena Kumari goes to a shop and buys a saree, costing ₹ 5,225, including sales tax of 12%. The shopkeeper gives her a discount, so that the price is decreased by an amount equivalent to sales tax. The price is decreased by (nearest value). [IBPS—Bank Specialist Officer (Marketing) Exam, 2016]

  1. ₹ 615
  2. ₹ 650
  3. ₹ 560
  4. ₹ 580

2614. The profit earned by selling a chair for ₹ 752 is 1.2 times the loss incurred when the same chair was sold for ₹ 400. What is the cost price of the chair? [DMRC—Customer Relations Assistant

  1. ₹ 540
  2. ₹ 592
  3. ₹ 560
  4. None of these

2615. A publisher sells copies of books to a retail dealer at ₹ 5 per copy but allows 24 copies to be counted as 24. If the retailer sells each of the 25 copies at ₹ 6, his profit per cent is [DMRC—Jr. Engineer

  1. 20%
  2. 24%
  3. 25%
  4. 40%

2616. Supriya sold a washing machine for ₹ 8500. She incurred a loss of 15% in this transaction. At what price had she bought the washing machine? [ESIC—UDC Exam, 2016]

  1. ₹ 10000
  2. ₹ 1200
  3. ₹ 11000
  4. ₹ 10500

2617. The price of a cycle is marked at ₹ 1150. A shopkeeper earns a profit of 15% after allowing a discount of 15% on the marked price. Find the cost price of the cycle. [ESIC—UDC Exam, 2016]

  1. ₹ 900
  2. ₹ 1000
  3. ₹ 850
  4. ₹ 950

2618. The price of an article is first increased by 20% and later on decreased by 25% due to reduction in sales. Find the net percentage change in final price of the article. [SBI Jr. Associates (Pre.) Exam, 2016]

  1. 20%
  2. 18%
  3. 38%
  4. None of these

2619. A shopkeeper sells some toys at ₹ 250 each. What percent profit does he make? To find the answer, which of the following information given in Statements I and II is / are necessary? I. Number of toys sold II. Cost price of each toy

  1. Only I is necessary.
  2. Only II is necessary.
  3. Both I and II are necessary.
  4. Either I or II is necessary.
  5. None of these

2620. A shopkeeper sells some articles at the profit of 25% on the original price. What is the exact amount of profit? To find the answer, which of the following information given in Statements I and II is / are necessary? I. Sale price of the article II. Number of articles sold

  1. Only I is necessary.
  2. Only II is necessary.
  3. Either I or II is necessary.
  4. Both I and II are necessary.
  5. None of these

2621. How many articles were sold?

  1. Any two of the three
  2. I and II only
  3. II and III only
  4. All I, II and III
  5. Question cannot be answered even with the information in all the three statements.

2622. What was the amount of profit earned? I. 10% discount was offered on the labelled price. II. Had there been no discount, profit would have been 30%. III. Selling price was more than the cost price by 20%.

  1. All I, II and III
  2. Any two of the three
  3. III, and either I or II
  4. I, and either II or III
  5. Question cannot be answered even with the information in all the three statements.

2623. What was the cost price of the watch? I. The shopkeeper labelled the price of the watch 20% above the cost price. II. After allowing a discount of 15% on the labelled price, the shopkeeper charges ₹ 408 for the watch. III. Had there been no discount, the shopkeeper would have earned 20% profit.

  1. I, and either II or III
  2. II, and either I or III
  3. III, and either I or II
  4. I and II only
  5. Any two of the three

2624. How much profit did Manick earn on the cost price of an article by selling it? I. He got 15% discount on the marked price at the time of purchase. II. He sold it for ₹ 3060. III. He earned 2% profit on the marked price. (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I only or II and III together
  4. All I, II and III
  5. Even I, II and III together are not sufficient to answer the question.

2625. By selling an article what is the profit percent gained? I. 5% discount is given on list price. II. If discount is not given, 20% profit is gained. III. The cost price of the article is ₹ 5000.

  1. Only I and II
  2. Only II and III
  3. Only I and III
  4. All I, II and III
  5. None of these

2626. An item costing ₹ 3000 is sold at a certain discount. Find the rate of discount offered. I. The profit earned after discount is 5%. II. Had the discount rate been doubled, the seller incurs a loss of 15%. III. The item is marked at a price 25% above the cost price.

  1. Only I and II
  2. Only II and III
  3. Only I and III
  4. All I, II and III
  5. Any two of the three

2627. What was the percentage of discount given? I. 23.5% profit was earned by selling an almirah for ₹ 12,350. II. If there were no discount, the earned profit would have been 30%. III. The cost price of the almirah was ₹ 10,000.

  1. Only I and II
  2. Only II and III
  3. Only I and III
  4. Any two of the three
  5. None of these

2628. What is the percent profit earned by the shopkeeper on selling the articles in his shop ? I. Labelled price of the articles sold was 130% of the cost price. II. Cost price of each article was ₹ 550. III. A discount of 10% on labelled price was of fered. (N.M.A.T., 2005)

  1. Only I
  2. Only II
  3. Only III
  4. All the three are required
  5. Question cannot be answered even with information in all the three statements.

2629. What is the marked price of the suitcase? I. When a discount of 15% is offered, the profit earned is 10.5%. II. The cost price of the suitcase is ₹ 1500. III. The marked price is 30% above the cost price.

  1. I only
  2. Either I or III
  3. Any one of the three
  4. All I, II and III are required
  5. None of these

2630. The total number of students in a school is 2140. If the number of girls in the school is 1200, then what is the ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls in the school?

  1. 18 : 13
  2. 26 : 25
  3. 47 : 60
  4. 31 : 79
  5. None of these

2631. The total body weight of the average adult is

  1. 50000 grams
  2. 70000 grams
  3. less than 50 kg
  4. more than 51 kg
  5. None of these

2632. If the weight of the skeleton is represented as S, then the weight of the liver can be represented as

  1. 0.17S
  2. 1.7S
  3. 17 S
  4. 71 S
  5. None of these

2633. The ratio expressed in decimals of the weight of the blood to the weight of the gastrointestinal tract is

  1. 0.25
  2. 0.4
  3. 2.5
  4. 4
  5. None of these

2634. The ratio expressed in decimals for weight of the brain to the weight of the muscles is

  1. 0.05
  2. 0.15
  3. 0.20
  4. 0.50
  5. None of these

2635. The ratio expressed in decimals of the weight of the brain to the weight of the lungs is

  1. 0.15
  2. 1.5
  3. 5.1
  4. 15
  5. None of these

2636. What is the ratio in ₹ 2.80 and 40 paise?

  1. 1 : 7
  2. 2 : 7
  3. 7 : 1
  4. 1 : 14

2637. Which of the following is the ratio between a number and the number obtained by adding one-fifth of that number to it?

  1. 4 : 5
  2. 5 : 4
  3. 5 : 6
  4. 6 : 5

2638. A person spends ₹ 8100 in buying some tables at ₹ 1200 each and some chairs at ₹ 300 each. The ratio of the number of chairs to that of tables when the maximum possible number of tables is purchased, is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 1 : 4
  3. 2 : 1
  4. 5 : 7

2639. If 60% of A = 3 4 of B, then A : B is (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 4 : 5
  2. 5 : 4
  3. 9 : 20
  4. 20 : 9

2640. If 2 3 A = 75% of B, then A : B is

  1. 1 : 1
  2. 9 : 8
  3. 8 : 9
  4. 10 : 11

2641. Which of the following represents ab = 64?

  1. 8 : a = 8 : b
  2. a : 16 = b : 4
  3. a : 8 = b : 8
  4. 32 : a = b : 2
  5. None of these

2642. A jar contains black and white marbles. If there are ten marbles in the jar, then which of the following could not be the ratio of black to white marbles?

  1. 1 : 4
  2. 1 : 10
  3. 7 : 3
  4. 9 : 1

2643. The ratio of boys and girls in a club is 3 : 2. Which of the following could be the actual number of members?

  1. 16
  2. 18
  3. 24
  4. 25

2644. Which of the following is the lowest ratio? (R.R.B., 2005)

  1. 7 : 15
  2. 15 : 23
  3. 17 : 25
  4. 21 : 39

2645. If 5 : a : : 20 : 28, then a is equal to

  1. 4
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. 8

2646. 31: : : 27 : ?42 y

  1. 12 y
  2. 18y
  3. 21 y
  4. 24y
  5. None of these

2647. If x : 7.5 = 7 : 17.5, the value of x is

  1. 1
  2. 2.5
  3. 3
  4. 3.5

2648. The value of x where 1:2 ::2 1:5 03x is

  1. 11 49
  2. 11 50
  3. 49 50
  4. 27 50

2649. If (x + 1) : 8 = 3.75 : 7, then the value of x is

  1. 21 7
  2. 22 7
  3. 23 7
  4. 24 7

2650. If +2:( 1 3):: 6 : , x then x is equal to

  1. +33
  2. 1– 3
  3. +13
  4. 3–3

2651. What will be the simplest form of the ratio 3 hours: 1 day? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 1 : 3
  2. 1 : 6
  3. 1 : 8
  4. 1 : 25

2652. The simplest form of the ratio 1.5 : 2.5 is

  1. 3 : 5
  2. 6 : 10
  3. 15 : 25
  4. 0.75 : 1.25

2653. 9 3.04 : 9 2.04 is equal to

  1. 1 : 9
  2. 3 : 2
  3. 9 : 1
  4. 76 : 51

2654. The ratio 4 3.5 : 2 5 is the same as

  1. 2 : 1
  2. 4 : 1
  3. 7 : 5
  4. 7 : 10

2655. In a proportion the product of 1st and 4th terms is 40 and that of 2nd and 3rd terms is 2.5 x. Then the value of x is (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 16
  2. 26
  3. 75
  4. 90

2656. If 20% of A = 30% of B = 1 6 of C, then A : B : C is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 2 : 3 : 16
  2. 3 : 2 : 16
  3. 10 : 15 : 18
  4. 15 : 10 : 18

2657. 25% of A’s income is equal to 35% of B’s income. The ratio of the incomes of A and B is

  1. 5 : 7
  2. 7 : 5
  3. 13 : 15
  4. 15 : 13

2658. If ==11 and ,32xy yz then x : y : z is equal to

  1. 1 : 2 : 6
  2. 1 : 3 : 6
  3. 2 : 4 : 6
  4. 3 : 2 : 1

2659. If 2A = 3 B = 4 C, then A : B : C is equal to

  1. 2 : 3 : 4
  2. 3 : 4 : 6
  3. 4 : 3 : 2
  4. 6 : 4 : 3

2660. If x2 + 4 y2 = 4 xy, then x : y is

  1. 1 : 1
  2. 1 : 2
  3. 2 : 1
  4. 1 : 4

2661. If 5x2 – 13 xy + 6 y2 = 0, then x : y is

  1. 2 : 1 only
  2. 3 : 5 only
  3. 5 : 3 or 1 : 2
  4. 3 : 5 or 2 : 1

2662. If a : b = 7 : 9 and b : c = 15 : 7, then what is a : c?

  1. 3 : 5
  2. 5 : 3
  3. 7 : 15
  4. 7 : 21

2663. If the ratio between the ages of P and Q is 2 : 3 and that between the ages of Q and R is 4 : 5, then the ratio between the ages of P and R is

  1. 3 : 4
  2. 3 : 5
  3. 5 : 6
  4. 8 : 15

2664. If W1 : W2 = 2 : 3 and W1 : W3 = 1 : 2, then W2 : W3 is (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 3 : 4
  2. 4 : 3
  3. 2 : 3
  4. 4 : 5

2665. If A : B = 2 : 3, B : C = 2 : 4 and C : D = 2 : 5, then A : D is equal to

  1. 1 : 5
  2. 2 : 5
  3. 3 : 5
  4. 2 : 15

2666. If 3A = 5 B and 4 B = 6 C, then A : C is equal to

  1. 2 : 5
  2. 3 : 5
  3. 4 : 5
  4. 5 : 2

2667. If one star equals four circles and three circles equal four diamonds, then what is the ratio of star to diamond?

  1. 1 : 3
  2. 3 : 4
  3. 3 : 16
  4. 16 : 3

2668. In a business, the ratio of the capitals of A and B is 2 : 1, that of B and C is 4 : 3 and that of D and C is 6 : 5. Then the ratio of the capitals of A and D is

  1. 9 : 20
  2. 3 : 5
  3. 5 : 3
  4. 20 : 9

2669. If A : B = 7 : 9 and B : C = 5 : 4, then A : B : C is

  1. 7 : 45 : 36
  2. 28 : 36 : 35
  3. 35 : 45 : 36
  4. None of these

2670. If A : B = 2 : 3, B : C = 4 : 5 and C : D = 6 : 7, then A : B : C : D is

  1. 16 : 22 : 30 : 35
  2. 16 : 24 : 15 : 35
  3. 16 : 24 : 30 : 35
  4. 18 : 24 : 30 : 35

2671. If A : B = 11:23 and B : C = 11:,23 then A : B : C is equal to

  1. 1 : 2 : 6
  2. 2 : 3 : 3
  3. 3 : 2 : 6
  4. 9 : 6 : 4

2672. If A : B = 13:,28 B : C = 15:39 and C : D = 53:,64 then the ratio A : B : C : D is

  1. 4 : 6 : 8 : 10
  2. 8 : 6 : 10 : 9
  3. 6 : 8 : 9 : 10
  4. 6 : 4 : 8 : 10

2673. For each 200 rupees spent by the research department, sales department spends 20 rupees. For every 400 rupees spent by the sales department, the advertising department spends 150 rupees. The triple ratio of the money spent by the research department to the money spent by the sales department to the money spent by the advertising department can be expressed as

  1. 2 : 1 : 5
  2. 20 : 4 : 1
  3. 40 : 8 : 3
  4. 80 : 8 : 3

2674. In a ratio which is equal to 7 : 8, if the antecedent is 35, what is the consequent?

  1. 35
  2. 40
  3. 56
  4. 64

2675. If 8a = 9 b then the ratio of 9 a to 8 b is

  1. 1 : 1
  2. 1 : 2
  3. 2 : 1
  4. 64 : 81
  5. 81 : 64

2676. If x : y = 3 : 4, then (2 x + 3 y) : (3 y – 2 x) would be equal to (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. 2 : 1
  2. 3 : 1
  3. 3 : 2
  4. 21 : 1

2677. If a : b = 2 : 5, then the value of (2 a + 3

  1. 19 : 31
  2. 19 : 39
  3. 31 : 19
  4. 99 : 13

2678. If x : y = 3 : 2, then the ratio (2 x2 + 3 y2) : (3 x2 – 2 y2) is equal to

  1. 5 : 3
  2. 6 : 5
  3. 12 : 5
  4. 30 : 19

2679. If x : y = 3 : 1, then x3 – y3 : x3 + y3 =?

  1. 10 : 11
  2. 11 : 10
  3. 13 : 14
  4. 14 : 13

2680. If 5a + 3 b : 2 a – 3 b = 23 : 5, then the value of a : b is

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 1 : 4
  3. 2 : 1
  4. 4 : 1

2681. If x : y = 7 : 3, then the value of + 2 22– xy y xy is

  1. 3 4
  2. 4 3
  3. 3 7
  4. 7 3

2682. If = 4 5 a b and = 15 ,16 b c then + 22 22 –ca ca would be

  1. 1 7
  2. 3 4
  3. 7 25
  4. None of these

2683. If a : b = b : c, then a4 : b4 would be equal to (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. ac : b2
  2. a2 : c2
  3. c2 : a2
  4. b2 : ac

2684. If (4x2 – 3 y2) : (2 x2 + 5 y2) = 12 : 19, then x : y is

  1. 2 : 3
  2. 1 : 2
  3. 3 : 2
  4. 2 : 1

2685. If x : y = 3 : 4 and a : b = 1 : 2, then the value of +2 3 –4 xa yb yb xa is

  1. 5 6
  2. 6 5
  3. 6 7
  4. 7 6

2686. If a : b : c = 2 : 3 : 4, then 111::abc is equal to

  1. 111::432
  2. 4 : 3 : 2
  3. 6 : 4 : 3
  4. None of these

2687. If 111::xyz = 2 : 3 : 5, then x : y : z is equal to

  1. 2 : 3 : 5
  2. 15 : 10 : 6
  3. 5 : 3 : 2
  4. 6 : 10 : 15

2688. If ( x + y) : ( x – y) = 4 : 1, then ( x2 + y2) : ( x2 – y2) =?

  1. 8 : 17
  2. 17 : 8
  3. 16 : 1
  4. 25 : 9

2689. If a :

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 2 : 3
  3. 1 : 3
  4. 2 : 1

2690. If a : b = 3 : 4, b : c = 4 : 7, then ++abc c is equal to (Hotel Management, 2010)

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 7

2691. If A : B : C = 2 : 3 : 5 and A = x% of

  1. 20
  2. 24
  3. 25
  4. 28

2692. x, y, z, u are real numbers such that x : y = y : z = z : u and x : u = 64 : 27. The value of x : z is

  1. 64 : 27
  2. 16 : 9
  3. 4 : 3
  4. 3 : 4

2693. If a : b : c = 2 : 3 : 4 and 2 a – 3 b + 4 c = 33, then the value of c is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 6
  2. 9
  3. 12
  4. 66 7

2694. If p : q : r = 1 : 2 : 4, then ++2225pqr is equal to

  1. 5
  2. 2q
  3. 5 p
  4. 4 r

2695. If A : B : C = 2 : 3 : 4, then the ratio ::ABC BCA is equal to

  1. 4 : 9 : 16
  2. 8 : 9 : 24
  3. 8 : 9 : 12
  4. 8 : 9 : 16

2696. If a : b = 5 : 7 and c : d = 2 a : 3 b, then ac : bd is

  1. 10 : 21
  2. 20 : 38
  3. 50 : 147
  4. 50 : 151

2697. If == ,abc bcd then ++ ++ 33 3 333 bcd abc will be equal to

  1. a b
  2. b c
  3. c d
  4. d a

2698. If p : q = 3 : 4, r : s = 8 : 5 and x : y = 10 : 6, then psx : qry is equal to

  1. 16 25
  2. 25 32
  3. 2
  4. 75 32

2699. If +=== 2 –3 5 ,234 y xyzxz k then the value of k is

  1. 12
  2. 15
  3. 16
  4. 18

2700. If a : b = c : d, then + + ma nc mb nd is equal to

  1. m : n
  2. dm : cn
  3. an : mb
  4. a : b

2701. Let =:– : .ab xyba If ( x – y) = { }+ ,ab ba then x is equal to

  1. –ab a
  2. +ab a
  3. +ab b
  4. None of these

2702. If + ++=== ,ab bc ca kc ab then k is equal to

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. a + b + c

2703. If a : b = 2 : 3 and b : c = 4 : 5, then

  1. 6 : 8
  2. 8 : 6
  3. 20 : 27
  4. 27 : 20

2704. If a : b = c : d = e : f = 1 : 2, then (3 a + 5 c + 7

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 1 : 4
  3. 2 : 1
  4. 8 : 7

2705. Which of the following is true?

  1. a < b < c
  2. b < a < c
  3. c > a > b
  4. b < a > c

2706. If c = 50, the value of a + b + c will be

  1. more than 50 but less than 100
  2. more than 100 but less than 103
  3. more than 103 but less than 105
  4. more than 105

2707. If a + b : b + c : c + a = 6 : 7 : 8 and a + b + c = 14, then the value of c is

  1. 6
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 14

2708. The fourth proportional to 5, 8, 15 is

  1. 18
  2. 20
  3. 21
  4. 24

2709. The fourth proportional to 0.12, 0.21 and 8 is

  1. 8.9
  2. 14
  3. 17
  4. 56

2710. The third proportional to 38 and 15 is

  1. ×15 15 38
  2. ×38 15 2
  3. ×38 38 15
  4. × 15 38 38

2711. The third proportional to ( x2 – y2) and ( x – y) is

  1. ( x + y)
  2. ( x – y)
  3. + – xy xy
  4. + –xy xy

2712. The mean proportional between 234 and 104 is

  1. 12
  2. 39
  3. 54
  4. None of these

2713. The mean proportional between 0.02 and 0.32 is

  1. 0.3
  2. 0.08
  3. 0.16
  4. 0.34

2714. The mean proportional between +(3 2) and (12 32)− is

  1. 7
  2. 27
  3. 6
  4. 15 – 3 2 2

2715. The ratio between the third proportional of 12 and 30 and mean proportional of 9 and 25 is

  1. 2 : 1
  2. 5 : 1
  3. 7 : 15
  4. 9 : 14

2716. The product of the duplicate ratio of 2 a : 6b and the reciprocal ratio of 4 a2 : 25 b2 is

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. a : b
  4. None of these

2717. Find the two numbers whose mean proportion is 12 and the third proportional is 324. (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 6 and 8
  2. 4 and 36
  3. 3 and 24
  4. None of these

2718. The present ages of A, B and C are in the ratio of 8 : 14 : 22 respectively. The present ages of B, C and D are in the ratio of 21 : 33 : 44 respectively. Which of the following represents the ratio of the present ages of A, B, C and D respectively?

  1. 12 : 21 : 36 : 44
  2. 12 : 21 : 33 : 44
  3. 12 : 22 : 31 : 44
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

2719. When 30% of one number is subtracted from another number, the second number reduces to its four-fifths. What is the ratio of the first to the second number?

  1. 2 : 5
  2. 3 : 2
  3. 4 : 7
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

2720. Rita invested 25% more than Sunil. Sunil invested 30% less than Abhinav, who invested ₹ 6000. What is the ratio of the amount that Rita invested to the total amount invested by all of them together?

  1. 35 : 104
  2. 13 : 29
  3. 101 : 36
  4. 35 : 103
  5. None of these

2721. One-fourth of sixty percent of a number is equal to two-fifths of twenty percent of another number. What is the respective ratio of the first number to the second number?

  1. 4 : 7
  2. 5 : 9
  3. 8 : 13
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

2722. The total number of boys in a school is 16% more than the total number of girls in the school. What is the respective ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls in the school?

  1. 25 : 21
  2. 29 : 35
  3. 25 : 29
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

2723. The number of students in two sections A and B having different heights is shown in the table given below. Height (in metres) Number of students Section A Section B 1.55 3 2 1.60 7 6 1.62 12 14 1.65 15 14 1.68 8 9 1.71 6 5 1.75 3 4 The ratio of the number of students of a particular height in section A to that in section B is the maxi - mum for the height of

  1. 1.55 m
  2. 1.60 m
  3. 1.65 m
  4. 1.71 m

2724. Determine the ratio of the number of people hav - ing characteristic X to the number of people having characteristic Y in a population of 100 subjects from the following table : Having X and Y 10 Having X but not Y 30 Having Y but not X 20 Having neither X nor Y 40

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 2 : 3
  3. 3 : 2
  4. 4 : 3

2725. Five mangoes and four oranges cost as much as three mangoes and seven oranges. What is the ratio of the cost of one mango to the cost of one orange?

  1. 4 : 3
  2. 1 : 3
  3. 3 : 2
  4. 5 : 2

2726. The ratio of urea and potash in a mixed fertilizer is 7 : 3. Express the quantity of urea present as percentage of the total amount of fertilizer. (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 20%
  2. 50%
  3. 60%
  4. 70%

2727. Profits of a business are divided among three partners A, B and C in such a way that 4 times the amount received by A is equal to 6 times the amount received by B and 11 times the amount received by C. The ratio in which the three received the amount is (M.A.T. 2006, Bank P.O., 2008)

  1. 4 : 6 : 11
  2. 11 : 6 : 4
  3. 33 : 22 : 12
  4. 11 1::4 6 11

2728. The bus fare and train fare of a place from Kolkata were ₹ 20 and ₹ 30 respectively. Train fare has been increased by 20% and the bus fare has been increased by 10%. The ratio of new train fare to new bus fare is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 3 : 5
  2. 5 : 3
  3. 11 : 18
  4. 18 : 11

2729. The monthly incomes of two families A and B are shown by the following diagrams : 1 4 BA 2 5 If the income of family B is ₹ 12000, then the income of family A would be (P.C.S., 2006)

  1. ₹ 15000
  2. ₹ 20000
  3. ₹ 25000
  4. ₹ 30000

2730. In a class the number of girls is 20% more than that of the boys. The strength of the class is 66. If 4 more girls are admitted to the class, the ratio of the number of boys to that of the girls is

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 1 : 4
  3. 3 : 4
  4. 3 : 5

2731. If the income of A is 10% more than that of B and the income of B is 20% less than that of C, then the incomes of A, B and C respectively are in the ratio

  1. 11 : 10 : 8
  2. 22 : 20 : 25
  3. 10 : 9 : 7
  4. 22 : 18 : 25

2732. Two numbers are respectively 20 percent and 50 percent more than a third number. These two numbers are in the ratio

  1. 2 : 5
  2. 3 : 5
  3. 4 : 5
  4. 6 : 7

2733. What is the ratio whose terms differ by 40 and the measure of which is 2 ?7

  1. 6 : 56
  2. 14 : 56
  3. 16 : 56
  4. 16 : 72

2734. ₹ 16000 are to be distributed between B and A such that B gets ₹ 4000 less than A. The ratio of the amount received by A to that received by B is

  1. 1 : 3
  2. 3 : 5
  3. 5 : 3
  4. 6 : 1

2735. Find the fraction which will bear the same ratio to 1 27 that 3 11 does to 5 .9

  1. 1 55
  2. 15 99
  3. 40 33
  4. 55

2736. Given that 24 carat gold is pure gold ; 18 carat gold is 3 4 gold and 20 carat gold is 5 6 gold, the ratio of the pure gold in 18 carat gold to the pure gold in 20 carat gold is

  1. 5 : 8
  2. 8 : 5
  3. 9 : 10
  4. 15 : 22

2737. A, B, C and D have ₹ 40, ₹ 50, ₹ 60 and ₹ 70 respec- tively when they go to visit a fair. A spends ₹ 18, B spends ₹ 21, C spends ₹ 24 and D spends ₹ 27. Who has done the highest expenditure proportionate to his resources?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

2738. The ratio of the arithmetic mean of two numbers to one of the numbers is 3 : 5. What is the ratio of the smaller number to the larger one?

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 1 : 3
  3. 1 : 4
  4. 1 : 5

2739. Seema and Meena divide a sum of ₹ 25000 in the ratio of 3 : 2 respectively. If ₹ 5000 is added to each of their shares, what would be the new ratio formed? (P.C.S., 2010)

  1. 2 : 3
  2. 3 : 4
  3. 5 : 4
  4. 4 : 3

2740. Of 132 examinees of a certain school, the ratio of successful to unsuccessful candidates is 9 : 2. If 4 more students passed, what would have been the ratio of successful to unsuccessful students?

  1. 25 : 4
  2. 4 : 25
  3. 28 : 5
  4. 3 : 28

2741. A person divided ₹ 10800 among his three sons in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5. Second son kept ₹ 1000 for himself, gave ₹ 600 to his wife and divided the remaining money among his two daughters in the ratio 11 : 9. Then one of his daughters received

  1. ₹ 1000
  2. ₹ 1050
  3. ₹ 1100
  4. ₹ 1150

2742. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5. The measure of the largest angle of the triangle is

  1. 60°
  2. 75°
  3. 120°
  4. 150°

2743. The numbers x, y, z are proportional to 2, 3, 5. The sum of x, y, z is 100. If y = px – 10, then p is equal to (M.B.A., 2011)

  1. 3 2
  2. 2
  3. 5 2
  4. 3

2744. A, B and C are boxes containing marbles in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. Total number of marbles is 60. The above ratio can be changed to 3 : 4 : 5 by transferring

  1. 2 marbles from A to B and 1 from C to B
  2. 3 marbles from B to C
  3. 4 marbles from C to B
  4. 5 marbles from C to A

2745. An amount of ₹ 53 is divided among A, B and C such that A gets ₹ 7 more than B and B gets ₹ 8 more than C. What is the ratio of their shares? (R.R.B., 2009)

  1. 15 : 8 : 30
  2. 16 : 9 : 18
  3. 18 : 25 : 10
  4. 25 : 18 : 10

2746. A sum of money is shared in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5. The smallest share is divided again in the ratio of 1 : 2. What fraction of the total sum of money is the larger of the two latter shares?

  1. 1 3
  2. 1 6
  3. 2 3
  4. 1 12

2747. If an amount of ₹ 1,50,000 is shared among A, B and C in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 5, then A receives the same amount as he would receive if another sum of money is shared between A, B and C in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. The ratio of ₹ 1,50,000 to the second amount of money is

  1. 2 : 3
  2. 3 : 2
  3. 5 : 2
  4. 5 : 3

2748. In an alloy, the ratio of copper and zinc is 5 : 2. If 1.250 kg of zinc is mixed in 17 kg 500 g of alloy, then the ratio of copper and zinc in the alloy will be

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 2 : 1
  3. 2 : 3
  4. 3 : 2

2749. A sum of ₹ 650 is divided between A and B in such a manner that in every 100 rupees A gets 30 rupees more than B. How much does B get?

  1. ₹ 288
  2. ₹ 227.50
  3. ₹ 312.50
  4. ₹ 422.50

2750. A sum of ₹ 731 is divided among A, B and C such that A receives 25% more than B and B receives 25% less than C. What is C’s share in the amount?

  1. ₹ 172
  2. ₹ 200
  3. ₹ 258
  4. ₹ 262
  5. None of these

2751. A sum of ₹ 6400 is divided among three workers in the ratio 35:2: .53 The share (in rupees) of the second worker is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 2560
  2. 3000
  3. 3200
  4. 3840

2752. If ₹ x are divided between A and B in the ratio :,ac bd then A gets rupees

  1. + adx ab cd
  2. + adx ad bc
  3. + abx ad bc
  4. + abx ac bd

2753. A man distributes ₹ 165000 among his daughter, wife and son in such a manner that 1 2 of the daughter’s share, 1 4 of the wife’s share and 1 5 of the son’s share are equal. Find the daughter’s share.

  1. ₹ 15000
  2. ₹ 30000
  3. ₹ 45000
  4. ₹ 60000

2754. A sum of ₹ 1250 is divided among A, B, C so that A gets 2 9 of B’s share and C gets 3 4 of A’s share. The share of C is

  1. ₹ 75
  2. ₹ 90
  3. ₹ 135
  4. ₹ 150

2755. Instead of dividing ₹ 117 among P, Q, R in the ratio 111::,234 by mistake it was divided in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. Who gained in the transaction?

  1. Only P
  2. Only Q
  3. Only R
  4. Both Q and R

2756. ₹ 33630 are divided among A, B and C in such a manner that the ratio of the amount of A to that of B is 3 : 7 and the ratio of the amount of B to that of C is 6 : 5. The amount of money received by B is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. ₹ 12390
  2. ₹ 13290
  3. ₹ 14868
  4. ₹ 16257

2757. In an innings of a cricket match, three players A, B and C scored a total of 361 runs. If the ratio of the number of runs scored by A to that scored by B and also number of runs scored by B to that scored by C be 3 : 2, the number of runs scored by A was

  1. 161
  2. 171
  3. 181
  4. 185

2758. ₹ 8400 are divided among A, B, C and D in such a way that the shares of A and B, B and C as well as C and D are in the ratios of 2 : 3, 4 : 5 and 6 : 7 respectively. The share of A is

  1. ₹ 1280
  2. ₹ 1320
  3. ₹ 8210
  4. ₹ 8400

2759. A sum of ₹ 1300 is divided among P, Q, R and S such that =' share ' share ' share ' share Ps Qs Qs Rs == ' share 2 .' share 3 Rs Ss How much is P’s share?

  1. ₹ 140
  2. ₹ 160
  3. ₹ 240
  4. ₹ 320

2760. The sum of three numbers is 116. The second number and the third number are in the ratio of 9 : 16 while the first number and the third number are in the ratio of 1 : 4. Find the second number.

  1. 8
  2. 16
  3. 64
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

2761. ₹ 2010 are to be divided among A, B, C in such a way that if A gets ₹ 5, then B must get ₹ 12 and if B gets ₹ 4, then C must get ₹ 5.50. The share of C will exceed that of B by

  1. ₹ 270
  2. ₹ 360
  3. ₹ 430
  4. ₹ 620

2762. ₹ 600 are divided among A, B, C so that ₹ 40 more than 2 5 of A’s share, ₹ 20 more than 2 7 of B’s share and ₹ 10 more than 9 17 of C’s share may all be equal. What is A’s share? (L.I.C.A.A.O., 2007)

  1. ₹ 150
  2. ₹ 170
  3. ₹ 200
  4. ₹ 280

2763. ₹ 1050 are divided among P, Q and R. The share of P is 2 5 of the combined share of Q and R. P gets

  1. ₹ 200
  2. ₹ 300
  3. ₹ 320
  4. ₹ 420

2764. A sum of ₹ 12540 is divided among A, B and C so that A may receive 3 7 of what B and C together receive and B may receive 2 9 of what A and C together receive. The difference in the shares of A and B is

  1. ₹ 1482
  2. ₹ 2736
  3. ₹ 4218
  4. ₹ 4320

2765. If ₹ 1066 are divided among A, B, C and D such that A : B = 3 : 4, B : C = 5 : 6 and C : D = 7 : 5, who will get the maximum?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

2766. A person distributes his pens among four friends A, B, C and D in the ratio 1111: ::.3456 What is the minimum number of pens that the person should have? (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. 23
  2. 55
  3. 57
  4. 65

2767. Divide ₹ 671 among A, B and C such that if their shares be increased by ₹ 3, ₹ 7 and ₹ 9 respectively the remainder shall be in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. (M.A.T., 2008)

  1. ₹ 110, ₹ 220, ₹ 336
  2. ₹ 112, ₹ 223, ₹ 336
  3. ₹ 105, ₹ 223, ₹ 330
  4. None of these

2768. ₹ 1087 is divided among A, B and C such that if ₹ 10, ₹ 12 and ₹ 15 are diminished from the shares of A, B and C respectively, the remainders will be in the ratio of 5, 7 and 9. What is the share of B? (M.A.T., 2008)

  1. ₹ 260
  2. ₹ 355
  3. ₹ 362
  4. ₹ 465

2769. Two numbers x and y are in the ratio 5 : 7 and their sum is 36. Then x is (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 12
  2. 15
  3. 18
  4. 19

2770. The ratio of income and expenditure of a person is 11 : 10. If he saves ₹ 9000 per annum, his monthly income is (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. ₹ 8000
  2. ₹ 8250
  3. ₹ 8500
  4. ₹ 8800

2771. Two natural numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5 and their product is 2160. The smaller of the numbers is (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 12
  2. 18
  3. 24
  4. 36

2772. A sum of money is divided among A, B, C and D in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 9 : 10 respectively. If the share of C is ₹ 2580 more than the share of B, then what is the total amount of A and D together?

  1. ₹ 5676
  2. ₹ 6192
  3. ₹ 6708
  4. ₹ 7224
  5. None of these

2773. Two numbers are in the ratio 4 : 5 and their L.C.M. is 180. The smaller number is

  1. 9
  2. 15
  3. 36
  4. 45

2774. The ratio of the incomes of Ram and Shyam is 7 : 17 and that of Shyam and Sohan is 7 : 17. If the income of Ram is ₹ 490, what is the income of Sohan? (R.R.B., 2007)

  1. ₹ 490
  2. ₹ 1190
  3. ₹ 2790
  4. ₹ 2890

2775. At Narmada Sarovar Bachao demonstration, support- ers of Ms. Patkar outnumbered the police by 9 : 1. The police arrested 135 NSB supporters averaging 5 for 3 policemen. How many supporters of NSB were there in the demonstration? (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 405
  2. 665
  3. 1215
  4. None of these

2776. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 111::234 and its perimeter is 104 cm. The length of the longest side (in cm) is (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. 26
  2. 32
  3. 48
  4. 52

2777. Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4. If the difference of their squares is 63, then the numbers are

  1. 8, 12
  2. 9, 12
  3. 12, 15
  4. 16, 20

2778. If A : B = 4 : 5, B : C = 7 : 9 and C : D = 3 : 4, and if A’s share is ₹ 1680, the share of D is

  1. ₹ 2100
  2. ₹ 2700
  3. ₹ 2900
  4. ₹ 3600

2779. The sum of the squares of three numbers is 532 and the ratio of the first and the second as also of the second and the third is 3 : 2. The third number is (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. 8
  2. 12
  3. 18
  4. 20

2780. A man spends a part of his monthly income and saves a part of it. The ratio of his expenditure to his savings is 26 : 3. If his monthly income is ₹ 7250, what is the amount of his monthly savings?

  1. ₹ 290
  2. ₹ 350
  3. ₹ 750
  4. ₹ 780

2781. Two numbers are in the ratio 17 : 45. One-third of the smaller is less than 1 5 of the bigger by 15. The smaller number is

  1. 125 2
  2. 167 2
  3. 176 2
  4. 186 2

2782. The sum of four numbers A, B, C and D is 110. C is twice A, sum of A and D is equal to that of B and C and A : B is 3 : 5. The numbers are

  1. 3, 5, 6, 8
  2. 15, 25, 30, 40
  3. 15, 25, 35, 45
  4. None of these

2783. The expenses of A and B are in the ratio 2 : 3. A sum of ₹ 2800 is equally divided between them. If A saves ₹ 600, then B saves

  1. ₹ 200
  2. ₹ 300
  3. ₹ 400
  4. ₹ 500

2784. Three numbers A, B and C are in the ratio of 12 : 15 : 25. If the sum of these numbers is 312, the ratio between the difference of B and A and the difference of C and B is (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. 3 : 7
  2. 5 : 1
  3. 3 : 10
  4. 10 : 3

2785. Incomes of A, B and C are in the ratio 7 : 9 : 12 and their respective expenditures are in the ratio 8 : 9 : 15. If A saves 1 4 of his income, then the ratio of their savings is

  1. 56 : 99 : 69
  2. 33 : 19 : 23
  3. 15 : 28 : 27
  4. 56 : 69 : 99

2786. The total emoluments of A and B are equal. However, A gets 65% of his basic salary as allowances and B gets 80% of his basic salary as allowances. What is the ratio of the basic salaries of A and B? (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 5 : 7
  2. 7 : 9
  3. 12 : 11
  4. 16 : 13

2787. The incomes of Mr. Gupta and Mr. Verma are in the ratio 9 : 4 and their expenditures are in the ratio 7 : 3. If each saves ₹ 2000, then Mr. Gupta’s expenditure is (M.A.T., 2009)

  1. ₹ 60000
  2. ₹ 70000
  3. ₹ 80000
  4. ₹ 90000

2788. A and B have incomes in the ratio 5 : 3. The expenses of A, B and C are in the ratio of 8 : 5 : 2. If C spends ₹ 2000 and B saves ₹ 700, then A’s savings are

  1. ₹ 500
  2. ₹ 1000
  3. ₹ 1500
  4. ₹ 2500

2789. In a bank, monthly salary of clerks and officers are in the ratio of 3 : 5. Each clerk contributes 2% and each officer contributes 3 % of his salary to the Welfare Fund. If each officer’s contribution is ₹ 210, what will be the clerk’s salary?

  1. ₹ 4000
  2. ₹ 4200
  3. ₹ 5200
  4. ₹ 7000
  5. None of these

2790. Salaries of A and B are in the ratio of 9 : 4 respectively. When A’s salary is increased by 15%, it becomes ₹ 5175. What is B’s salary?

  1. ₹ 2000
  2. ₹ 2500
  3. ₹ 4000
  4. ₹ 4500
  5. None of these

2791. Between two consecutive years my incomes are in the ratio of 2 : 3 and expenses in the ratio 5 : 9. If my income in the second year is ₹ 45000 and my expenses in the first year is ₹ 25000 my total savings for the two years is

  1. Nil
  2. ₹ 5000
  3. ₹ 10000
  4. ₹ 15000

2792. The sum of the salaries of A and B is ₹ 2100. A spends 80% of his salary and B spends 70% of his salary. If their savings are in the proportion of 4 : 3, then what is the salary of A?

  1. ₹ 700
  2. ₹ 900
  3. ₹ 1200
  4. ₹ 1400

2793. The ratio of incomes of two persons is 5 : 3 and that of their expenditures is 9 : 5. If they save ₹ 2600 and ₹ 1800 respectively, their incomes are

  1. ₹ 9000, ₹ 5400
  2. ₹ 10000, ₹ 6000
  3. ₹ 6000, ₹ 3600
  4. ₹ 8000, ₹ 4800

2794. The monthly incomes of A and B are in the ratio of 5 : 4, their monthly expenses are in the ratio of 19 : 21, and their monthly savings are in the ratio of 37 : 18. If the total annual savings of A and B is ₹ 66000, A’s monthly income is

  1. ₹ 6000
  2. ₹ 7500
  3. ₹ 8000
  4. ₹ 9000

2795. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a school of 720 students is 7 : 5. How many more girls should be admitted to make the ratio 1 : 1? (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 90
  2. 120
  3. 220
  4. 240

2796. In a college the students in Arts and Commerce faculties were in the ratio of 4 : 5 respectively. When 65 more students joined Commerce faculty the ratio becomes 8 : 11 respectively. How many students are there in Arts faculty?

  1. 520
  2. 650
  3. 715
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

2797. Two numbers are in the ratio 7 : 11. If 7 is added to each of the numbers, the ratio becomes 2 : 3. The smaller number is (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 39
  2. 49
  3. 66
  4. 77

2798. The ratio of boys and girls in sections A, B, C and D of class VI is respectively 7 : 5, 5 : 3, 3 : 2 and 2 : 1. If the number of students in each of the sections is equal, then maximum number of boys are enrolled in section

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

2799. When a particular number is subtracted from each of 7, 9, 11 and 15, the resulting numbers are in proportion. The number to be subtracted is

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 5

2800. The ratio of milk to water in 80 litres of a mixture is 7 : 3. The water (in litres) to be added to it to make the ratio 2 : 1 is (S.S.C., 2006)

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 8

2801. In two types of powdered detergent the ratio of soda and soap-dust is 2 : 19 and 1 : 11 respectively. If 7 kg of the first type is mixed with 4 kg of the second type, find the ratio of soda to soap-dust in the new detergent mixture.

  1. 1 : 9
  2. 9 : 1
  3. 1 : 10
  4. 20 : 1

2802. What number must be added to each of the numbers 7, 11 and 19 so that the resulting numbers may be in continued proportion?

  1. –3
  2. –4
  3. 3
  4. 4

2803. What is the larger number? (J.M.E.T., 2010)

  1. 40
  2. 45
  3. 55
  4. 60

2804. In a certain company, the ratio of the number of managers to the number of production-line workers is 5 to 72. If 8 additional production-line workers were to be hired, the ratio of the number of managers to the production-line workers would be 5 to 74. How many managers does the company have?

  1. 10
  2. 20
  3. 25
  4. 30

2805. What number has to be added to the terms of 3 : 5 to make the ratio 5 : 6? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 6
  2. 7
  3. 12
  4. 13

2806. The ratio of the number of ladies to that of gents at a party was 3 : 2. When 20 more gents joined the party, the ratio was reversed. The number of ladies present at the party was

  1. 16
  2. 24
  3. 32
  4. 36

2807. In a school the ratio of boys and girls is 4 : 5 respectively. When 100 girls leave the school the ratio becomes 6 : 7 respectively. How many boys are there in the school ?

  1. 1300
  2. 1500
  3. 1600
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

2808. Two numbers are in the ratio 121 :2 .23 When each of these is increased by 15, their ratio becomes 211 :2 .32 The greater of the numbers is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 27
  2. 36
  3. 48
  4. 64

2809. Their average is 600. If A is increased by 10% and B is decreased by 20%, then to get the average increased by 5%, C will be increased by

  1. 90
  2. 100
  3. 150
  4. 180

2810. Two numbers are in the ratio 2 : 3. If 2 is subtracted from the first and 2 is added to the second, the ratio becomes 1 : 2. The sum of the numbers is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 10
  2. 24
  3. 28
  4. 30

2811. 20 litres of a mixture contains milk and water in the ratio of 5 : 3. If four litres of this mixture is replaced by four litres of milk, then the ratio of the milk to that of the water in the new mixture will be

  1. 2 : 3
  2. 4 : 3
  3. 5 : 3
  4. 7 : 3

2812. When 1 is added to each of the two given numbers, their ratio becomes 3 : 4 and when 5 is subtracted from each, the ratio becomes 7 : 10. One of the numbers is

  1. 11
  2. 15
  3. 26
  4. 36

2813. The ratio of number of boys to that of girls in a group becomes 2 : 1 when 15 girls leave. But, afterwards, when 45 boys also leave, the ratio becomes 1 : 5. Originally the number of girls in the group was

  1. 20
  2. 30
  3. 40
  4. 50

2814. Two vessels contain spirit of 0.5 and 0.75 concentrations. If 2 litres from the first vessel and 3 litres from the second vessel are mixed, then what will be the ratio of spirit and water in the resultant solution?

  1. 7 : 17
  2. 17 : 15
  3. 13 : 7
  4. 15 : 17

2815. The least whole number which when subtracted from both the numerator and the denominator of the fractional number 6 : 7, gives a ratio less than 16 : 21, is

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 6

2816. The population of a city is 9000 in a particular year. If there is an increase of 5% in men’s population and 8% in women’s population in the next year and the population becomes 9600, what was the ratio between the men and women in that particular year?

  1. 2 : 3
  2. 4 : 5
  3. 5 : 4
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

2817. A barrel contains a mixture of wine and water in the ratio 3 : 1. How much fraction of the mixture must be drawn off and substituted by water so that the ratio of wine and water in the resultant mixture in the barrel becomes 1 : 1?

  1. 1 3
  2. 1 4
  3. 2 3
  4. 3 4

2818. One year ago the ratio of the ages of Sarika and Gouri was 3 : 4 respectively. One year hence the ratio of their ages will be 10 : 13 respectively. What is Sarika’s present age?

  1. 18 years
  2. 20 years
  3. 26 years
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

2819. The average age of three boys is 25 years and their ages are in the proportion 3 : 5 : 7. The age of the youngest boy is

  1. 9 years
  2. 15 years
  3. 18 years
  4. 21 years

2820. A box contains 1 rupee, 50-paise and 25-paise coins in the ratio 8 : 5 : 3. If the total amount of money in the box is ₹ 112.50, the number of 50-paise coins is

  1. 30
  2. 42
  3. 50
  4. 80

2821. There are 420 coins consisting of one-rupee coins, 50-paise coins and 25-paise coins. If the ratio of their values be 2 : 3 : 5, then the number of one-rupee coins is

  1. 20
  2. 30
  3. 90
  4. 300

2822. Monthly consumption of kerosene oil in a certain household along with price variations is given below. Rate of kerosene oil (in ₹) 1.5 2 3.0 4.5 Consumption (in litres) 60 45 30 20 When the price goes up to ₹ 6 per litre, what is the likely consumption of kerosene?

  1. 7.5 litres
  2. 10 litres
  3. 12.5 litres
  4. 15 litres

2823. If x is inversely proportional to y and y is proportional to z, then xz (I.A.M., 2007)

  1. is proportional to y
  2. is inversely proportional to y
  3. is a constant
  4. is proportional to y2

2824. The falling height of an object is proportional to the square of the time. One object falls 64 cm in 2 sec then in 6 sec from how much height the object will fall?

  1. 192 cm
  2. 276 cm
  3. 436 cm
  4. 576 cm

2825. y varies directly as (x + 3) and y = 8 when x = 1. What is the value of y when x = 2? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 6
  2. 10
  3. 12
  4. 16

2826. The ratio of the rate of flow of water in pipes varies inversely as the square of the radius of the pipes. What is the ratio of the rates of flow in two pipes of diameters 2 cm and 4 cm? (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 2 : 1
  3. 4 : 1
  4. 1 : 8

2827. Suppose y varies as the sum of two quantities of which one varies directly as x and the other inversely as x. If y = 6 when x = 4 and y = 13 3 when x = 3, then the relation between x and y is (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. = 82–yx x
  2. =+ 4yx x
  3. =+ 42yx x
  4. =+ 82yx x

2828. Consider the following table of inverse variation : M 15 –6 2 C N –4 A B 60 The values of A, B and C in the above table respectively are

  1. –1, –30, 10
  2. –30, 10, –1
  3. 10, –30, –1
  4. 10, –1, 30

2829. S varies directly as R and T varies inversely as R. At some particular time, R = 20, S = 40 and T = 10. If S is changed to 20, then the value of T would be equal to

  1. 10
  2. 20
  3. 40
  4. 80

2830. x and y vary inversely with each other. When x is 12, y is 9. The pair which is not a possible pair of corresponding values of x and y is

  1. 9 and 12
  2. 18 and 6
  3. 24 and 18
  4. 36 and 3

2831. The intensity of illumination on a surface from a source of light varies inversely as the square of the distance of the surface from the source. The effect of moving a piece of paper 3 times as far from the source is to

  1. multiply the intensity by 3
  2. divide the intensity by 3
  3. multiply the intensity by 9
  4. divide the intensity by 9

2832. The boys and girls in a college are in the ratio 3 : 2. If 20% of the boys and 25% of the girls are adults, the percentage of students who are not adults is (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 67.5%
  2. 58%
  3. 78%
  4. 82.5%

2833. The cost of a table and a chair are in the ratio of 5 : 7. If the cost of chair and table is increased by 20% and 10% respectively, then what will be the new ratio?

  1. 16 : 17
  2. 55 : 84
  3. 60 : 77
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

2834. The ratio of the students in schools A, B and C is 5 : 4 : 7. If the number of students in the schools are increased by 20%, 25% and 20% respectively, what would be the new ratio of the students in schools A, B and C?

  1. 5 : 5 : 7
  2. 30 : 25 : 42
  3. 30 : 20 : 49
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

2835. The expenses on rice, fish and oil of a family are in the ratio 12 : 17 : 3. The prices of these articles are increased by 20%, 30% and 50% respectively. The total expenses of family on these articles are increased by (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 17%8
  2. 114 %8
  3. 128 %8
  4. 156 %8

2836. Ratio of earnings of A and B is 8 : 9 respectively. If the earnings of A increase by 50% and the earnings of B decrease by 25%, the new ratio of their earnings becomes 16 : 9 respectively. What are A’s earnings?

  1. ₹ 22000
  2. ₹ 28500
  3. ₹ 37000
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

2837. Mr. Sharma’s expenditure and savings are in the ratio of 3 : 2. His income increases by 10%. His expenditure also increases by 12%. How much percent does his savings increase? (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. 6%
  2. 7%
  3. 11%
  4. 13%

2838. The weights of two persons A and B are in the ratio of 3 : 5. A’s weight increases by 20% and the total weight of A and B together becomes 80 kg, with an increase of 25%. By what percent did the weight of B increase? (M.A.T., 2008)

  1. 20%
  2. 25%
  3. 28%
  4. 30%

2839. Mrs. Richi Rich inherits 3224 gold coins and divides them amongst her 3 daughters Lalita, Palita and Salita in a certain ratio. Out of the total coins each of them received, Lalita sells her 50 coins, Palita donates 85 of her coins and Salita makes jewellery out of her 39 coins. Now the ratio of gold coins with them is 24 : 21 : 16 respectively. How many coins did Lalita receive from her mother?

  1. 1050
  2. 1135
  3. 1200
  4. 1250
  5. None of these

2840. A wheel that has 6 cogs is meshed with a larger wheel of 14 cogs. When the smaller wheel has made 21 revolutions, the number of revolutions made by the larger wheel will be

  1. 4
  2. 9
  3. 12
  4. 49

2841. Seeta and Geeta have two glasses of equal volumes. Both have some milk in their glasses. Seeta says to Geeta. “Give me half the milk in your glass so that my glass will be full of milk.” Geeta says to Seeta, “Instead you give me one-fourth of the milk in your glass so that my glass will be full of milk.” Find the ratio of volumes of milk in their glasses. (S.S.C., 2006)

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 4 : 3
  3. 3 : 4
  4. 2 : 3

2842. The ratio of land to water for the whole earth is 1 : 2 and 2 : 3 in the northern hemisphere. The ratio of land to water in the southern hemisphere is

  1. 1 : 3
  2. 1 : 4
  3. 4 : 7
  4. 4 : 11

2843. The price of a diamond varies as the cube of its volume. A cubical variety of this diamond was worth ₹ 10,00,000. If this diamond accidentally broke into 8 equal cubical diamonds, then the total loss in value amounts to

  1. ₹ 9,00,000
  2. ₹ 9,47,532
  3. ₹ 9,50,000
  4. ₹ 9,84,375

2844. ₹ 720 are divided among 2 men, 5 women and 8 boys so that the shares of a man, a woman and a boy are in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. How much does each boy get?

  1. ₹ 24
  2. ₹ 30
  3. ₹ 45
  4. ₹ 72

2845. A person distributed two different amounts among his sons A, B, C and D. First amount was distributed in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2 : 1 and the second amount was distributed in the ratio of 5 : 6 : 7 : 8. If the first amount is half of the second amount, then which son will get the maximum amount?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

2846. A sum of money is divided among 160 males and some females in the ratio 16 : 21. Individually each male gets ₹ 4 and a female ₹ 3. The number of females is

  1. 198
  2. 270
  3. 280
  4. 284

2847. ₹ 180 are to be divided among 66 men and women. The ratio of the total amount of money received by men and women is 5 : 4. But the ratio of the money received by each man and woman is 3 : 2. The number of men is

  1. 20
  2. 24
  3. 30
  4. 36

2848. Prices of foodgrains have risen by 10% and of other items of consumption by 15%. If the ratio of an employee’s expenditure on foodgrains and other items is 2 : 5, by how much should his salary be increased so that he may maintain the same level of consumption as before, assuming that his present salary is ₹ 3500?

  1. ₹ 300
  2. ₹ 350
  3. ₹ 375
  4. ₹ 475

2849. A student took five papers in an examination, where full marks were same on each paper. Her marks in these papers were in the proportion of 6 : 7 : 8 : 9 : 10. In all these papers together, the candidate obtained 60% of the total marks. Then the number of papers in which she got more than 50% marks is

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5
  5. None of these

2850. Visitors to a show were charged ₹ 15 each on the first day, ₹ 7.50 on the second day and ₹ 2.50 on the third day. The attendance on the three days was in the ratio 2 : 5 : 13. The average charge per person for the whole show was

  1. ₹ 5
  2. ₹ 6.33
  3. ₹ 7.50
  4. ₹ 9

2851. In an express train, the number of passengers trav - elling in A.C. sleeper class, first class and sleeper class are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 and the fares to each of these classes are in the ratio 5 : 4 : 2. If the total income from this train is ₹ 45600, then the income from the A.C. sleeper class is

  1. ₹ 6000
  2. ₹ 8000
  3. ₹ 10000
  4. ₹ 12000

2852. Railway fares of 1st, 2nd and 3rd classes between two stations were in the ratio of 8 : 6 : 3. The fares of 1st and 2nd class were subsequently reduced by 1 6 and 1 12 respectively. If during a year the ratio between the passengers of 1st, 2nd and 3rd classes was 9 : 12 : 26 and the total amount collected by the sale of tickets was ₹ 1088, then find the collection from the passengers of 1st class. (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. ₹ 260
  2. ₹ 280
  3. ₹ 300
  4. ₹ 320

2853. 15 men, 18 women and 12 boys working together earned ₹ 2070. If the daily wages of a man, a woman and a boy are in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2, the daily wages (in ₹) of 1 man, 2 women and 3 boys are

  1. 135
  2. 180
  3. 205
  4. 240

2854. An employer reduces the number of his employees in the ratio of 9 : 8 and increases their wages in the ratio 14 : 15. The difference in the amount of the total salary bill which was originally ₹ 1890 after the above two changes will be

  1. ₹ 90
  2. ₹ 100
  3. ₹ 110
  4. ₹ 120

2855. Last year, the ratio between the salaries of A and B was 3 : 4. But the ratios of their individual salaries between last year and this year were 4 : 5 and 2 : 3 respectively. If the sum of their present salaries is ₹ 4160, then how much is the salary of A now ?

  1. ₹ 1040
  2. ₹ 1600
  3. ₹ 2560
  4. ₹ 3120

2856. A man ordered 4 pairs of black socks and some pairs of brown socks. The price of a black pair is double that of a brown pair. While preparing the bill, the clerk interchanged the number of black and brown pairs by mistake which increased the bill by 50%. The ratio of the number of black and brown pairs of socks in the original order was

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 2 : 1
  3. 1 : 4
  4. 4 : 1

2857. A and B are two alloys of gold and copper prepared by mixing metals in the ratio 7 : 2 and 7 : 11 respectively. If equal quantities of the alloys are melted to form a third alloy C, then the ratio of gold and copper in alloy C will be (M.B.A. 2007; M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 5 : 7
  2. 5 : 9
  3. 7 : 5
  4. 9 : 5

2858. Two alloys contain zinc and copper in the ratio of 2 : 1 and 4 : 1. In what ratio the two alloys should be added together to get a new alloy having zinc and copper in the ratio of 3 : 1?

  1. 3 : 5
  2. 5 : 7
  3. 7 : 5
  4. None of these

2859. Two vessels A and B contain milk and water mixed in the ratio 5 : 3 and 2 : 3. When these mixtures are mixed to form a new mixture containing half milk and half water, they must be taken in the ratio

  1. 2 : 5
  2. 3 : 5
  3. 4 : 5
  4. 7 : 3

2860. Two glasses of equal volume respectively are half and three-fourths filled with milk. They are then filled to brim by adding water. Their contents are then poured into another vessel. What will be the ratio of milk to water in this vessel?

  1. 1 : 3
  2. 2 : 3
  3. 3 : 2
  4. 5 : 3

2861. The ratio of milk to water in three containers of equal capacity is 3 : 2, 7 : 3 and 11 : 4 respectively. The contents of the three containers are mixed together. What is the ratio of milk to water after mixing? (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. 19 : 4
  2. 7 : 3
  3. 61 : 29
  4. 41 : 18

2862. Three containers A, B and C are having mixtures of milk and water in the ratio 1 : 5, 3 : 5 and 5 : 7 respectively. If the capacities of the containers are in the ratio 5 : 4 : 5, find the ratio of milk to water, if the mixtures of all the three containers are mixed together?

  1. 51 : 115
  2. 52 : 115
  3. 53 : 115
  4. 54 : 115

2863. Three glasses of equal volumes are 12,23 and 3 4 full of milk respectively. The remaining portion of all the glasses is filled up with water. The mixture in the three glasses is poured into a container. The ratio of milk and water in the container is

  1. 23 : 12
  2. 23 : 13
  3. 23 : 14
  4. 23 : 15

2864. Six coins of gold and silver of equal weights are melted and new coins are cast. The ratio of gold and silver in one of the coins is 2 : 1, in another two coins 3 : 5 and 7 : 5 in the remaining coins. What will be the ratio between gold and silver respectively in the new coins? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 1 : 1
  2. 12 : 11
  3. 42 : 25
  4. 19 : 17

2865. A company blends two varieties of tea from two different tea gardens, one variety costing ₹ 20 per kg and the other ₹ 25 per kg in the ratio 5 : 4. He sells the blended tea at ₹ 23 per kg. Find his profit or loss percent.

  1. Profit of 3.5%
  2. No profit, no loss
  3. Profit of 5%
  4. Loss of 5%

2866. Tea worth ₹ 126 per kg and ₹ 135 per kg are mixed with a third variety in the ratio 1 : 1 : 2. If the mixture is worth ₹ 153 per kg, then the price of the third variety per kg will be

  1. ₹ 169.50
  2. ₹ 170
  3. ₹ 175.50
  4. ₹ 180

2867. A dealer buys dry fruit at the rate of ₹ 100, ₹ 80 and ₹ 60 per kg. He bought them in the ratio 12 : 15 : 20 by weight. He in total gets 20% profit by selling the first two and at last he finds he has no gain no loss in selling the whole quantity which he had. What was the percentage loss he suffered for the third quantity? (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 20%
  2. 30%
  3. 40%
  4. 50%

2868. From a can full of milk, 10 litres of milk is taken out and replaced with water and this operation is repeated twice. If the capacity of the can is 50 litres, what is the ratio of water and milk in the can after this operation?

  1. 2 : 3
  2. 9 : 16
  3. 16 : 9
  4. None of these

2869. 8 litres are drawn from a cask full of wine and is then filled with water. This operation is performed three more times. The ratio of the quantity of wine now left in the cask to that of the water is 16 : 65. How much wine did the cask hold originally?

  1. 18 litres
  2. 24 litres
  3. 32 litres
  4. 42 litres

2870. Gold is 19 times as heavy as water and copper is 9 times as heavy as water. In what ratio should these be mixed to get an alloy 15 times as heavy as water?

  1. 1 : 1
  2. 1 : 2
  3. 2 : 3
  4. 3 : 2

2871. The speeds of three cars are in the ratio 5 : 4 : 6. The ratio between the time taken by them to travel the same distance is

  1. 5 : 4 : 6
  2. 6 : 4 : 5
  3. 10 : 12 : 15
  4. 12 : 15 : 10

2872. Mr. X has some money with him. He has to distribute the amount among five labourers in the ratio 11111::::.23457 What is the minimum amount he should have, so that each labourer gets an exact number of rupees?

  1. ₹ 358
  2. ₹ 420
  3. ₹ 512
  4. ₹ 599

2873. The incomes of A, B and C are in the ratio 7 : 10 : 12 and their expenses are in the ratio 8 : 10 : 15. If A saves 1 5 of his income, then B’s saving is what percent more or less than that of C’s?

  1. 100% more
  2. 266 % more3
  3. 133 % less3
  4. 40% less

2874. The present ages of a mother and her son are in the ratio 11 : 5. When the son becomes as old as his mother is now, then the ratio of his father’s age to that of his mother is 19 : 17. When the son becomes as old as his father is now, then the sum of his father’s age and his age will be 170 years. What is the father’s present age?

  1. 52 years
  2. 60 years
  3. 65 years
  4. 70 years

2875. Six numbers a, b, c, d, e, f are such that ab = 1, bc = 1 ,2 cd = 6, de = 2 and ef = 1 .2 What is the value of

  1. 4 : 3 : 27
  2. 6 : 1 : 9
  3. 8 : 9 : 9
  4. 72 : 1 : 9

2876. A man sells 3 types of articles at 10%, 20% and 30% profit respectively. If the ratio of the cost of the articles is 1 : 2 : 3 and the ratio of the number of articles of each type sold is 3 : 2 : 1, then what is his net profit?

  1. 18%
  2. 20%
  3. 24%
  4. 25%

2877. The respective ratio between the monthly salaries of Rene and Som is 5 : 3. Out of her monthly salary Rene gives 1/6th as rent, 1/5th to her mother, 30% as her education loan and keeps 25% aside for miscellaneous expenditure. Remaining ₹ 5000 she keeps as savings. What is Som’s monthly salary? [IBPS—RRB Officer’s Gr. ‘B’ Exam, 2015]

  1. ₹21000
  2. ₹24000
  3. ₹27000
  4. ₹36000

2878. Find the third proportional to 25 and 30. [Indian Railway Gr. ‘D’ Exam, 2014]

  1. 36
  2. 32
  3. 34
  4. 38

2879. The ratio of syrup and water in a mixture is 3 : 1, then the percentage of syrup in this mixture is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 75%
  2. 25%
  3. 66 2 %3
  4. 33 1 %3

2880. If 222 0a b c ab bc ca+ +−−−= then a : b : c is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 1 : 1 : 2
  2. 1 : 1 : 1
  3. 1 : 2 : 1
  4. 2 : 1 : 1

2881. 80% of a number is equal to the 4 5 th of the other number. What is the ratio between the first number and the second number respectively? [United India Insurance Co. Ltd. (UIICL) Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 3 : 4
  2. 3 : 5
  3. 5 : 3
  4. None of these

2882. Rahul, Arun and Sumit started a business. Rahul invested 1 2 part, Arun 1 3 part and rest of the capital was invested by Sumit. The ratio of their profits will be (P.C.S., 2006)

  1. 2 : 3 : 1
  2. 3 : 2 : 1
  3. 2 : 3 : 6
  4. 3 : 2 : 5

2883. P and Q started a business investing ₹ 85000 and ₹ 15000 respectively. In what ratio the profit earned after 2 years be divided between P and Q respectively?

  1. 3 : 4
  2. 3 : 5
  3. 15 : 23
  4. 17 : 23
  5. None of these

2884. Anand and Deepak started a business investing ₹ 22500 and ₹ 35000 respectively. Out of a total profit of ₹ 13800, Deepak’s share is

  1. ₹ 5400
  2. ₹ 7200
  3. ₹ 8400
  4. ₹ 9600

2885. Samaira, Mahira and Kiara rented a set of DVDs at a rent of ₹ 578. If they used it for 8 hours, 12 hours and 14 hours respectively, what is Kiara’s share of rent to be paid?

  1. ₹ 192
  2. ₹ 204
  3. ₹ 215
  4. ₹ 238
  5. None of these

2886. P, Q and R invested ₹ 45000, ₹ 70000 and ₹ 90000 respectively to start a business. At the end of 2 years, they earned a profit of ₹ 164000. What will be Q’s share in the profit?

  1. ₹ 36000
  2. ₹ 56000
  3. ₹ 64000
  4. ₹ 72000
  5. None of these

2887. Prakash, Sachin and Anil started a business jointly investing ₹ 11 lakh, ₹ 16.5 lakh and ₹ 8.25 lakh re - spectively. The profit earned by them in the business at the end of 3 years was ₹ 19.5 lakh. What will be 50% of Anil’s share in the profit?

  1. ₹ 2.25 lakh
  2. ₹ 2.5 lakh
  3. ₹ 3.75 lakh
  4. ₹ 4.5 lakh
  5. None of these

2888. Two friends invested ₹ 1500 and ₹ 2500 in a business. They earned a profit of ₹ 800. One-half of the profit was divided equally between them and the other half was divided in proportion to their capitals. How much did each of them receive?

  1. ₹ 350 and ₹ 450
  2. ₹ 360 and ₹ 440
  3. ₹ 370 and ₹ 430
  4. ₹ 375 and ₹ 425

2889. Three persons stared a placement business with a capital of ₹ 3000. B invests ₹ 600 less than A and C invests ₹ 300 less than B. What is B’s share in a profit of ₹ 886?

  1. ₹ 443
  2. ₹ 354.40
  3. ₹ 265.80
  4. ₹ 177.20

2890. Reena and Shaloo are partners in a business. Reena invests ₹ 35000 for 8 months and Shaloo invests ₹ 42000 for 10 months. Out of a profit of ₹ 31570, Reena’s share is :

  1. ₹ 9471
  2. ₹ 12,628
  3. ₹ 18,040
  4. ₹ 18942

2891. Shankar started a business with an investment of ₹ 120,000. After three months, Aniket joined him with an investment of ₹ 190,000. They earned a profit of ₹ 17,50,000 after one year. What is Aniket’s share in the profit?

  1. ₹ 800000
  2. ₹ 850000
  3. ₹ 900000
  4. ₹ 950000
  5. None of these

2892. Arun started a business investing ₹ 38000. After 5 months Bakul joined him with a capital of ₹ 55000. At the end of the year the total profit was ₹ 22000. What is the approximate difference between the shares of profits of Arun and Bakul?

  1. ₹ 1007
  2. ₹ 1192
  3. ₹ 1568
  4. ₹ 1857
  5. ₹ 1928

2893. Gautam started a business with a sum of ₹ 60000. Jatin joined him 8 months later with a sum of ₹ 35000. At what respective ratio will the two share the profit after two years?

  1. 2 : 1
  2. 3 : 1
  3. 18 : 7
  4. 37 : 14
  5. None of these

2894. Simran started a software business by investing ₹ 50000. After six months, Nanda joined her with a capital of ₹ 80000. After 3 years, they earned a profit of ₹ 24500. What was Simran’s share in the profit?

  1. ₹ 9423
  2. ₹ 10,250
  3. ₹ 12500
  4. ₹ 14000
  5. None of these

2895. Dilip, Ram and Avtar started a shop by investing ₹ 2700, ₹ 8100 and ₹ 7200 respectively. At the end of one year, the profit earned was distributed. If Ram’s share was ₹ 3600, what was their total profit? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. ₹ 8000
  2. ₹ 10800
  3. ₹ 11600
  4. Data inadequate

2896. A and B started a business in partnership investing ₹ 20000 and ₹ 15000 respectively. After six months, C joined them with ₹ 20000. What will be B’s share in the total profit of ₹ 25000 earned at the end of 2 years from the starting of the business?

  1. ₹ 7500
  2. ₹ 9000
  3. ₹ 9500
  4. ₹ 10000
  5. None of these

2897. Aman started a business investing ₹ 70000. Rakhi joined him after six months with an amount of ₹ 105000 and Sagar joined them with ₹ 1.4 lakhs after another six months. The amount of profit earned should be distributed in what ratio among Aman, Rakhi and Sagar respectively, 3 years after Aman started the business?

  1. 7 : 6 : 10
  2. 12 : 15 : 16
  3. 42 : 45 : 56
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

2898. Sonia started a business investing ₹ 60000. After 6 months Vivek joined him with an amount of ₹ 140000. After 1 year Kirti also joined them with ₹ 120000. After 2 years the business yielded a total profit of ₹ 450000. What is the share of Vivek in the profit?

  1. ₹ 140000
  2. ₹ 198500
  3. ₹ 210000
  4. ₹ 215000
  5. None of these

2899. Arun, Kamal and Vinay invested ₹ 8000, ₹ 4000 and ₹ 8000 respectively in a business. Arun left after six months. If after eight months, there was a gain of ₹ 4005, then what will be the share of Kamal?

  1. ₹ 890
  2. ₹ 1335
  3. ₹ 1602
  4. ₹ 1780

2900. P and Q started a business in the ratio of 2 : 3. After 1 year P left the business but Q continues. After 2 years he had the profit of ₹ 26000. What is the profit of Q?

  1. ₹ 10400
  2. ₹ 13000
  3. ₹ 15600
  4. ₹ 18500
  5. None of these

2901. A, B and C enter into a partnership. A invests some money at the beginning, B invests double the amount after six months and C invests thrice the amount after eight months. If the annual profit be ₹ 27000; C’s share (in ₹) is (G.B.O., 2007)

  1. ₹ 8625
  2. ₹ 9000
  3. ₹ 10800
  4. ₹ 11250

2902. A, B and C enter into a partner ship. They invest ₹ 40000, ₹ 80000 and ₹ 120000 respectively. At the end of the first year, B withdraws ₹ 40,000, while at the end of the second year, C withdraws ₹ 80000. In what ratio will the profit be shared at the end of 3 years?

  1. 2 : 3 : 5
  2. 3 : 4 : 7
  3. 4 : 5 : 9
  4. None of these

2903. A, B and C enter into a partnership. A initially invests ₹ 25 lakhs and adds another ₹ 10 lakhs after one year. B initially invests ₹ 35 lakhs and withdraws ₹ 10 lakhs after 2 years and C invests ₹ 30 lakhs. In what ratio should the profits be divided at the end of 3 years?

  1. 10 : 10 : 9
  2. 20 : 20 : 19
  3. 20 : 19 : 18
  4. None of these

2904. Subhash starts a business by investing ₹ 25000. 6 months later Aditya joins him by investing ₹ 15000. After another 6 months Aditya invests an additional amount of ₹ 15000. At the end of 3 years they earn a profit of ₹ 247000. What is Aditya’s share in the profit?

  1. ₹ 105000
  2. ₹ 111500
  3. ₹ 123000
  4. ₹ 130000
  5. None of these

2905. Shekhar started a business investing ₹ 25000 in 2009. In 2010, he invested an additional amount of ₹ 10000 and Rajeev joined him with an amount of ₹ 35000. In 2011, Shekhar invested another additional amount of ₹ 10000 and Jatin joined them with an amount of ₹ 35000. What will be Rajeev’s share in the profit of ₹ 150000 earned at the end of 3 years from the start of the business in 2009?

  1. ₹ 45000
  2. ₹ 50000
  3. ₹ 70000
  4. ₹ 75000
  5. None of these

2906. A and B entered into a partnership investing ₹ 16000 and ₹ 12000 respectively. After 3 months, A withdrew ₹ 5000 while B invested ₹ 5000 more. After 3 more months, C joins the business with a capital of ₹ 21000. The share of B exceeds that of C, out of a total profit of ₹ 26,400 after one year by

  1. ₹ 2400
  2. ₹ 3000
  3. ₹ 3600
  4. ₹ 4800

2907. A and B start a business with investments of ₹ 5000 and ₹ 4500 respectively. After 4 months, A takes out half of his capital. After two more months, B takes out one-third of his capital while C joins them with a capital of ₹ 7000. At the end of a year, they earn a profit of ₹ 5080. Find the share of each member in the profit.

  1. A – ₹ 1400, B – ₹ 1900, C – ₹ 1780
  2. A – ₹ 1600, B – ₹ 1800, C – ₹ 1680
  3. A – ₹ 1800, B – ₹ 1500, C – ₹ 1780
  4. A – ₹ 1680, B – ₹ 1600, C – ₹ 1800
  5. None of these

2908. A, B, C subscribe ₹ 50000 for a business. A subscribes ₹ 4000 more than B and B ₹ 5000 more than C. Out of a total profit of ₹ 35000, A receives: (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. ₹ 8400
  2. ₹ 11900
  3. ₹ 13600
  4. ₹ 14700

2909. A, B and C are three partners. They altogether invested ₹ 14000 in business. At the end of the year, A got ₹ 337.50, B ₹ 1125 and C ₹ 637.50 as profit. The difference between the investments of B and A was (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. ₹ 2200
  2. ₹ 3200
  3. ₹ 4200
  4. ₹ 5250

2910. A, B and C started a business investing amounts in the ratio of 5 : 6 : 8 respectively. After one year, C withdrew 50% of the amount and A invested an additional amount of 60% of the original amount invested by him. In what ratio, the profit earned at the end of 2 years should be distributed among A, B and C respectively?

  1. 2 : 3 : 3
  2. 4 : 3 : 2
  3. 13 : 12 : 12
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

2911. John, Mona and Gordon, three US based business partners, jointly invested in a business project to supply nuclear fuel to India. As per their share in the investment, Gordon will receive 2 3 of the profits whereas John and Mona divide the remainder equally. It is estimated that the income of John will increase by $ 60 million when the rate of profit rises from 4% to 7%. What is Mona’s capital ? (M.B.A., 2009)

  1. $ 2000 million
  2. $ 3000 million
  3. $ 5000 million
  4. $ 8000 million

2912. Anu is a working partner and Bimla is a sleeping partner in a business. Anu puts in ₹ 5000 and Bimla puts in ₹ 6000. Anu receives 12.5% of the profit for managing the business and the rest is divided in proportion to their capitals. What does each get out of a profit of ₹ 880? (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. ₹ 400, ₹ 480
  2. ₹ 450, ₹ 430
  3. ₹ 460, ₹ 420
  4. ₹ 470, ₹ 410

2913. Two partners invested ₹ 125000 and ₹ 85000 respectively in a business. They distribute 60% of the profit equally and decide to distribute the remaining 40% as the interest on their capitals. If one partner received ₹ 3000 more than the other, the total profit is

  1. ₹ 42250
  2. ₹ 39375
  3. ₹ 38840
  4. ₹ 36575

2914. Three partners A, B, C start a business. Twice A’s capital is equal to thrice B’s capital and B’s capital is four times C’s capital. Out of a total profit of ₹ 16500 at the end of the year, B’s share is :

  1. ₹ 4000
  2. ₹ 6000
  3. ₹ 7500
  4. ₹ 6600

2915. If 4

  1. ₹ 465
  2. ₹ 900
  3. ₹ 1550
  4. ₹ 2250

2916. Ninad, Vikas and Manav enter into a partnership. Ninad invests some amount at the beginning. Vikas invests double the amount after 6 months and Manav invests thrice the amount invested by Ninad after 8 months. They earn a profit of ₹ 45000 at the end of the year. What is Manav’s share in the profit? (S.B.I.P.O., 2008)

  1. ₹ 9000
  2. ₹ 12000
  3. ₹ 15000
  4. ₹ 25000
  5. None of these

2917. Four milkmen rented a pasture. A grazed 15 cows for 4 months, B grazed 12 cows for 2 months, C grazed 18 cows for 6 months and D grazed 16 cows for 5 months. If A’s share of rent is ₹ 1020, what is C’s share of rent?

  1. ₹ 816
  2. ₹ 1360
  3. ₹ 1836
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

2918. A, B and C enter into a partnership by making invest- ments in the ratio 3 : 5 : 7. After a year, C invests another ₹ 337600 while A withdraws ₹ 45600. The ratio of investments then changes to 24 : 59 : 16.7. How much did A invest initially?

  1. ₹ 45600
  2. ₹ 96000
  3. ₹ 141600
  4. None of these

2919. A, B and C are partners in a business. Their shares are in the proportion of 111::345 ⋅ A withdraws half of his capital after 15 months and after another 15 months, a profit of ₹ 4340 is divided. The share of C is (M.B.A., 2004)

  1. ₹ 1240
  2. ₹ 1245
  3. ₹ 1360
  4. ₹ 1550

2920. A, B, C started a business with their investments in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5. After 4 months, A invested the same amount as before and B as well as C withdrew half of their investments. The ratio of their profits at the end of the year is : (L.I.C.A.A.O., 2007)

  1. 4 : 3 : 5
  2. 5 : 6 : 10
  3. 6 : 5 : 10
  4. 10 : 5 : 6

2921. A and B entered into partnership with capitals in the ratio 4 : 5. After 3 months, A withdrew 1 4 of his capital and B withdrew 1 5 of his capital. The gain at the end of 10 months was ₹ 760. A’s share in this profit is :

  1. ₹ 330
  2. ₹ 360
  3. ₹ 380
  4. ₹ 430

2922. In a partnership, A invests 1 6 of the capital for 1 6 of the time, B invests 1 3 of the capital for 1 3 of the time and C, the rest of the capital for the whole time. Out of a profit of ₹ 4600, B’s share is (M.B.A., 2004)

  1. ₹ 650
  2. ₹ 800
  3. ₹ 960
  4. ₹ 1000

2923. A, B and C jointly thought of engaging themselves in a business venture. It was agreed that A would invest ₹ 6500 for 6 months, B, ₹ 8400 for 5 months and C, ₹ 10,000 for 3 months. A wants to be the working member for which he was to receive 5% of the profits. The profit earned was ₹ 7400. Calculate the share of B in the profit.

  1. ₹ 1900
  2. ₹ 2660
  3. ₹ 2800
  4. ₹ 2840

2924. Manick received ₹ 6000 as his share out of the total profit of ₹ 9000 which he and Raunaq earned at the end of one year. If Manick invested ₹ 20000 for 6 months, whereas Raunaq invested his amount for the whole year, what was the amount invested by Raunaq?

  1. ₹ 4000
  2. ₹ 5000
  3. ₹ 6000
  4. ₹ 10,000

2925. A, B and C entered into a partnership. A invested ₹ 2560 and B invested ₹ 2000. At the end of the year, they gained ₹ 1105, out of which A got ₹ 320. C’s capital was (S.S.C., 2006)

  1. ₹ 2840
  2. ₹ 4028
  3. ₹ 4280
  4. ₹ 4820

2926. A, B and C enter into a partnership. A contributes one-third of the capital while B contributes as much as A and C together contribute. If the profit at the end of the year amounts to ₹ 900, what would C receive? (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. ₹ 100
  2. ₹ 150
  3. ₹ 200
  4. ₹ 300

2927. A and B started a business jointly. A’s investment was thrice the investment of B and the period of his investment was two times the period of investment of B. If B received ₹ 4000 as profit, then their total profit is:

  1. ₹ 16000
  2. ₹ 20000
  3. ₹ 24000
  4. ₹ 28000

2928. A started a business with ₹ 21000 and is joined afterwards by B with ₹ 36000. After how many months did B join if the profits at the end of the year are divided equally?

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

2929. A began a business with ₹ 85000. He was joined afterwards by B with ₹ 42500. For how much period does B join, if the profits at the end of the year are divided in the ratio of 3 : 1? (N.I.F.T., 2003)

  1. 4 months
  2. 5 months
  3. 6 months
  4. 8 months

2930. A starts business with ₹ 3500 and after 5 months, B joins with A as his partner. After a year, the profit is divided in the ratio 2 : 3. What is B’s contribution in the capital?

  1. ₹ 7500
  2. ₹ 8000
  3. ₹ 8500
  4. ₹ 9000

2931. A and B enter into a partnership with ₹ 50000 and ₹ 60000 respectively. C joins them after x months, contributing ₹ 70000 and B leaves x months before the end of the year. If they share the profit in the ratio of 20 : 18 : 21, then the value of x is (M.A.T., 2008)

  1. 3
  2. 6
  3. 8
  4. 9

2932. In a business A invests ₹ 600 more than B. The capital of B remained invested for 17 2 months, while the capital of A remained invested for 2 more months. If the total profit be ₹ 620 and B gets ₹ 140 less than what A gets, then A’s capital is

  1. ₹ 2400
  2. ₹ 2800
  3. ₹ 3000
  4. ₹ 3200

2933. A and B start a business jointly. A invests ₹ 16000 for 8 months and B remains in the business for 4 months. Out of the total profit, B claims 2 7 of the profit. How much money was contributed by B?

  1. ₹ 10500
  2. ₹ 11900
  3. ₹ 12800
  4. ₹ 13600

2934. Two friends P and Q started a business investing in the ratio of 5 : 6. R joined them after six months investing an amount equal to that of Q’s. At the end of the year, 20% profit was earned which was equal to ₹ 98,000. What was the amount invested by R?

  1. ₹ 105000
  2. ₹ 175000
  3. ₹ 210000
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

2935. Three partners shared the profit in a business in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. They had partnered for 14 months, 8 months and 7 months respectively. What was the ratio of their investments?

  1. 5 : 7 : 8
  2. 28 : 49 : 64
  3. 38 : 28 : 21
  4. None of these

2936. A, B and C invested their capitals in the ratio 3 : 4 : 6. However their shares of profit are equal. The durations of their investments must be in the ratio

  1. 4 : 3 : 2
  2. 6 : 4 : 3
  3. 3 : 4 : 6
  4. 1 : 1 : 1

2937. A and B invest in a business in the ratio 3 : 2. If 5% of the total profit goes to charity and A’s share is ₹ 855, the total profit is

  1. ₹ 1425
  2. ₹ 1500
  3. ₹ 1537.50
  4. ₹ 1576

2938. Swati and Rajni enter into a partnership with their capitals in the ratio 5 : 6. At the end of 7 months Swati withdraws her capital. If they receive the profit in the ratio of 5 : 9, find how long was Rajni’s capital used. (I.I.F.T., 2005, R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 10 months
  2. 12 months
  3. 14 months
  4. None of these

2939. X and Y are partners in a business. X contributed 1 3 of the capital for 9 months and Y received 2 5 of the profits. For how long was Y’s money used in the business? (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. 2 months
  2. 3 months
  3. 4 months
  4. 5 months

2940. A and B started a business with initial investments in the respective ratio of 18 : 7. After four months from the start of the business, A invest ₹ 2000 more and B invested ₹ 7000 more. At the end of one year, if the profit was distributed among them in the ratio of 2 : 1 respective, what was the total initial invest - ment with which A and B started the business? [IBPS—RRB Officers Gr.’B’ Exam, 2015]

  1. ₹ 50000
  2. ₹ 25000
  3. ₹ 150000
  4. ₹ 75000

2941. Anil, Kamal and Vini Invested ₹ 8000, ₹ 4000 and ₹ 8000 respectively in a business. Anil left after six months. If after eight months, there was a gain of ₹ 4005, then what will be the share of Kamal? [RBI Gr. ‘B’ (Phase I) Exam, 2015]

  1. ₹ 800
  2. ₹ 890
  3. ₹ 500
  4. ₹ 900

2942. A starts a business by investing ₹ 28,000. After 2 months, B joins with ₹ 20,000 and after another two months C joins with ₹ 18,000. At the end of 10 months from the start of the business, if B withdraws ₹ 2,000 and C withdrawn ₹ 2,000, in what ratio should the profit be distributed among A, B and C at the end of the year? [IBPS—Bank Spl. Officer (IT) Exam, 2015]

  1. 12 : 7 : 5
  2. 12 : 9 : 5
  3. 12 : 6 : 3
  4. 14 : 7 : 5

2943. In a business, B invests half the amount invested by A. After 6 months from the start of the business, C joins the business with an amount equal to twice of B’s investment. After 8 months from the start of the business B withdraws completely from the business. If at the end of the years, C’s share in the profit was ₹ 2460, what was the total profit received that year? [United India Insurance Co. Ltd. (UIICL)—Assistant (Online) Exam 2015]

  1. ₹ 11200
  2. ₹ 9600
  3. ₹ 9020
  4. ₹ 12000

2944. A, B and C entered in to a partnership by investing ₹ 15, 400, ₹ 18,200 and ₹ 12,600 respectively. B left after 6 months. If after 8 months, there was a profit of ₹ 28,790, then what is the share of C in the profit? [NICL—AAO Exam, 2015]

  1. ₹ 8712
  2. ₹ 9432
  3. ₹ 8352
  4. ₹ 8568

2945. A and B started a business by investing ₹ 2400 and ₹ 3600 respectively. At the end of 4 th month from the start of the business, C joined with ₹ ‘X’. After 8 months from the start of the business. B withdrew ₹600. If C’s share is ₹ 8000 in the annual profit of ₹ 22500, what was the amount the C invested in the business? [CET—Maharashtra (MBA) Exam, 2016]

  1. ₹ 7200
  2. ₹ 5800
  3. ₹ 4000
  4. ₹ 4800

2946. What is R’s share of profit in a joint venture? I. Q started business investing ₹ 80000. II. R joined him after 3 months. III. P joined after 4 months with a capital of ₹ 120000 and got ₹ 6000 as his share of profit.

  1. All I, II and III
  2. I and III only
  3. II and III only
  4. Even with all I, II, and III, the answer cannot be arrived at
  5. None of these

2947. What is the difference in the shares of profit between P and Q in a joint business at the end of one year? (M.B.A., 2007) I. P invested ₹ 80000 and withdrew ₹ 20000 after 6 months. II. Q joined four months after the start of business. III. Q’s amount was 80% of P’s amount during the last six months.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. All I, II and III
  4. Even with all I, II and III together, the answer cannot be arrived at.
  5. None of these

2948. A, B and C together start a business with a total investment of ₹ 15,000. At the end of the year, the total profit is ₹ 3000. What is A’s share in the profit? I. A’s contribution is 3 2 times B’s. II. B’s contribution is twice that of C. III. A’s contribution is thrice that of C.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. All I, II and III
  4. Any two of the three
  5. None of these

2949. What will be the share of R in the profit earned by V, R and A together? I. They together invested an amount of ₹ 54000 for a period of 1 year. II. R’s investment was 25% less than V’s and 50% more than A’s. III. The profit of V is ₹ 4000 more than that of A. (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. Only I and II together
  2. Only II
  3. Only II and III together
  4. II and either I or III only

2950. How much did Rohit get as profit at the year-end in the business done by Nitin, Rohit and Kunal? I. Kunal invested ₹ 8000 for nine months, his profit was 3 2 times that of Rohit’s and his investment was four times that of Nitin. II. Nitin and Rohit invested for one year in the proportion 1 : 2 respectively. III. The three together got ₹ 1000 as profit at the year end.

  1. Only I and II
  2. Only I and III
  3. Question cannot be answered even with the information in all the three statements
  4. All I, II and III
  5. None of these

2951. Three friends P, Q and R started a partnership business investing money in the ratio of 5 : 4 : 2 respectively for a period of 3 years. What is the amount received by P as his share in the total profit? I. Total amount invested in the business is ₹ 22000. II. Profit earned at the end of 3 years is 3 8 of the total investment. III. The average amount of profit earned per year is ₹ 2750.

  1. I or II or III
  2. Either III only, or I and II together
  3. Any two of the three
  4. All I, II and III are required
  5. None of these

2952. What will be the percentage share of Y in the profit earned by X, Y and Z together ? I. X, Y and Z invested a total amount of ₹ 25,000 for a period of two years. II. The profit earned at the end of 2 years is 30%. III. The amount invested by Y is equal to the amount invested by X and Z together.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. Any two of the three
  4. All I, II and III are required
  5. Question cannot be answered even with information in all the three statements.

2953. What is Neeta’s share in the profit of ₹ 50000 earned at the end of 2 years in a joint business run by Neeta, Seeta and Geeta? I. Neeta invested ₹ 85000 to start the business. II. Seeta and Geeta joined Neeta’s business after six months, investing amounts in the ratio of 3 : 5. III. Total amount invested by Seeta and Geeta is ₹ 2.5 lakh.

  1. Only II
  2. Only III
  3. Only either II or III
  4. Information in all the three statements is required to answer the question
  5. The question cannot be answered even with the information in all the three statements

2954. If the cost of x metres of wire is d rupees, then what is the cost of y metres of wire at the same rate? (M.B.A., 2002)

  1. xy d   ₹
  2. ₹ ( xd)
  3. ₹ ( yd)
  4. yd x   ₹

2955. The price of 5.5 dozen pens is ₹ 1287. What is the price of 16 such pens?

  1. ₹ 212
  2. ₹ 296
  3. ₹ 312
  4. ₹ 412
  5. None of these

2956. The price of 357 mangoes is ₹ 1517.25. What will be the approximate price of 49 dozens of such mangoes?

  1. ₹ 3000
  2. ₹ 3500
  3. ₹ 4000
  4. ₹ 2500

2957. If a quarter kg of potato costs 60 paise, how many paise will 200 gm cost?

  1. 48 paise
  2. 54 paise
  3. 56 paise
  4. 72 paise

2958. If 11.25 m of a uniform iron rod weighs 42.75 kg, what will be the weight of 6 m of the same rod?

  1. 22.8 kg
  2. 25.6 kg
  3. 28 kg
  4. 26.5 kg

2959. On a scale of map, 0.6 cm represents 6.6 km. If the distance between the points on the map is 80.5 cm, the actual distance between these points is

  1. 9 km
  2. 72.5 km
  3. 190.75 km
  4. 885.5 km

2960. An industrial loom weaves 0.128 metres of cloth every second. Approximately, how many seconds will it take for the loom to weave 25 metres of cloth? (M.B.A., 2003)

  1. 178
  2. 195
  3. 204
  4. 488

2961. A recipe for stew that feeds 4 people calls for 11 2 teaspoons of salt. If 3 teaspoons = 1 tablespoon, then how many tablespoons of salt will be needed to make enough stew for 18 people?

  1. 2.25
  2. 3.25
  3. 4.5
  4. 6

2962. A snapshot 711282′′ × ′′ is to be enlarged so that the longer dimension is 4 ″. What will be the dimension of the shorter side?

  1. 32 8 ′′
  2. 12 2 ′′
  3. 3 ″
  4. 33 8 ′′

2963. A canteen requires 651 bananas for a week. Totally, how many bananas will it require for the months of April, May and June?

  1. 8463
  2. 8547
  3. 9086
  4. 9284
  5. None of these

2964. If 4 th9 of a bucket is filled in 1 minute, the rest of it will be filled in (Hotel Management, 2010)

  1. 1 min
  2. 9 min4
  3. 5 min4
  4. 4 min5

2965. On a certain map of India the actual distance of 1450 km between two cities Delhi and Kolkata is shown as 5 cm. What scale is used to draw the map?

  1. 1 : 15 × 10 6
  2. 1 : 20 × 10 6
  3. 1 : 25 × 10 6
  4. 1 : 29 × 10 6

2966. A flagstaff 17.5 m high casts a shadow of length 40.25 m. The height of the building, which casts a shadow of length 28.75 m under similar conditions will be (M.B.A., 2002)

  1. 10 m
  2. 12.5 m
  3. 17.5 m
  4. 21.25 m

2967. A TV tower 36 metres high casts a shadow of 24 metres at a particular time of a day. What is the height of a minar with a three metre high flagstaff atop it, if both of these together cast a shadow of 50 metres at the same time of the day?

  1. 64 m
  2. 72 m
  3. 75 m
  4. None of these

2968. A man completes 5 8 of a job in 10 days. At this rate, how many more days will it take him to finish the job? (M.B.A., 2003)

  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. 17 2

2969. 56 men can complete a piece of work in 24 days. In how many days can 42 men complete the same piece of work?

  1. 18
  2. 32
  3. 48
  4. 98
  5. None of these

2970. 30 men can do a piece of work in 16 days. How many men would be required to do the same work in 20 days?

  1. 12
  2. 24
  3. 36
  4. 48
  5. None of these

2971. A group of workers promise to complete a piece of work in 10 days, but five of them do not report for work. If it took the remaining workers 12 days to complete the work, then the number of workers originally hired was

  1. 15
  2. 25
  3. 30
  4. 45

2972. A wheel that has 6 cogs is meshed with a larger wheel of 14 cogs. When the smaller wheel has made 21 revolutions, then the number of revolutions made by the larger wheel is

  1. 4
  2. 9
  3. 12
  4. 49

2973. In a camp, there is a meal for 120 men or 200 children. If 150 children have taken the meal, how many men will be catered to with the remaining meal?

  1. 20
  2. 30
  3. 40
  4. 50

2974. The cost of 16 packets of salt, each weighing 900 grams is ₹ 28. What will be the cost of 27 packets, if each packet weighs 1 kg?

  1. ₹ 52.50
  2. ₹ 56
  3. ₹ 58.50
  4. ₹ 64.75

2975. 4 mat-weavers can weave 4 mats in 4 days. At the same rate, how many mats would be woven by 8 mat-weavers in 8 days? (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. 4
  2. 8
  3. 12
  4. 16

2976. If 7 maids with 7 mops cleaned 7 floors in 7 hours, how long would it take 3 maids to mop 3 floors with 3 mops? (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 7 hours3
  2. 3 hours
  3. 49 hours3
  4. 7 hours

2977. Four gardeners with four grass mowers mow 400 sq. m of ground in 4 hours. How long would it take for eight gardeners with eight grass mowers to mow 800 sq. m of ground?

  1. 4 hours
  2. 6 hours
  3. 8 hours
  4. 12 hours

2978. Runnning at the same constant rate, 6 identical machines can produce a total of 180 bottles per hour. How many bottles could 15 such machines produce in 30 minutes? (SNAP, 2010)

  1. 225
  2. 250
  3. 300
  4. 350

2979. If 6 persons working 8 hours a day earn ₹ 8400 per week, then 9 persons working 6 hours a day will earn per week (S.S.C., 2003)

  1. ₹ 8400
  2. ₹ 9450
  3. ₹ 16200
  4. ₹ 16800

2980. If 5 workers can collect 60 kg wheat in 3 days, how many kilograms of wheat will 8 workers collect in 5 days?

  1. 80 kg
  2. 100 kg
  3. 120 kg
  4. 160 kg

2981. 50 people consume 350 kg of rice in 30 days. In how many days will 35 people consume 50 kg of rice? (NABARD, 2008)

  1. 2 days
  2. 3 days
  3. 5 days
  4. 7 days
  5. None of these

2982. In a dairy farm, 40 cows eat 40 bags of husk in 40 days. In how many days one cow will eat one bag of husk?

  1. 1
  2. 1 40
  3. 40
  4. 80

2983. Working 8 hours a day, 12 men can do a work in 30 days. Working 4 hours a day, 18 men can do the work in (P.C.S., 2006)

  1. 30 days
  2. 40 days
  3. 45 days
  4. 50 days

2984. 12 men working 8 hours per day complete a piece of work in 10 days. To complete the same work in 8 days, working 15 hours a day, the number of men required, is:

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 8

2985. 5 persons can prepare an admission list in 8 days working 7 hours a day. If 2 persons join them so as to complete the work in 4 days, they need to work per day for (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. 8 hours
  2. 9 hours
  3. 10 hours
  4. 12 hours

2986. 3 pumps, working 8 hours a day, can empty a tank in 2 days. How many hours a day must 4 pumps work to empty the tank in 1 day?

  1. 9
  2. 10
  3. 11
  4. 12

2987. If 8 men can reap 80 hectares in 24 days, then how many hectares can 36 men reap in 30 days?

  1. 350
  2. 400
  3. 425
  4. 450

2988. A certain number of persons can dig a trench 100 m long, 50 m broad and 10 m deep in 10 days. The same number of persons can dig another trench 20 m broad and 15 m deep in 30 days. The length of the second trench is

  1. 400 m
  2. 500 m
  3. 800 m
  4. 900 m

2989. If 5 men or 7 women can earn ₹ 5250 per day, how much would 7 men and 13 women earn per day? (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. ₹ 11600
  2. ₹ 11700
  3. ₹ 16100
  4. ₹ 17100

2990. 3 men or 6 women can do a piece of work in 20 days. In how many days will 12 men and 8 women do the same work? (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 13 days2
  2. 33 days4
  3. 4 days
  4. 5 days

2991. If 5 men or 9 women can do a piece of work in 19 days, then in how many days will 3 men and 6 women do the same work?

  1. 12
  2. 15
  3. 18
  4. 21

2992. 49 pumps can empty a reservoir in 16 2 days, working 8 hours a day. If 196 pumps are used for 5 hours each day, then the same work will be completed in

  1. 2 days
  2. 12 days2
  3. 32 days5
  4. 3 days

2993. 30 labourers, working 7 hours a day can finish a piece of work in 18 days. If the labourers work 6 hours a day, then the number of labourers to finish the same piece of work in 30 days, will be:

  1. 15
  2. 21
  3. 22
  4. 25

2994. If 18 pumps can raise 2170 tonnes of water in 10 days, working 7 hours a day; in how many days will 16 pumps raise 1736 tonnes of water, working 9 hours a day?

  1. 6
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 9

2995. If 80 lamps can be lighted, 5 hours per day for 10 days for ₹ 21.25, then the number of lamps, which can be lighted 4 hours daily for 30 days, for ₹ 76.50, is

  1. 100
  2. 120
  3. 150
  4. 160

2996. If 12 carpenters, working 6 hours a day, can make 460 chairs in 24 days, how many chairs will 18 carpenters make in 36 days, each working 8 hours a day?

  1. 1260
  2. 1320
  3. 920
  4. 1380

2997. If 5 spiders can catch five flies in five minutes, how many flies can hundred spiders catch in 100 minutes? (SNAP, 2005)

  1. 100
  2. 500
  3. 1000
  4. 2000

2998. 2 persons working 2 hours a day assemble 2 machines in 2 days. The number of machines assembled by 6 persons working 6 hours a day in 6 days is

  1. 6
  2. 18
  3. 27
  4. 54

2999. The work done by a man is double the work done by a woman in the same time. If 10 men can do a piece of work in 8 days, then in how many days that work can be done by 3 men and 4 women?

  1. 4
  2. 37 11
  3. 8
  4. 16

3000. A wall of 100 metres can be built by 7 men or 10 women in 10 days. How many days will 14 men and 20 women take to build a wall of 600 metres?

  1. 15
  2. 20
  3. 25
  4. 30

3001. If 10 men or 20 boys can make 260 mats in 20 days, then how many mats will be made by 8 men and 4 boys in 20 days?

  1. 240
  2. 260
  3. 280
  4. 520

3002. If 600 men dig a 5.5 m wide, 4 m deep and 405 m long canal in half an hour, then how long a canal will 2500 men, working for 6 hours, dig if it is 10 m wide and 8 m deep?

  1. 12694 m3
  2. 4082 m
  3. 35568 m4
  4. 6452 m

3003. 64 persons can dig a trench 50 m long, 2 m wide and 2 m deep in 5 days, working 12 hours daily. In how many days, working 8 hours daily, will 80 persons dig another trench 75 m long, 4 m wide and 3 m deep?

  1. 18
  2. 27
  3. 36
  4. 45

3004. 21 binders can bind 1400 books in 15 days. How many binders will be required to bind 800 books in 20 days?

  1. 7
  2. 9
  3. 12
  4. 14
  5. None of these

3005. A certain number of artisans can complete a shoe fabrication consignment in 16 days. 8 additional artisans had to be deployed for the same consignment and together they completed it in 4 days less than the earlier estimate. The number of artisans initially employed was

  1. 18
  2. 20
  3. 24
  4. None of these

3006. If 9 examiners can examine a certain number of answer books in 12 days, working 5 hours a day; for how many hours a day would 4 examiners have to work in order to examine twice the number of answer books in 30 days?

  1. 6
  2. 8
  3. 9
  4. 10

3007. If 17 labourers can dig a ditch 20 m long in 18 days, working 8 hours a day; how many more labourers should be engaged to dig a similar ditch 39 m long in 6 days, each labourer working 9 hours a day?

  1. 34
  2. 51
  3. 68
  4. 85

3008. 20 men complete one-third of a piece of work in 20 days. How many more men should be employed to finish the rest of the work in 25 more days? (G.B.O., 2007)

  1. 10
  2. 12
  3. 15
  4. 20

3009. A rope makes 70 rounds of the circumference of a cylinder whose radius of the base is 14 cm. How many times can it go round a cylinder with radius 20 cm?

  1. 40
  2. 49
  3. 100
  4. None of these

3010. If x men, working x hours per day, can do x units of work in x days, then y men, working y hours per day would be able to complete how many units of work in y days?

  1. 2 3 x y
  2. 3 2 x y
  3. 2 3 y x
  4. 3 2 y x

3011. A contract is to be completed in 46 days and 117 men were set to work, each working 8 hours a day. After 33 days, 4 7 of the work is completed. How many additional men may be employed so that the work may be completed in time, each man now working 9 hours a day? (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 80
  2. 81
  3. 82
  4. 83

3012. The normal dosage of a particular medicine is t tablets per day for each patient. A hospital’s current supply of these tablets will last p patients for d days. If the recommended dosage increases by 20% and the number of patients decreases by one-third, then for how many days will the hospital’s supply last?

  1. 5 4 d
  2. 4 5 d
  3. 4 5 pt
  4. Cannot be determined

3013. Some persons can do a piece of work in 12 days. Two times the number of such persons will do half of that work in :

  1. 6 days
  2. 4 days
  3. 3 days
  4. 12 days

3014. 12 persons can do a piece of work in 4 days. How many persons are required to complete 8 times the work in half the time? (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. 144
  2. 180
  3. 190
  4. 192

3015. If 5 engines consume 6 metric tonnes of coal when each is running 9 hours a day, how many metric tonnes of coal will be needed for 8 engines, each running 10 hours a day, it being given that 3 engines of the former type consume as much as 4 engines of the latter type? (M.A.T., 2008)

  1. 13 8
  2. 8
  3. 88 9
  4. 126 25

3016. If 9 men working 17 2 hours a day can finish a piece of work in 20 days, then how many days will be taken by 12 men, working 6 hours a day to finish the work? It is being given that 2 men of latter type work as much as 3 men of the former type. (L.I.C.A.A.O., 2007)

  1. 19 2
  2. 11
  3. 112 2
  4. 13

3017. If a certain number of workmen can do a piece of work in 25 hours, in how many hours will another set of an equal number of men, do a piece of work, twice as great, supposing that 2 men of the first set can do as much work in an hour, as 3 men of the second set do in an hour?

  1. 60
  2. 75
  3. 90
  4. 105

3018. 15 men take 21 days of 8 hours each to do a piece of work. How many days of 6 hours each would 21 women take, if 3 women do as much work as 2 men?

  1. 18
  2. 20
  3. 25
  4. 30

3019. A contractor employed 30 men to do a piece of work in 38 days. After 25 days, he employed 5 men more and the work was finished one day earlier. How many days he would have been behind, if he had not employed additional men?

  1. 1
  2. 11 4
  3. 31 4
  4. 11 2

3020. In a barrack of soldiers there was stock of food for 190 days for 4000 soldiers. After 30 days 800 soldiers left the barrack. For how many days shall the left over food last for the remaining soldiers? (P.C.S., 2006)

  1. 175 days
  2. 200 days
  3. 225 days
  4. 250 days

3021. A garrison of 500 men had provisions for 27 days. After 3 days a reinforcement of 300 men arrived. For how many more days will the remaining food last now? (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 15
  2. 16
  3. 117 2
  4. 18

3022. A garrison had provisions for a certain number of days. After 10 days, 1 5 of the men desert and it is found that the provisions will now last just as long as before. How long was that? (M.B.A., 2003)

  1. 15 days
  2. 25 days
  3. 35 days
  4. 50 days

3023. A fort has provisions for 50 days. If after 10 days they are strengthened by 500 men and the food lasts for 35 days longer, the number of men originally in the fort were

  1. 2500
  2. 3000
  3. 3500
  4. 4000

3024. A garrison of 2000 men has provision of ration for 66 days. At the end of a fortnight, reinforcement arrives and it is found that ration will last only for 20 days more. The strength of the reinforcement is

  1. 2000
  2. 2200
  3. 2600
  4. 3200

3025. A team of workers was employed by a contractor who undertook to finish 360 pieces of an article in a certain number of days. Making four more pieces per day than was planned, they could complete the job a day ahead of schedule. How many days did they take to complete the job? (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 8 days
  2. 9 days
  3. 10 days
  4. 12 days

3026. The work done by a woman in 8 hours is equal to the work done by a man in 6 hours and by a boy in 12 hours. If working 6 hours per day 9 men can complete a work in 6 days, then in how many days can 12 men, 12 women and 12 boys together finish the same work, working 8 hours per day? (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 11 days2
  2. 3 days
  3. 23 days3
  4. 14 days2

3027. 12 men and 18 boys, working 17 2 hours a day, can do a piece of work in 60 days. If a man works equal to 2 boys, then how many boys will be required to help 21 men to do twice the work in 50 days, working 9 hours a day?

  1. 30
  2. 42
  3. 48
  4. 90

3028. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days, working 7 hours a day; how many days will it take to complete a piece of work twice as large with 6 men and 2 boys working together for 8 hours a day?

  1. 6
  2. 17 2
  3. 18 2
  4. 9

3029. 2 men and 7 boys can do a piece of work in 14 days; 3 men and 8 boys can do the same in 11 days. Then, 8 men and 6 boys can do three times the amount of this work in :

  1. 18 days
  2. 21 days
  3. 24 days
  4. 30 days

3030. Large, medium and small ships are used to bring water. 4 large ships carry as much water as 7 small ships, 3 medium ships carry the same amount of water as 2 large ships and 1 small ship. 15 large, 7 medium and 14 small ships, each made 36 journeys and brought a certain quantity of water. In how many journeys would 12 large, 14 medium and 21 small ships bring the same quantity? (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 25
  2. 29
  3. 32
  4. 49

3031. If 2 m. 60 cm cloth is required for one shirt, then the cloth required for 7 shirts is …….. [APTET, 2011]

  1. 14 m 80 cm
  2. 18 m 20 cm
  3. 15 m 20 cm
  4. 16 m 80 cm

3032. The cost of 4 dozen papers is ₹ 24. The cost of 1 score of papers (in rupees) is ……. [APTET, 2011]

  1. 40
  2. 20
  3. 10
  4. 42

3033. The cost of 8 fans and 14 ovens is ₹ 36.520. What is the cost of 12 fans and 21 ovens? [SBI—Clerk Level, 2012]

  1. ₹ 56.800
  2. ₹ 54.780
  3. ₹ 57.950
  4. Cannot be determined

3034. The cost of 5 kgs of apples is ₹ 450. The cost of 12 dozen mangoes is ₹ 4,320 and the cost of 4 kgs of oranges is ₹ 240. What is the total cost of 8 kg of apples, 8 dozens of mangoes and 8 kg of oranges? [MAT—2012]

  1. ₹ 4,020
  2. ₹ 4,080
  3. ₹ 4,050
  4. Other than those given as options

3035. The cost of 21 pencils and 9 clippers is ₹ 819. The cost price of 7 pencils and 3 clippers is [DMRC—Train Operator (Station Controller), 2012]

  1. ₹ 204
  2. ₹ 409
  3. ₹ 273
  4. ₹ 208

3036. In 1 minute, 3 7 of a bucket is filled. The rest of the bucket can be filled in (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 7 3 minutes
  2. 7 4 minutes
  3. 4 3 minutes
  4. None of these

3037. The petrol tank of an automobile can hold g litres. If a litres was removed when the tank was full, what part of the full tank was removed?

  1. g – a
  2. g a
  3. a g
  4. ()ga a −
  5. ()ga g −

3038. Water is continuously supplied from a reservoir to a locality at the steady rate of 10,000 litres per hour. When delivery exceeds demand the excess water is stored in a tank. If the demand for 8 consecutive three-hour periods is 10000, 10000, 45000, 25000, 40000, 15000, 60000 and 35000 litres respectively, what will be the minimum capacity required of the water tank (in thousand litres) to meet the demand and avoid any wastage?

  1. 10
  2. 30
  3. 40
  4. 50

3039. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 20 and 30 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are used together, how long will it take to fill the tank? (M.A.T., 2003; C.P.O., 2003)

  1. 12 minutes
  2. 15 minutes
  3. 25 minutes
  4. 50 minutes

3040. A pipe can fill a tank in x hours and another pipe can empty it in y (y > x) hours. If both the pipes are open, in how many hours will the tank be filled? (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. ( x – y) hours
  2. (y – x) hours
  3. xy xy− hours
  4. xy yx− hours

3041. A tap can completely fill a water tank in 8 hours. The water tank has a hole in it through which the water leaks out. The leakage will cause the full water tank to get empty in 12 hours. How much time will it take for the tap to fill the tank completely with the hole? (R.B.I., 2004)

  1. 16 hours
  2. 18 hours
  3. 24 hours
  4. None of these

3042. A tank with capacity T litres is empty. If water flows into the tank from pipe X at the rate of x litres per minute and water is pumped out by Y at the rate of y litres per minute and x > y, then in how many minutes will the tank be filled? (M.B.A., 2002)

  1. (x – y) 60 T
  2. (T – x)y
  3. () T xy−
  4. () T yx−

3043. Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 20 hours and 30 hours respectively and pipe C can empty the full tank in 40 hours. If all the pipes are opened together, how much time will be needed to make the tank full?

  1. 310 7 hours
  2. 412 5 hours
  3. 117 7 hours
  4. 119 4 hours

3044. A pipe can fill a tank in 3 hours. There are two outlet pipes from the tank which can empty it in 7 and 10 hours respectively. If all the three pipes are opened simultaneously, then the tank will be filled in (M.B.A., 2002)

  1. 8 hours
  2. 9 hours
  3. 10 hours
  4. 11 hours

3045. In what time would a cistern be filled by three pipes whose diameters are 1 cm, 11 3 cm and 2 cm running together, when the largest alone will fill it in 61 minutes, the amount of water flowing in by each pipe, being proportional to the square of its diameter? (Railways, 2006)

  1. 25 minutes
  2. 30 minutes
  3. 36 minutes
  4. 40 minutes

3046. A tap can fill a tank in 6 hours. After half the tank is filled, three more similar taps are opened. What is the total time taken to fill the tank completely?

  1. 3 hrs 15 min
  2. 3 hrs 45 min
  3. 4 hrs
  4. 4 hrs 15 min

3047. A cistern has two pipes. One can fill it with water in 8 hours and other can empty it in 5 hours. In how many hours will the cistern be emptied if both the pipes are opened together when 3 4 of the cistern is already full of water?

  1. 13 3 hours
  2. 6 hours
  3. 10 hours
  4. 113 3 hours

3048. A vessel has three pipes connected to it, two to supply liquid and one to draw liquid. The first alone can fill the vessel in 14 2 hours, the second in 3 hours and the third can empty it in 11 2 hours. If all the pipes are opened simultaneously when the vessel is half full, how soon will it be emptied? (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. 14 2 hours
  2. 15 2 hours
  3. 16 2 hours
  4. None of these

3049. Two pipes A and B can separately fill a cistern in 60 minutes and 75 minutes respectively. There is a third pipe in the bottom of the cistern to empty it. If all the three pipes are simultaneously opened then the cistern is full in 50 minutes. In how much time, the third pipe alone can empty the cistern?

  1. 90 min
  2. 100 min
  3. 110 min
  4. 120 min

3050. Eight pipes are fitted to a water tank. Some of these are water pipes to fill the tank and the remaining are waste pipes used to empty the tank. Each water pipe can fill the tank in 12 hours and each waste pipe can empty it in 36 hours. On opening all the pipes an empty tank is filled in 3 hours. The number of waste pipes is

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5

3051. A pump can fill a tank with water in 2 hours. Because of a leak, it took 12 3 hours to fill the tank. The leak can drain all the water of the tank in

  1. 14 3 hours
  2. 7 hours
  3. 8 hours
  4. 14 hours

3052. Two taps A and B can fill a tank in 5 hours and 20 hours respectively. If both the taps are open then due to a leakage, it took 30 minutes more to fill the tank. If the tank is full, how long will it take for the leakage alone to empty the tank?

  1. 14 2 hrs
  2. 9 hrs
  3. 18 hrs
  4. 36 hrs

3053. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank from empty to full in 30 minutes, 20 minutes and 10 minutes respectively. When the tank is empty, all the three pipes are opened. A, B and C discharge chemical solutions P, Q and R respectively. What is the proportion of solution R in the liquid in the tank after 3 minutes?

  1. 5 11
  2. 6 11
  3. 7 11
  4. 8 11

3054. Two pipes A and B together can fill a cistern in 4 hours. Had they been opened separately, then B would have taken 6 hours more than A to fill the cistern. How much time will be taken by A alone to fill the cistern?

  1. 1 hr
  2. 2 hrs
  3. 6 hrs
  4. 8 hrs

3055. One pipe can fill a tank three times as fast as another pipe. If together the two pipes can fill the tank in 36 minutes, then the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the tank in

  1. 81 min
  2. 108 min
  3. 144 min
  4. 192 min

3056. A tank is filled in 5 hours by three pipes A, B and C. The pipe C is twice as fast as B and B is twice as fast as A. How much time will pipe A alone take to fill the tank?

  1. 20 hrs
  2. 25 hrs
  3. 35 hrs
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3057. A swimming pool is filled by three pipes with uni- form flow. The first two pipes operating simultane- ously fill the pool in the same time during which the pool is filled by the third pipe alone. The second pipe fills the pool 5 hours faster than the first pipe and 4 hours slower than the third pipe. The time required by the first pipe is (M.B.A., 2002; M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 6 hrs
  2. 10 hrs
  3. 15 hrs
  4. 30 hrs

3058. 12 buckets of water fill a tank when the capacity of each bucket is 13.5 litres. How many buckets will be needed to fill the same tank, if the capacity of each bucket is 9 litres?

  1. 8
  2. 15
  3. 16
  4. 18

3059. Bucket P has thrice the capacity as bucket Q. It takes 60 turns for bucket P to fill the empty drum. How many turns will it take for both the buckets P and Q, having each turn together to fill the empty drum?

  1. 30
  2. 40
  3. 45
  4. 90

3060. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 15 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously and pipe A is closed after 3 minutes, then how much more time will it take to fill the tank by pipe B?

  1. 7 min 15 sec
  2. 7 min 45 sec
  3. 8 min 5 sec
  4. 8 min 15 sec

3061. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 15 minutes and 20 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are opened together but after 4 minutes, pipe A is turned off. What is the total time required to fill the tank?

  1. 10 min 20 sec
  2. 11 min 45 sec
  3. 12 min 30 sec
  4. 14 min 40 sec

3062. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 15 hours and 20 hours respectively while a third pipe C can empty the full tank in 25 hours. All the three pipes are opened in the beginning. After 10 hours, C is closed. In how much time will the tank be full?

  1. 12 hrs
  2. 13 hrs
  3. 16 hrs
  4. 18 hrs

3063. A large tanker can be filled by two pipes A and B in 60 minutes and 40 minutes respectively. How many minutes will it take to fill the tanker from empty state if B is used for half the time and A and B fill it together for the other half?

  1. 15 min
  2. 20 min
  3. 27.5 min
  4. 30 min

3064. Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 12 minutes and 15 minutes respectively while a third pipe C can empty the full cistern in 6 minutes. A and B are kept open for 5 minutes in the beginning and then C is also opened. In what time is the cistern emptied? (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 30 min
  2. 33 min
  3. 137 2 min
  4. 45 min

3065. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 20 and 30 hours respectively. Both the pipes are opened to fill the tank but when the tank is one-third full, a leak develops in the tank through which one-third water supplied by both the pipes goes out. The total time taken to fill the tank is (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 12 hours
  2. 14 hours
  3. 16 hours
  4. 18 hours

3066. Four pipes can fill a reservoir in 15, 20, 30 and 60 hours respectively. The first pipe was opened at 8 a.m, second at 9 a.m., third at 10 a.m. and fourth at 11 a.m. When will the reservoir be full?

  1. 1 p.m.
  2. 2 p.m.
  3. 2.30 p.m.
  4. 3 p.m.

3067. Two pipes can fill a tank with water in 15 and 12 hours respectively and a third pipe can empty it in 4 hours. If the pipes be opened in order at 8, 9 and 11 a.m. respectively, the tank will be emptied at (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 11 : 40 a.m.
  2. 12 : 40 p.m.
  3. 1 : 40 p.m.
  4. 2 : 40 p.m.

3068. Tap A fills a tank in 4 hours whereas tap B empties the full tank in 24 hours. A and B are opened alternately for 1 hour each. Every 2 hours the level of water is found to increase by 0.5 m. The depth of the tank is

  1. 2.4 m
  2. 4.8 m
  3. 6.4 m
  4. 24 m

3069. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 6 hours and 4 hours respectively. If they are opened on alternate hours and if pipe A is opened first, in how many hours, the tank shall be full?

  1. 4
  2. 14 2
  3. 5
  4. 15 2

3070. Three taps A, B and C can fill a tank in 12, 15 and 20 hours respectively. If A is open all the time and B and C are open for one hour each alternately, the tank will be full in

  1. 6 hrs
  2. 26 3 hrs
  3. 7 hrs
  4. 17 2

3071. Pipe A can fill a tank in 10 hours. Pipe B can fill the same tank in 15 hours. Pipe C can empty the full tank in 20 hours. Pipes A, B and C are opened alternatively for one hour each. If A is opened first, then how many hours will they take to fill the empty tank? (M.B.A., 2004)

  1. 24 hrs
  2. 224 3 hrs
  3. 25 hrs
  4. 26 hrs

3072. A booster pump can be used for filling as well as for emptying a tank. The capacity of the tank is 2400 m3. The emptying capacity of the tank is 10 m3 per minute higher than its filling capacity and the pump needs 8 minutes lesser to empty the tank than it needs to fill it. What if the filling capacity of the pump?

  1. 50 m3/min
  2. 60 m3/min
  3. 72 m3/min
  4. None of these

3073. A leak in the bottom of a tank can empty the full tank in 8 hours. An inlet pipe fills water at the rate of 6 litres a minute. When the tank is full, the inlet is opened and due to the leak, the tank is empty in 12 hours. How many litres does the tank hold? (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 7580
  2. 7960
  3. 8290
  4. 8640

3074. Two pipes can fill a tank in 20 and 24 minutes respectively and a waste pipe can empty 3 gallons per minute. All the three pipes working together can fill the tank in 15 minutes. The capacity of the tank is :

  1. 60 gallons
  2. 100 gallons
  3. 120 gallons
  4. 180 gallons

3075. Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 137 2 minutes and 45 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are opened. The cistern will be filled in just half an hour, if the pipe B is turned off after (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. 5 min
  2. 9 min
  3. 10 min
  4. 15 min

3076. A cistern can be filled by two pipes filling separately in 12 and 16 minutes separately. Both the pipes are opened together for a certain time but being clogged, only 7 8 of the full quantity of water flows through the former and only 5 6 through the latter pipe. The obstructions, however, being suddenly removed, the cistern is filled in 3 minutes from that moment. How long was it before the full flow began? (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 12 2 min
  2. 13 2 min
  3. 14 2 min
  4. 15 2 min

3077. Three pipes can fill a reservoir in 10, 15 and 20 hours respectively. If the three taps are opened one after another in the given order, with a certain fixed time gap between them, the reservoir fills in 5 hours. The time gap is

  1. 15 min
  2. 30 min
  3. 45 min
  4. 1 hr

3078. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank in 6 hours. After working at it together for 2 hours, C is closed and A and B can fill the remaining part in 7 hours. The number of hours taken by C alone to fill the tank is (L.I.C.A.A.O., 2003)

  1. 10
  2. 12
  3. 14
  4. 16

3079. A bath can be filled by the cold water pipe in 10 minutes and by the hot water pipe in 15 minutes. A person leaves the bathroom after turning on both the pipes. He returns just when the bath should have been full. Finding however, the waste pipe was open, he closes it. In 4 minutes more, the bath is full. In what time will the waste water pipe empty it?

  1. 6 minutes
  2. 8 minutes
  3. 9 minutes
  4. None of these

3080. A large fresh water reservoir is fitted with two types of feeder pipes – hot water pipes and cold water pipes. Six cold water pipes alone can fill the reservoir in 12 hours. 3 cold water pipes and 9 hot water pipes together can fill the reservoir in 8 hours. How long will 5 hot water pipes alone take to fill the reservoir?

  1. 18 hrs 36 min
  2. 20 hrs 45 min
  3. 21 hrs 36 min
  4. None of these

3081. A town is supplied with water from a big overhead tank which is fed with a constant volume of water regularly. When the tank is full, if 32000 gallons are used daily, the supply fails in 50 days. However, if 37000 gallons are used daily, the supply lasts for 40 days only. How much water can be used daily without the supply ever failing?

  1. 12000 gallons
  2. 15000 gallons
  3. 18000 gallons
  4. 20000 gallons

3082. Water flows through a cylindrical pipe of internal diameter 7 cm at the rate of 5 m/s. The time, in minutes, the pipe would take to fill an empty rect- angular tank 4m × 3m × 2.31m is [CDS, 2016]

  1. 28
  2. 24
  3. 20
  4. 12

3083. An outlet pipe can empty a cistern in 3 hours. In what time will the empty 2 3 part of the cistern? [DMRC—Customer Relationship Assistant

  1. 3 hours
  2. 5 hours
  3. 2 hours
  4. 4 hours

3084. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 24h and 30 h respectively. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously in the empty tank, how much time will be taken by them to fill it? [UPSSC—Lower Subordinate (Pre.) Exam, 2016]

  1. 13h 20 min
  2. 12h 10min
  3. 14h
  4. 10h 5min

3085. A tank is 7 metre long and 4 metre wide. At what speed should water run through a pipe 5 cm broad and 4 cm deep so that in 6 hours and 18 minutes water level in the tank rise by 4.5 metre? [DMRC—Train Operator (Station Controller) Exam, 2016]

  1. 10 km/hr.
  2. 12 km/hr.
  3. 8 km/hr.
  4. None of these

3086. A tank is fitted with two taps A and B. In how much time will the tank be full if both the taps are opened together? (SNAP, 2005) I. A is 50% more efficient than B. II. A alone takes 16 hours to fill the tank. III. B alone takes 24 hours to fill the tank.

  1. II and III only
  2. All I, II and III
  3. I and II only
  4. I and III only
  5. Any two of the three

3087. If both the pipes are opened, how many hours will be taken to fill the tank? I. The capacity of the tank is 400 litres. II. The pipe A fills the tank in 4 hours. III. The pipe B fills the tank in 6 hours.

  1. Only I and II
  2. Only II and III
  3. All I, II and III
  4. Any two of the three
  5. Even with all the three statements, answer cannot be given.

3088. A water tank has been filled with two filler taps P and Q and a drain pipe R. Taps P and Q fill at the rate of 5 litres per minute and 9 litres per minute respectively. What is the capacity of the tank? (M.A.T., 2006) I. Tap R drains out at the rate of 6 litres per minute. II. If all the three taps are opened simultaneously, then the tank is filled in 14 2 hours. III. Tap R drains the filled tank in 15 hours.

  1. II and either I or III
  2. Either I or II
  3. II and III together
  4. Any one of them

3089. Ayesha can complete a piece of work in 16 days. Amita can complete the same piece of work in 8 days. If both of them work together in how many days can they complete the same piece of work?

  1. 24 days5
  2. 15 days3
  3. 6 days
  4. 12 days
  5. None of these

3090. A can complete a certain work in 4 minutes, B in 5 minutes, C in 6 minutes, D in 10 minutes and E in 12 minutes. The average number of units of work completed by them per minute will be (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 0.16
  2. 0.40
  3. 0.80
  4. None of these

3091. A can finish a work in 18 days and B can do the same work in half the time taken by A. Then, working together, what part of the same work they can finish in a day ? (S.S.C., 2002)

  1. 1 6
  2. 1 9
  3. 2 5
  4. 2 7

3092. A tyre has two punctures. The first puncture alone would have made the tyre flat in 9 minutes and the second alone would have done it in 6 minutes. If air leaks out at a constant rate, how long does it take both the punctures together to make it flat ?

  1. 11 minutes2
  2. 13 minutes2
  3. 33 minutes5
  4. 14 minutes4

3093. A can knit a pair of socks in 3 days. B can knit the same pair in 9 days. If they are knitting together, then in how many days will they knit two pairs of socks? (R.R.B., 2004)

  1. 3 days
  2. 4 days
  3. 14 days2
  4. 5 days

3094. A can complete a work in 6 days while B can complete the same work in 12 days. If they work together and complete it, the portion of the work done by A is

  1. 1 3
  2. 1 4
  3. 1 2
  4. 2 3

3095. A can do a piece of work in 8 days and B can do the same piece of work in 12 days. A and B together complete the same piece of work and get ₹ 200 as the combined wages. B’s share of the wages will be

  1. ₹ 75
  2. ₹ 80
  3. ₹ 85
  4. ₹ 90

3096. George takes 8 hours to copy a 50-page manuscript while Sonia can copy the same manuscript in 6 hours. How many hours would it take them to copy a 100-page manuscript, if they work together? (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 66 7
  2. 9
  3. 59 7
  4. 14

3097. A and B together complete a piece of work in T days. If A alone completes the work in T + 3 days and B alone completes the piece of work in T + 12 days, what is T? (S.B.I.P.O., 2008)

  1. 3 days
  2. 9 days
  3. 12 days
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3098. Reena, Aastha and Shloka can independently complete a piece of work in 6 hours, 4 hours and 12 hours respectively. If they work together, how much time will they take to complete that piece of work?

  1. 2 hours
  2. 5 hours
  3. 6 hours
  4. 8 hours
  5. None of these

3099. A man can do a job in 15 days. His father takes 20 days and his son finishes it in 25 days. How long will they take to complete the job if they all work together?

  1. Less than 6 days
  2. Exactly 6 days
  3. Approximately 6.4 days
  4. More than 10 days

3100. Amit and Sumit can plough a field in 4 days. Sumit alone can plough the field in 6 days. In how many days will Amit alone plough the field? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 10 days
  2. 12 days
  3. 14 days
  4. 15 days

3101. Two spinning machines A and B can together produce 3,00,000 metres of cloth in 10 hours. If machine B alone can produce the same amount of cloth in 15 hours, then how much cloth can machine A produce alone in 10 hours? (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 50,000 metres
  2. 1,00,000 metres
  3. 1,50,000 metres
  4. 2,00,000 metres

3102. X, Y and Z complete a work in 6 days. X or Y alone can do the same work in 16 days. In how many days Z alone can finish the same work? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 12
  2. 16
  3. 24
  4. 36

3103. A can lay railway track between two given stations in 16 days and B can do the same job in 12 days. With the help of C, they did the job in 4 days only. Then, C alone can do the job in : (S.S.C., 2003)

  1. 19 days5
  2. 29 days5
  3. 39 days5
  4. 10 days

3104. A can complete 1 3 of a work in 5 days and B, 2 5 of the work in 10 days. In how many days both A and B together can complete the work? (S.S.C., 2010; P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 17 2
  2. 48 5
  3. 39 8
  4. 10

3105. X can do 1 4 of a work in 10 days, Y can do 40% of the work in 40 days and Z can do 1 3 of the work in 13 days. Who will complete the work first ?

  1. X
  2. Y
  3. Z
  4. X and Z both

3106. A man and a boy together can do a certain amount of digging in 40 days. Their speeds in digging are in the ratio of 8 : 5. How many days will the boy take to complete the work if engaged alone? (R.R.B., 2005)

  1. 52 days
  2. 68 days
  3. 80 days
  4. 104 days

3107. A takes twice as much time as B or thrice as much time as C to finish a piece of work. Working together, they can finish the work in 2 days. B can do the work alone in : (S.S.C., 2002)

  1. 4 days
  2. 6 days
  3. 8 days
  4. 12 days

3108. Work done by A in one day is half of the work done by B in one day. Work done by B is half of the work done by C in one day. If C alone can complete the work in 7 days, in how many days can A, B and C together complete the work? (S.B.I.P.O., 2008)

  1. 4
  2. 14
  3. 21
  4. 28
  5. None of these

3109. Rosa can eat 32 rosogollas in one hour. Her sister Lila needs three hours to eat the same number. How much time will they take to eat 32 rosogollas together? (R.R.B., 2005)

  1. 45 minutes
  2. 75 minutes
  3. 90 minutes
  4. None of these

3110. A conveyor belt delivers baggage at the rate of 3 tons in 5 minutes and a second conveyor belt delivers baggage at the rate of 1 ton in 2 minutes. How much time will it take to get 33 tons of baggage delivered using both the conveyor belts together? (P.C.S., 2006)

  1. 25 min 30 sec
  2. 30 min
  3. 35 min
  4. 45 min

3111. A manufacturer builds a machine which will address 500 envelopes in 8 minutes. He wishes to build another machine so that when both are operating together they will address 500 envelopes in 2 minutes. The equation used to find how many minutes x it would require the second machine to address 500 envelopes alone, is (M.B.A., 2011)

  1. 8 – x = 2
  2. +=111 82 x
  3. +=500 500 5008 x
  4. 128 xx+=

3112. Computer A takes 3 minutes to process an input while computer B takes 5 minutes. If computers A, B and C can process an average of 14 inputs in one hour, how many minutes does computer C alone take to process one input? (M.C.A., 2009)

  1. 4
  2. 6
  3. 10
  4. None of these

3113. Bob and David are two typists. One afternoon, they were each given 40 pages for typing. They divided the work equally but David finished 20 minutes before Bob who took 2 hours for the same. The next afternoon, they were again given 77 pages to type. However, this time they decided to divide the work such that they finished typing simultaneously. How many pages did Bob have to type?

  1. 35
  2. 36
  3. 40
  4. 42

3114. P, Q and R are three typists who working simultaneously can type 216 pages in 4 hours. In one hour, R can type as many pages more than Q as Q can type more than P. During a period of five hours, R can type as many pages as P can during seven hours. How many pages does each of them type per hour ? (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 14, 17, 20
  2. 15, 17, 22
  3. 15, 18, 21
  4. 16, 18, 22

3115. Ronald and Elan are working on an assignment. Ronald takes 6 hours to type 32 pages on a computer, while Elan takes 5 hours to type 40 pages. How much time will they take, working together on two different computers to type an assignment of 110 pages ? (SCMHRD, 2002)

  1. 7 hours 30 minutes
  2. 8 hours
  3. 8 hours 15 minutes
  4. 8 hours 25 minutes

3116. Cloth Makers Inc. has p spindles, each of which can produce q metres of cloth on an average in r minutes. If the spindles are made to run with no interruption, then how many hours will it take for 20,000 metres of cloth to be produced? (M.A.T., 2004)

  1. 20000 pq r
  2. 20000 rq p
  3. 20000 r pq
  4. 20000 60 r pq

3117. Two workers A and B are engaged to do a work. A working alone takes 8 hours more to complete the job than if both worked together. If B worked alone, he would need 14 2 hours more to complete the job than they both working together. What time would they take to do the work together ? (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. 4 hours
  2. 5 hours
  3. 6 hours
  4. 7 hours

3118. Three friends Anne, Bob and Chris work together to do a certain job. The time it takes them to do the work together is 6 hours less than Anne would have take alone, 1 hour less than Bob would have taken alone and half the time Chris would have taken working alone. How long did it take them to complete the job, working together? (M.B.A., 2010)

  1. 20 min
  2. 30 min
  3. 40 min
  4. 50 min

3119. To do a piece of work, B takes 3 times as long as A and C together and C twice as long as A and B together. If A, B and C together can complete the work in 10 days, how long would A take alone to complete it?

  1. 24 days
  2. 30 days
  3. 36 days
  4. 40 days

3120. P can complete a work in 12 days working 8 hours a day. Q can complete the same work in 8 days working 10 hours a day. If both P and Q work together, working 8 hours a day, in how many days can they complete the work ?

  1. 55 11
  2. 65 11
  3. 56 11
  4. 66 11
  5. None of these

3121. A and B together can complete a work in 12 days, B and C together can complete the same work in 8 days and A and C together can complete it in 16 days. In total, how many days do A, B and C together take to complete the same work?

  1. 53 12
  2. 93 13
  3. 57 12
  4. 57 13
  5. None of these

3122. A can do a piece of work in 4 hours, B and C together in 3 hours, and A and C together in 2 hours. How long will B alone take to do it? (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 8 hours
  2. 10 hours
  3. 12 hours
  4. 24 hours

3123. A and B can do a work in 8 days, B and C can do the same work in 12 days. A, B and C together can finish it in 6 days. A and C together will do it in (S.S.C., 2006)

  1. 4 days
  2. 6 days
  3. 8 days
  4. 12 days

3124. A and B together can do a job in 2 days; B and C can do it in 4 days ; A and C in 22 days.5 The number of days required for A to do the job alone is (M.B.A., 2011)

  1. 1
  2. 3
  3. 6
  4. 12

3125. A and B can do a piece of work in 5 days; B and C can do it in 7 days; A and C can do it in 4 days. Who among these will take the least time if put to do it alone ?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. Data inadequate

3126. A and B can do a piece of work in 12 days, B and C in 8 days and C and A in 6 days. How long would B take to do the same work alone? (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 24 days
  2. 32 days
  3. 40 days
  4. 48 days

3127. A can build a wall in the same time in which B and C together can do it. If A and B together could do it in 25 days and C alone in 35 days, in what time could B alone do it? (N.M.A.T., 2008)

  1. 90 days
  2. 100 days
  3. 175 days
  4. None of these

3128. Madhu takes twice as much time as Uma to complete a work and Rahul does it in the same time as Madhu and Uma together. If all three working together can finish the work in 6 days, then the time taken by Madhu to finish the work is (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. 12 days
  2. 14 days
  3. 36 days
  4. 40 days

3129. A takes 5 days more than B to do a certain job and 9 days more than C; A and B together can do the job in the same time as C. How many days A would take to do it?

  1. 5
  2. 10
  3. 15
  4. 20

3130. A works twice as fast as B. If B can complete a work in 12 days independently, the number of days in which A and B can together finish the work is

  1. 4 days
  2. 6 days
  3. 8 days
  4. 18 days

3131. A is twice as good a workman as B. If they work together, they can complete a job in 18 days. If A alone does the job, in how many days he will complete the job? (Hotel Management, 2010)

  1. 27 days
  2. 36 days
  3. 40 days
  4. 54 days

3132. David and Michael together can finish a job in 4 days 19 hrs 12 min. If David works at two-thirds Michael’s speed, how long does it take Michael alone to finish the same job?

  1. 8 days
  2. 12 days
  3. 15 days
  4. None of these

3133. A is thrice as good a workman as B and so takes 60 days less than B for doing a job. The time in which they can do the job together is

  1. 122 days2
  2. 30 days
  3. 45 days
  4. 60 days

3134. A and B can do a job together in 7 days. A is 31 4 times as efficient as B. The same job can be done by A alone in : (S.S.C., 2003)

  1. 19 days3
  2. 11 days
  3. 112 days4
  4. 116 days3

3135. Kamal can do a work in 15 days. Bimal is 50% more efficient than Kamal. The number of days, Bimal will take to do the same piece of work, is

  1. 5 hours
  2. 15 hours2
  3. 6 hours
  4. 16 hours2

3136. A is 30% more efficient than B. How much time will they, working together, take to complete a job which A alone could have done in 23 days ?

  1. 11 days
  2. 13 days
  3. 320 days17
  4. None of these

3137. A can do a piece of work in 10 days working 8 hours per day. If B is two-thirds as efficient as A, then in how many days can B alone do the same piece of work, working 5 hours per day?

  1. 15
  2. 18
  3. 20
  4. 24

3138. A does half as much work as B in one-sixth of the time. If together they take 10 days to complete a work, how much time shall B alone take to do it? (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 30 days
  2. 40 days
  3. 50 days
  4. 70 days

3139. A is 50% as efficient as B. C does half of the work done by A and B together. If C alone does the work in 40 days, then A, B and C together can do the work in:

  1. 113 days3
  2. 15 days
  3. 20 days
  4. 30 days

3140. Two workers A and B working together completed a job in 5 days. If A worked twice as efficiently as he actually did and B worked 1 3 as efficiently as he actually did, the work would have been completed in 3 days. A alone could complete the work in :

  1. 15 days4
  2. 16 days4
  3. 17 days2
  4. None of these

3141. A can do a work in 15 days and B in 20 days. If they work on it together for 4 days, then the fraction of the work that is left is :

  1. 1 4
  2. 1 10
  3. 7 15
  4. 8 15

3142. A can do a piece of work in 15 days, which B can do in 10 days. B worked at it for 8 days. A can finish the remaining work in (R.R.B., 2004)

  1. 2 days
  2. 3 days
  3. 5 days
  4. 10 days

3143. A and B can complete a work in 18 days and 15 days respectively. They started doing the work together but after 3 days A had to leave and B alone completed the remaining work. The whole work was completed in

  1. 39 days4
  2. 110 days4
  3. 112 days2
  4. 312 days4

3144. A, B and C can separately do a work in 12, 15 and 20 days respectively. They started to work together but C left after 2 days. The remaining work will be finished in (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 4 days
  2. 5 days
  3. 6 days
  4. 15 days

3145. A can complete a piece of work in 18 days, B in 20 days and C in 30 days. B and C together start the work and are forced to leave after 2 days. The time taken by A alone to complete the remaining work is (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 10 days
  2. 12 days
  3. 15 days
  4. 16 days

3146. A can complete a piece of work in 10 days, B in 15 days and C in 20 days. A and C worked together for 2 days and then A was replaced by B. In how many days, altogether, was the work completed?

  1. 6
  2. 8
  3. 10
  4. 12

3147. A machine P can print one lakh books in 8 hours, machine Q can print the same number of books in 10 hours while machine R can print them in 12 hours. All the machines are started at 9 a.m. while machine P is closed at 11 a.m. and the remaining two machines complete the work. Approximately at what time will the work be finished ?

  1. 11 : 30 a.m.
  2. 12 noon
  3. 12 : 30 p.m.
  4. 1 p.m.

3148. A and B can do a piece of work in 30 days, while B and C can do the same work in 24 days and C and A in 20 days. They all work together for 10 days when B and C leave. How many days more will A take to finish the work ?

  1. 18 days
  2. 24 days
  3. 30 days
  4. 36 days

3149. X and Y can do a piece of work in 20 days and 12 days respectively. X started the work alone and then after 4 days Y joined him till the completion of the work. How long did the work last ?

  1. 6 days
  2. 10 days
  3. 15 days
  4. 20 days

3150. A completes 7 10 of a work in 15 days. Then he completes the remaining work with the help of B in 4 days. The time required for A and B together to complete the entire work is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 18 days4
  2. 110 days2
  3. 212 days3
  4. 113 days3

3151. A man and a boy can do a piece of work in 24 days. If the man works alone for the last 6 days, it is completed in 26 days. How long would the boy take to do it alone? (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 20 days
  2. 24 days
  3. 36 days
  4. 72 days

3152. A and B can together finish a work in 30 days. They worked together for 20 days and then B left. After another 20 days, A finished the remaining work. In how many days A alone can finish the job ? (S.S.C., 2003)

  1. 40
  2. 50
  3. 54
  4. 60

3153. X can do a piece of work in 40 days. He works at it for 8 days and then Y finished it in 16 days. How long will they together take to complete the work ?

  1. 113 days3
  2. 15 days
  3. 20 days
  4. 56 days

3154. A, B and C together can complete a piece of work in 10 days. All the three started working at it together and after 4 days A left. Then B and C together completed the work in 10 more days. A alone could complete the work in :

  1. 15 days
  2. 16 days
  3. 25 days
  4. 50 days

3155. A does 4 5 of a work in 20 days. He then calls in B and they together finish the remaining work in 3 days. How long B alone would take to do the whole work ?

  1. 23 days
  2. 37 days
  3. 137 days2
  4. 40 days

3156. A and B together can do a piece of work in 30 days. A having worked for 16 days, B finishes the remaining work alone in 44 days. In how many days shall B finish the whole work alone ?

  1. 30 days
  2. 40 days
  3. 60 days
  4. 70 days

3157. A and B together can do a piece of work in 12 days, which B and C together can do in 16 days. After A has been working at it for 5 days and B for 7 days, C finishes it in 13 days. In how many days C alone will do the work ?

  1. 16
  2. 24
  3. 36
  4. 48

3158. A and B can do a piece of work in 28 and 35 days respectively. They began to work together but A leaves after some time and B completed the remaining work in 17 days. After how many days did A leave?

  1. 57 days9
  2. 8 days
  3. 9 days
  4. 214 days5

3159. A can build up a wall in 8 days while B can break it in 3 days. A has worked for 4 days and then B joined to work with A for another 2 days only. In how many days will A alone build up the remaining part of the wall? (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 16 days3
  2. 7 days
  3. 17 days3
  4. 113 days3

3160. Anuj and Manoj can together paint their house in 30 days. After working for 20 days, Anuj has to go out and Manoj finishes the remaining work in the next 30 days. If Manoj had gone away after 20 days instead of Anuj, then Anuj would have completed the remaining work in (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 15 days
  2. 20 days
  3. 25 days
  4. 35 days

3161. A started a work and left after working for 2 days. Then B was called and he finished the work in 9 days. Had A left the work after working for 3 days, B would have finished the remaining work in 6 days. In how many days can each of them, working alone, finish the whole work? (N.M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 2.5 days, 7.5 days
  2. 5 days, 8.5 days
  3. 5 days, 15 days
  4. None of these

3162. Working together, Asha and Sudha can complete an assigned task in 20 days. However, if Asha worked alone and completed half the work and then Sudha takes over the task and completes the second half of the task, the task will be completed in 45 days. How long will Asha take to complete the task if she worked alone? Assume that Sudha is more efficient than Asha. (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. 25 days
  2. 30 days
  3. 60 days
  4. 65 days

3163. A can do a piece of work in 14 days which B can do in 21 days. They begin together but 3 days before the completion of the work, A leaves off. The total number of days to complete the work is (G.B.O., 2007)

  1. 36 5
  2. 18 2
  3. 110 5
  4. 113 2

3164. A, B and C can complete a work separately in 24, 36 and 48 days respectively. They started together but C left after 4 days of start and A left 3 days before the completion of the work. In how many days will the work be completed ?

  1. 15 days
  2. 22 days
  3. 25 days
  4. 35 days

3165. A, B and C can complete a work in 10, 12 and 15 days respectively. They started the work together. But A left the work 5 days before its completion. B also left the work 2 days after A left. In how many days was the work completed?

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 7
  4. 8

3166. A, B and C together earn ₹ 300 per day, while A and C together earn ₹ 188 and B and C together earn ₹ 152. The daily earning of C is :

  1. ₹ 40
  2. ₹ 68
  3. ₹ 112
  4. ₹ 150

3167. A, B and C are employed to do a piece of work for ₹ 529. A and B together are supposed to do 19 23 of the work and B and C together 8 23 of the work. What amount should A be paid ?

  1. ₹ 315
  2. ₹ 345
  3. ₹ 355
  4. ₹ 375

3168. Kim can do a work in 3 days while David can do the same work in 2 days. Both of them finish the work together and get ₹ 150. What is the share of Kim ?

  1. ₹ 30
  2. ₹ 60
  3. ₹ 70
  4. ₹ 75

3169. If A can do 1 4 of a work in 3 days and B can do 1 6 of the same work in 4 days, how much will A get if both work together and are paid ₹ 180 in all?

  1. ₹ 36
  2. ₹ 60
  3. ₹ 108
  4. ₹ 120

3170. A man and a boy received ₹ 800 as wages for 5 days for the work they did together. The man’s efficiency in the work was three times that of the boy. What are the daily wages of the boy? (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. ₹ 40
  2. ₹ 44
  3. ₹ 56
  4. ₹ 76

3171. Two men undertake to do a piece of work for ₹ 1400. The first man alone can do this work in 7 days while the second man alone can do this work in 8 days. If they working together complete this work in 3 days with the help of a boy, how should the money be divided? (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. ₹ 600, ₹ 550, ₹ 250
  2. ₹ 600, ₹ 525, ₹ 275
  3. ₹ 600, ₹ 500, ₹ 300
  4. ₹ 500, ₹ 525, ₹ 375

3172. A sum of money is sufficient to pay A’s wages for 21 days and B’s wages for 28 days. The same money is sufficient to pay the wages of both for : (ICET, 2005; G.B.O., 2007)

  1. 12 days
  2. 112 days4
  3. 14 days
  4. 124 days2

3173. A can do a piece of work in 10 days; B in 15 days. They work for 5 days. The rest of the work was finished by C in 2 days. If they get ₹ 1500 for the whole work, the daily wages of B and C are (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. ₹ 150
  2. ₹ 225
  3. ₹ 250
  4. ₹ 300

3174. The daily wages of a worker are ₹ 100. Five workers can do a work in 10 days. If you pay ₹ 20 more daily, they agree to do 25% more work daily. If the proposal is accepted, then the total amount that could be saved is

  1. ₹ 200
  2. ₹ 250
  3. ₹ 300
  4. ₹ 500

3175. A and B together can complete a work in 12 days. A alone can complete it in 20 days. If B does the work only for half a day daily, then in how many days A and B together will complete the work ?

  1. 110 days
  2. 11 days
  3. 15 days
  4. 20 days

3176. A, B and C completed a work costing ₹ 1800. A worked for 6 days, B for 4 days and C for 9 days. If their daily wages are in the ratio of 5 : 6 : 4, how much amount will be received by A? (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. ₹ 600
  2. ₹ 750
  3. ₹ 800
  4. ₹ 900

3177. A and B can complete a piece of work in 12 and 18 days respectively. A begins to do the work and they work alternatively one at a time for one day each. The whole work will be completed in (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 114 days3
  2. 215 days3
  3. 116 days3
  4. 218 days3

3178. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 11 days, 20 days and 55 days respectively, working alone. How soon can the work be done if A is assisted by B and C on alternate days ?

  1. 7 days
  2. 8 days
  3. 9 days
  4. 10 days

3179. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days can A do the work if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?

  1. 12 days
  2. 15 days
  3. 16 days
  4. 18 days

3180. A can do a piece of work in 90 days, B in 40 days and C in 12 days. They work for a day each in turn i.e., first day A does it alone, B does it the second day and C the third day. After that A does it for another day, and so on. After finishing the work they get ₹ 240. If the wages are divided in proportion to the work done by them, find what each will get. (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. A ₹ 24, B ₹ 54 and C ₹ 162
  2. A ₹ 22, B ₹ 50 and C ₹ 132
  3. A ₹ 26, B ₹ 52 and C ₹ 142
  4. A ₹ 20, B ₹ 44 and C ₹ 182

3181. A and B can finish a work, working on alternate days, in 19 days, when A works on the first day. However, they can finish the work, working on alternate days, in 519 6 days, when B works on the first day. How many days does A alone take to finish the work?

  1. 111 days2
  2. 15 days
  3. 18 days
  4. 21 days

3182. A and B can separately do a piece of work in 20 and 15 days respectively. They worked together for 6 days, after which B was replaced by C. If the work was finished in next 4 days, then the number of days in which C alone could do the work will be

  1. 30
  2. 35
  3. 40
  4. 60

3183. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 36, 54 and 72 days respectively. They started the work but A left 8 days before the completion of the work while B left 12 days before the completion. The number of days for which C worked is

  1. 4
  2. 8
  3. 12
  4. 24

3184. Twenty women can do a work in sixteen days. Sixteen men can complete the same work in fifteen days. What is the ratio between the capacity of a man and a woman ?

  1. 3 : 4
  2. 4 : 3
  3. 5 : 3
  4. Data inadequate

3185. 10 men can complete a piece of work in 15 days and 15 women can complete the same work in 12 days. If all the 10 men and 15 women work together, in how many days will the work get completed ?

  1. 6
  2. 16 3
  3. 26 3
  4. 27 3

3186. A job can be done by 3 skilled worksmen in 20 days or by 5 boys in 30 days. How many days will they take if they work together? (M.A.T., 2009)

  1. 8 days
  2. 10 days
  3. 11 days
  4. 12 days

3187. Five men are working to complete a work in 15 days. After five days 10 women are accompanied by them to complete the work in next 5 days. If the work is to be done by women only, then in how many days could the work be over if 10 women have started it ?

  1. 10 days
  2. 12 days
  3. 15 days
  4. 18 days

3188. A contractor undertakes to do a piece of work in 40 days. He engages 100 men at the beginning and 100 more after 35 days and completes the work in stipulated time. If he had not engaged the additional men, how many days behind the schedule the work should have been finished? (G.B.O., 2007)

  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. 8

3189. Seven men can complete a work in 12 days. They started the work and after 5 days, two men left. In how many days will the work be completed by the remaining men ?

  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. 8
  5. None of these

3190. 12 men complete a work in 9 days. After they have worked for 6 days, 6 more men join them. How many days will they take to complete the remaining work ?

  1. 2 days
  2. 3 days
  3. 4 days
  4. 5 days
  5. None of these

3191. Three men, four women and six children can complete a work in seven days. A woman does double the work a man does and a child does half the work a man does. How many women alone can complete this work in 7 days ?

  1. 7
  2. 8
  3. 12
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3192. A man, a woman and a boy can complete a job in 3, 4 and 12 days respectively. How many boys must assist 1 man and 1 woman to complete the job in 1 4 of a day ?

  1. 1
  2. 4
  3. 19
  4. 41

3193. 10 men and 15 women together can complete a work in 6 days. It takes 100 days for one man alone to complete the same work. How many days will be required for one woman alone to complete the same work ?

  1. 90
  2. 125
  3. 145
  4. 150
  5. None of these

3194. A child can do a piece of work 15 hours slower than a woman. The child works for 18 hours on the job and then the woman takes charge for 6 hours. In this manner, 3 5 of the work can be completed. To complete the job now, how much time will the woman take? (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 12 hours
  2. 18 hours
  3. 24 hours
  4. 30 hours

3195. A group of workers having equal efficiency can complete a job in 4 days. But it so happened that every alternate day starting from the second day, 3 workers are withdrawn from the job and every alternate day starting from the third day, 2 workers are added to the group. If it now takes 7 days to complete the job, find the number of workers who started the job.

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 8

3196. A man, a woman and a boy can do a piece of work in 6, 9 and 18 days respectively. How many boys must assist one man and one woman to do the work in 1 day? (N.M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 9
  4. 13

3197. If 3 men or 9 boys can finish a piece of work in 21 days, in how many days can 5 men and 6 boys together do the same piece of work?

  1. 8 days
  2. 12 days
  3. 14 days
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3198. If 2 men or 6 women or 4 boys can finish a work in 99 days, how many days will one man, one woman and one boy together take to finish the same work?

  1. 44 days
  2. 54 days
  3. 64 days
  4. 104 days
  5. None of these

3199. 8 men can complete a piece of work in 20 days. 8 women can complete the same work in 32 days. In how many days will 5 men and 8 women together complete the same work?

  1. 10 days
  2. 12 days
  3. 14 days
  4. 16 days
  5. None of these

3200. 18 men can complete a piece of work in 63 days. 9 women take 189 days to complete the same piece of work. How many days will 4 men, 9 women and 12 children together take to complete the piece of work if 7 children alone can complete the piece of work in 486 days? (I.R.M.A., 2007)

  1. 54
  2. 63
  3. 76
  4. 81
  5. None of these

3201. 16 men can finish a work in 24 days and 48 boys can finish the same work in 16 days. 12 men started the work and after 4 days 12 boys joined them. In how many days can they finish the remaining work? (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 6
  2. 12
  3. 16
  4. None of these

3202. 12 men can complete a piece of work in 4 days, while 15 women can complete the same work in 4 days. 6 men start working on the job and after working for 2 days, all of them stopped working. How many women should be put on the job to complete the remaining work, if it is to be completed in 3 days?

  1. 15
  2. 18
  3. 22
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

3203. Twelve children take sixteen days to complete a work which can be completed by eight adults in twelve days. Sixteen adults started working and after three days ten adults left and four children joined them. How many days will they take to complete the remaining work ?

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 8
  5. None of these

3204. Sixteen men can complete a work in twelve days. Twenty-four children can complete the same work in eighteen days. Twelve men and eight children started working and after eight days three more children joined them. How many days will they now take to complete the remaining work ?

  1. 2 days
  2. 4 days
  3. 6 days
  4. 8 days
  5. None of these

3205. Twenty-four men can complete a work in sixteen days. Thirty-two women can complete the same work in twenty-four days. Sixteen men and sixteen women started working and worked for twelve days. How many more men are to be added to complete the remaining work in 2 days ?

  1. 16
  2. 24
  3. 36
  4. 48
  5. None of these

3206. 5 men and 2 boys working together can do four times as much work as a man and a boy. Working capacities of a man and a boy are in the ratio :

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 2 : 1
  3. 1 : 3
  4. 3 : 1

3207. If 12 men and 16 boys can do a piece of work in 5 days; 13 men and 24 boys can do it in 4 days, then the ratio of the daily work done by a man to that of a boy is

  1. 2 : 1
  2. 3 : 1
  3. 3 : 2
  4. 5 : 4

3208. 4 men and 6 women can complete a work in 8 days, while 3 men and 7 women can complete it in 10 days. In how many days will 10 women complete it ?

  1. 35
  2. 40
  3. 45
  4. 50

3209. 4 men and 10 women were put on a work. They completed 1 3 of the work in 4 days. After this 2 men and 2 women were increased. They completed 2 9 more of the work in 2 days. If the remaining work is to be completed in 3 days, then how many more women must be increased? (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 8
  2. 32
  3. 50
  4. 55

3210. One man, 3 women and 4 boys can do a piece of work in 96 hours, 2 men and 8 boys can do it in 80 hours, 2 men and 3 women can do it in 120 hours. 5 men and 12 boys can do it in :

  1. 139 hours11
  2. 742 hours11
  3. 743 hours11
  4. 44 hours

3211. If 6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days while 26 men and 48 boys can do the same in 2 days, the time taken by 15 men and 20 boys in doing the same type of work will be

  1. 4 days
  2. 5 days
  3. 6 days
  4. 7 days

3212. If 5 men and 3 women can reap 18 acre of crop in 4 days; 3 men and 2 women can reap 22 acre of crop in 8 days, then how many men are required to join 21 women to reap 54 acre of crop in 6 days? (M.C.A., 2005)

  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 10
  4. 12

3213. 25 men with 10 boys can do in 6 days as much work as 21 men with 30 boys can do in 5 days. How many boys must help 40 men to do the same work in 4 days? (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 5
  2. 10
  3. 20
  4. 40

3214. 40 men can complete a piece of work in 15 days. 20 more men join them after 5 days they start doing work. How many days will be required by them to finish the remaining work? [ESIC—UDC, Exam 2016]

  1. 7 2 3 days
  2. 6 1 5 days
  3. 8 1 4 days
  4. 6 2 3 days

3215. 12 men can do a piece of work in 24 days. How many days are needed to complete the work, if 8 men do this work? [Indian Railway Gr. ‘D’ Exam, 2014]

  1. 28
  2. 36
  3. 48
  4. 52

3216. A can do in one day three times the work done by B in one day. They together finish 2 5 of the work in 9 days. The number of days by which B can do the work alone is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam , 2015]

  1. 90 days
  2. 120 days
  3. 100 days
  4. 30 days

3217. A, B and C can complete a piece of work in 24, 5 and 12 days respectively. Working together, they will complete the same work in [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 7 24 days
  2. 3 3 7 days
  3. 4 days
  4. 313 1 days

3218. X can do a piece of work in 24 days. When he had worked for 4 days, Y joined him. If complete work was finished in 16 days, Y can alone finish that work in [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 18 days
  2. 27 days
  3. 36 days
  4. 42 days

3219. 6 men can complete a piece of work in 12 days, 8 women can complete the same piece of work in 18 days and 18 children can do it in 10 days. 4 men, 12 women and 20 children do the work for 2 days. If the remaining work be completed by men only in 1 day, how many men will be required? [RBI Officer Gr. ‘B’ (Phase-1) Online Exam, 2015]

  1. 36
  2. 24
  3. 18
  4. Cannot be determined

3220. 16 men can finish a piece of work in 49 days. 14 men started working and in 8 days they could finish certain amount of work. If it is required to finish the remaining work in 24 days. How many more men should be added to the existing workforce? [IBPS—RRB Office Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 21
  2. 28
  3. 16
  4. 14

3221. In how many days can A and B working together complete a job ? I. A alone can complete the job in 30 days. II. B alone can complete the job in 40 days. III. B takes 10 days more than A to complete the job.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. Any two of the three
  5. All I, II and III

3222. In how many days A alone can complete a work? I. A and B can complete the work in 8 days. II. B takes twice the time taken by A in completing the work. III. A and B together take 1 3 of the time taken by B alone in completing the work.

  1. Only I and III
  2. Only II and III
  3. All I, II and III
  4. Any two of the three
  5. None of these

3223. In how many days can the work be completed by A and B together ? (M.A.T., 2005) I. A alone can complete the work in 8 days. II. If A alone works for 5 days and B alone works for 6 days, the work gets completed. III. B alone can complete the work in 16 days.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. Any two of the three
  4. II and either I or III
  5. None of these

3224. In how many days will B alone complete the work? I. A and B together can complete the work in 8 days. II. B and C together can complete the work in 10 days. III. A and C together can complete the work in 12 days.

  1. Only I and II
  2. Only II and III
  3. All I, II and III
  4. Question cannot be answered with the information in all the three statements
  5. None of these

3225. How many workers are required for completing the construction work in 10 days ? I. 20% of the work can be completed by 8 workers in 8 days. II. 20 workers can complete the work in 16 days. III. One-eighth of the work can be completed by 8 workers in 5 days.

  1. I only
  2. II and III only
  3. III only
  4. I and III only
  5. Any one of the three

3226. In how many days can 16 men and 8 women together complete the piece of work ?

  1. Only I and II
  2. Only II and III
  3. Only I and III
  4. Only I and either II or III
  5. Any two of the three

3227. In how many days can the work be done by 9 men and 15 women ? I. 6 men and 5 women can complete the work in 6 days. II. 3 men and 4 women can complete the work in 10 days. III. 18 men and 15 women can complete the work in 2 days.

  1. III only
  2. All I, II and III
  3. Any two of the three
  4. Any one of the three
  5. None of these

3228. In how many days can 10 women finish a work? (N.M.A.T. 2005; R.B.I., 2002) I. 10 men can complete the work in 6 days. II. 10 men and 10 women together can complete the work in 33 7 days. III. If 10 men work for 3 days and thereafter 10 women replace them, the remaining work is completed in 4 days.

  1. Any two of the three
  2. I and II only
  3. II and III only
  4. I and III only
  5. None of these

3229. In how many days can the work be completed by A, B and C together? I. A and B together can complete the work in 6 days. II. B and C together can complete the work in 33 days.4 III. A and C together can complete the work in 13 days.3

  1. Any one of the three
  2. I only
  3. II only
  4. III only
  5. Information in all the three statements is necessary to answer the question.

3230. 8 men and 14 women are working together in a field. After working for 3 days, 5 men and 8 women leave the work. How many more days will be required to complete the work ? I. 19 men and 12 women together can complete the work in 18 days. II. 16 men can complete two-third s of the work in 16 days. III. In a day, the work done by three men is equal to the work done by four women. (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. III only
  4. I or II or III
  5. II or III only

3231. A speed of 30.6 km/hr is the same as (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 5.1 m/sec
  2. 8.5 m/sec
  3. 110.16 m/sec
  4. None of these

3232. A man riding his bicycle covers 150 metres in 25 seconds. What is his speed in km per hour? (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 20
  2. 21.6
  3. 23
  4. 25

3233. A bus covers a distance of 2924 km in 43 hours. What is the speed of the bus?

  1. 60 km/hr
  2. 68 km/hr
  3. 72 km/hr
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3234. A is travelling at 72 km per hour on a highway while B is travelling at a speed of 25 metres per second. What is the difference in their speeds in metres per second?

  1. 11 m/sec2
  2. 2 m/sec
  3. 3 m/sec
  4. 5 m/sec

3235. A motorist travelled between two towns, which are 65 km apart, in 2 hours and 10 minutes. Find the speed in metres per minute. (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 200
  2. 500
  3. 600
  4. 700

3236. In track meets both 100 yards and 100 metres are used as distances. By how many metres is 100 metres longer than 100 yards?

  1. 0.0856 m
  2. 0.856 m
  3. 1 m
  4. 8.56 m

3237. Which of the following trains is the fastest?

  1. 25 m/sec
  2. 1500 m/min
  3. 90 km/hr
  4. None of these

3238. A person crosses a 600 m long street in 5 minutes. What is his speed in km per hour?

  1. 3.6
  2. 7.2
  3. 8.4
  4. 10

3239. A car covers a distance of 432 km at the speed of 48 km/hr. In how many hours will the car cover this distance?

  1. 6 hours
  2. 7 hours
  3. 9 hours
  4. 12 hours
  5. None of these

3240. A man covered a distance of 180 km in 4 hours on a bike. How much distance will be cover on a bicycle in 8 hours if he rides the bicycle at one-sixth the speed of the bike?

  1. 54 km
  2. 60 km
  3. 72 km
  4. 84 km
  5. None of these

3241. The ratio of the speeds of a car, a train and a bus is 5 : 9 : 4. The average speed of the car, the bus and the train is 72 km/hr. What is the average speed of the car and the train together?

  1. 78 km/hr
  2. 82 km/hr
  3. 84 km/hr
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3242. Car A travels at the speed of 65 km/hr and reaches its destination in 8 hours. Car B travels at the speed of 70 km/hr and reaches its destination in 4 hours. What is the ratio of the distance covered by car A and car B respectively?

  1. 7 : 11
  2. 13 : 7
  3. 7 : 13
  4. 11 : 7
  5. None of these

3243. The average speed of a bus is one-third of the speed of a train. The train covers 1125 km in 15 hours. How much distance will the bus cover in 36 minutes?

  1. 12 km
  2. 18 km
  3. 21 km
  4. 75 km
  5. None of these

3244. The mileage of a motorbike A and a motorbike B is 42 km per litre and 52 km per litre respectively. Motorbike A covered 294 km and motorbike B covered 208 km. If the cost of 1 litre of petrol is ₹ 48, how much amount would be spent on petrol to cover the total distance by both the motor bikes together?

  1. ₹ 480
  2. ₹ 528
  3. ₹ 576
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3245. A train leaves Delhi at 4.10 P.M. and reaches Aligarh at 7.25 P.M. The average speed of the train is 40 km/hr. What is the distance from Delhi to Aligarh? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 120 km
  2. 130 km
  3. 135 km
  4. 140 km

3246. A is 10 miles west of B. C is 30 miles north of B. D is 20 miles east of C. What is the distance from A to D? (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 10 miles
  2. 30 miles
  3. 10 10 miles
  4. 10 13 miles
  5. 30 2 miles

3247. A plane flying north at 500 mph passes over a city at 12 noon. A plane flying east at the same altitude passes over the same city at 12 : 30 P.M. The plane is flying east at 400 mph. To the nearest hundred miles, how far apart are the two planes at 2 P.M.?

  1. 600 miles
  2. 1000 miles
  3. 1100 miles
  4. 1200 miles
  5. 1300 miles

3248. A train travels at the speed of 65 km/hr and halts at 8 junctions for a certain time. It covers a distance of 1300 km in 1 day (24 hours). How long does the train stop at each junction, if it halts for the same period of time at all the junctions?

  1. 20 minutes
  2. 30 minutes
  3. 40 minutes
  4. 60 minutes
  5. None of these

3249. Jane travelled 4 7 as many miles on foot as by water and 2 5 as many miles on horseback as by water. If she covered a total of 3036 miles, how many miles did she travel on foot? (SNAP, 2005)

  1. 1540
  2. 880
  3. 756
  4. 616

3250. A star is 8.1 × 1013 km away from the earth. Suppose light travels at the speed of 3.0 × 10 5 km per second. How long will it take the light from the star to reach the earth? (R.R.B., 2005)

  1. 7.5 × 10 3 hours
  2. 7.5 × 10 4 hours
  3. 2.7 × 10 10 seconds
  4. 2.7 × 10 11 seconds

3251. Akash leaves home for school which is 12 km from his house. After the school, he goes to his club which is 7 km from his school. If his house, school and club all fall in a line, then what is the minimum distance he has to travel to get back home?

  1. 5 km
  2. 7 km
  3. 12 km
  4. 17 km
  5. 19 km

3252. A train covers a distance of 1193 km3 in 14 4 hours with one stoppage of 10 minutes, two of 5 minutes and one of 3 minutes on the way. The average speed of the train is

  1. 48 km/hr
  2. 50 km/hr
  3. 55 km/hr
  4. 60 km/hr

3253. Deepa rides her bike at an average speed of 30 km/hr and reaches her destination in 6 hours. Hema covers the same distance in 4 hours. If Deepa increases her average speed by 10 km/ hr and Hema increases her average speed by 5 km/hr, what would be the difference in their time taken to reach the destination?

  1. 40 minutes
  2. 45 minutes
  3. 54 minutes
  4. 1 hour
  5. None of these

3254. A monkey climbing up a pole ascends 6 metres and slips 3 metres in alternate minutes. If the pole is 60 metres high, how long will it take the monkey to reach the top?

  1. 31 min
  2. 33 min
  3. 35 min
  4. 37 min

3255. An aeroplane flies twice as fast as a train which covers 60 miles in 80 minutes. What distance will the aeroplane cover in 20 minutes?

  1. 30 miles
  2. 35 miles
  3. 40 miles
  4. 50 miles

3256. A boy is running at a speed of p kmph to cover a distance of 1 km. But, due to the slippery ground, his speed is reduced by q kmph ( p > q). If he takes r hours to cover the distance, then (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 1 –pqr =
  2. r = p – q
  3. 1 pqr =+
  4. r = p + q

3257. Ravi can walk a certain distance in 40 days when he rests 9 hours a day. How long will he take to walk twice the distance, twice as fast and rest twice as long each day?

  1. 40 days
  2. 50 days
  3. 80 days
  4. 100 days

3258. A car is driven at the speed of 100 km/hr and stops for 10 minutes at the end of every 150 km. To cover a distance of 1000 km, it will take

  1. 9 hours
  2. 10 hours
  3. 11 hours
  4. 12 hours

3259. A man takes 50 minutes to cover a certain distance at a speed of 6 km/hr. If he walks with a speed of 10 km/hr, he covers the same distance in

  1. 10 minutes
  2. 20 minutes
  3. 30 minutes
  4. 40 minutes

3260. A truck covers a distance of 550 metres in 1 minute whereas a bus covers a distance of 33 kms in 45 minutes. The ratio of their speeds is

  1. 3 : 4
  2. 4 : 3
  3. 3 : 5
  4. 50 : 3

3261. The ratio between the speeds of two trains is 7 : 8. If the second train runs 400 kms in 4 hours, then the speed of the first train is

  1. 70 km/hr
  2. 75 km/hr
  3. 84 km/hr
  4. 87.5 km/hr

3262. A train travels at an average of 50 miles per hour for 12 2 hours and then travels at a speed of 70 miles per hour for 11 2 hours. How far did the train travel in the entire 4 hours?

  1. 120 miles
  2. 150 miles
  3. 200 miles
  4. 230 miles

3263. A man in a train notices that he can count 21 telephone posts in one minute. If they are known to be 50 metres apart, then at what speed is the train travelling?

  1. 55 km/hr
  2. 57 km/hr
  3. 60 km/hr
  4. 63 km/hr

3264. Sound is said to travel in air at about 1100 feet per second. A man hears the axe striking the tree, 11 5 seconds after he sees it strike the tree. How far is the man from the wood chopper? (M.B.A., 2002)

  1. 2197 ft
  2. 2420 ft
  3. 2500 ft
  4. 2629 ft

3265. An express train travelled at an average speed of 100 km/hr, stopping for 3 minutes after every 75 km. How long did it take to reach its destination 600 km from the starting point? (M.A.T., 2003)

  1. 6 hrs 21 min
  2. 6 hrs 24 min
  3. 6 hrs 27 min
  4. 6 hrs 30 min

3266. A certain distance is covered by a cyclist at a certain speed. If a jogger covers half the distance in double the time, the ratio of the speed of the jogger to that of the cyclist is :

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 2 : 1
  3. 1 : 4
  4. 4 : 1

3267. A motor car starts with the speed of 70 km/hr with its speed increasing every two hours by 10 kmph. In how many hours will it cover 345 kms?

  1. 12 hrs4
  2. 4 hrs 5 min
  3. 14 2 hrs
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3268. A bus moving at a speed of 24 m/s begins to slow at a rate of 3 m/s each second. How far does it go before stopping? (N.D.A., 2007)

  1. 48 m
  2. 60 m
  3. 72 m
  4. 96 m

3269. A boy goes three equal distances, each of length x km, with a speed of y km/hr, 3 5 y km/hr and 2 km/hr5 y respectively. If the total time taken is 1 hour, then x : y is equal to

  1. 6 : 13
  2. 6 : 23
  3. 6 : 31
  4. 6 : 37

3270. A long distance runner runs 9 laps of a 400 metres track everyday. His timings (in min) for four consecutive days are 88, 96, 89 and 87 respectively. On an average, how many metres/minute does the runner cover? (M.A.T., 2008)

  1. 17.78
  2. 40
  3. 90
  4. None of these

3271. An express train travelled at an average speed of 100 kmph, stopping for 3 minutes after 75 km. A local train travelled at a speed of 50 kmph, stopping for 1 minute after every 25 km. If the trains began travelling at the same time, how many kilometres did the local train travel in the time it took the express train to travel 600 km? (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 287.5 km
  2. 307.5 km
  3. 325 km
  4. 396 km

3272. A car starts running with the initial speed of 40 kmph, with its speed increasing every hour by 5 kmph. How many hours will it take to cover a distance of 385 km? (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 7 hours
  2. 18 2 hours
  3. 9 hours
  4. 19 hours2

3273. The speed of a car increases by 2 kms after every one hour. If the distance travelled in the first one hour was 35 kms, what was the total distance travelled in 12 hours?

  1. 456 kms
  2. 482 kms
  3. 552 kms
  4. 556 kms
  5. None of these

3274. A bus started its journey from Ramgarh and reached Devgarh in 44 minutes at its average speed of 50 km/hr. If the average speed of the bus is increased by 5 km/hr, how much time will it take to cover the same distance?

  1. 31 min
  2. 36 min
  3. 38 min
  4. 40 min
  5. 49 min

3275. The speeds of three cars are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. The ratio of the times taken by these cars to travel the same distance is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 2 : 3 : 4
  2. 4 : 3 : 2
  3. 4 : 3 : 6
  4. 6 : 4 : 3

3276. The speeds of A and B are in the ratio 3 : 4. A takes 20 minutes more than B to reach a destination. In what time does A reach the destination? (S.S.C. , 2007)

  1. 11 hours3
  2. 21 hours3
  3. 2 hours
  4. 22 hours3

3277. The speed of electric train is 25% more than that of steam engine train. What is the time taken by an electric train to cover a distance which a steam engine takes 4 hours 25 minutes to cover? (P.C.S., 2004)

  1. 13 hr10
  2. 113 15 hr
  3. 113 12 hr
  4. 83 hr15

3278. A takes 2 hours more than B to walk d km, but if A doubles his speed, then he can make it in 1 hour less than B. How much time does B require for walking d km? (R.R.B., 2005)

  1. hours2 d
  2. 3 hours
  3. 4 hours
  4. 2 hours3 d

3279. A train covers a distance of 10 km in 12 minutes. If its speed is decreased by 5 km/hr, the time taken by it to cover the same distance will be

  1. 10 min
  2. 11 min 20 sec
  3. 13 min
  4. 13 min 20 sec

3280. Anna left for city A from city B at 5.20 a.m. She travelled at the speed of 80 km/hr for 2 hours 15 minutes. After that the speed was reduced to 60 km/hr. If the distance between two cities is 350 kms, at what time did Anna reach city A?

  1. 9.20 a.m.
  2. 9.25 a.m.
  3. 9.35 a.m.
  4. 10.05 a.m.
  5. None of these

3281. An aeroplane covers a certain distance at a speed of 240 kmph in 5 hours. To cover the same distance in 21 3 hours, it must travel at a speed of

  1. 300 kmph
  2. 360 kmph
  3. 600 kmph
  4. 720 kmph

3282. A salesman travels a distance of 50 km in 2 hours and 30 minutes. How much faster, in kilometres per hour, on an average, must he travel to make such a trip in 5 6 hour less time? (Hotel Management, 2002)

  1. 10
  2. 20
  3. 30
  4. None of these

3283. A person has to cover a distance of 6 km in 45 minutes. If he covers one-half of the distance in two-thirds of the total time; to cover the remaining distance in the remaining time, his speed (in km/ hr) must be

  1. 6
  2. 8
  3. 12
  4. 15

3284. A man performs 3 5 of the total journey by rail, 7 20 by bus and the remaining 6.5 km on foot. His total journey is

  1. 65 km
  2. 100 km
  3. 120 km
  4. 130 km

3285. A person wishes to reach his destination 90 km away in 3 hours but for the first half of the journey his speed was 20 km/hr. His average speed for the rest of the journey should be (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 40 km/hr
  2. 0.75 km/min
  3. 1 km/min
  4. None of these

3286. A train is scheduled to cover the distance between two stations 46 km apart in one hour. If it travels 25 km at a speed of 40 km/hr, find the speed for the remaining journey to complete it in the scheduled time. (M.A.T., 2009)

  1. 36 km/hr
  2. 46 km/hr
  3. 56 km/hr
  4. 66 km/hr

3287. How long must a driver take to drive the final 70 miles of a trip if he wants to average 50 miles an hour for the entire trip and during the first part of the trip he drove 50 miles in 11 2 hours? (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 54 min
  2. 1 hour
  3. 66 min
  4. 70 min

3288. A can complete a journey in 10 hours. He travels first half of the journey at the rate of 21 km/hr and second half at the rate of 24 km/hr. Find the total journey in km.

  1. 220 km
  2. 224 km
  3. 230 km
  4. 234 km

3289. A motorcyclist completes a certain journey in 5 hours. He covers one-third distance at 60 km/hr and the rest at 80 km/hr. The length of the journey is

  1. 180 km
  2. 240 km
  3. 300 km
  4. 360 km

3290. A person travels equal distances with speeds of 3 km/hr, 4 km/hr and 5 km/hr and takes a total time of 47 minutes. The total distance (in km) is

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5

3291. A person travels 285 km in 6 hours in two stages. In the first part of the journey, he travels by bus at the speed of 40 km per hour. In the second part of the journey, he travels by train at the speed of 55 km per hour. How much distance did he travel by train? (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 145 km
  2. 165 km
  3. 185 km
  4. 205 km

3292. A is faster than B. A and B each walk 24 km. The sum of their speeds is 7 km/hr and the sum of times taken by them is 14 hours. Then, A’s speed is equal to

  1. 3 km/hr
  2. 4 km/hr
  3. 5 km/hr
  4. 7 km/hr

3293. A person travels from P to Q at a speed of 40 kmph and returns by increasing his speed by 50%. What is his average speed for both the trips? (M.B.A., 2003)

  1. 36 kmph
  2. 45 kmph
  3. 48 kmph
  4. 50 kmph

3294. An aeroplane flies from place A to place B at the speed of 500 km/hr. On the return journey, its speed is 700 km/hr. The average speed of the aeroplane for the entire journey is (P.C.S. 2009)

  1. 2566 km/hr3
  2. 1583 3 km/hr
  3. 2583 km/hr3
  4. 600 km/hr

3295. A car covers a distance from Town I to Town II at the speed of 56 km/hr and from Town II to Town I at the speed of 53 km/hr. What is the average speed of the car?

  1. 53.5 km/hr
  2. 54 km/hr
  3. 55 km/hr
  4. 55.5 km/hr
  5. None of these

3296. A man can walk uphill at the rate of 12 2 km/hr and downhill at the rate of 13 4 km/hr. If the total time required to walk a certain distance up the hill and return to the starting point was 4 hr 36 min, then what was the distance walked up the hill by the man?

  1. 4 km
  2. 14 km2
  3. 15 2 km
  4. 16 km2

3297. A man drives 150 km to the seashore in 3 hours 20 min. He returns from the shore to the starting point in 4 hours 10 min. Let r be the average rate for the entire trip. Then the average rate for the trip going exceeds r, in kilometres per hour, by (M.B.A., 2010)

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 14 2
  4. 5

3298. The average speed of a train in the onward journey is 25% more than that in the return journey. The train halts for one hour on reaching the destination. The total time taken for the complete to and fro journey is 17 hours, covering a distance of 800 km. The speed of the train in the onward journey is

  1. 45 km/hr
  2. 47.5 km/hr
  3. 52 km/hr
  4. 56.25 km/hr

3299. I started on my bicycle at 7 a.m. to reach a certain place. After going a certain distance, my bicycle went out of order. Consequently, I rested for 35 minutes and came back to my house walking all the way. I reached my house at 1 p.m. If my cycling speed is 10 kmph and my walking speed is 1 kmph, then on my bicycle I covered a distance of

  1. 614 km66
  2. 413 km9
  3. 314 km8
  4. 1015 km21

3300. A, B and C are on a trip by a car. A drives during the first hour at an average speed of 50 km/hr. B drives during the next 2 hours at an average speed of 48 km/hr. C drives for the next 3 hours at an average speed of 52 km/hr. They reached their destination after exactly 6 hours. Their mean speed was :

  1. 50 km/hr
  2. 150 km/hr3
  3. 151 3 km/hr
  4. 52 km/hr

3301. A car covers the first 39 kms of its journey in 45 minutes and covers the remaining 25 km in 35 minutes. What is the average speed of the car?

  1. 40 km/hr
  2. 48 km/hr
  3. 49 km/hr
  4. 64 km/hr
  5. None of these

3302. A train travels at a speed of 30 km/hr for 12 minutes and at a speed of 45 km/hr for the next 8 minutes. The average speed of the train for this journey is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 30 km/hr
  2. 36 km/hr
  3. 37.5 km/hr
  4. 48 km/hr

3303. A man on tour travels 160 km by car at 64 km/ hr and another 160 km by bus at 80 km/hr. The average speed for the whole journey is (L.I.C.A.D.O., 2008)

  1. 35.55 km/hr
  2. 36 km/hr
  3. 71.11 km/hr
  4. 71 km/hr

3304. A boy rides his bicycle 10 km at an average speed of 12 km/hr and again travels 12 km at an average speed of 10 km/hr. His average speed for the entire trip is approximately (M.B.A., 2008)

  1. 10.4 km/hr
  2. 10.8 km/hr
  3. 11 km/hr
  4. 12.2 km/hr

3305. A man travels 600 km by train at 80 km/hr, 800 km by ship at 40 km/hr, 500 km by aeroplane at 400 km/hr and 100 km by car at 50 km/hr. What is the average speed for the entire distance? (Teachers’ Exam., 2009)

  1. 60 km/hr
  2. 560 km/hr123
  3. 62 km/hr
  4. 565 123 km/hr

3306. A cyclist rides 24 km at 16 kmph and further 36 km at 15 kmph. Find his average speed for the journey. (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 15.38 kmph
  2. 15.5 kmph
  3. 16 kmph
  4. None of these

3307. A person travels three equal distances at a speed of x km/hr, y km/hr and z km/hr respectively. What is the average speed for the whole journey? (S.C.C., 2007)

  1. 3( ) xyz xy yz zx++
  2. () xyz xy yz zx++
  3. ()xy yz zx xyz ++
  4. 3 () xyz xy yz zx++

3308. A car travels the first one-third of a certain distance with a speed of 10 km/hr, the next one-third distance with a speed of 20 km/hr, and the last one-third distance with a speed of 60 km/hr. The average speed of the car for the whole journey is

  1. 18 km/hr
  2. 24 km/hr
  3. 30 km/hr
  4. 36 km/hr

3309. A motorist covers a distance of 39 km in 45 minutes by moving at a speed of x kmph for the first 15 min- utes, then moving at double the speed for the next 20 minutes and then again moving at his original speed for the rest of the journey. Then, x is equal to :

  1. 31.2
  2. 36
  3. 40
  4. 52

3310. Mary jogs 9 km at a speed of 6 km per hour. At what speed would she need to jog during the next 1.5 hours to have an average of 9 km per hour for the entire jogging session?

  1. 9 kmph
  2. 10 kmph
  3. 12 kmph
  4. 14 kmph

3311. A family, planning a weekend trip, decides to spend not more than a total of 8 hours driving. By leaving early in the morning, they can average 40 miles per hour on the way to their destination. Due to the heavy Sunday traffic, they average only 30 miles per hour on the return trip. What is the farthest distance from home they can plan to go?

  1. 120 miles or less
  2. Between 120 and 140 miles
  3. 140 miles
  4. Between 140 and 160 miles
  5. 160 miles or more

3312. A car travelling with 5 7 of its actual speed covers 42 km in 1 hr 40 min 48 sec. Find the actual speed of the car. (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 617 km/hr7
  2. 25 km/hr
  3. 30 km/hr
  4. 35 km/hr

3313. A train running at 7 11 of its own speed reached a place in 22 hours. How much time could be saved if the train would have run at its own speed?

  1. 7 hours
  2. 8 hours
  3. 14 hours
  4. 16 hours

3314. A man can reach a certain place in 30 hours. If he reduces his speed by 1 th,15 he goes 10 km less in that time. Find his speed. (S.S.C., 2002)

  1. 4 km/hr
  2. 5 km/hr
  3. 15 km/hr2
  4. 6 km/hr

3315. Walking 6 7 th of his usual speed, a man is 12 minutes too late. The usual time taken by him to cover that distance is

  1. 1 hour
  2. 1 hr 12 min
  3. 1 hr 15 min
  4. 1 hr 20 min

3316. The average speed of a train is 20% less on the return journey than on the onward journey. The train halts for half an hour at the destination station before starting on the return journey. If the total time taken for the to and fro journey is 23 hours, covering a distance of 1000 km, the speed of the train on the return journey is (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. 40 km/hr
  2. 50 km/hr
  3. 55 km/hr
  4. 60 km/hr

3317. A train increases its normal speed by 12.5% and reaches its destination 20 minutes earlier. What is the actual time taken by the train in the journey? (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 145 min
  2. 160 min
  3. 180 min
  4. 220 min

3318. A student walks from his house at a speed of 12 2 km per hour and reaches his school 6 minutes late. The next day he increases his speed by 1 km per hour and reaches 6 minutes before school time. How far is the school from his house? (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 11 km4
  2. 31 km4
  3. 12 km4
  4. 32 km4

3319. With an average speed of 50 km/hr, a train reaches its destination in time. If it goes with an average speed of 40 km/hr, it is late by 24 minutes. The total journey is (N.M.A.T., 2008)

  1. 30 km
  2. 40 km
  3. 70 km
  4. 80 km

3320. If a train runs at 40 kmph, it reaches its destination late by 11 minutes but if it runs at 50 kmph, it is late by 5 minutes only. The correct time for the train to complete its journey is

  1. 13 min
  2. 15 min
  3. 19 min
  4. 21 min

3321. Robert is travelling on his cycle and has calculated to reach point A at 2 P.M. if he travels at 10 kmph; he will reach there at 12 noon if he travels at 15 kmph. At what speed must he travel to reach A at 1 P.M.?

  1. 8 kmph
  2. 11 kmph
  3. 12 kmph
  4. 14 kmph

3322. Ravi walks to and fro to a shopping mall. He spends 30 minutes shopping. If he walks at a speed of 10 km an hour, he returns home at 19.00 hours. If he walks at 15 km an hour, he returns home at 18.30 hours. How far must he walk in order to return home at 18.15 hours? (M.B.A., 2009)

  1. 17 km/hr
  2. 17.5 km/hr
  3. 18 km/hr
  4. 19 km/hr
  5. None of these

3323. A person travels 285 km in 6 hours in two stages. In the first part of the journey, he travels by bus at the speed of 40 km/hr. In the second part of the journey, he travels by train at the speed of 55 km/ hr. How much distance does he travel by train? (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 145 km
  2. 165 km
  3. 185 km
  4. 205 km

3324. A man covered a certain distance at some speed. Had he moved 3 kmph faster, he would have taken 40 minutes less. If he had moved 2 kmph slower, he would have taken 40 minutes more. The distance (in km) is

  1. 35
  2. 236 3
  3. 137 2
  4. 40

3325. A train covered a certain distance at a uniform speed. If the train had been 6 km/hr faster, then it would have taken 4 hours less than the scheduled time. And, if the train were slower by 6 km/hr, then the train would have taken 6 hours more than the scheduled time. The length of the journey is (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 700 km
  2. 720 km
  3. 740 km
  4. 760 km

3326. A car travels from P to Q at a constant speed. If its speed were increased by 10 km/hr, it would have taken one hour lesser to cover the distance. It would have taken further 45 min - utes lesser if the speed was further increased by 10 km/hr. What is the distance between the two cities?

  1. 420 km
  2. 540 km
  3. 600 km
  4. 650 km

3327. A train can travel 50% faster than a car. Both start from point A at the same time and reach point B 75 kms away from A at the same time. On the way, however, the train lost about 12.5 minutes while stopping at the stations. The speed of the car is (M.A.T., 2003)

  1. 100 kmph
  2. 110 kmph
  3. 120 kmph
  4. 130 kmph

3328. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54 kmph and including stoppages, it is 45 kmph. For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour?

  1. 9
  2. 10
  3. 12
  4. 20

3329. A flight of Jet Airways from Delhi to Mumbai has an average speed of 700 km/hr without any stoppage, whereas a flight of Kingfisher from Delhi to Mumbai has an average speed of 560 km/hr with stoppage at Baroda. What is the average stoppage time per hour of Kingfisher flight if both the planes fly at the same speed? (M.B.A., 2009)

  1. 8 min
  2. 12 min
  3. 16 min
  4. 24 min

3330. A bus covered a certain distance from village A to village B at the speed of 60 km/hr. However on its return journey it got stuck in traffic and covered the same distance at the speed of 40 km/hr and took 2 hours more to reach its destination. What is the distance covered between villages A and B?

  1. 200 km
  2. 240 km
  3. 260 km
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3331. A train covers a distance between two stations A and B in 45 minutes. If the speed of the train is reduced by 5 km/hr, then it covers the distance in 48 minutes. The distance between the stations A and B is (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 55 km
  2. 60 km
  3. 64 km
  4. 80 km

3332. A train travels a distance of 600 km at a constant speed. If the speed of the train is increased by 5 km/hr, the journey would take 4 hours less. Find the speed of the train. (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. 25 km/hr
  2. 50 km/hr
  3. 100 km/hr
  4. None of these

3333. A car takes 15 minutes less to cover a distance of 75 km, if it increases its speed by 10 km/hr from its usual speed. How much time would it take to cover a distance of 300 km using this speed? (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. 5 hours
  2. 15 2 hours
  3. 6 hours
  4. 16 hours2

3334. With a uniform speed a car covers the distance in 8 hours. Had the speed been increased by 4 km/hr, the same distance could have been covered in 17 2 hours. What is the distance covered?

  1. 420 km
  2. 480 km
  3. 640 km
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3335. Two men start together to walk to a certain destination, one at 3 kmph and another at 3.75 kmph. The latter arrives half an hour before the former. The distance is

  1. 6 km
  2. 7.5 km
  3. 8 km
  4. 9.5 km

3336. If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of 10 km/hr, he would have walked 20 km more. The actual distance travelled by him is

  1. 50 km
  2. 56 km
  3. 70 km
  4. 80 km

3337. In covering a certain distance, the speeds of A and B are in the ratio of 3 : 4. A takes 30 minutes more than B to reach the destination. The time taken by A to reach the destination is

  1. 1 hour
  2. 11 hours2
  3. 2 hours
  4. 12 hours2

3338. In covering a distance of 30 km, Abhay takes 2 hours more than Sameer. If Abhay doubles his speed, then he would take 1 hour less than Sameer. Abhay’s speed is

  1. 5 kmph
  2. 6 kmph
  3. 6.25 kmph
  4. 7.5 kmph

3339. Three persons are walking from a place A to another place B. Their speeds are in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 5. The time ratio to reach B by these persons will be

  1. 4 : 3 : 5
  2. 5 : 3 : 4
  3. 15 : 9 : 20
  4. 15 : 20 : 12

3340. A journey of 192 km between two cities takes 2 hours less by a fast train than by a slow train. If the average speed of the slow train is 16 km/hr less than that of the fast train, then the average speed of the fast train is

  1. 32 km/hr
  2. 36 km/hr
  3. 48 km/hr
  4. 64 km/hr

3341. In a flight of 6000 km, an aircraft was slowed down due to bad weather. The average speed for the trip was reduced by 400 kmph and the time of flight increased by 30 minutes. The original planned duration of the flight was (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 12 hours2
  2. 13 hours3
  3. 14 hours3
  4. 15 hours3

3342. An aeroplane first flew with a speed of 440 kmph and covered a certain distance. It still had to cover 770 km less than what it had already covered, but it flew with a speed of 660 kmph. The average speed for the entire flight was 500 kmph. Find the total distance covered. (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 1375 km
  2. 2750 km
  3. 3250 km
  4. 4400 km

3343. Two boys A and B start at the same time to ride from Delhi to Meerut, 60 km away. A travels 4 km an hour slower than B, B reaches Meerut and at once turns back meeting A, 12 km from Meerut. A’s rate was (M.B.A., 2011)

  1. 4 km/hr
  2. 8 km/hr
  3. 12 km/hr
  4. 16 km/hr

3344. A cyclist drove one kilometre, with the wind in his back, in 3 minutes and drove the same way back, against the wind, in 4 minutes. If we assume that the cyclist always puts constant force on the pedals, how much time would it take him to drive 1 km without wind? (SNAP, 2008)

  1. 12 min3
  2. 32 min7
  3. 33 min7
  4. 73 min12

3345. Ramesh travels 760 km to his home, partly by train and partly by car. He takes 8 hours, if he travels 160 km by train and the rest by car. He takes 12 minutes more, if he travels 240 km by train and the rest by car. What are the speeds of the car and the train respectively? (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 90 km/hr, 60 km/hr
  2. 100 km/hr, 80 km/ hr
  3. 80 km/hr, 70 km/hr
  4. 100 km/hr, 90 km/ hr

3346. Two sea trawlers left a sea port simultaneously in two mutually perpendicular directions. Half an hour later, the shortest distance between them was 17 km, and another 15 minutes later, one sea trawler was 10.5 km farther from the origin than the other. Find the speed of each sea trawler. (SNAP, 2008)

  1. 16 km/hr, 30 km/hr
  2. 18 km/hr, 24 km/hr
  3. 20 km/hr, 22 km/hr
  4. 18 km/hr, 36 km/hr

3347. A runs twice as fast as B and B runs thrice as fast as C. The distance covered by C in 72 minutes, will be covered by A in

  1. 12 minutes
  2. 16 minutes
  3. 18 minutes
  4. 24 minutes

3348. A ship, 40 kilometres from the shore, springs a leak which admits 33 tonnes4 of water in 12 minutes. 60 tonnes would suffice to sink her, but the ship’s pumps can throw out 12 tonnes of water in one hour. Find the average rate of sailing, so that she may reach the shore just as she begins to sink. (M.A.T. 2006, 2008)

  1. 11 km per hour2
  2. 12 km per hour2
  3. 13 km per hour2
  4. 14 km per hour2

3349. Amit travelled back to home in a car, after visiting his friend in a distant village. When he started at his friend’s house the car had exactly 18 litres of petrol in it. He travelled along at a steady 40 kilometres per hour and managed a 10 kilometres per litre of petrol. As the car was old, the fuel tank lost fuel at the rate of half a litre per hour. Amit was lucky as his car stopped just in front of his home because it had run out of fuel and he only just made it. How far was it from his friend’s home to Amit’s home? (I.I.F.T., 2005)

  1. 150 km
  2. 170 km
  3. 180 km
  4. None of these

3350. Two men starting from the same place walk at the rate of 5 kmph and 5.5 kmph respectively. What time will they take to be 8.5 km apart, if they walk in the same direction?

  1. 4 hrs 15 min
  2. 8 hrs 30 min
  3. 16 hrs
  4. 17 hrs

3351. A walks around a circular field at the rate of one round per hour while B runs around it at the rate of six rounds per hour. They start in the same direction from the same point at 7.30 a.m. They shall first cross each other at :

  1. 7.42 a.m.
  2. 7.48 a.m.
  3. 8.10 a.m.
  4. 8.30 a.m.

3352. There are 8 equidistant points A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H in the clockwise direction on the periphery of a circle. In a time interval t, a person reaches from A to C with uniform motion while another person reaches the point E from the point B during the same time interval with uniform motion. Both the persons move in the same direction along the circumference of the circle and start at the same instant. How much time after the start, will the two persons meet each other?

  1. 4 t
  2. 7 t
  3. 9 t
  4. Never

3353. A walks at 4 kmph and 4 hours after his start, B cycles after him at 10 kmph. How far from the start does B catch up with A?

  1. 16.7 km
  2. 18.6 km
  3. 21.5 km
  4. 26.7 km

3354. Paschim Express left Delhi for Mumbai at 14.30 hrs travelling at a speed of 60 kmph and August Kranti Express left Delhi for Mumbai on the same day at 16.30 hrs travelling at a speed of 80 kmph. How far away from Delhi will the two trains meet

  1. 120 km
  2. 360 km
  3. 480 km
  4. 500 km

3355. A thief is noticed by a policeman from a distance of 200 m. The thief starts running and the policeman chases him. The thief and the policeman run at the rate of 10 km and 11 km per hour respectively. What is the distance between them after 6 minutes?

  1. 100 m
  2. 150 m
  3. 190 m
  4. 200 m

3356. A bus is moving with a speed of 30 km/hr ahead of a car with a speed of 50 km/hr. How many kilometres apart are they if it takes 15 minutes for the car to catch up with the bus?

  1. 5 km
  2. 7.5 km
  3. 12.5 km
  4. 15 km

3357. A thief running at 8 km/hr is chased by a policeman whose speed is 10 km/hr. If the thief is 100 metres ahead of the policeman, then the time required for the policeman to catch the thief will be

  1. 2 minutes
  2. 3 minutes
  3. 6 minutes
  4. 10 minutes

3358. A thief steals a car at 2.30 p.m. and drives it at 60 kmph. The theft is discovered at 3 p.m. and the owner sets off in another car at 75 kmph. When will he overtake the thief?

  1. 4.30 p.m.
  2. 4.45 p.m.
  3. 5 p.m.
  4. 5.15 p.m.

3359. Aryan runs at a speed of 40 metres/minute. Rahul follows him after an interval of 5 minutes and runs at a speed of 50 metres/minute. Rahul’s dog runs at a speed of 60 metres/minute and starts along with Rahul. The dog reaches Aryan and then comes back to Rahul, and continues to do so till Rahul reaches Aryan. What is the total distance covered by the dog?

  1. 600 m
  2. 750 m
  3. 980 m
  4. 1200 m

3360. A thief, pursued by a policeman, was 100 m ahead at the start. If the ratio of the speed of the policeman to that of the thief was 5 : 4, then how far could the thief go before he was caught by the policeman? (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 80 m
  2. 200 m
  3. 400 m
  4. 600 m

3361. A walks at a uniform rate of 4 km an hour; and 4 hours after his start, B bicycles after him at the uniform rate of 10 km an hour. How far from the starting point will B catch A?

  1. 16.7 km
  2. 18.6 km
  3. 21.5 km
  4. 26.7 km

3362. A passenger train runs at the rate of 80 kmph. It starts from the station, 6 hours after a goods train leaves the station. The passenger train overtakes the goods train after 4 hours. The speed of goods train is (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 32 km/hr
  2. 45 km/hr
  3. 50 km/hr
  4. 64 km/hr

3363. An athlete claimed that his timing for a 100 m dash should be corrected because the starting signal was given by a gun fired from a point 10 m away from him and the timekeeper was standing close to the gun. The error due to this could be (in seconds) [Given: speed of sound = 300 m/s]

  1. 0.03
  2. 0.1
  3. 0.5
  4. 0.7

3364. Sound waves travel at 300 m/s. Sound produced at a point is heard by a person after 5 seconds while the same sound is heard by another person after 6 seconds. What could be the maximum and minimum distance between the two persons?

  1. 1.8 km, 0.15 km
  2. 2.2 km, 0.20 km
  3. 2.8 km, 0.25 km
  4. 3.3 km, 0.3 km

3365. Two guns were fired from the same place at an interval of 8 minutes, A person approaching the place observes that 5 minutes 52 seconds have elapsed between the hearing of the sound of the two guns. If the velocity of the sound is 330 m/sec, the man was approaching the place at what speed (in km/hr)? (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 24
  2. 27
  3. 30
  4. 36

3366. A and B are two stations 10 km apart. A man, P starts from A and travels towards B at the rate of 3 km/hr, whereas another man Q starts from B and travels to wards A at the rate of 2 km/hr. When and where do they meet? (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. After 2 hours, 6 km from A
  2. After 3 hours, 9 km from A
  3. After 12 2 hours, 7.5 km from A
  4. After 2 hours, 4 km from A

3367. Two cars X and Y start from places A and B respectively which are 700 km apart at 9 a.m. Both the cars run at an average speed of 60 km/hr. Car X stops at 10 a.m. and again starts at 11 a.m. while the other car continues to run without stopping. The two cars cross each other at (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 2 : 40 p.m
  2. 3 : 20 p.m
  3. 4 : 10 p.m
  4. 4 : 20 p.m

3368. A train started from station A and proceeded towards station B at a speed of 48 km/hr. Forty- five minutes later another train started from station B and proceeded towards station a at 50 km/hr. If the distance between the two stations is 232 km, at what distance from station A will the trains meet? (M.A.T., 2009)

  1. 108 km
  2. 132 km
  3. 144 km
  4. None of these

3369. The jogging track in a sports complex is 726 metres in circumference. Deepak and his wife start from the same point and walk in opposite directions at 4.5 km/hr and 3.75 km/hr respectively. They will meet for the first time in

  1. 4.9 min
  2. 5.28 min
  3. 5.5 min
  4. 6 min

3370. A and B walk around a circular track. They start at 8 a.m. from the same point in the opposite directions. A and B walk at a speed of 2 rounds per hour and 3 rounds per hour respectively. How many times shall they cross each other before 9.30 a.m.?

  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. 8

3371. Two cyclists start on a circular track from a given point but in opposite directions with speeds of 7 m/ sec and 8 m/sec respectively. If the circumference of the circle is 300 metres, after what time will they meet at the starting point? (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 20 sec
  2. 100 sec
  3. 200 sec
  4. 300 sec

3372. A distance of 425 km separates two trains moving towards each other at a speed of 200 km/hr each. What will be the distance between them after 1 hr 30 min, if they reduce their speed by half, every half an hour?

  1. 75 km
  2. 120 km
  3. 150 km
  4. 200 km

3373. At what time will A reach his destination?

  1. Midnight
  2. 2 a.m. the next day
  3. 11 p.m.
  4. 11 a.m. the next day

3374. In reaching his destination, how many more hours than A, will B take?

  1. 8
  2. 9
  3. 10
  4. 12

3375. A’s speed (in km/hr) is

  1. 4
  2. 4.5
  3. 5
  4. 6

3376. Train X leaves New York at 1 A.M. and travels east at a constant speed of x mph. If train Z leaves New York at 2 A.M. and travels east, at what constant rate of speed will train Z have to travel in order to catch train X at exactly 5 : 30 A.M.? (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 5 6 x
  2. 9 8 x
  3. 6 5 x
  4. 9 7 x
  5. 3 2 x

3377. Two ladies simultaneously leave cities A and B connected by a straight road and travel towards each other. The first lady travels 2 km/hr faster than the second lady and reaches B one hour before the second lady reaches A. The two cities A and B are 24 km apart. How many kilometres does each lady travel in one hour?

  1. 5 km, 3 km
  2. 7 km, 5 km
  3. 8 km, 6 km
  4. 6 km, 14 km

3378. Buses start from a bus terminal with a speed of 20 km/hr at intervals of 10 minutes. What is the speed of a man coming from the opposite direction towards the bus terminal if he meets the buses at intervals of 8 minutes? (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 3 km/hr
  2. 4 km/hr
  3. 5 km/hr
  4. 7 km/hr

3379. Two men at points R and S, 76 km apart, set out at the same time to walk towards each other. The man at R walks uniformly at the rate of 14 km/hr ;2 the man at S walks at the constant rate of 13 4 km/hr for the first hour, at 33 4 km/hr for the second hour, and so on, in arithmetic progression. If the men meet x km nearer R than S in an integral number of hours, then x is (M.B.A., 2010)

  1. 4
  2. 6
  3. 8
  4. 10

3380. Two planes move along a circle of circumference 1.2 kms with constant speeds. When they move in different directions, they meet every 15 seconds and when they move in the same direction one plane overtakes the other every 60 seconds. The speed of the slower plane is (M.B.A., 2004)

  1. 0.02 km/s
  2. 0.03 km/s
  3. 0.04 km/s
  4. 0.05 km/s

3381. A bus left X for point Y. Two hours later a car left point X for Y and arrived at Y at the same time as the bus. If the car and the bus left simultaneously from the opposite ends X and Y towards each other, they would meet 11 3 hours after the start. How much time did it take the bus to travel from X to Y?

  1. 2 hours
  2. 4 hours
  3. 6 hours
  4. 8 hours

3382. Two trains starting at the same time from two stations 200 km apart and going in opposite directions cross each other at a distance of 110 km from one of the stations. What is the ratio of their speeds?

  1. 9 : 20
  2. 11 : 9
  3. 11 : 20
  4. None of these

3383. Two trains start from stations A and B and travel towards each other at a speed of 50 kmph and 60 kmph respectively. A the time of their meeting, the second train had travelled 120 km more than the first. The distance between A and B is (R.R.B. 2006 ; C.P.O. 2005 ; M.A.T. 2009 ; Bank P.O. 2008)

  1. 600 km
  2. 1320 km
  3. 1440 km
  4. 1660 km

3384. Train A leaves Ludhiana for Delhi at 11 a.m, running at the speed of 60 km/hr. Train B leaves Ludhiana for Delhi by the same route at 2 p.m. on the same day, running at the speed of 72 km/hr. At what time will the two trains meet each other? (M.A.T., 2008)

  1. 2 a.m. on the next day
  2. 5 a.m. on the next day
  3. 5 p.m. on the next day
  4. None of these

3385. A train M leaves station X at 5 a.m and reaches station Y at 9 a.m. Another train N leaves station Y at 7 a.m. and reaches station X at 10.30 a.m. At what time do the two trains cross each other? (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 7.36 a.m
  2. 7.56 a.m
  3. 8.36 a.m
  4. 8.56 a.m

3386. Train A travelling at 60 km/hr leaves Mumbai for Delhi at 6 p.m. Train B travelling at 90 km/hr also leaves Mumbai for Delhi at 9 p.m. Train C leaves Delhi for Mumbai at 9 p.m. If all the three trains meet at the same time between Mumbai and Delhi, then what is the speed of train C if the distance between Delhi and Mumbai is 1260 km?

  1. 60 km/hr
  2. 90 km/hr
  3. 120 km/hr
  4. 135 km/hr

3387. Amit starts from a point A and walks to another point B and then returns from B to A by his car and thus takes a total time of 6 hours and 45 minutes. If he had driven both ways in his car, he would have taken 2 hours less. How long would it take for him to walk both ways?

  1. 7 hours 45 minutes
  2. 8 hours 15 minutes
  3. 8 hours 30 minutes
  4. 8 hours 45 minutes

3388. Reena leaves office at 6.00 p.m. and catches a 6.30 p.m. local train that arrives in her town at 7.00 p.m. Her father leaves home to pick her up at 7.00 p.m. from the station as she gets off the train. Yesterday, Reena left her office early and took a 6.00 p.m. train and arrived at 6.30 p.m. As her father was not there to pick her up, she started walking towards home. Her father left home at the usual time, saw her daughter walking, turned around, picked her up and drove home, arriving there 10 minutes earlier than the usual. For how long did Reena walk before her father picked her up?

  1. 10 min
  2. 15 min
  3. 20 min
  4. 25 min

3389. On return from a business trip, Mr X was to be picked up from the railway station by his coach - man. However, his meeting having finished before schedule, he left his destination earlier by catching an earlier train as a result of which he arrived 2 hours early. Immediately on arrival he rang up home for the coach and was told that it had just left in order to be exactly in time for the train by which he was scheduled to come. To save time he started walk - ing home ward a 4 mph. On the way he met the coachman who brought him home an hour before schedule. How far is Mr X’s house from the railway station?

  1. 12 miles
  2. 16 miles
  3. 18 miles
  4. 24 miles

3390. A train approaches a tunnel AB. Inside the tunnel is a cat located at a point that is 3 8 of the distance AB measured from the entrance A. When the train whistles, that cat runs. If the cat moves to the entrance A of the tunnel, the train catches the cat exactly at the entrance. If the cat moves to the exit B, the train catches the cat at exactly the exit. The ratio of the speed of the train to that of the cat is of the order

  1. 3 : 1
  2. 4 : 1
  3. 5 : 1
  4. None of these

3391. The speed of a railway engine is 42 km/hr when no compartment is attached and the reduction in speed is directly proportional to the square root of the number of compartments attached. If the speed of the train carried by this engine is 24 km/hr with 9 compartments attached, the maximum number of compartments that the engine can pull is

  1. 35
  2. 41
  3. 48
  4. None of these

3392. At what time do Ram and Shyam meet each other?

  1. 10 a.m.
  2. 10 : 10 a.m.
  3. 10 : 20 a.m.
  4. 10 : 30 a.m.

3393. At what time does Shyam overtake Ram?

  1. 10 : 20 a.m.
  2. 10 : 30 a.m.
  3. 10 : 40 a.m.
  4. 10 : 50 a.m.

3394. A man can walk up a ‘moving-up’ escalator in 30 seconds. The same man can walk down this ‘moving- up’ escalator in 90 seconds. Assume that his walking speed is same upwards and downwards. How much time will he take to walk up the escalator, when it is not moving?

  1. 30 sec
  2. 45 sec
  3. 60 sec
  4. 90 sec

3395. A hare pursued by a hound is 60 of her own leaps before him. When the hare takes 4 leaps, the hound takes 3. In one leap, the hare goes 31 4 metres and the hound 32 4 metres. In how many leaps will the hound overtake the hare?

  1. 84
  2. 188
  3. 252
  4. 356

3396. Arun had ridden one-third the total distance of his trip when his scooter got punctured. He finished the journey on foot, spending twenty times as long walking as he had spent riding. What was the ratio of his riding speed to his walking speed?

  1. 4 : 1
  2. 5 : 1
  3. 10 : 1
  4. 20 : 1

3397. A car overtakes a bus travelling from Delhi to Jaipur at 4 : 30 p.m. The car reaches Jaipur at 6 : 00 p.m. After stopping there for 1 hour, it starts back towards Delhi and meets the same bus at 7 : 30 p.m. which was moving towards Jaipur at that time. If both the bus and the car were travelling with uniform speeds on the same route, at what time would the bus reach Jaipur?

  1. 8 : 30 p.m.
  2. 9 : 00 p.m.
  3. 9 : 15 p.m.
  4. 9 : 30 p.m.

3398. If Karan travels at a speed of 60 kmph and covers a distance in 9 hrs., then how much time will he take to travel the same distance at a speed of 90 kmph? [Indian Railway Gr. ‘D’ Exam, 2014]

  1. 8 hrs
  2. 6 hrs
  3. 12 hrs
  4. 9 hrs

3399. The speed of a bus is 72 kmph. The distance covered by the bus in 5 sec is [Indian Railway Gr. ‘D’ Exam, 2014]

  1. 50 m
  2. 74.5 m
  3. 100 m
  4. 60 m

3400. A man travels for 5 hours 15 minutes. If he covers the first half of the journey at 60km/h and rest at 45km/h. Find the total distance travelled by him. [SSC—CHSL (10 + 2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 1028 7 6 km
  2. 189 km
  3. 378 km
  4. 270 km

3401. Ashok left from place A for place B at 8 a.m. and Rahul left place B for place A at 10.00 a.m. the dis - tance between place A and B is 637 km. If Ashok and Rahul are travelling at a uniform speed of 39kmph and 47 kmph respectively, at what time will they meet? [IBPS—Bank Spl. Officers (IT) Exam, 2015]

  1. 5 : 30 pm
  2. 4 : 30 pm
  3. 5 pm
  4. 4 pm

3402. A car goes 20 metres in a second. Find its speed in km/hr [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 18
  2. 72
  3. 36
  4. 20

3403. Two men P and Q start a journey form same place at a speed of 3 km/hr and 3 1 2 km/hr respectively. If they move in the same direction then what is the distance between them after 4 hours? [IDBI—Executive Officer’s Exam, 2015]

  1. 3 km
  2. 2 1 2 km
  3. 2 km
  4. 1 2 km

3404. Rohan covers 2 3 rd of a certain distance in 2 hours 30 minutes at the rate of x kmph. He covers the remaining distance at the rate of ( x + 2) kmph in 50 minutes. What is the total distance? [RBI Officer’s Gr. ‘B’ (Phase I) Exam, 2015]

  1. 21 km
  2. 18 km
  3. 16 km
  4. 15 km

3405. To reach point B from point A. At 4pm, Sara will have to travel at an average speed of 18 kmph. She will reach point B at 3 pm if she travels at an average speed of 24 kmph. At what average speed should Sara travel to reach point B at 2pm? [IBPS—Bank PO/MT (Pre.) Exam, 2015]

  1. 36 kmph
  2. 28 kmph
  3. 25 kmph
  4. 30 kmph

3406. A student goes to school at the rate of 2 1 2 km/h and reaches 6 min late. If he travels at the speed of 3km/h he is 10 min early. What is the distance to the school ? [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 4 km
  2. 3 1 4 km
  3. 1 km
  4. 3 1 2 km

3407. Kim and OM are travelling from point A to B, which are 400 km apart, travelling at a certain speed Kim takes one hour more than Om to reach point B. If Kim doubles her speed she will take 1 hour 30 mins less than Om to reach point B. At what speed was Kim driving from point A to B? (In kmph) [IBPS—Bank PO (Pre.) Exam, 2015]

  1. 90 kmph
  2. 70 kmph
  3. 160 kmph
  4. 80 kmph

3408. A car covers 650 km in 12 hours and other 850 km in 18 hours. Find the average speed of the car. [ESIC—UDC Exam, 2016]

  1. 47 kmph
  2. 50 kmph
  3. 48 kmph
  4. 52 kmph

3409. A vehicle travels at the rate of 80 kmph. What distance will it travel in 15 minutes? [ESIC—UDC Exam, 2016]

  1. 20000 metre
  2. 25000 metre
  3. 24000 metre
  4. 22000 metre

3410. Aryan covers a certain distance in 1 hour 30 minutes. He covers two thirds of it at the rate of 4 kmph and remaining distance at the rate of 5 kmph. Find the total distance. [ESIC—UDC Exam, 2016]

  1. 6.5 km
  2. 6.6 km
  3. 6.3 km
  4. 6.4 km

3411. Rani goes to school from her house in 30 minutes. Raja takes 45 minutes in covering the same distance. Find the ratio between time taken by Rani and Raja. [ESIC—UDC Exam, 2016]

  1. 2 : 3
  2. 4 : 3
  3. 3 : 2
  4. 1 : 3

3412. The speeds of John and Max are 30 km/h and 40 km/h. Initially Max is at a place L and John is at a place M. The distance between L and M is 650 km. John started his journey 3 hours earlier than Max to meet each other. If they meet each other at a place P somewhere between L and M, then the distance between P and M is: [SBI—Jr. Associates (Pre.) Exam, 2016]

  1. 220 km
  2. 250 km
  3. 330 km
  4. 320 km

3413. A car travels the first one third of a certain distance with a speed of 10 km/hr, the next one third distance with a speed of 20 km/hr and the last one third distance with a speed of 60 km/hr. The average speed of the car for the whole journey is [CDS, 2016]

  1. 18 km/hr
  2. 24 km/hr
  3. 30 km/hr
  4. 36 km/hr

3414. With a uniform speed, a car covers a distance in 8 hours. Had the speed been increased by 4 km/ hr, the same distance could have been covered in 7 hours and 30 minutes. What is the distance covered? [CDS, 2016]

  1. 420 km
  2. 480 km
  3. 520 km
  4. 640 km

3415. A boat goes 8 km in one hour along the stream and 2 km in one hour against the stream. The speed in km/hr of the stream is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5

3416. In one hour, a boat goes 11 km along the stream and 5 km against the stream. The speed of the boat in still water (in km/hr) is

  1. 3
  2. 5
  3. 8
  4. 9

3417. A man rows downstream 32 km and 14 km upstream. If he takes 6 hours to cover each distance, then the velocity (in kmph) of the current is (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 1 2
  2. 1
  3. 11 2
  4. 2

3418. A boatman rows 1 km in 5 minutes, along the stream and 6 km in 1 hour against the stream. The speed of the stream is (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 3 kmph
  2. 6 kmph
  3. 10 kmph
  4. 12 kmph

3419. A boat takes half time in moving a certain distance downstream than upstream. What is the ratio between the rate in still water and the rate of current? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 2 : 1
  3. 1 : 3
  4. 3 : 1

3420. If a man goes 18 km downstream in 4 hours and returns against the stream in 12 hours, then the speed of the stream in km/hr is (S.S.C., 2008)

  1. 1
  2. 1.5
  3. 1.75
  4. 3

3421. A boatman goes 2 km against the current of the stream in 1 hour and goes 1 km along the current in 10 minutes. How long will it take to go 5 km in stationary water?

  1. 40 minutes
  2. 1 hour
  3. 1 hr 15 min
  4. 1 hr 30 min

3422. A man can row 3 4 of a km against the stream in 111 4 minutes and returns in 17 2 minutes. Find the speed of the man in still water. (M.A.T., 2008)

  1. 3 km/hr
  2. 4 km/hr
  3. 5 km/hr
  4. 6 km/hr

3423. A boat, while going downstream in a river covered a distance of 50 miles at an average speed of 60 miles per hour. While returning, because of the water resistance, it took 1 hour 15 minutes to cover the same distance. What was the average speed during the whole journey? (M.A.T., 2004)

  1. 40 mph
  2. 48 mph
  3. 50 mph
  4. 55 mph

3424. A man swimming in a stream which flows 11 2 km/hr finds that in a given time he can swim twice as far with the stream as he can against it. At what rate does he swim? (M.A.T., 2008)

  1. 14 2 km/hr
  2. 15 2 km/hr
  3. 17 2 km/hr
  4. None of these

3425. A boat running upstream takes 8 hours 48 minutes to cover a certain distance, while it takes 4 hours to cover the same distance running downstream. What is the ratio between the speed of the boat and speed of the water current respectively ?

  1. 2 : 1
  2. 3 : 2
  3. 8 : 3
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3426. If a boat goes 7 km upstream in 42 minutes and the speed of the stream is 3 kmph, then the speed of the boat in still water is :

  1. 4.2 km/hr
  2. 9 km/hr
  3. 13 km/hr
  4. 21 km/hr

3427. A man’s speed with the current is 15 km / hr and the speed of the current is 2.5 km / hr. The man’s speed against the current is :

  1. 8.5 km/hr
  2. 9 km/hr
  3. 10 km/hr
  4. 12.5 km/hr

3428. If a man rows at the rate of 5 kmph in still water and his rate against the current is 3.5 kmph, then the man’s rate along the current is :

  1. 4.25 kmph
  2. 6 kmph
  3. 6.5 kmph
  4. 8.5 kmph

3429. A motorboat in still water travels at a speed of 36 km/hr. It goes 56 km upstream in 1 hour 45 minutes. The time taken by it to cover the same distance down the stream will be

  1. 1 hour 24 minutes
  2. 2 hour 21 minutes
  3. 2 hour 25 minutes
  4. 3 hour

3430. Speed of a boat in standing water is 9 kmph and the speed of the stream is 1.5 kmph. A man rows to a place at a distance of 105 km and comes back to the starting point. The total time taken by him is :

  1. 16 hours
  2. 18 hours
  3. 20 hours
  4. 24 hours

3431. The speed of a boat in still water is 15 km / hr and the rate of current is 3 km / hr. The distance travelled downstream in 12 minutes is :

  1. 1.2 km
  2. 1.8 km
  3. 2.4 km
  4. 3.6 km

3432. A man can row at 5 kmph in still water. If the velocity of current is 1 kmph and it takes him 1 hour to row to a place and come back, how far is the place? (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. 2.4 km
  2. 2.5 km
  3. 3 km
  4. 3.6 km

3433. A boat takes 19 hours for travelling downstream from point A to point B and coming back to a point C midway between A and B. If the velocity of the stream is 4 kmph and the speed of the boat in still water is 14 kmph, what is the distance between A and B?

  1. 160 km
  2. 180 km
  3. 200 km
  4. 220 km

3434. P, Q and R are three towns on a river which flows uniformly. Q is equidistant from P and R. I row from P to Q and back in 10 hours and I can row from P to R in 4 hours. Compare the speed of my boat in still water with that of the river. (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 4 : 3
  2. 5 : 3
  3. 6 : 5
  4. 7 : 3

3435. A man can row 19 kmph3 in still water and finds that it takes him thrice as much time to row up than as to row down the same distance in the river. The speed of the current is :

  1. 13 km/hr3
  2. 13 km/hr9
  3. 24 km/hr3
  4. 14 km/hr2

3436. A boat takes 8 hours to cover a distance while travelling upstream, whereas while travelling downstream it takes 6 hours. If the speed of the current is 4 kmph, what is the speed of the boat in still water?

  1. 12 kmph
  2. 16 kmph
  3. 28 kmph
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3437. A motor boat can travel at 10 km/hr in still water. It travelled 91 km downstream in a river a then returned taking altogether 20 hours. Find the rate of flow of the river. (M.A.T., 2008)

  1. 3 km/hr
  2. 5 km/hr
  3. 6 km/hr
  4. 8 km/hr

3438. The speed of a boat in still water is 10 km / hr. If it can travel 26 km downstream and 14 km upstream in the same time, the speed of the stream is :

  1. 2 km/hr
  2. 2.5 km/hr
  3. 3 km/hr
  4. 4 km/hr

3439. A boat takes 90 minutes less to travel 36 miles downstream than to travel the same distance upstream. If the speed of the boat in still water is 10 mph, the speed of the stream is :

  1. 2 mph
  2. 2.5 mph
  3. 3 mph
  4. 4 mph

3440. A man rows to a place 48 km distant and back in 14 hours. He finds that he can row 4 km with the stream in the same time as 3 km against the stream. The rate of the stream is : (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 1 km / hr
  2. 1.5 km / hr
  3. 1.8 km / hr
  4. 3.5 km / hr

3441. A boat covers 24 km upstream and 36 km downstream in 6 hours while it covers 36 km upstream and 24 km downstream in 16 hours.2 The velocity of the current is

  1. 1 km/hr
  2. 1.5 km/hr
  3. 2 km/hr
  4. 2.5 km/hr

3442. A boat goes 30 km upstream and 44 km downstream in 10 hours. In 13 hours, it can go 40 km upstream and 55 km downstream. The speed of the boat in still water is (I.I.F.T., 2008)

  1. 3 km/hr
  2. 4 km/hr
  3. 8 km/hr
  4. None of these

3443. At his usual rowing rate, Rahul can travel 12 miles downstream in a certain river in 6 hours less than it takes him to travel the same distance upstream. But if he could double his usual rowing rate for his 24-mile round trip, the downstream 12 miles would then take only one hour less than the upstream 12 miles. What is the speed of the current in miles per hour ? (M.A.T., 2001)

  1. 1 1 3
  2. 21 3
  3. 12 3
  4. 22 3

3444. A man can swim in still water at a rate of 4 km/ hr. The width of the river is 1 km. How long will he take to cross the river straight, if the speed of the current is 3 km/hr? (R.R.B., 2009)

  1. 10 min
  2. 15 min
  3. 18 min
  4. 20 min

3445. A man wishes to cross a river perpendicularly. In still water he takes 4 minutes to cross the river, but in flowing river he takes 5 minutes. If the river is 100 metres wide, the velocity of the flowing water of the river is (M.A.T., 2004)

  1. 10 m/min
  2. 15 m/min
  3. 20 m/min
  4. 30 m/min

3446. A man can row upstream at 10 kmph and downstream at 18 kmph. Find the man’s rate in still water? [Indian Railways Gr. ‘D’ Exam, 2014]

  1. 14 kmph
  2. 4 kmph
  3. 12 kmph
  4. 10 kmph

3447. A man takes 2.2 times as long to row a distance upstream as to row the same distance downstream. If he can row 55 km downstream in 2 hours 30 minutes, what is the speed of the boat in still water? [IBPS—RRB Officers Gr. ‘B’ Exam, 2015]

  1. 40 km/h
  2. 8 km/h
  3. 16 km/h
  4. 24 km/h

3448. Boat A travels downstream from Point X to Point Y in 3 hours less than the time taken by Boat B to travel upstream from Point Y to Point Z. The distance between X and Y is 20 km, which is half of the distance between Y and Z. The speed of Boat B in still water is 10 km/h and the speed of Boat A in still water is equal to the speed of Boat B upstream. What is the speed of Boat A in still water?

  1. 10 km/h
  2. 16 km/h
  3. 12 km/h
  4. 8 km/h

3449. The speed of the boat in still water is 5 times that of the current, it takes 1.1 hours to row to point B form point A downstream. The distance between point A and point B is 13.2km. How much distance (in km) will it cover in 312 minutes upstream? [IBPS—Bank Spl. Officer (IT) Exam, 2015]

  1. 43.2
  2. 48
  3. 41.6
  4. 44.8

3450. A boat can travel 36 km upstream in 5 hours. If the speed of the stream is 2.4 kmph, how much time will the boat take to cover a distance of 78 km downstream? (in hours)

  1. 5
  2. 6.5
  3. 5.5
  4. 8 [United India Insurance Co. Ltd. (UIICL) Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

3451. What is the speed of the boat in still water? (in km/hr) I. The boat takes total time of 4 h to travel 14 km upstream and 35 km downstream together. II. The boat takes total time of 5 h to travel 29 km upstream and 24 km downstream together. [CET—Maharashtra (MBA) Exam, 2016]

  1. If the data given in Statement I alone are sufficient
  2. If the data given in Statement II alone are sufficient
  3. If the data in either Statement I alone or in
  4. If the data in both the statement I and II are not
  5. If the data given in both the Statements I and II

3452. What is the speed of the current? (R.B.I., 2004) I. Speed of the boat is 4 km/hr in still water. II. The boat runs at a speed of 6 km/hr down - stream. III. The difference between the speeds of the boat while travelling in still water and downstream is 2 km/hr.

  1. Only I and II
  2. Only III
  3. Any one of the three
  4. Only I and either II or III
  5. Either I and II together or only III

3453. What is the speed of the boat in still water? I. The speed downstream is 12 kmph. II. The speed upstream is 4 kmph. III. In a to and fro journey between two points, the average speed of the boat was 6 kmph.

  1. I and II only
  2. All I, II and III
  3. III, and either I or II
  4. Any two of the three
  5. None of these

3454. What is the speed of stream?

  1. Any two of the three
  2. I and II only
  3. II and III only
  4. I and III only
  5. All I, II and III

3455. A train moves with a speed of 108 kmph. Its speed in metres per second is

  1. 10.8 m/sec.
  2. 18 m/sec.
  3. 30 m/sec.
  4. 38.8 m/sec.

3456. A speed of 14 metres per second is the same as

  1. 28 km / hr
  2. 46.6 km / hr
  3. 50.4 km / hr
  4. 70 km / hr

3457. A man sitting in a train is counting the pillars of electricity. The distance between two pillars is 60 metres, and the speed of the train is 42 km/hr. In 5 hours, how many pillars will he count? (R.R.B., 2009)

  1. 3501
  2. 3600
  3. 3800
  4. None of these

3458. In what time will a train 100 metres long cross an electric pole, if its speed be144 km / hr?

  1. 2.5 seconds
  2. 4.25 seconds
  3. 5 seconds
  4. 12.5 seconds

3459. A train 280 m long, running with a speed of 63 km / hr will pass a tree in:

  1. 15 sec
  2. 16 sec
  3. 18 sec
  4. 20 sec

3460. A 100 m long train is going at a speed of 60 km/hr. It will cross a 140 m long railway bridge in (G.I.C., 2009)

  1. 3.6 sec
  2. 7.2 sec
  3. 14.4 sec
  4. 21.6 sec

3461. A 120 metre long train is running at a speed of 90 km/ hr. It will cross a railway platform 230 m long in (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 44 seconds5
  2. 7 seconds
  3. 19 seconds5
  4. 14 seconds

3462. A train travelling at a speed of 75 mph enters a tunnel 13 2 miles long. The train is 1 4 mile long. How long does it take for the train to pass through the tunnel from the moment the front enters to the moment the rear emerges ?

  1. 2.5 min
  2. 3 min
  3. 3.2 min
  4. 3.5 min

3463. A train running at the speed of 60 km / hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What is the length of the train?

  1. 120 metres
  2. 180 metres
  3. 324 metres
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3464. A train 132 m long passes a telegraph pole in 6 seconds. Find the speed of the train.

  1. 70 km / hr
  2. 72 km / hr
  3. 79.2 km / hr
  4. 80 km / hr

3465. A train covers a distance of 12 km in 10 minutes. If it takes 6 seconds to pass a telegraph post, then the length of the train is

  1. 90 m
  2. 100 m
  3. 120 m
  4. 140 m

3466. A train 240 m long passed a pole in 24 seconds. How long will it take to pass a platform 650 m long?

  1. 65 sec
  2. 89 sec
  3. 100 sec
  4. 150 sec

3467. A 50-metre long train passes over a bridge at the speed of 30 km per hour. If it takes 36 seconds to cross the brige, what is the length of the bridge? (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 200 metres
  2. 250 metres
  3. 300 metres
  4. 350 metres

3468. A train takes 5 minutes to cross a telegraphic post. Then the time taken by another train whose length is just double of the first train and moving with same speed to cross a platform of its own length is (Hotel Management, 2007)

  1. 10 minutes
  2. 15 minutes]
  3. 20 minutes
  4. Data inadequate

3469. The length of the bridge, which a train 130 metres long and travelling at 45 km / hr can cross in 30 seconds, is

  1. 200 m
  2. 225 m
  3. 245 m
  4. 250 m

3470. A train 800 metres long is running at a speed of 78 km/hr. If it crosses a tunnel in 1 minute, then the length of the tunnel (in metres) is :

  1. 130
  2. 360
  3. 500
  4. 540

3471. A train running at the speed of 60 kmph crosses a 200 m long platform in 27 seconds. What is the length of the train?

  1. 200 metres
  2. 240 metres
  3. 250 metres
  4. 450 metres
  5. None of these

3472. A train running at a speed of 90 km/hr crosses a platform double its length in 36 seconds. What is the length of the platform in metres?

  1. 200
  2. 300
  3. 450
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3473. A train of length 150 metres takes 40.5 seconds to cross a tunnel of length 300 metres. What is the speed of the train in km/hr?

  1. 13.33
  2. 26.67
  3. 40
  4. 66.67

3474. A 280-metre long train crosses a platform thrice its length in 50 seconds. What is the speed of the train in km/hr? (M.B.A.–C.E.T., 2008)

  1. 60.48
  2. 64.86
  3. 80.64
  4. 82.38
  5. None of these

3475. A train passes a station platform in 36 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 20 seconds. If the speed of the train is 54 km / hr, what is the length of the platform ? (M.A.T., 2008)

  1. 225 m
  2. 240 m
  3. 230 m
  4. 235 m

3476. Train A crosses a stationary train B in 50 seconds and a pole in 20 seconds with the same speed. The length of the train A is 240 metres. What is the length of the stationary train B?

  1. 260 metres
  2. 300 metres
  3. 360 metres
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3477. A train speeds past a pole in 20 seconds and speeds past a platform 100 metres in length in 30 seconds. What is the length of the train?

  1. 100 m
  2. 150 m
  3. 180 m
  4. 200 m
  5. None of these

3478. A train crosses a platform 100 m long in 60 seconds at a speed of 45 km/hr. The time taken by the train to cross an electric pole is:

  1. 8 sec
  2. 52 sec
  3. 1 minute
  4. Data inadequate

3479. A train, 150 m long, takes 30 seconds to cross a bridge 500 m long. How much time will the train take to cross a platform 370 m long? (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 18 sec
  2. 24 sec
  3. 30 sec
  4. 36 sec

3480. A train passes a platform 90 m long in 30 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 15 seconds. The speed of the train is

  1. 12.4 km/hr
  2. 14.6 km/hr
  3. 18.4 km/hr
  4. 21.6 km/hr

3481. A train running at a certain speed takes 20 seconds to cross a signal post and 50 seconds to cross a bridge. Which of the following statements is correct about the length of the bridge?

  1. 1.5 times the length of the train
  2. 2.5 times the length of the train
  3. 30 metres more than the length of the train
  4. Cannot be determined

3482. A train travelling with a constant speed crosses a 96-metre long platform in 12 seconds and another 141-metre long platform in 15 seconds. The length of the train and its speed are (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 84 metres and 54 km/hr
  2. 64 metres and 44 km/hr
  3. 64 metres and 54 km/hr
  4. 84 metres and 60 km/hr

3483. A train with 90 km/hr crosses a bridge in 36 sec - onds. Another train 100 metres shorter crosses the same bridge at 45 km/hr. What is the time taken by the second train to cross the bridge? (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 61 seconds
  2. 62 seconds
  3. 63 seconds
  4. 64 seconds

3484. A train 110 metres long is running with a speed of 60 kmph. In what time will it pass a man who is running at 6 kmph in the direction opposite to that in which the train is going? (M.A.T., 2002)

  1. 5 sec
  2. 6 sec
  3. 7 sec
  4. 10 sec

3485. Two trains 200 metres and 150 metres long are running on parallel rails in the same direction at speeds of 40 km/hr and 45 km/hr respectively. Time taken by the faster train to cross the slowed train will be (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 72 seconds
  2. 132 seconds
  3. 192 seconds
  4. 252 seconds

3486. Two trains A and B start running together from the same point in the same direction, at the speeds of 60 kmph and 72 kmph respectively. If the length of each of the trains is 240 metres, how long will it take for train B to cross train A?

  1. 1 min 12 secs
  2. 1 min 24 secs
  3. 2 min 12 secs
  4. 2 min 24 secs

3487. Two trains are moving in opposite directions @ 60 km / hr and 90 km / hr. Their lengths are 1.10 km and 0.9 km respectively. The time taken by the slower train to cross the faster train in seconds is (M.B.A., 2002)

  1. 36
  2. 45
  3. 48
  4. 49

3488. Two trains of lengths 120 m and 90 m are running with speeds of 80 km/hr and 55 km/hr respectively towards each other on parallel lines. If they are 90 m apart, after how many seconds they will cross each other? (Hotel Management, 2010)

  1. 5.6 sec.
  2. 7.2 sec.
  3. 8 sec.
  4. 9 sec.

3489. Two trains are coming from opposite directions with speeds of 75 km/hr and 100 km/hr on two parallel tracks. At some moment the distance between them is 100 km. After T hours, distance between them is again 100 km. T is equal to (I.A.M., 2007)

  1. 1 hr
  2. 11 hr7
  3. 11 hr2
  4. 2 hrs

3490. A train 125 m long passes a man, running at 5 kmph in the same direction in which the train is going, in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is:

  1. 45 km / hr
  2. 50 km / hr
  3. 54 km / hr
  4. 55 km / hr

3491. A train 400 m long overtook a man walking along the line in the same direction as the train, at the rate of 5 kmph and passed him in 40 seconds. The train reached the station in 20 minutes after passing the man. In what time did the man reach the station?

  1. 2 hr 24 min
  2. 2 hr 30 min 40 sec
  3. 2 hr 36 min 48 sec
  4. 2 hr 48 min 48 sec

3492. A train, 240 m long, crosses a man walking along the line in opposite direction at the rate of 3 kmph in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 63 kmph
  2. 75 kmph
  3. 83.4 kmph
  4. 86.4 kmph

3493. A train 75 m long overtook a person who was walking at the rate of 6 km/hr in the same direction and passed him in 17 2 seconds. Subsequently, it overtook a second person and passed him in 36 4 seconds. At what rate was the second person travelling? (M.A.T., 2008)

  1. 1 km/hr
  2. 2 km/hr
  3. 4 km/hr
  4. 5 km/hr

3494. If a train takes 1.75 sec to cross a telegraphic post and 1.5 sec to overtake a cyclist racing along a road parallel to the track @ 10 metres per second, then the length of the train is

  1. 105 m
  2. 115 m
  3. 125 m
  4. 135 m

3495. Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at 46 km / hr and 36 km / hr. The faster train passes the slower train in 36 seconds. The length of each train is (M.A.T., 2003)

  1. 50 m
  2. 72 m
  3. 80 m
  4. 82 m

3496. A 270 m long train running at the speed of 120 kmph crosses another train running in opposite direction at the speed of 80 kmph in 9 seconds. What is the length of the other train?

  1. 230 m
  2. 240 m
  3. 260 m
  4. 320 m
  5. None of these

3497. Two trains are running in opposite directions with the same speed. If the length of each train is 120 metres and they cross each other in 12 seconds, then the speed of each train (in km / hr) is (S.S.C., 2003)

  1. 10
  2. 18
  3. 36
  4. 72

3498. A 180-metre long train crosses another 270-metre long train running in the opposite direction in 10.8 seconds. If the speed of the first train is 60 kmph, what is the speed of the second train in kmph?

  1. 80
  2. 90
  3. 150
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3499. Two trains of equal lengths take 10 seconds and 15 seconds respectively to cross a telegraph post. If the length of each train be 120 metres, in what time (in seconds) will they cross each other travelling in opposite direction? (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. 10
  2. 12
  3. 15
  4. 20

3500. A train B speeding with 120 kmph crosses another train C running in the same direction, in 2 minutes. If the lengths of the trains B and C be 100 m and 200 m respectively, what is the speed (in kmph) of the train C? (L.I.C.A.A.O., 2007)

  1. 111 km
  2. 123 km
  3. 127 km
  4. 129 km

3501. One local and another express train were proceeding in the same direction on parallel tracks at 29 km/ hr and 65 km/hr respectively. The driver of the farmer noticed that it took exactly 16 seconds for the faster train to pass by him. What is the length of the faster train?

  1. 60 m
  2. 120 m
  3. 160 m
  4. 240 m

3502. Two trains travel in opposite directions at 36 kmph and 45 kmph and a man sitting in slower train passes the faster train in 8 seconds. The length of the faster train is :

  1. 80 m
  2. 100 m
  3. 120 m
  4. 180 m

3503. A train overtakes two persons who are walking in the same direction in which the train is going, at the rate of 2 kmph and 4 kmph and passes them completely in 9 and 10 seconds respectively. The length of the train is :

  1. 45 m
  2. 50 m
  3. 54 m
  4. 72 m

3504. A train overtakes two persons walking along a railway track. The first one walks at 4.5 km / hr. The other one walks at 5.4 km / hr. The train needs 8.4 and 8.5 seconds respectively to overtake them. What is the speed of the train if both the persons are walking in the same direction as the train?

  1. 66 km / hr
  2. 72 km / hr
  3. 78 km / hr
  4. 81 km / hr

3505. Two men are running in the same direction with speeds of 6 km per hour and 17 km2 per respec - tively. A train running in the same direction crosses them in 5 sec and 15 2 sec respectively. The length and the speed of the train are respectively.

  1. 22.92 m
  2. 22 m
  3. 22.90 m
  4. 22.92 m

3506. A train moving at 15 m/sec takes 20 seconds to pass a cyclist moving in the same direction as that of the train. How much time will the train need to pass the cyclist, if the cyclist moves in a direction opposite to that of the train and if the speed of the cyclist is 5 m/ sec and the length of the cycle is 1 m?

  1. 9.95 sec
  2. 10 sec
  3. 10.05 sec
  4. 12 sec

3507. A man standing on a platform finds that a train takes 3 seconds to pass him and another train of the same length moving in the opposite direction takes 4 seconds. The time taken by the trains to pass each other will be

  1. 32 seconds7
  2. 33 seconds7
  3. 34 seconds7
  4. 35 seconds7

3508. A train travelling at 48 kmph completely crosses another train having half its length and travelling in opposite direction at 42 kmph, in 12 seconds. It also passes a railway platform in 45 seconds. The length of the platform is

  1. 400 m
  2. 450 m
  3. 560 m
  4. 600 m

3509. Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform in 27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively and they cross each other in 23 seconds. The ratio of their speeds is :

  1. 1 : 3
  2. 3 : 2
  3. 3 : 4
  4. None of these

3510. Two trains, 130 and 110 metres long, are going in the same direction. The faster train takes one minute to pass the other completely. If they are moving in opposite directions, they pass each other completely in 3 seconds. Find the speed of the faster train. (M.A.T., 2008)

  1. 38 m/sec
  2. 42 m/sec
  3. 46 m/sec
  4. 50 m/sec

3511. Two stations A and B are 110 km apart on a straight line. One train starts from A at 7 a.m. and travels towards B at 20 kmph. Another train starts from B at 8 a.m. and travels towards A at a speed of 25 kmph. At what time will they meet?

  1. 9 a.m.
  2. 10 a.m.
  3. 10.30 a.m.
  4. 11 a.m.

3512. A train X starts from Meerut at 4 p.m. and reaches Ghaziabad at 5 p.m. while another train Y starts from Ghaziabad at 4 p.m. and reaches Meerut at 5.30 p.m. The two trains will cross each other at

  1. 4.36 p.m.
  2. 4.42 p.m.
  3. 4.48 p.m.
  4. 4.50 p.m.

3513. The Ghaziabad-Hapur-Meerut EMU and the Meerut- Hapur-Ghaziabad EMU start at the same time from Ghaziabad and Meerut and proceed towards each other at 16 km/hr and 21 km/hr respectively. When they meet, it is found that one train has travelled 60 km more than the other. The distance between two stations is (I.I.F.T., 2007)

  1. 440 km
  2. 444 km
  3. 445 km
  4. 450 km

3514. Two trains, one from Howrah to Patna and the other from Patna to Howrah, start simultaneously. After they meet, the trains reach their destinations after 9 hours and 16 hours respectively. The ratio of their speeds is :

  1. 2 : 3
  2. 4 : 3
  3. 6 : 7
  4. 9 : 16

3515. Two trains start simultaneously (with uniform speeds) from two stations 270 km apart, each to the opposite station; they reach their destinations in 16 4 hours and 4 hours after they meet. The rate at which the slower train travels is

  1. 16 km/hr.
  2. 24 km/hr.
  3. 25 km/hr.
  4. 30 km/hr.

3516. A train which is moving at an average speed of 40km/h reaches its destination on time. When its average speed reduces to 35 km/h, then it reaches its destination 15 minutes late. The distance travelled by the train, is [CLAT Exam, 2016]

  1. 70km
  2. 80km
  3. 40km
  4. 30km

3517. A train takes 9 sec to cross a pole: If the speed of the train is 48 kmph, then length of the train is [Indian Railway Group ‘D’ Exam, 2014]

  1. 150 m
  2. 120 m
  3. 90 m
  4. 80 m

3518. Two trains start at the same time form A and B and proceed toward each other at the speed of 75 km/hr and 50 km/hr respectively. when both meet at a point in between, one train was found to have travelled 175 km more than the other. Find the distance between A and B. [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 875 km
  2. 785 km
  3. 758 km
  4. 857 km

3519. A train passes two bridges of lengths 500 m and 250 m in 100 seconds and 60 seconds respectively. The length of the train is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 152 m
  2. 125 m
  3. 250 m
  4. 120 m

3520. Train A passes a lamp post in 9 seconds and 700 meter long platform in 30 seconds. How much time will the same train take to cross a platform which is 800 meters long? (in seconds) [United India Insurance Co. Ltd. (UIICL) Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 32
  2. 31
  3. 33
  4. 30

3521. Train A travelling at 63 kmph can cross a platform 199.5 m long in 21 seconds. How much time would train A take to completely cross (from the moment they meet) train B, 157m long and travelling at 54 kmph in opposite direction which train A is travelling? (in seconds) [IBPS—RRB Office Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 16
  2. 18
  3. 12
  4. 10

3522. A train running at a certain speed crosses a stationary engine in 20 seconds. To find out the speed of the train, which of the following information is necessary?

  1. Only the length of the train
  2. Only the length of the engine
  3. Either the length of the train or the length of the engine
  4. Both the length of the train and the length of the engine

3523. A train running at a certain speed crosses another train running in the opposite direction in 4.8 seconds. To find out the speed of the first train, which of the following information P and Q is sufficient? P : The length of the first train Q : The length of the second train

  1. Only P is sufficient
  2. Only Q is sufficient
  3. Either P or Q is sufficient
  4. Both P and Q are needed
  5. Both P and Q are not sufficient

3524. What is the speed of the train? (S.B.I.P.O., 2002) I. The train crosses a tree in 13 seconds. II. The train crosses a platform of length 250 metres in 27 seconds. III. The train crosses another train running in the same direction in 32 seconds.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. Any two of the three
  5. None of these

3525. What is the speed of the train? (M.B.A., 2002) I. The train crosses 300 metres long platform in 21 seconds. II. The train crosses another stationary train of equal length in 119 2 seconds. III. The train crosses a signal pole in 39 4 seconds.

  1. I and II only
  2. I and either II or III only
  3. II and either I or III only
  4. III and either I or II only
  5. None of these

3526. What is the speed of the train?

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. III and either I or II only
  5. Any two of the three

3527. What is the length of the train X? I. Train X crosses a telegraph post in 20 seconds II. Train X crosses a platform of length 800 m in 100 seconds. III. Train X passes through a tunnel 400 m long in 60 seconds.

  1. I and either II or III only
  2. II and III only
  3. II and either I or III only
  4. III and either I or II only
  5. Any two of the three

3528. What is the speed of the train? I. The train passes a man walking at the rate of 3 kmph in 9 seconds. II. The train passes a man walking at the rate of 6 kmph in 10 seconds. I II. The train is moving in the same direction in which the two men are moving.

  1. I and III only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and II only
  4. All I, II and III
  5. Question cannot be answered even with infor - mation in all the three statements.

3529. What is the length of the train?

  1. I and II only
  2. I and III only
  3. All I, II and III
  4. Any two of the three
  5. None of these

3530. What is the speed of train?

  1. Only I and II
  2. Any two of the three
  3. All I, II and III
  4. II and either I or III
  5. Even with all three statements answer cannot be given.

3531. How much time will the train A take to cross an - other train B running in opposite direction? I. Train A crosses a signal pole in 6 seconds. II. Ratio of the speeds of trains A and B is 3 : 2. III. Length of the two trains together is 500 metres.

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. III only
  4. I or II only
  5. Question cannot be answered even with the information in all the three statements.

3532. What is the length of a running train P crossing another running train Q? I. These two trains take 18 seconds to cross each other. II. These trains are running in opposite directions. III. The length of train Q is 180 metres.

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. III only
  4. All I, II and III are required
  5. Even with I, II and III, the answer cannot be obtained.

3533. At what time will the train reach city X from city Y? I. The train crosses another train of equal length of 200 metres and running in opposite direction in 15 seconds. II. The train leaves city Y at 7.15 a.m. for city X situated at a distance of 558 km. III. The 200 metre long train crosses a signal pole in 10 seconds.

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. III only
  4. I or III only
  5. All I, II and III are required

3534. In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of pulses costing ₹ 15 and ₹ 20 per kg respectively so as to get a mixture worth ₹ 16.50 per kg ? (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 3 : 7
  2. 5 : 7
  3. 7 : 3
  4. 7 : 5

3535. Find the ratio in which rice at ₹ 7.20 a kg be mixed with rice at ₹ 5.70 a kg to produce a mixture worth ₹ 6.30 a kg.

  1. 1 : 3
  2. 2 : 3
  3. 3 : 4
  4. 4 : 5

3536. In what ratio must tea at ₹ 62 per kg be mixed with tea at ₹ 72 per kg so that the mixture must be worth ₹ 64.50 per kg ?

  1. 3 : 1
  2. 3 : 2
  3. 4 : 3
  4. 5 : 3

3537. In what ratio must water be mixed with milk costing ₹ 12 per litre to obtain a mixture worth of ₹ 8 per litre ?

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 2 : 1
  3. 2 : 3
  4. 3 : 2

3538. The cost of Type 1 rice is ₹ 15 per kg and Type 2 rice is ₹ 20 per kg. If both Type 1 and Type 2 are mixed in the ratio of 2 : 3, then the price per kg of the mixed variety of rice is

  1. ₹ 18
  2. ₹ 18.50
  3. ₹ 19
  4. ₹ 19.50

3539. In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of tea worth ₹ 60 a kg and ₹ 65 a kg so that by selling the mixture at ₹ 68.20 a kg he may gain 10%?

  1. 3 : 2
  2. 3 : 4
  3. 3 : 5
  4. 4 : 5

3540. How many kilograms of sugar costing ₹ 9 per kg must be mixed with 27 kg of sugar costing ₹ 7 per kg so that there may be a gain of 10% by selling the mixture at ₹ 9.24 per kg ?

  1. 36 kg
  2. 42 kg
  3. 54 kg
  4. 63 kg

3541. In what ratio must water be mixed with milk to gain 216 %3 on selling the mixture at cost price ?

  1. 1 : 6
  2. 6 : 1
  3. 2 : 3
  4. 4 : 3

3542. A dishonest milkman professes to sell his milk at cost price but he mixes it with water and thereby gains 25%. The percentage of water in the mixture is

  1. 4%
  2. 16%4
  3. 20%
  4. 25%

3543. Two vessels A and B contain spirit and water mixed in the ratio 5 : 2 and 7 : 6 respectively. Find the ratio in which these mixtures be mixed to obtain a new mixture in vessel C containing spirit and water in the ratio 8 : 5 ?

  1. 4 : 3
  2. 3 : 4
  3. 5 : 6
  4. 7 : 9

3544. Two vessels A and B contain milk and water mixed in the ratio 8 : 5 and 5 : 2 respectively. The ratio in which these two mixtures be mixed to get a new mixture containing 369 %13 milk, is

  1. 2 : 7
  2. 3 : 5
  3. 5 : 2
  4. 5 : 7

3545. A milk vendor has 2 cans of milk. The first contains 25% water and the rest milk. The second contains 50% water. How much milk should he mix from each of the containers so as to get 12 litres of milk such that the ratio of water to milk is 3 : 5 ?

  1. 4 litres, 8 litres
  2. 6 litres, 6 litres
  3. 5 litres, 7 litres
  4. 7 litres, 5 litres

3546. One quality of wheat at ₹ 9.30 per kg is mixed with another quality at a certain rate in the ratio 8 : 7. If the mixture so formed be worth ₹ 10 per kg, what is the rate per kg of the second quality of wheat ?

  1. ₹ 10.30
  2. ₹ 10.60
  3. ₹ 10.80
  4. ₹ 11

3547. Tea worth ₹ 126 per kg and ₹ 135 per kg are mixed with a third variety in the ratio 1 : 1 : 2. If the mixture is worth ₹ 153 per kg, the price of the third variety per kg will be :

  1. ₹ 169.50
  2. ₹ 170
  3. ₹ 175.50
  4. ₹ 180

3548. A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar, part of which he sells at 8% profit and the rest at 18% profit. He gains 14% on the whole. The quantity sold at 18% profit is

  1. 400 kg
  2. 560 kg
  3. 600 kg
  4. 640 kg

3549. A jar full of whisky contains 40% alcohol. A part of this whisky is replaced by another containing 19% alcohol and now the percentage of alcohol was found to be 26%. The quantity of whisky replaced is :

  1. 1 3
  2. 2 3
  3. 2 5
  4. 3 5

3550. A container contains 40 litres of milk. From this con- tainer 4 litres of milk was taken out and replaced by water. This process was repeated further two times. How much milk is now contained by the container ?

  1. 26.34 litres
  2. 27.36 litres
  3. 28 litres
  4. 29.16 litres

3551. 8 litres are drawn from a cask full of wine and is then filled with water. This operation is performed three more times. The ratio of the quantity of wine now left in cask to that of the water is 16 : 65. How much wine did the cask hold originally ?

  1. 18 litres
  2. 24 litres
  3. 32 litres
  4. 42 litres

3552. A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in the ratio 7 : 5. When 9 litres of mixture are drawn off and the can is filled with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 7 : 9. How many litres of liquid A was contained by the can initially?

  1. 10
  2. 20
  3. 21
  4. 25

3553. A vessel is filled with liquid, 3 parts of which are water and 5 parts syrup. How much of the mixture must be drawn off and replaced with water so that the mixture may be half water and half syrup ?

  1. 1 3
  2. 1 4
  3. 1 5
  4. 1 7

3554. A milkman mixed some water with milk to gain 25% by selling the mixture at the cost price. The ratio of water and milk is respectively. [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 5 : 4
  2. 4 : 5
  3. 1 : 5
  4. 1 : 4

3555. 20 litres of a mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 3 : 1. Then the amount of milk to be added to the mixture so as to have milk and water in ratio 4 : 1 is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 7 litres
  2. 4 litres
  3. 5 litres
  4. 6 litres

3556. A vessel contains a mixture of Grape, Pineapple and Banana juices in the respective ratio of 4 : 6 : 5. 15 litres of this mixture is taken out and 8 litres of grape juice and 2 litres of pineapple juice is added to the vessel. If the resultant quantity of grape juice is 10 litres less than the resultant quantity of grape juice is 10 litres less than the resultant quantity of pineapple juice. What was the initial quantity of mixture in the vessel? (in litres) [IBPS—Bank PO/MT (Pre.) Exam, 2015]

  1. 120
  2. 150
  3. 105
  4. 135

3557. The respective ratio of milk and water in the mixture is 4 : 3 respectively. If 6 Litres of water is added to this mixture, the respective ratio of milk and water becomes 8 : 7. What is the quantity of milk in the original mixture? [IBPS—RRB Office Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 36 litres
  2. 84 litres
  3. 48 litres
  4. None of these

3558. 35 kg of type A sandal powder, which costs ₹ 614 per kg, was mixed with a certain amount of type B sandal powder, which costs ₹ 695 per kg. then the mixture was sold at the rate of ₹ 767 per kg and 18% profit was earned. What was the amount (in kg) of type B sandal powder in the mixture? [IBPS—Bank Spl. Officer (IT) Exam, 2015]

  1. 24
  2. 28
  3. 32
  4. 36

3559. How many liters of water should be added to a 30 litre mixture of milk and water containing milk and water in the ratio of 7 : 3 such that the resultant mixture has 40% water in it? [SSC—Junior Associates (Pre.) Exam, 2016]

  1. 5
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 8

3560. What would be the simple interest obtained on an amount of ₹ 5760 at the rate of 6 p.c.p.a. after 3 years.?

  1. ₹ 1036.80
  2. ₹ 1063.80
  3. ₹ 1336.80
  4. ₹ 1666.80
  5. None of these

3561. A farmer borrowed ₹ 3600 at 15% simple interest per annum. At the end of 4 years, he cleared this account by paying ₹ 4000 and a cow. The cost of the cow is

  1. ₹ 1000
  2. ₹ 1200
  3. ₹ 1550
  4. ₹ 1760

3562. Ram borrows ₹ 520 from Gaurav at a simple interest of 13% per annum. What amount of money should Ram pay to Gaurav after 6 months to be absolved of the debt?

  1. ₹ 353.80
  2. ₹ 453.80
  3. ₹ 552.80
  4. ₹ 553.80

3563. At the rate of 18%2 p.a. simple interest, a sum of ₹ 4800 will earn how much interest in 2 years 3 months?

  1. ₹ 796
  2. ₹ 816
  3. ₹ 918
  4. ₹ 956

3564. What will be the simple interest earned on an amount of ₹ 16,800 in 9 months at the rate of 16%4 p.a. ?

  1. ₹ 787.50
  2. ₹ 812.50
  3. ₹ 860
  4. ₹ 887.50

3565. The simple interest on ₹ 1820 from March 9, 2012 to May 21, 2012 at 17%2 rate will be

  1. ₹ 22.50
  2. ₹ 27.30
  3. ₹ 28.80
  4. ₹ 29

3566. A shopkeeper with an overdraft facility at 18 percent with a bank borrowed ₹ 15000 on Jan 8, 2011 and returned the money on June 3, 2011 so as to clear the debt. The amount that he paid was

  1. ₹ 16080
  2. ₹ 16280
  3. ₹ 16400
  4. None of these

3567. A person borrows ₹ 5000 for 2 years at 4% p.a. simple interest. He immediately lends it to another person at 16%4 p.a. for 2 years. Find his gain in the transaction per year. (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. ₹ 112.50
  2. ₹ 125
  3. ₹ 150
  4. ₹ 167.50

3568. Ramakant invested amounts in two different schemes A and B for five years in the ratio of 5 : 4 respectively. Scheme A offers 8% simple interest and bonus equal to 20% of the amount of interest earned in 5 years on maturity. Scheme B offers 9% simple interest. If the amount invested in scheme A was ₹ 20000, what was the total amount received on maturity from both the schemes?

  1. ₹ 50800
  2. ₹ 51200
  3. ₹ 52800
  4. ₹ 58200
  5. None of these

3569. ₹ 1000 is invested at 5% per annum simple interest. If the interest is added to the principal after every 10 years, the amount will become ₹ 2000 after (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 15 years
  2. 216 years3
  3. 18 years
  4. 20 years

3570. How much time will it take for an amount of ₹ 450 to yield ₹ 81 as interest at 4.5% per annum of simple interest ? (IGNOU, 2003)

  1. 3.5 years
  2. 4 years
  3. 4.5 years
  4. 5 years

3571. Asmita invests an amount of ₹ 9534 @ 4 p.c.p.a. to obtain a total amount of ₹ 11442 on simple interest after a certain period. For how many years did she invest the amount to obtain the total sum? (M.A.T., 2009)

  1. 2 years
  2. 4 years
  3. 5 years
  4. 10 years

3572. Deepak invested an amount of ₹ 21250 for 6 years. At what rate of simple interest will be obtain the total amount of ₹ 26350 at the end of 6 years?

  1. 5 p.c.p.a
  2. 6 p.c.p.a
  3. 8 p.c.p.a
  4. 12 p.c.p.a
  5. None these

3573. A sum of ₹ 1600 gives a simple interest of ₹ 252 in 2 years and 4 months. The rate of interest per annum is

  1. 6%
  2. 16%4
  3. 16%2
  4. 36%4

3574. At what rate of simple interest per annum can an amount of ₹ 1553.40 be obtained on the principal amount of ₹ 8630 after 3 years?

  1. 4 p.c.p.a
  2. 5 p.c.p.a
  3. 7 p.c.p.a
  4. 8 p.c.p.a
  5. None of these

3575. If simple interest on ₹ 600 for 4 years and on ₹ 600 for 2 years combined together is ₹ 180, find the rate of interest. (R.R.B., 2009)

  1. 4%
  2. 5%
  3. 5.5%
  4. 6.25%

3576. Veena obtained an amount of ₹ 8376 as simple interest on a certain amount at 8 p.c.p.a. after 6 years. What is the amount invested by Veena? (S.B.I.P.O., 2008)

  1. ₹ 16660
  2. ₹ 17180
  3. ₹ 17450
  4. ₹ 18110
  5. None of these

3577. At which sum the simple interest at the rate of 33%4 per annum will be ₹ 210 in 12 3 years? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. ₹ 1580
  2. ₹ 2400
  3. ₹ 2800
  4. None of these

3578. What is the present worth of ₹ 132 due in 2 years at 5% simple interest per annum ?

  1. ₹ 112
  2. ₹ 118.80
  3. ₹ 120
  4. ₹ 122

3579. A sum fetched a total simple interest of ₹ 4016.25 at the rate of 9 p.c.p.a. in 5 years. What is the sum?

  1. ₹ 4462.50
  2. ₹ 8032.50
  3. ₹ 8900
  4. ₹ 8925
  5. None of these

3580. The simple interest at x% for x years will be ₹ x on a sum of :

  1. ₹ x
  2. 100 x   ₹
  3. ₹ 100 x
  4. 2 100 x   ₹

3581. In 4 years, ₹ 6000 amounts to ₹ 8000. In what time at the same rate will ₹ 525 amount to ₹ 700?

  1. 2 years
  2. 3 years
  3. 4 years
  4. 5 years

3582. ₹ 6200 amounts to ₹ 9176 in 4 years at simple interest. If the interest rate is increased by 3% it would amount to how much?

  1. ₹ 8432
  2. ₹ 9820
  3. ₹ 9920
  4. ₹ 10920

3583. Simple interest on ₹ 500 for 4 years at 6.25% per annum is equal to the simple interest on ₹ 400 at 5% per annum for a certain period of time. The period of time is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 4 years
  2. 5 years
  3. 16 years4
  4. 28 years3

3584. A certain amount earns simple interest of ₹ 1750 after 7 years. Had the interest been 2% more, how much more interest would it have earned ?

  1. ₹ 35
  2. ₹ 245
  3. ₹ 350
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3585. ₹ 6000 becomes ₹ 7200 in 4 years at a certain rate of simple interest. If the rate becomes 1.5 times of itself, the amount of the same principal in 5 years will be (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. ₹ 8000
  2. ₹ 8250
  3. ₹ 9000
  4. ₹ 9250

3586. In how many years, ₹ 150 will produce the same interest @ 8% as ₹ 800 produce in 3 years @ 14%2 ?

  1. 6
  2. 8
  3. 9
  4. 12

3587. The simple interest accrued on a certain principal in 5 years at the rate of 12 p.c.p.a. is ₹ 1536. What amount of simple interest would one get if one invests ₹ 1000 more than the previous principal for 2 years and at the same rate p.c.p.a.?

  1. ₹ 614.40
  2. ₹ 845.40
  3. ₹ 1536
  4. ₹ 2136
  5. None of these

3588. If ₹ 64 amounts to ₹ 83.20 in 2 years, what will ₹ 86 amount to in 4 years at the same rate percent per annum ?

  1. ₹ 114.80
  2. ₹ 124.70
  3. ₹ 127.40
  4. ₹ 137.60

3589. The simple interest on a certain sum of money at the rate of 5% p.a. for 8 years is ₹ 840. At what rate of interest the same amount of interest can be received on the same sum after 5 years ?

  1. 6%
  2. 8%
  3. 9%
  4. 10%

3590. The interest on a certain deposit at 4.5% p.a. is ₹ 202.50 in one year. How much will the additional interest in one year be on the same deposit at 5% p.a. ?

  1. ₹ 20.25
  2. ₹ 22.50
  3. ₹ 25
  4. ₹ 42.75

3591. A sum invested at 5% simple interest per annum grows to ₹ 504 in 4 years. The same amount at 10% simple interest per annum in 12 2 years will grow to :

  1. ₹ 420
  2. ₹ 450
  3. ₹ 525
  4. ₹ 550

3592. If x, y, z are three sums of money such that y is the simple interest on x, z is the simple interest on y for the same time and at the same rate of interest, then we have (G.B.O., 2007)

  1. x2 = yz
  2. y2 = xz
  3. z2 = xy
  4. xyz = 1

3593. What will be the ratio of simple interest earned by certain amount at the same rate of interest for 6 years and that for 9 years ?

  1. 1 : 3
  2. 1 : 4
  3. 12 : 3
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

3594. Arun borrowed a sum of money from Jayant at the rate of 8% per annum simple interest for the first four years, 10% per annum for the next 6 years and 12% per annum for the period beyond 10 years. If he pays a total of ₹ 12160 as interest only at the end of 15 years, how much money did be borrow? (N.MA.T., 2005)

  1. ₹ 8000
  2. ₹ 9000
  3. ₹ 10000
  4. ₹ 12000

3595. Kruti took a loan at simple interest rate of 6 p.c.p.a. in the first year and it increased by 1.5 p.c.p.a. every year. If she pays ₹ 8190 as interest at the end of 3 years, what was her loan amount?

  1. ₹ 35400
  2. ₹ 36000
  3. ₹ 36800
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3596. A person deposited ₹ 400 for 2 years, ₹ 550 for 4 years and ₹ 1200 for 6 years. He received the total simple interest of ₹ 1020. The rate of interest per annum is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 5%
  2. 10%
  3. 15%
  4. 20%

3597. The simple interest on a sum of money will be ₹ 600 after 10 years. If the principal is trebled after 5 years, what will be the total interest at the end of the tenth year ?

  1. ₹ 600
  2. ₹ 900
  3. ₹ 1200
  4. ₹ 1500
  5. Data inadequate

3598. The simple interest on ₹ 10 for 4 months at the rate of 3 paise per rupee per month is

  1. ₹ 1.20
  2. ₹ 1.60
  3. ₹ 2.40
  4. ₹ 3.60

3599. An automobile financier claims to be lending money at simple interest, but he includes the interest every six months for calculating the principal. If he is charging an interest of 10%, the effective rate of interest becomes

  1. 10%
  2. 10.25%
  3. 10.5%
  4. None of these

3600. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to ₹ 815 in 3 years and to ₹ 854 in 4 years. The sum is

  1. ₹ 650
  2. ₹ 690
  3. ₹ 698
  4. ₹ 700

3601. A sum of money lent out at simple interest amounts to ₹ 720 after 2 years and to ₹ 1020 after a further period of 5 years. The sum is (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. ₹ 500
  2. ₹ 600
  3. ₹ 700
  4. ₹ 710

3602. A sum of money amounts to ₹ 5200 in 5 years and to ₹ 5680 in 7 years at simple interest. The rate of interest per annum is : (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 3%
  2. 4%
  3. 5%
  4. 6%

3603. A sum of money becomes ₹ 20925 in 2 years and ₹ 24412.50 in 5 years. Find the rate of interest and the sum of money. (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 6.25%, ₹ 18600
  2. 6.75%, ₹ 17775
  3. 7%, ₹ 18000
  4. 8%, ₹ 17560

3604. A certain sum of money at simple interest amounts to ₹ 1012 in 12 2 years and to ₹ 1067.20 in 4 years. The rate of interest per annum is

  1. 2.5%
  2. 3%
  3. 4%
  4. 5%

3605. In how many years will a sum of money double itself at 18.75% per annum simple interest? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 4 years 5 months
  2. 5 years 4 months
  3. 6 years 2 months
  4. 6 years 5 months

3606. At what rate percent of simple interest will a sum of money double itself in 12 years ?

  1. 18%4
  2. 18%3
  3. 18%2
  4. 19%2

3607. The rate at which a sum becomes four times of itself in 15 years at S.I., will be

  1. 15%
  2. 117 %2
  3. 20%
  4. 25%

3608. A sum of money at a simple rate of interest i1, doubles in 5 years. At another simple rate of interest i2, it becomes three times in 12 years. Then, the two rates of interest i1 and i2 respectively are

  1. 210%, 16 %3
  2. 10%, 20%
  3. 220%, 16 %3
  4. 20%, 30%

3609. A sum of money at simple interest doubles in 7 years. It will become four times in: (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 18 years
  2. 21 years
  3. 38 years
  4. 42 years

3610. A sum of money trebles itself in 15 years 6 months. In how many years would it double itself ?

  1. 6 years 3 months
  2. 7 years 9 months
  3. 8 years 3 months
  4. 9 years 6 months

3611. If a sum doubles in 6 years, how much will it be in 8 years? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 11 times2
  2. 11 times3
  3. 11 times4
  4. 31 times4

3612. money becomes four times in 10 years if it gets doubled in 5 years. Of these statements,

  1. 1 and 3 are correct
  2. 2 alone is correct
  3. 3 alone is correct
  4. 2 and 3 are correct

3613. The simple interest on a sum of money at 8% per annum for 6 years is half the sum. The sum is :

  1. ₹ 4800
  2. ₹ 6000
  3. ₹ 8000
  4. Data inadequate

3614. At what rate percent per annum will the simple interest on a sum of money be 2 5 of the amount in 10 years ?

  1. 4%
  2. 25%3
  3. 6%
  4. 26%3

3615. In how much time would the simple interest on a certain sum be 0.125 times the principal at 10% per annum ?

  1. 11 years4
  2. 31 years4
  3. 12 years4
  4. 32 years4

3616. How long will it take a sum of money invested at 5% p.a. S.I. to increase its value by 40%?

  1. 5 years
  2. 6 years
  3. 7 years
  4. 8 years

3617. A sum of money becomes 7 6 of itself in 3 years at a certain rate of simple interest. The rate per annum is

  1. 55%9
  2. 56%9
  3. 18%
  4. 25%

3618. If the simple interest for 6 years be equal to 30% of the principal, it will be equal to the principal after

  1. 10 years
  2. 20 years
  3. 22 years
  4. 30 years

3619. Simple interest on a certain sum at a certain annual rate of interest is 1 9 of the sum. If the numbers representing rate percent and time in years be equal, then the rate of interest is

  1. 13%3
  2. 5%
  3. 26%3
  4. 10%

3620. Simple interest on a certain amount is 9 16 of the principal. If the numbers representing the rate of interest in percent and time in years be equal, then time, for which the principal is lent out, is

  1. 15 years2
  2. 16 years2
  3. 7 years
  4. 17 years2

3621. A lends ₹ 2500 to B and a certain sum to C at the same time at 7% p.a. simple interest. If after 4 years, A altogether receives ₹ 1120 as interest from B and C, then the sum lent to C is :

  1. ₹ 700
  2. ₹ 1500
  3. ₹ 4000
  4. ₹ 6500

3622. Two equal sums of money were lent at simple interest at 11% p.a. for 13 2 years and 14 2 years respectively. If the difference in interests for two periods was ₹ 412.50, then each sum is:

  1. ₹ 3250
  2. ₹ 3500
  3. ₹ 3750
  4. ₹ 4250

3623. If the simple interest on a certain sum for 15 months at 17%2 per annum exceeds the simple interest on the same sum for 8 months at 112 %2 per annum by ₹ 32.50, then the sum (in ₹) is :

  1. ₹ 3000
  2. ₹ 3060
  3. ₹ 3120
  4. ₹ 3250

3624. Sujata invested ₹ 7500 at simple interest @ 11 p.c.p.a. She further invested some amount at simple interest @ 15 p.c.p.a. Total interest earned at the end of the year became 12 p.c.p.a. Find the amount invested at the rate of 15 p.c.p.a.

  1. ₹ 2000
  2. ₹ 2500
  3. ₹ 3000
  4. ₹ 3500

3625. A man invests a certain sum of money at 6% p.a. simple interest and another sum at 7% p.a. simple interest. His income from interest after 2 years was ₹ 354. One-fourth of the first sum is equal to one- fifth of the second sum. The total sum invested was :

  1. ₹ 2600
  2. ₹ 2700
  3. ₹ 2880
  4. ₹ 2900

3626. Rahul borrowed a sum of ₹ 1150 from Amit at the simple interest rate of 6 p.c.p.a. for 3 years. He then added some more money to the borrowed sum and lent it to Sachin for the same time at 9 p.c.p.a. simple interest. If Rahul gains ₹ 274.95 by way of interest on borrowed sum as well as his own amount from the whole tr ansaction, then what is the sum lent by him to Sachin?

  1. ₹ 1200
  2. ₹ 1285
  3. ₹ 1690
  4. ₹ 1785
  5. None of these

3627. A person invested some amount at the rate of 12% simple interest and a certain amount at the rate of 10% simple interest. He received yearly interest of ₹ 130. But if he had interchanged the amounts invested, he would have received ₹ 4 more as interest. How much did he invest at 12% simple interest? (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. ₹ 400
  2. ₹ 500
  3. ₹ 700
  4. ₹ 800

3628. A person borrowed ₹ 500 @ 3% per annum S.I. and ₹ 600 @ 14%2 per annum on the agreement that the whole sum will be returned only when the total interest becomes ₹ 126. The number of years, after which the borrowed sum is to be returned, is :

  1. 2 years
  2. 3 years
  3. 4 years
  4. 5 years

3629. Two equal sums of money are lent at the same time at 8% and 7% per annum simple interest. The former is recovered 6 months earlier than the latter and the amount in each case is ₹ 2560. The sum and the time for which the sums of money are lent out are (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. ₹ 2000, 3.5 years × 4 years
  2. ₹ 1500, 3.5 years × 4 years
  3. ₹ 2000, 4 years × 5.5 years
  4. ₹ 3000, 4 years × 4.5 years

3630. A lent ₹ 5000 to B for 2 years and ₹ 3000 to C for 4 years on simple interest at the same rate of interest and received ₹ 2200 in all from both of them as interest. The rate of interest per annum is

  1. 5%
  2. 7%
  3. 17%8
  4. 10%

3631. A sum of ₹ 725 is lent in the beginning of a year at a certain rate of interest. After 8 months, a sum of ₹ 362.50 more is lent but at the rate twice the former. At the end of the year, ₹ 33.50 is earned as interest from both the loans. What was the original rate of interest ?

  1. 3.6%
  2. 4.5%
  3. 5%
  4. 6%
  5. None of these

3632. The difference between the simple interest received from two different sources on ₹ 1500 for 3 years is ₹ 13.50. The difference between their rates of interest is

  1. 0.1%
  2. 0.2%
  3. 0.3%
  4. 0.4%
  5. None of these

3633. Peter invested an amount of ₹ 12,000 at the rate of 10 p.c.p.a. simple interest and another amount at the rate of 20 p.c.p.a. simple interest. The total interest earned at the end of one year on the total amount invested became 14 p.c.p.a. Find the total amount invested.

  1. ₹ 20,000
  2. ₹ 22,000
  3. ₹ 24,000
  4. ₹ 25,000
  5. None of these

3634. A man invested ₹ 5000 at some rate of simple interest and ₹ 4000 at 1 percent higher rate of interest. If the interest in both the cases after 4 years is same, the rate of interest in the former case is

  1. 4% p.a.
  2. 5% p.a.
  3. 16%4 p.a.
  4. 18%3 p.a.

3635. What should be the least number of years in which the simple interest on ₹ 2600 at 26%3 will be an exact number of rupees ?

  1. 2 years
  2. 3 years
  3. 4 years
  4. 5 years

3636. The rates of simple interest in two banks A and B are in the ratio 5 : 4. A person wants to deposit his total savings in two banks in such a way that he received equal half-yearly interest from both. He should deposit the savings in banks A and B in the ratio :

  1. 2 : 5
  2. 4 : 5
  3. 5 : 2
  4. 5 : 4

3637. A sum was put at simple interest at a certain rate for 3 years. Had it been put at 1% higher rate, it would have fetched ₹ 5100 more. The sum is (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. ₹ 1,20,000
  2. ₹ 1,25,000
  3. ₹ 1,50,000
  4. ₹ 1,70,000

3638. If the annual rate of simple interest increases from 10% to 112 %,2 a man’s yearly income increases by ₹ 1250. His principal (in ₹) is (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. ₹ 45,000
  2. ₹ 50,000
  3. ₹ 60,000
  4. ₹ 65,000

3639. A moneylender finds that due to a fall in the annual rate of interest from 8% to 37%4 , his yearly income diminishes by ₹ 61.50. His capital is

  1. ₹ 22,400
  2. ₹ 23,800
  3. ₹ 24,600
  4. ₹ 26,000

3640. What equal instalment of annual payment will discharge a debt which is due as ₹ 848 at the end of 4 years at 4% per annum simple interest ?

  1. ₹ 200
  2. ₹ 212
  3. ₹ 225
  4. ₹ 250

3641. A sum of ₹ 10 is lent to be returned in 11 monthly instalments of ₹ 1 each, interest being simple. The rate of interest is :

  1. 19%11
  2. 10%
  3. 11%
  4. 921 %11

3642. A person takes a loan of ₹ 200 at 5% simple interest. He returns ₹ 100 at the end of 1 year. In order to clear his dues at the end of 2 years, he would pay :

  1. ₹ 105
  2. ₹ 110
  3. ₹ 115
  4. ₹ 115.50

3643. The price of a T.V. set worth ₹ 20,000 is to be paid in 20 instalments of ₹ 1000 each. If the rate of interest be 6% per annum, and the first instalment be paid at the time of purchase, then the value of the last instalment covering the interest as well will be :

  1. ₹ 1050
  2. ₹ 2050
  3. ₹ 3000
  4. None of these

3644. A computer is available for ₹ 39000 cash or ₹ 17000 as cash down payment followed by five monthly instalments of ₹ 4800 each. What is the rate of interest under the instalment plan? (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 35.71% p.a
  2. 36.71% p.a.
  3. 37.71% p.a.
  4. 38.71% p.a.

3645. If the rate increases by 2%, the simple interest received on a sum of money increases by ₹ 108. If the time period is increased by 2 years, the simple interest on the same sum increases by ₹ 180. The sum is:

  1. ₹ 1800
  2. ₹ 3600
  3. ₹ 5400
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

3646. Vishwas borrowed a total amount of ₹ 30000, part of it on simple interest rate of 12 p.c.p.a. and remaining on simple interest rate of 10 p.c.p.a. If at the end of 2 years he paid in all ₹ 36480 to settle the loan amount, what was the amount borrowed at 12 p.c.p.a?

  1. ₹ 12000
  2. ₹ 16000
  3. ₹ 17500
  4. ₹ 18000

3647. A man divided his share between his sons A and B in such a way that the interest received by A at 15% p.a. for 3 years is double the interest received by B at 12% p.a. for 5 years. In what ratio was his share divided? (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. 2 3
  2. 3 2
  3. 3 8
  4. 8 3

3648. A sum of ₹ 18750 is left by a will by a father to be divided between the two sons, 12 and 14 years of age, so that when they attain maturity at 18, the amount (principal + interest) received by each at 5 per cent simple interest will be the same. Find the sum allotted at present to each son. (N.M.A.T., 2005)

  1. ₹ 9500, ₹ 9250
  2. ₹ 8000, ₹ 1750
  3. ₹ 9000, ₹ 9750
  4. None of these

3649. A certain sum of money is invested at an interest rate of 5% per annum and a second sum, twice as large as the first, is invested at 5.5% p.a. The total amount of interest earned from the two investments together is ₹ 1000 per year and the interest is withdrawn every year. The second sum invested is (J.M.E.T., 2007)

  1. ₹ 6250
  2. ₹ 10500
  3. ₹ 12500
  4. ₹ 15000

3650. I had ₹ 10000 with me. Out of this money I lent some money to A for 2 years @ 15% simple interest. I lent the remaining money to B for an equal number of years @ 18% simple interest. After 2 years, I found that A had given me ₹ 360 more as interest as compared to B. The amount of money which I had lent to B must have been

  1. ₹ 2000
  2. ₹ 3000
  3. ₹ 4000
  4. ₹ 5000

3651. A sum of ₹ 2600 is lent out in two parts in such a way that the interest on one part at 10% for 5 years is equal to that on another at 9% for 6 years. The sum lent out at 10% is :

  1. ₹ 1150
  2. ₹ 1250
  3. ₹ 1350
  4. ₹ 1450

3652. A sum of ₹ 1550 was lent partly at 5% and partly at 8% p.a. simple interest. The total interest received after 3 years was ₹ 300. The ratio of the money lent at 5% to that lent at 8% is : (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 5 : 8
  2. 8 : 5
  3. 16 : 15
  4. 31 : 6

3653. A man lends ₹ 10,000 in four parts. If he gets 8% on ₹ 2000; 17%2 on ₹ 4000 and 18%2 on ₹ 1400; what percent must he get for the remainder, if his average annual interest is 8.13% ?

  1. 7%
  2. 9%
  3. 19%4
  4. 110 %2

3654. An amount of ₹ 1,00,000 is invested in two types of shares. The first yields an interest of 9% p.a. and the second, 11% p.a. If the total interest at the end of one year is 39 %,4 then the amount invested in each share was (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. ₹ 52,500; ₹ 47,500
  2. ₹ 62,500; ₹ 37,500
  3. ₹ 72,500; ₹ 27,500
  4. ₹ 82,500; ₹ 17,500

3655. David invested certain amount in three different schemes A, B and C with the rate of interest 10% p.a., 12% p.a. and 15% p.a. respectively. If the total interest accrued in one year was ₹ 3200 and the amount invested in Scheme C was 150% of the amount invested in Scheme A and 240% of the amount invested in Scheme B, what was the amount invested in Scheme B ?

  1. ₹ 5000
  2. ₹ 6500
  3. ₹ 8000
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3656. A sum of ₹ 1440 is lent out in three parts in such a way that the interests on first part at 2% for 3 years, second part at 3% for 4 years and third part at 4% for 5 years are equal. Then the difference between the largest and the smallest sum is (N.M.A.T., 2005)

  1. ₹ 200
  2. ₹ 400
  3. ₹ 460
  4. ₹ 560

3657. A person invests money in three different schemes for 6 years, 10 years and 12 years at 10 percent, 12 percent and 15 percent simple interest respectively. At the completion of each scheme, he gets the same interest. The ratio of his investments is (S.S.C., 2006)

  1. 2 : 3 : 4
  2. 4 : 3 : 2
  3. 3 : 4 : 6
  4. 6 : 3 : 2

3658. Divide ₹ 2379 into 3 parts so that their amounts after 2, 3 and 4 years respectively may be equal, the rate of interest being 5% per annum at simple interest. The first part is

  1. ₹ 759
  2. ₹ 792
  3. ₹ 818
  4. ₹ 828

3659. A man invested 1 3 of his capital at 7%; 1 4 at 8% and the remainder at 10%. If his annual income is ₹ 561, the capital is (M.B.A., 2006; Hotel Management, 2010)

  1. ₹ 5400
  2. ₹ 6000
  3. ₹ 6600
  4. ₹ 7200

3660. Find the amount to be received after 2 years 6 months at the rate of 5% p.a. of simple interest on a sum of ₹ 3200. [ESIC—UDC Exam, 2016]

  1. ₹ 3800
  2. ₹ 3500
  3. ₹ 3600
  4. ₹ 3900

3661. A man buys a TV priced at ₹ 16000. He pays ₹ 4000 at once and the rest after 15 months on which he is charged a simple interest at the rate of 12% per year. The total amount he pays for the TV is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. ₹ 18200
  2. ₹ 17800
  3. ₹ 17200
  4. ₹ 16800

3662. A sum becomes its double in 10 years. Find the annual rate of simple interest. [Indian Railway Gr. ‘D’ Exam, 2014]

  1. 8%
  2. 5%
  3. 10%
  4. 20%

3663. The interest earned on ₹ 4000 when invested in Scheme A for two years at 7% p.a. simple interest is half of the interest earned when ₹ ‘X’ is invested for five years in the same scheme at the same rate of interest. What is the value of X?

  1. 2000
  2. 2800
  3. 3000
  4. 3200
  5. 3600 [IBPS Mktg Off. (Scale-I), Exam, 2016]

3664. The interest earned on ₹ 15000 in 3 years at simple interest is ₹ 5400. Find the rate of interest per annum (IBPS—RRB Office Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 11.5%
  2. 12%
  3. 12.5%
  4. 15%

3665. The sum invested in Scheme B is thrice the sum invested in Scheme A. The investment in Scheme A is made for 4 years at 8% p.a. simple interest and in Scheme B for 2 years at 13% p.a. simple interest. The total interest earned from both the schemes is ₹ 1320. How much amount was invested in Scheme A? [IBPS—Bank PO/PT Exam, 2015]

  1. ₹ 1200
  2. ₹ 1140
  3. ₹ 960
  4. ₹ 1500

3666. What is the rate of simple interest per annum? (R.B.I., 2004) I. An amount of ₹ 7500 increases by ₹ 1125 at the end of one year. II. The principal amount of ₹ 6000 increases by three times in 20 years. III. Interest accrued on an amount of ₹ 5200 in 3 years is ₹ 2340.

  1. Any one of the three
  2. Only I
  3. Only III
  4. Either I and II or III only
  5. None of these

3667. What would be the compound interest accrued on an amount of ₹ 8000 at the rate of 15 p.c.p.a. in 3 years?

  1. ₹ 4051
  2. ₹ 4167
  3. ₹ 4283
  4. ₹ 4325
  5. None of these

3668. What would be the compound interest accrued on an amount of ₹ 8400 @ 12.5 p.c.p.a. at the end of 3 years?

  1. ₹ 2584.16
  2. ₹ 3560.16
  3. ₹ 3820.14
  4. ₹ 4205.62
  5. None of these

3669. The compound interest on ₹ 2800 for 18 months at 10% p.a. is (L.I.C.A.D.O., 2008)

  1. ₹ 420
  2. ₹ 434
  3. ₹ 436.75
  4. ₹ 441.35

3670. The compound interest on ₹ 20,480 at 6 1 4 % per annum for 2 years 73 days, is

  1. ₹ 2929
  2. ₹ 3000
  3. ₹ 3131
  4. ₹ 3636

3671. A man saves ₹ 200 at the end of each year and lends the money at 5% compound interest. How much will it become at the end of 3 years ?

  1. ₹ 565.25
  2. ₹ 635
  3. ₹ 662.02
  4. ₹ 666.50

3672. If the rate of interest be 4% per annum for first year, 5% per annum for second year and 6% per annum for third year, then the compound interest of ₹ 10000 for 3 years will be

  1. ₹ 1575.20
  2. ₹ 1600
  3. ₹ 1625.80
  4. ₹ 2000

3673. What will be the compound interest accrued on an amount of ₹ 10000 @ 20 p.c.p.a. in 2 years if the interest is compounded half-yearly?

  1. ₹ 4400
  2. ₹ 4600
  3. ₹ 4641
  4. ₹ 4680
  5. None of these

3674. A bank offers 5% compound interest calculated on half-yearly basis. A customer deposits ₹ 1600 each on 1st January and 1st July of a year. At the end of the year, the amount he would have gained by way of interest is:

  1. ₹ 120
  2. ₹ 121
  3. ₹ 122
  4. ₹ 123

3675. What is the difference between the compound interests on ₹ 5000 for 1 1 2 years at 4% per annum compounded yearly and half-yearly?

  1. ₹ 2.04
  2. ₹ 3.06
  3. ₹ 4.80
  4. ₹ 8.30

3676. Mr Duggal invested ₹ 20000 with rate of interest @ 20 p.c.p.a. The interest was compounded half- yearly for first one year and in the next year it was compounded yearly. What will be the total interest earned at the end of 2 years?

  1. ₹ 8040
  2. ₹ 8800
  3. ₹ 9040
  4. ₹ 9800
  5. None of these

3677. Find the compound interest on ₹ 15625 for 9 months at 16% per annum compounded quarterly.

  1. ₹ 1851
  2. ₹ 1941
  3. ₹ 1951
  4. ₹ 1961

3678. A man gets a simple interest of ₹ 1000 on a certain principal at the rate of 5 p.c.p.a. in 4 years. What compound interest will the man get on twice the principal in 2 years at the same rate?

  1. ₹ 1000
  2. ₹ 1005
  3. ₹ 10125
  4. ₹ 11025
  5. None of these

3679. The simple interest accrued on an amount of ₹ 20000 at the end of 3 years is ₹ 7200. What would be the compound interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate in the same period?

  1. ₹ 8098.56
  2. ₹ 8112.86
  3. ₹ 8246.16
  4. ₹ 8342.36
  5. None of these

3680. The difference between simple interest and compound interest on ₹ P at R% p.a. in 2 years is

  1. ₹ 100 PR
  2. ₹ 2 100 PR
  3. ₹ 2 100 PR
  4. ₹ 2 2(100) PR

3681. What will be the difference between the simple interest and compound interest accrued on an amount of ₹ 19200 at the end of 3 years @ 12 p.c.p.a.? (S.B.I.P.O., 2008)

  1. ₹ 722.6826
  2. ₹ 798.1824
  3. ₹ 802.5144
  4. ₹ 862.6176
  5. None of these

3682. What will be the difference between S.I. and C.I. on a sum of ₹ 15000 for 2 years at the same rate of interest of 12 1 2 % per annum? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. ₹ 230.550
  2. ₹ 234.375
  3. ₹ 250.129
  4. ₹ 324.357

3683. The difference between simple interest and compound interest on ₹ 1200 for one year at 10% per annum reckoned half-yearly is

  1. ₹ 2.50
  2. ₹ 3
  3. ₹ 3.75
  4. ₹ 4
  5. None of these

3684. A man borrows ₹ 4000 at 15% compound rate of interest. At the end of each year he pays back ₹ 1500. How much amount should be pay at the end of the third year to clear all his dues? (N.M.A.T., 2005)

  1. ₹ 874.75
  2. ₹ 824.50
  3. ₹ 924.25
  4. ₹ 974.25

3685. A man invests ₹ 5000 for 3 years at 5% p.a. compound interest reckoned yearly. Income tax at the rate of 20% on the interest earned is deducted at the end of each year. Find the amount at the end of the third year. (M.A.T., 2004)

  1. ₹ 5624.32
  2. ₹ 5627.20
  3. ₹ 5630.50
  4. ₹ 5788.125

3686. The compound interest on ₹ 30,000 at 7% per annum is ₹ 4347. The period (in years) is (L.I.C.A.A.O., 2003)

  1. 2 years
  2. 2 1 2 years
  3. 3 years
  4. 4 years

3687. Compound interest accrued on an amount of ₹ 26500 in two years is ₹ 9775.85. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a?

  1. 12%
  2. 15%
  3. 17%
  4. 22%
  5. None of these

3688. ₹ 2000 amounts to ₹ 2226.05 in 2 years at compound interest. What will be the rate of interest?

  1. 5%
  2. 5.25%
  3. 5.5%
  4. 6%

3689. A man invests ₹ 4000 for 3 years at compound interest. After one year the money amounts to ₹ 4320. What will be the amount (to the nearest rupee) due at the end of 3 years? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. ₹ 4939
  2. ₹ 5039
  3. ₹ 5789
  4. ₹ 6129

3690. An amount of ₹ 10000 becomes ₹ 14641 in 2 years if the interest is compounded half-yearly. What is the rate of compound interest p.c.p.a.?

  1. 10%
  2. 12%
  3. 16%
  4. 20%
  5. None of these

3691. The principal that amounts to ₹ 4913 in 3 years at 6 1 4 % per annum compound interest compounded annually, is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. ₹ 3096
  2. ₹ 4076
  3. ₹ 4085
  4. ₹ 4096

3692. The present worth of ₹ 169 due in 2 years at 4% per annum compound interest is

  1. ₹ 150.50
  2. ₹ 154.75
  3. ₹ 156.25
  4. ₹ 158

3693. The compound interest accrued on an amount at the end of 3 years @ 15 p.c.p.a. is ₹ 6500.52. What is the amount? (S.B.I.P.O., 2008)

  1. ₹ 10500
  2. ₹ 12480
  3. ₹ 13620
  4. ₹ 14800
  5. None of these

3694. In how many years will a sum of ₹ 800 at 10% per annum compounded semi-annually become ₹ 926.10? (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 1 1 3 years
  2. 1 1 2 years
  3. 2 1 3 years
  4. 2 1 2 years

3695. If the compound interest on a sum for 2 years at 12 1 2 % per annum is ₹ 510, the simple interest on the same sum at the same rate for the same period of time is : (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. ₹ 400
  2. ₹ 450
  3. ₹ 460
  4. ₹ 480

3696. The compound interest on a certain sum for 2 years at 10% per annum is ₹ 525. The simple interest on the same sum for double the time at half the rate percent per annum is

  1. ₹ 400
  2. ₹ 500
  3. ₹ 600
  4. ₹ 800

3697. The simple interest on a certain sum of money for 3 years at 8% per annum is half the compound interest on ₹ 4000 for 2 years at 10% per annum. The sum placed on simple interest is

  1. ₹ 1550
  2. ₹ 1650
  3. ₹ 1750
  4. ₹ 2000

3698. There is 60% increase in an amount in 6 years at simple interest. What will be the compound interest of ₹ 12,000 after 3 years at the same rate?

  1. ₹ 2160
  2. ₹ 3120
  3. ₹ 3972
  4. ₹ 6240
  5. None of these

3699. The compound interest earned by Sachin on a cer - tain amount at the end of two years at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. was ₹ 1414.40. What was the total amount that Sachin got back at the end of 2 years in the form of principal plus interest earned (S.B.I.P.O., 2010)

  1. ₹ 8914.40
  2. ₹ 9014.40
  3. ₹ 9414.40
  4. ₹ 9914.40
  5. None of these

3700. The compound interest accrued on an amount of ₹ 25500 at the end of 3 years is ₹ 8440.50. What would be the simple interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate in the same period?

  1. ₹ 4650
  2. ₹ 5650
  3. ₹ 6650
  4. ₹ 7650
  5. None of these

3701. Sriram invested equal sums of money in two schemes. Under scheme X, the compound interest rate was 10 p.c.p.a. and under scheme Y, the compound interest rate was 12 p.c.p.a. The interest after 2 years on the sum invested in scheme X was ₹ 63. How much is the interest earned under scheme Y after 2 years?

  1. ₹ 70.56
  2. ₹ 76.32
  3. ₹ 79.0272
  4. ₹ Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3702. The difference between the amount the amount of compound interest and simple interest accrued on an amount of ₹ 26000 at the end of 3 years is ₹ 2994.134. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.?

  1. 17%
  2. 19%
  3. 22%
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3703. The difference between compound interest and simple interest on a sum for 2 years at 8 per cent is ₹ 768. The sum is

  1. ₹ 100000
  2. ₹ 110000
  3. ₹ 120000
  4. ₹ 170000

3704. The compound interest on a sum of money for 2 years is ₹ 832 and the simple interest on the same sum for the same period is ₹ 800. The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest for 3 years will be

  1. ₹ 48
  2. ₹ 66.56
  3. ₹ 98.56
  4. None of these

3705. The difference between the simple interest on a certain sum at the rate of 10% per annum for 2 years and compound interest which is compounded every 6 months is ₹ 124.05. What is the principal sum?

  1. ₹ 6000
  2. ₹ 8000
  3. ₹ 10,000
  4. ₹ 12,000
  5. None of these

3706. The difference between compound interest and simple interest on a sum for 2 years at 10% per annum, when the interest is compounded annually is ₹ 16. If the interest were compounded half-yearly, the difference in two interests would be

  1. ₹ 24.81
  2. ₹ 26.90
  3. ₹ 31.61
  4. ₹ 32.40

3707. A money-lender borrows money at 4% per annum and pays the interest at the end of the year. He lends it at 6% per annum compound interest compounded half-yearly and receives the interest at the end of the year. In this way, he gains ₹ 104.50 a year. The amount of money be borrows, is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. ₹ 4500
  2. ₹ 5000
  3. ₹ 5500
  4. ₹ 6000

3708. A sum of money lent at compound interest for 2 years at 20% per annum would fetch ₹ 482 more, if the interest was payable half-yearly than if it was payable annually. The sum is :

  1. ₹ 10,000
  2. ₹ 20,000
  3. ₹ 40,000
  4. ₹ 50,000

3709. On a sum of money, the simple interest for 2 years is ₹ 660, while the compound interest is ₹ 696.30, the rate of interest being the same in both the cases. The rate of interest is

  1. 10%
  2. 10.5%
  3. 12%
  4. None of these

3710. The effective annual rate of interest corresponding to a nominal rate of 6% per annum payable half- yearly is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 6.06%
  2. 6.07%
  3. 6.08%
  4. 6.09%

3711. A person lent out a certain sum on simple interest and the same sum on compound interest at a certain rate of interest per annum. He noticed that the ratio between the difference of compound interest and simple interest of 3 years and that of 2 years is 25 : 8. The rate of interest per annum is (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 10%
  2. 11%
  3. 12%
  4. 12 2 1 %

3712. A father left a will of ₹ 16400 for his two sons aged 17 and 18 years. They must get equal amounts when they are 20 years, at 5% compound interest. Find the present share of the younger son. (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. ₹ 8000
  2. ₹ 8200
  3. ₹ 8400
  4. ₹ 8800

3713. Divide ₹ 8840 between A and B so that the amount received by A at the end of 8 years may be equal to the amount received by B at the end of 10 years, compound interest being at 10% per annum. (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. ₹ 4640, ₹ 4200
  2. ₹ 4840, ₹ 4000
  3. ₹ 5000, ₹ 3840
  4. ₹ 5240, ₹ 3600

3714. Mr. Dua invested money in two schemes A and B offering compound interest @ 8 p.c.p.a. and 9 p.c.p.a. respectively. If the total amount of interest accrued through two schemes together in two years was ₹ 4818.30 and the total amount invested was ₹ 27,000, what was the amount invested in Scheme A?

  1. ₹ 12,000
  2. ₹ 13,500
  3. ₹ 15,000
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3715. A sum of money put at compound interest amounts in 2 years to ₹ 672 and in 3 years to ₹ 714. The rate of interest per annum is (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 5.5%
  2. 6.0%
  3. 6.25%
  4. 6.75%

3716. A sum of money invested at compound interest amounts to ₹ 4624 in 2 years and to ₹ 4913 in 3 years. The sum of money is :

  1. ₹ 4096
  2. ₹ 4260
  3. ₹ 4335
  4. ₹ 4360

3717. A sum of ₹ 12,000 deposited at compound interest becomes double after 5 years. After 20 years, it will become : (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. ₹ 96,000
  2. ₹ 1,20,000
  3. ₹ 1,24,000
  4. ₹ 1,92,000

3718. A sum of money at compound interest doubles itself in 15 years. It will become eight times of itself in (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 45 years
  2. 48 years
  3. 54 years
  4. 60 years

3719. A finance company declares that, at a certain compound interest rate, a sum of money deposited by anyone will become 8 times in 3 years. If the same amount is deposited at the same compound rate of interest, then in how many years will it become 16 times? (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 4 years
  2. 5 years
  3. 6 years
  4. 7 years

3720. A sum of money lent out at compound interest increases in value by 50% in 5 years. A person wants to lend three different sums x, y and z for 10, 15 and 20 years respectively at the above rate in such a way that he gets back equal sums at the end of their respective periods. The ratio x : y : z is

  1. 6 : 9 : 4
  2. 9 : 4 : 6
  3. 9 : 6 : 4
  4. 6 : 4 : 9

3721. The least number of complete years in which a sum of money put out at 20% compound interest will be more than doubled is (N.I.F.T., 2003)

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

3722. A man borrows ₹ 2550 to be paid back with compound interest at the rate of 4% per annum by the end of 2 years in two equal yearly instalments. How much will each instalment be?

  1. ₹ 1275
  2. ₹ 1283
  3. ₹ 1352
  4. ₹ 1377

3723. Under the Rural Housing Scheme, the Delhi Develop- ment Authority

  1. ₹ 45205
  2. ₹ 46305
  3. ₹ 47405
  4. ₹ 48505

3724. A taperecorder is sold for ₹ 3500 cash, or ₹ 1000 cash down payment and the balance in three equal easy instalments. If 121 2 % is the rate of interest compounded annually, find the amount of instalment. (R.R.B., 2005)

  1. ₹ 1000.35
  2. ₹ 1049.85
  3. ₹ 1050.65
  4. ₹ 1100.45

3725. One can purchase a flat from a house building society for ₹ 55000 cash or on the terms that he should pay ₹ 4275 as cash down payment and the rest in three equal instalments. The society charges interest at the rate of 16% per annum compounded half-yearly. If the flat is purchased under instalment plan, find the value of each instalment. (N.M.A.T., 2005)

  1. ₹ 18756
  2. ₹ 19292
  3. ₹ 19683
  4. ₹ 20285

3726. What annual payment will discharge a debt of ₹ 1025 due in 2 years at the rate of 5% compound interest?

  1. ₹ 550
  2. ₹ 551.25
  3. ₹ 560
  4. ₹ 560.7 5

3727. A man borrows ₹ 12,500 at 20% compound interest. At the end of every year he pays ₹ 2000 as part repayment. How much does he still owe after three such instalments?

  1. ₹ 12,000
  2. ₹ 12,864
  3. ₹ 15,600
  4. None of these

3728. A sum of money is borrowed and paid back in two annual instalments of ₹ 882 each allowing 5% compound interest. The sum borrowed was

  1. ₹ 1620
  2. ₹ 1640
  3. ₹ 1680
  4. ₹ 1700

3729. The sum of money which when given on compound interest at 18% per annum would fetch ₹ 960 more when the interest is payable half yearly than when it was payable annually for 2 years is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. ₹ 60,000
  2. ₹ 30,000
  3. ₹ 40,000
  4. ₹ 50,000

3730. On what sum of money will the difference between simple interest and compound interest for 2 years at 5% per annum be equal to ₹ 63? [SSC—CHSL (10 + 2) Exam, 2015]

  1. ₹ 24600
  2. ₹ 24800
  3. ₹ 25200
  4. ₹ 25500

3731. At what rate of compound interest per annum will a sum of ₹ 1200 become ₹ 1348.32 in 2 years? [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 7.5%
  2. 6.5%
  3. 7%
  4. 6%

3732. The compound interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 10% per annum is ₹ 525. The simple interest on the same sum of money for double the time at half the rate percent per annum is? [RBI Gr. ‘B’ (Phase I) Exam, 2015]

  1. ₹ 1000
  2. ₹ 500
  3. ₹ 200
  4. ₹ 800

3733. Shashi had a certain amount of money. He invested 2 3 of the total money in scheme A for 6 years and rest of the money he invested in scheme B for 2 years. scheme A offers simple interest at a rate of 12% p.a. and scheme B offers compound interest

  1. ₹ 4500
  2. ₹ 4200
  3. ₹ 4050
  4. ₹ 5000

3734. The difference between CI and SI on a certain sum of money for 3 years at 5% p.c.p.a. is ₹ 122. Find the sum invested. [IBPS—RRB Office Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. ₹ 10000
  2. ₹ 12000
  3. ₹ 16000
  4. ₹ 20000

3735. The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest earned on a sum of money at the end of 4 years is ₹ 256.40. To find out the sum, which of the following informations given in the statements P and Q is/are necessary? P : Amount of simple interest accrued after 4 years. Q : Rate of interest per annum.

  1. Only P is necessary
  2. Only Q is necessary
  3. Either P or Q is necessary
  4. Neither P nor Q is necessary
  5. Both P and Q are necessary

3736. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.?

  1. All of these
  2. Only III
  3. Either II or III
  4. Only III or I and II
  5. Question cannot be answered even with the information

3737. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.?

  1. Only I and II
  2. Only I and III
  3. Only III and either I or II
  4. Either only II or only I and III
  5. None of these

3738. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.?

  1. Only I
  2. Only II
  3. Only either I or II
  4. Only II and III
  5. Only I and III

3739. A sum of money is put at compound interest. What is the rate of interest? I. The sum amounts to ₹ 5290 in 2 years. II. The sum amounts to ₹ 6083.50 in 3 years. III. The sum is ₹ 4000.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. Any two of the three
  5. I and III only, or II and III only

3740. What will be the compound interest earned on an amount of ₹ 5000 in 2 years? I. The simple interest on the same amount at the same rate of interest in 5 years is ₹ 2000. II. The compound interest and the simple interest earned in one year is the same. III. The amount becomes more than double on compound interest in 10 years.

  1. I only
  2. I and II only
  3. II and III only
  4. I and III only
  5. None of these

3741. What will be the difference between the total simple interest and the total compound interest at the end of 8 years on a certain sum at the same rate of interest? I. The total simple interest on the same sum at the end of 3 years is ₹ 750. II. The total compound interest on the same sum at the end of 2 years is ₹ 512.50. III. The rate of interest is 5 p.c.p.a.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. Any two of I, II and III
  4. All I, II and III are required
  5. None of these

3742. A sum of money is placed at compound interest. In how many years will it amount to sixteen times of itself? I. The sum doubles itself in 4 years. II. The sum amounts to eight times of itself in 12 years. III. The sum amounts to four times of itself in 8 years.

  1. I only
  2. I and II only
  3. II and III only
  4. I and III only
  5. Any one of the three

3743. What would be the difference between the simple interest and the compound interest on a sum of money at the end of four years ? I. The rate of interest is 5 p.c.p.a. II. The sum fetches a total of ₹ 2000 as simple interest at the end of 8 years. III. The difference between the simple interest and the compound interest at the end of 2 years is ₹ 12.50.

  1. II only
  2. III only
  3. II or III only
  4. All I, II and III are required
  5. None of these

3744. Mr. Gupta borrowed a sum of money on compound interest. What will be the amount to be repaid if he is repaying the entire amount at the end of 2 years? I. The rate of interest is 5% p.a. II. Simple interest fetched on the same amount in one year is ₹ 600. III. The amount borrowed is 10 times the simple interest in 2 years.

  1. I only
  2. III only
  3. I or II only
  4. I or III only
  5. All I, II and III are required

3745. What is the total compound interest earned at the end of 3 years ? I. Simple interest earned on that amount at the same rate and for the same period is ₹ 4500. II. The rate of interest is 10 p.c.p.a. III. Compound interest for 3 years is more than the simple interest for that period by ₹ 465.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. Either II or III only
  5. Any two of the three

3746. What is the rate of interest per annum? I. The amount becomes ₹ 11,025 with compound interest after 2 years. II. The same amount with simple interest becomes ₹ 11,000 after 2 years. III. The amount invested is ₹ 10,000.

  1. I or II only
  2. II or III only
  3. I or III only
  4. I or II or III only
  5. All I, II and III are required

3747. The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest at the same rate on a certain amount at the end of 2 years is ₹ 12.50. What is the rate of interest? I. Simple interest for 2 years is ₹ 500. II. Compound interest for 2 years is ₹ 512.50. III. Amount on simple interest after 2 years becomes ₹ 5500.

  1. I or II only
  2. III only
  3. I or III only
  4. Any two of I, II and III
  5. Any two of I, II and III

3748. If a rectangle has length L and the width is one-half of the length, then the area of the rectangle is (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. L
  2. L2
  3. 21 2 L
  4. 21 4 L
  5. 2 L

3749. The length of a room is 5.5 m and width is 3.75 m. Find the cost of paving the floor by slabs at the rate of ₹ 800 per sq. metre.

  1. ₹ 15,000
  2. ₹ 15,550
  3. ₹ 15,600
  4. ₹ 16,500

3750. The area of a rectangular field is 2100 sq. metres. If the field is 60 metres long, what is its perimeter?

  1. 180 m
  2. 210 m
  3. 240 m
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3751. The length of a rectangle is 18 cm and its breadth is 10 cm. When the length is increased to 25 cm, what will be the breadth of the rectangle if the area remains the same?

  1. 7 cm
  2. 7.1 cm
  3. 7.2 cm
  4. 7.3 cm

3752. A rectangular plot measuring 90 metres by 50 metres is to be enclosed by wire fencing. If the poles of the fence are kept 5 metres apart, how many poles will be needed?

  1. 55
  2. 56
  3. 57
  4. 58

3753. The length of a rectangular plot is 60% more than its breadth. If the difference between the length and the breadth of that rectangle is 24 cm, what is the area of that rectangle ?

  1. 2400 sq. cm
  2. 2480 sq. cm
  3. 2560 sq. cm
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

3754. A rectangular parking space is marked out by painting three of its sides. If the length of the unpainted side is 9 feet, and the sum of the lengths of the painted sides is 37 feet, then what is the area of the parking space in square feet?

  1. 46
  2. 81
  3. 126
  4. 252

3755. The difference between the length and breadth of a rectangle is 23 m. If its perimeter is 206 m, then its area is (Section Officers’, 2003 )

  1. 1520 m 2
  2. 2420 m 2
  3. 2480 m 2
  4. 2520 m 2

3756. The total cost of flooring a room at ₹ 8.50 per square metre is ₹ 510. If the length of the room is 8 m, its breadth is (R.R.B. 2006 )

  1. 7.5 m
  2. 8.5 m
  3. 10.5 m
  4. 12.5 m

3757. The length of a rectangular plot is thrice its breadth. If the area of the rectangular plot is 7803 sq. metres, What is the breadth of the rectangular plot?

  1. 51 m
  2. 88 m
  3. 104 m
  4. 153 m
  5. None of these

3758. The perimeter of a rectangle is 60 metres. If its length is twice its breadth, then its area is (R.R.B. 2008 )

  1. 160 m 2
  2. 180 m 2
  3. 200 m 2
  4. 220 m 2

3759. A man is walking in a rectangular field whose perimeter is 6 km. If the area of the rectangular field be 2 sq. km, then what is the difference between the length and breadth of the rectangle? (R.R.B. 2006; P.C.S. 2009 )

  1. 1 km2
  2. 1 km
  3. 11 km2
  4. 2 km

3760. The area of a rectangle is 252 cm 2 and its length and breadth are in the ratio of 9 : 7 respectively. What is its perimeter?

  1. 64 cm
  2. 68 cm
  3. 96 cm
  4. 128 cm

3761. The length of a rectangular plot is 20 metres more than its breadth. If the cost of fencing the plot @ ₹ 26.50 per metre is ₹ 5300, what is the length of the plot in metres?

  1. 40
  2. 50
  3. 120
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

3762. A carpenter is designing a table. The table will be in the form of a rectangle whose length is 4 feet more than its width. How long should the table be if the carpenter wants the area of the table to be 45 sq ft? (J.M.E.T., 2010 )

  1. 6 ft
  2. 9 ft
  3. 11 ft
  4. 13 ft

3763. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 metres and the ratio between the length and the breadth is 5 : 3. The area is (M.A.T., 2008)

  1. 1350 sq. m
  2. 1550 sq. m
  3. 13500 sq. m
  4. 15500 sq. m

3764. A rectangular farm has to be fenced on one long side, one short side and the diagonal. If the cost of fencing is ₹ 100 per m, the area of the farm is 1200 m2 and the short side is 30 m long, how much would the job cost? (M.A.T., 2009)

  1. ₹ 7000
  2. ₹ 12000
  3. ₹ 14000
  4. ₹ 15000

3765. The breadth of a rectangular field is 60% of its length. If the perimeter of the field is 800 m, what is the area of the field?

  1. 18750 sq. m
  2. 37500 sq. m
  3. 40000 sq. m
  4. 48000 sq. m

3766. The ratio between the length and the perimeter of a rectangular plot is 1 : 3. What is the ratio between the length and breadth of the plot?

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 2 : 1
  3. 3 : 2
  4. Data inadequate

3767. The ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectangular park is 3 : 2. If a man cycling along the boundary of the park at the speed of 12 km / hr completes one round in 8 minutes, then the area of the park (in sq. m) is

  1. 15360 sq. m
  2. 153600 sq. m
  3. 30720 sq. m
  4. 307200 sq. m

3768. The area of a rectangle is 460 square metres. If the length is 15% more than the breadth, what is the breadth of the rectangular field?

  1. 15 metres
  2. 26 metres
  3. 34.5 metres
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3769. The area of a rectangular field is 52000 m 2. This rectangular area has been drawn on a map to the scale 1 cm to 100 m. The length is shown as 3.25 cm on the map. The breadth of the rectangular field is (M.B.A. 2006)

  1. 150 m
  2. 160 m
  3. 200.5 m
  4. 300.5 m

3770. A rectangular field is to be fenced on three sides leaving a side of 20 feet uncovered. If the area of the field is 680 sq. feet, how many feet of fencing will be required?

  1. 34
  2. 40
  3. 68
  4. 88

3771. A farmer wishes to start a 100 sq. m rectangular vegetable garden. Since he has only 30 m barbed wire, he fences three sides of the garden letting his house compound wall act as the fourth side fencing. The dimension of the garden is:

  1. 15 m × 6.67 m
  2. 20 m × 5 m
  3. 30 m × 3.33 m
  4. 40 m × 2.5 m

3772. The ratio of length and breadth of a rectangle is 3 : 2 respectively. The respective ratio of its perimeter and area is 5 : 9. What is the breadth of the rectangle in metres?

  1. 6 m
  2. 8 m
  3. 9 m
  4. 13 m
  5. None of these

3773. A rectangle of certain dimensions is chopped off from one corner of a larger rectangle as shown. AB = 8 cm and BC = 4 cm. The perimeter of the figure ABCPQRA (in cm) is

  1. 24
  2. 28
  3. 36
  4. 48

3774. A large field of 700 hectares is divided into two parts. The difference of the areas of the two parts is one-fifth of the average of the two areas. What is the area of the smaller part in hectares?

  1. 225
  2. 280
  3. 300
  4. 315

3775. A rectangular paper, when folded into two congruent parts had a perimeter of 34 cm for each part folded along one set of sides and the same is 38 cm when folded along the other set of sides. What is the area of the paper?

  1. 140 cm 2
  2. 240 cm 2
  3. 560 cm 2
  4. None of these

3776. A rectangular plot is half as long again as it is broad and its area is 2 3 hectares. Then, its length is

  1. 100 m
  2. 33.33 m
  3. 66.66 m
  4. 100 3 m3

3777. An artist has completed one-fourth of a rectangular oil painting. When he will paint another 100 square centimetres of the painting, he would complete three-quarters of the painting. If the height of the oil painting is 10 cm, determine the length (in cm) of the oil painting. (J.M.E.T., 2008 )

  1. 10
  2. 15
  3. 20
  4. 25

3778. A courtyard 25 m long and 16 m broad is to be paved with bricks of dimensions 20 cm by 10 cm. The total number of bricks required is

  1. 18000
  2. 20000
  3. 25000
  4. None of these

3779. How many metres of carpet 63 cm wide will be required to cover the floor of a room 14 m by 9 m? (R.R.B. ,2008 )

  1. 185 m
  2. 200 m
  3. 210 m
  4. 220 m

3780. The cost of carpeting a room 18 m long with a carpet 75 cm wide at ₹ 4.50 per metre is ₹ 810. The breadth of the room is

  1. 7 m
  2. 7.5 m
  3. 8 m
  4. 8.5 m

3781. The diagonal of the floor of a rectangular closet is 17 2 feet. The shorter side of the closet is 14 feet.2 What is the area of the closet in square feet?

  1. 15 4
  2. 113 2
  3. 27
  4. 37

3782. The length of a rectangle is three times of its width. If the length of the diagonal is 8 10 cm, then the perimeter of the rectangle is

  1. 15 10 cm
  2. 16 10 cm
  3. 24 10 cm
  4. 64 cm

3783. The diagonal of a rectangle is thrice its smaller side. The ratio of the length to the breadth of the rectangle is

  1. 3 : 1
  2. 3 :1
  3. 2 :1
  4. 2 2 :1

3784. The diagonal of a rectangle is 10 cms and is twice the length of one of the sides. What is the area of the rectangle in sq. cm? (R.R.B. 2006 )

  1. 10 3
  2. 25
  3. 25 3
  4. 100

3785. The diagonal of a rectangular field is 15 metres and the difference between its length and width is 3 metres. The area of the rectangular field is (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 9 m 2
  2. 12 m 2
  3. 21 m 2
  4. 108 m 2

3786. A rectangular carpet has an area of 120 sq. metres and a perimeter of 46 metres. The length of its diagonal is

  1. 15 m
  2. 16 m
  3. 17 m
  4. 20 m

3787. The diagonal of a rectangle is 41 cm and its area is 20 sq. cm. The perimeter of the rectangle must be (Hotel Management, 2002)

  1. 9 cm
  2. 18 cm
  3. 20 cm
  4. 41 cm

3788. If the area of a rectangle is 23,d where 2 d is the length of its diagonal, then its perimeter is equal to

  1. 43 d
  2. 23 d
  3. 4( 3 1) d+
  4. 2( 3 1) d+

3789. If the diagonal and the area of a rectangle are 25 m and 168 m 2, what is the length of the rectangle?

  1. 12 m
  2. 17 m
  3. 24 m
  4. 31 m

3790. A took 15 seconds to cross a rectanglar field diagonally walking at the rate of 52 m / min and B took the same time to cross the same field along its sides walking at the rate of 68 m / min. The area of the field is

  1. 30 m 2
  2. 40 m 2
  3. 50 m 2
  4. 60 m 2

3791. A rectangular carpet has an area of 60 sq. m. If its diagonal and longer side together equal 5 times the shorter side, the length of the carpet is

  1. 5 m
  2. 12 m
  3. 13 m
  4. 14.5 m

3792. The ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectangular field is 3 : 2. If only the length is increased by 5 metres, the new area of the field will be 2600 sq. metres. What is the breadth of the rectangular field?

  1. 40 metres
  2. 60 metres
  3. 65 metres
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3793. The cost of carpeting a room is ₹ 120. If the width had been 4 metres less, the cost of the carpet would have been ₹ 20 less. The width of the room is

  1. 18.5 m
  2. 20 m
  3. 24 m
  4. 25 m

3794. The length of a rectangular blackboard is 8 m more than its breadth. If its length is increased by 7m and its breath is decreased by 4 m, its area remains un - changed. The length and breadth of the rectangular blackboard is (M.A.T. 2009)

  1. 24 m, 16 m
  2. 20 m, 24 m
  3. 28 m, 16 m
  4. 28 m, 20 m

3795. The area of a grassy plot is 480 sq. m. If each side had been 5 m longer, the area would have been increased by 245 sq. m. Find the length of the fence to surround it. (M.B.A. 2007)

  1. 87 m
  2. 88 m
  3. 90 m
  4. None of these

3796. The area of a rectangle gets reduced by 9 m 2 if its length is reduced by 5 m and breadth is increased by 3 m. If we increase the length by 3 m and breadth by 2 m, the area is increased by 67 m 2. The length of the rectangle is

  1. 9 m
  2. 15.6 m
  3. 17 m
  4. 18.5 m

3797. If each side of a rectangle is increased by 50%, its area will increase by (R.R.B. 2005; P.C.S., 2008 )

  1. 50%
  2. 125%
  3. 150%
  4. 200%

3798. An order was placed for supply of carpet of breadth 3 metre, the length of carpet was 1.44 times of breadth. Subsequently the breadth and length were increased by 25 and 40 percent respectively. At the rate of 45 per square metre, what would be the increase in the cost of the carpet?

  1. ₹ 398.80
  2. ₹ 437.40
  3. ₹ 583.20
  4. ₹ 1020.60
  5. None of these

3799. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 10% and its breadth is decreased by 10%, the change in its area will be (S.S.C. 2007, 2010; P.C.S. 2009; Hotel Managment, 2010 )

  1. 1% increase
  2. 1% decrease
  3. 10% increase
  4. No change

3800. Two sides of a rectangle were measured. One of the sides (length) was measured 10% more than its actual length and the other side (width) was measured 5% less than its actual length. The percentage error in measure obtained for the area of the rectangle is (P.C.S. 2009)

  1. 4.5%
  2. 5%
  3. 7.56%
  4. 15%

3801. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 50% and breadth is decreased by 25%, what is the percentage change in its area?

  1. 12.5% increase
  2. 10% increase
  3. 25% increase
  4. 20% decrease

3802. A towel, when bleached, was found to have lost 20% of its length and 10% of its breadth. The percentage of decrease in area is (R.R.B. 2008 )

  1. 10%
  2. 10.08%
  3. 20%
  4. 28%

3803. The length of a rectangle is halved, while its breadth is tripled. What is the percentage change in area?

  1. 25% increase
  2. 50% increase
  3. 50% decrease
  4. 75% decrease

3804. The length of a rectangle is decreased by r%, and the breadth is increased by ( r + 5)%. Find r, if the area of the rectangle is unaltered. (SCMHRD, 2002 )

  1. 5
  2. 8
  3. 10
  4. 15
  5. 20

3805. The length of a rectangle is increased by 60%. By what percent would the width have to be decreased so as to maintain the same area? (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 137 %2
  2. 60%
  3. 75%
  4. 120%

3806. If the area of a rectangular plot increases by 30% while its breadth remains the same, what will be the ratio of the areas of new and old figures?

  1. 1 : 3
  2. 3 : 1
  3. 4 : 7
  4. 10 : 13
  5. None of these

3807. If the breadth of a rectangle is decreased by 50%, then to double the area, its length is required to be increased by

  1. 150%
  2. 200%
  3. 300%
  4. 400%

3808. If the length and breadth of a rectangular field are increased, the area increases by 50%. If the increase in length was 20%, by what percentage was the breadth increased?

  1. 20%
  2. 25%
  3. 30%
  4. Date inadequate
  5. None of these

3809. A typist uses a paper 30 cm by 15 cm. He leaves a margin of 2.5 cm at the top and bottom and 1.25 cm on either side. What percentage of paper area is approximately available for typing? (R.R.B., 2006 )

  1. 60%
  2. 65%
  3. 70%
  4. 80%

3810. A room 5 m × 8 m is to be carpeted leaving a margin of 10 cm from each wall. If the cost of the carpet is ₹ 18 per Sq. metre, the cost of carpeting the room will be (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. ₹ 673.92
  2. ₹ 682.46
  3. ₹ 691.80
  4. ₹ 702.60

3811. A lawn is in the shape of a rectangle of 80 m length and 50 m width. Outside the lawn there is a footpath of uniform 1 m width bordering the lawn. The area of the footpath is

  1. 264 m 2
  2. 284 m 2
  3. 4000 m 2
  4. 4264 m 2

3812. The breadth of a rectangular field is 3 4 of its length and its area is 300 sq. metres. What will be the area (in sq. metres) of the garden of breadth 1.5 metres developed around the field?

  1. 96
  2. 105
  3. 114
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3813. What will be the cost of gardening 1 metre broad boundary around a rectangular plot having perimeter of 340 metres at the rate of ₹ 10 per square metre?

  1. ₹ 1700
  2. ₹ 3400
  3. ₹ 3440
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3814. 2 metres broad pathway is to be constructed around a rectangular plot on the inside. The area of the plot is 96 sq. m. The rate of construction is ₹ 50 per square metre. Find the total cost of the construction.

  1. ₹ 2400
  2. ₹ 4000
  3. ₹ 4800
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

3815. A path of uniform width runs round the inside of a rectangular field 38 m long and 32 m wide. If the path occupies 600 m 2, then the width of the path is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 5 m
  2. 10 m
  3. 18.75 m
  4. 30 m

3816. Within a rectangular garden 10 m wide and 20 m long, we wish to pave a walk around the borders of uniform width so as to leave an area of 96 m 2 for flowers. How wide should the walk be?

  1. 1 m
  2. 2 m
  3. 2.1 m
  4. 2.5 m

3817. A rectangular garden (60 m × 40 m) is surrounded by a road of width 2 m, the road is covered by tiles and the garden is fenced. If the total expenditure is ₹ 51600 and rate of fencing is ₹ 50 per metre, then the cost of covering 1 sq. m of road by tiles is (Hotel Management, 2007)

  1. ₹ 10
  2. ₹ 50
  3. ₹ 100
  4. ₹ 150

3818. A rectangular lawn 80 metres by 60 metres has two roads each 10 m wide running in the middle of it, one parallel to the length and the other parallel to the breadth. Find the cost of gravelling them at ₹ 30 per square metre. (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. ₹ 3600
  2. ₹ 3900
  3. ₹ 36000
  4. ₹ 39000

3819. A rectangular field has dimensions 25 m by 15 m. Two mutually perpendicular passages, 2 m wide have been left in its central part and grass has been grown in rest of the field. The area (in sq. metres) under the grass is (G.B.O., 2007 )

  1. 295
  2. 299
  3. 300
  4. 375

3820. A rectangular park 60 m long and 40 m wide has two concrete crossroads running in the middle of the park and rest of the park has been used as a lawn. If the area of the lawn is 2109 sq. m, then what is the width of the road?

  1. 2.91 m
  2. 3 m
  3. 5.82 m
  4. None of these

3821. Nine playing cards are set up to form a rectangle as shown in the adjoining figure. If the area of the rectangle so formed is 180 square inches, what is its perimeter?

  1. 48 inches
  2. 56 inches
  3. 58 inches
  4. 60 inches

3822. A garden is 24 m long and 14 m wide. There is a path 1 m wide outside the garden along its sides. If the path is to be constructed with square marble tiles 20 cm × 20 cm, the number of tiles required to cover the path is (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 200
  2. 1800
  3. 2000
  4. 2150

3823. The dimensions of a rectangle are 51 m and 49 m respectively while side of a square is 50 m. Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. Diagonals of the square and the rectangle are equal.
  2. Diagonals of both the geometrical figures intersect at right angles.
  3. The perimeters of both the geometrical figures are equal.
  4. Both the geometrical figures are of the same area.

3824. A housing society has been allotted a square piece of land measuring 2550.25 sq. m. What is the side of the plot?

  1. 50.25 m
  2. 50.5 m
  3. 50.65 m
  4. None of these

3825. The area of a square with perimeter 48 cm is (P.C.S., 2007)

  1. 144 sq. cm
  2. 156 sq. cm
  3. 170 sq. cm
  4. 175 sq. cm

3826. The length of the side of a square whose area is four times the area of a square with side 25 m is

  1. 12.5 m
  2. 50 m
  3. 100 m
  4. 125 m

3827. The area of a square is three-fifths the area of a rectangle. The length of the rectangle is 25 cm and its breadth is 10 cm less than its length. What is the perimeter of the square?

  1. 44 cm
  2. 60 cm
  3. 80 cm
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3828. The area of a square is 1024 sq. cm. What is the ratio of the length to the breadth of a rectangle whose length is twice the side of the square and breadth is 12 cm less than the side of this square?

  1. 5 : 18
  2. 16 : 7
  3. 14 : 5
  4. 32 : 5
  5. None of these

3829. ABCD is a square and AEFG is a rectangle. Area of each of them is 36 sq. m. E is the mid-point of AB. The perimeter of the rectangle AEFG is (Hotel Management, 2007)

  1. 12 m
  2. 18 m
  3. 30 m
  4. 36 m

3830. The cost of cultivating a square field at the rate of ₹ 685 per hectare is ₹ 6165. The cost of putting a fence around it at the rate of ₹ 48.75 per metre would be

  1. ₹ 23400
  2. ₹ 52650
  3. ₹ 58500
  4. ₹ 117000

3831. The perimeter of a square and a rectangle is the same. If the rectangle is 12 cm by 10 cm, then by what percentage is the area of the square more than that of the rectangle?

  1. 2 3
  2. 1
  3. 11 3
  4. 11 6
  5. None of these

3832. The following squares represent the monthly incomes of two families A B 2 3 (P.C.S., 2008) If the monthly income of family A is ₹ 40000, the monthly income of family B is

  1. ₹ 50000
  2. ₹ 60000
  3. ₹ 90000
  4. ₹ 120000

3833. ABJH, JDEF, ACEG are squares. BC = 3.AB Area BCDJ =?Area HJFG

  1. 1 9
  2. 1 3
  3. 1
  4. 3

3834. The perimeters of five squares are 24 cm, 32 cm, 40 cm, 76 cm and 80 cm respectively. The perimeter of another square equal in area to the sum of the areas of these squares is

  1. 31 cm
  2. 62 cm
  3. 124 cm
  4. 961 cm

3835. Total area of 64 small squares of a chessboard is 400 sq. cm. There is 3 cm wide border around the chess board. What is the length of the side of the chessboard? (M.A.T., 2006; R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 17 cm
  2. 20 cm
  3. 23 cm
  4. 26 cm

3836. The adjoining figure contains three squares with areas of 100, 16 and 49 lying side by side as shown. By how much should the area of the middle square be reduced in order that the total length PQ of the resulting three squares is 19? 100 16 49

  1. 2
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 12

3837. A coaching institute wants to execute tiling work for one of its teaching halls 60 m long and 40 m wide with a square tile of 0.4 m side. If each tile costs ₹ 5, the total cost of tiles would be (M.B.A. 2007, 2005)

  1. ₹ 60000
  2. ₹ 65000
  3. ₹ 70000
  4. ₹ 75000

3838. The number of marble slabs of size 20 cm × 30 cm required to pave the floor of a square room of side 3 metres is

  1. 100
  2. 150
  3. 225
  4. 250

3839. 50 square stone slabs of equal size were needed to cover a floor area of 72 sq. m. The length of each stone slab is

  1. 102 cm
  2. 120 cm
  3. 201 cm
  4. 210 cm

3840. How many squares with side 1 2 inch long are needed to cover a rectangle that is 4 feet long and 6 feet wide?

  1. 24
  2. 96
  3. 3456
  4. 13824
  5. 14266

3841. The length and breadth of the floor of the room are 20 feet and 10 feet respectively. Square tiles of 2 feet length of different colours are to be laid on the floor. Black tiles are laid in the first row on all sides. If white tiles are laid in the one-third of the remaining and blue tiles in the rest, how many blue tiles will be there?

  1. 16
  2. 24
  3. 32
  4. 48
  5. None of these

3842. A big rectangular plot of area 4320 m2 is divided into 3 square-shaped smaller plots by fencing parallel to the smaller side of the plot. However some area of land was still left as a square could not be formed. So, 3 more square-shaped plots were formed by fencing parallel to the longer side of the original plot such that no area of the plot was left surplus. What are the dimensions of the original plot? (I.A.S., 2005)

  1. 160 m × 27 m
  2. 240 m × 18 m
  3. 120 m × 36 m
  4. 135 m × 32 m

3843. Three plots having areas 110, 130 and 190 square metres are to be subdivided into flower beds of equal size. If the breadth of a bed is 2 metre, the maximum length of a bed can be (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 5 m
  2. 11 m
  3. 13 m
  4. 19 m

3844. A room is 112 4 m long and 7 m wide. The maximum length of a square tile to fill the floor of the room with whole number of tiles should be (R.R.B., 2008 )

  1. 125 cm
  2. 150 cm
  3. 175 cm
  4. 200 cm

3845. What is the minimum number of identical square tiles required to tile a floor of length 6 m 24 cm and width 4 m 80 cm? (M.B.A., 2011)

  1. 122
  2. 130
  3. 148
  4. 165
  5. None of these

3846. A rectangular room can be partitioned into two equal square rooms by a partition 7 metres long. What is the area of the rectangular room in square metres?

  1. 49
  2. 147
  3. 196
  4. None of these

3847. Perimeter of a rectangular field is 160 metres and the difference between its two adjacent sides is 48 metres. The side of a square field, having the same area as that of the rectangle, is (S.S.C. 2005)

  1. 4 m
  2. 8 m
  3. 16 m
  4. 32 m

3848. The area of the shaded portion is

  1. 10 sq cm
  2. 14 sq cm
  3. 21 sq cm
  4. 25 sq cm

3849. The perimeter of a square is 48 cm. The area of a rectangle is 4 cm 2 less than the area of the square. If the length of the rectangle is 14 cm, then its pe - rimeter is

  1. 24 cm
  2. 48 cm
  3. 50 cm
  4. 54 cm

3850. The area of a rectangle is thrice that of a square. If the length of the rectangle is 40 cm and its breadth is 3 2 times that of the side of the square, then the side of the square is

  1. 15 cm
  2. 20 cm
  3. 30 cm
  4. 60 cm

3851. The perimeter of a rectangle and a square are 160 m each. The area of the rectangle is less than that of the square by 100 sq. m. The length of the rectangle is

  1. 30 m
  2. 40 m
  3. 50 m
  4. 60 m

3852. The area of a rectangle is four times the area of a square. The length of the rectangle is 90 cm and the 5 c m 5c m 2 c m 2c m breadth of the rectangle is 2 rd3 the side of the square. What is the side of the square?

  1. 9 cm
  2. 10 cm
  3. 20 cm
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3853. The cost of fencing a square field @ ₹ 20 per metre is ₹ 10,080. How much will it cost to lay a three metre wide pavement along the fencing inside the field @ ₹ 50 per sq. metre?

  1. ₹ 37,350
  2. ₹ 73,800
  3. ₹ 77,400
  4. None of these

3854. A park square in shape has a 3 metre wide road inside it running along its sides. The area occupied by the road is 1764 square metres. What is the perimeter along the outer edge of the road?

  1. 576 metres
  2. 600 metres
  3. 640 metres
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

3855. A man walked diagonally across a square lot. Approximately, what was the percent saved by not walking along the edges?

  1. 20
  2. 24
  3. 30
  4. 33

3856. If the length of diagonal AC of a square ABCD is 5.2 cm, then the area of the square is (L.I.C.A.D.O., 2008 )

  1. 10.52 sq.cm
  2. 11.52 sq.cm
  3. 12.52 sq.cm
  4. 13.52 sq.cm

3857. A man walking at the speed of 4 kmph crosses a square field diagonally in 3 minutes. The area of the field is

  1. 18000 m 2
  2. 19000 m 2
  3. 20000 m 2
  4. 25000 m 2

3858. If the length of the diagonal of a square is 20 cm, then its perimeter must be

  1. 10 2 cm
  2. 40 cm
  3. 40 2 cm
  4. 200 cm

3859. The area of a square field is 69696 cm 2. Its diagonal will be equal to

  1. 313.296 m
  2. 353.296 m
  3. 373.296 m
  4. 393.296 m

3860. What will be the length of the diagonal of that square plot whose area is equal to the area of a rectangular plot of length 45 metres and breadth 40 metres?

  1. 42.5 metres
  2. 60 metres
  3. 75 metres
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

3861. The area of a square field is 0.5 hectare. Its diagonal would be

  1. 50 m
  2. 50 2 m
  3. 100 m
  4. 250 m

3862. Area of a square natural lake is 50 sq. kms. A diver wishing to cross the lake diagonally, will have to swim a distance of (SNAP, 2007)

  1. 10 miles
  2. 12 miles
  3. 15 miles
  4. None of these

3863. The length of a rectangle is 20% more than its breadth. What will be the ratio of the area of a rectangle to that of a square whose side is equal to the breadth of the rectangle?

  1. 2 : 1
  2. 5 : 6
  3. 6 : 5
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

3864. A square and a rectangle have equal areas. If their perimeters are p1 and p2 respectively, then

  1. p1 < p2
  2. p1 = p2
  3. p1 > p2
  4. None of these

3865. If the perimeters of a square and a rectangle are the same, then the areas A and B enclosed by them would satisfy the condition

  1. A < B
  2. A ≤ B
  3. A > B
  4. A ≥ B

3866. The diagonal of a square is 42 cm. The diagonal of another square whose area is double that of the first square, is (SNAP, 2010; S.S.C., 2005; B.Ed., 2007 )

  1. 8 cm
  2. 82 cm
  3. 42 cm
  4. 16 cm

3867. The ratio of the area of a square to that of the square drawn on its diagonal, is

  1. 1 : 1
  2. 1 : 2
  3. 1 : 2
  4. 1 : 4

3868. A square S1 encloses another square S2 in such a manner that each corner of S2 is at the mid-point of the side of S1. If A1 is the area of S1 and A2 is the area of S2, then

  1. A1 = 4 A2
  2. A1 = 2 A2
  3. A2 = 2 A1
  4. A1 = A2

3869. If a square of area 2 A is cut off from a given square of area A, then the ratio of diagonal of the cut off square to that of the given square is

  1. 1 : 5
  2. 1 : 25
  3. 1 : 5
  4. 1 : 2

3870. The ratio of the areas of two squares, one having its diagonal double than the other, is

  1. 2 : 1
  2. 2 : 3
  3. 3 : 1
  4. 4 : 1

3871. If the ratio of areas of two squares is 225 : 256, then the ratio of their perimeters is

  1. 225 : 256
  2. 256 : 225
  3. 15 : 16
  4. 16 : 15

3872. Of the two square fields, the area of one is 1 hectare while the other one is broader by 1%. The difference in their areas is (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 100 m 2
  2. 101 m 2
  3. 200 m 2
  4. 201 m 2

3873. If each side of a square is increased by 10%, its area will be increased by (S.S.C. 2010; J.M.E.T., 2004)

  1. 10%
  2. 21%
  3. 44%
  4. 100%

3874. If each side of a square is increased by 50%, the ratio of the area of the resulting square to that of the given square is (M.B.A. 2005; 2007 )

  1. 4 : 5
  2. 5 : 4
  3. 4 : 9
  4. 9 : 4

3875. What happens to the area of a square when its side is halved? Its area will

  1. remain same
  2. become half
  3. become one-fourth
  4. become double

3876. If the sides of a square be doubled find the increase of percentage in area. (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 100%
  2. 200%
  3. 300%
  4. 400%

3877. An error of 2% in excess is made while measuring the side of a square. The percentage of error in the calculated area of the square is

  1. 2%
  2. 2.02%
  3. 4%
  4. 4.04%

3878. If the area of a square increases by 69%, then the side of the square increases by

  1. 13%
  2. 30%
  3. 39%
  4. 69%

3879. If the diagonal of a square is made 1.5 times, then the ratio of the areas of two squares is

  1. 4 : 3
  2. 4 : 5
  3. 4 : 7
  4. 4 : 9

3880. The length and breadth of a square are increased by 40% and 30% respectively. The area of the resulting rectangle exceeds the area of the square by (M.B.A., 2004, 2006 )

  1. 35%
  2. 42%
  3. 62%
  4. 82%

3881. The length of one pair of opposite sides of a square is increased by 5 cm on each side; the ratio of the length and the breadth of the newly formed rectangle becomes 3 : 2. What is the area of the original square?

  1. 25 sq. cm
  2. 81 sq. cm
  3. 100 sq. cm
  4. 225 sq. cm
  5. None of these

3882. If the length of a certain rectangle is decreased by 4 cm and the width is increased by 3 cm, a square with the same area as the original rectangle would result. The perimeter of the original rectangle (in cm) is

  1. 44
  2. 46
  3. 48
  4. 50

3883. A rectangle becomes a square when its length is reduced by 10 units and its breadth is increased by 5 units. But by this process the area of the rectangle is reduced by 210 sq. units. The area of the rectangle

  1. 2950 > A < 2900
  2. 2900 > A > 2875
  3. 2925 < A > 2875
  4. 2925 > A >2900

3884. If the side of a square is increased by 5 cm, the area increases by 165 sq. cm. The side of the square is

  1. 12 cm
  2. 13 cm
  3. 14 cm
  4. 15 cm

3885. The difference of the areas of two squares drawn on two line segments of different lengths is 32 sq. cm. Find the length of the greater line segment if one is longer than the other by 2 cm.

  1. 7 cm
  2. 9 cm
  3. 11 cm
  4. 16 cm

3886. The areas of a square and a rectangle are equal. The length of the rectangle is greater than the length of any side of the square by 5 cm and the breadth is less by 3 cm. Find the perimeter of the rectangle. (S.S.C. 2005)

  1. 17 cm
  2. 26 cm
  3. 30 cm
  4. 34 cm

3887. The area of a square is twice that of a rectangle. The perimeter of the rectangle is 10 cm. If its length and breadth each is increased by 1 cm, the area of the rectangle becomes equal to the area of the square. The length of side of the square is (Hotel Management, 2007)

  1. 2 3 cm
  2. 3 2 cm
  3. 4 3 cm
  4. 12 cm

3888. Twenty-nine times the area of a square is one square metre less than six times the area of the second square and nine times its side exceeds the perimeter of other square by 1 metre. The difference in the sides of these squares is (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. 5 m
  2. 54 11 m
  3. 6 m
  4. 11 m

3889. A rectangular plank 2 metre wide is placed symmetrically on the diagonal of a square of side 8 metres as shown in the figure. The area of the plank is

  1. 7 2 sq. m
  2. 14 sq. m
  3. 98 sq. m
  4. (16 2 – 3) sq. m

3890. The area of the four walls of a room is 120 m 2 and the length is twice the breadth. If the height of the room is 4 m, then the area of the floor is (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 48 m 2
  2. 49 m 2
  3. 50 m 2
  4. 52 m 2

3891. A tank is 25 m long, 12 m wide and 6 m deep. The cost of plastering its walls and bottom at 75 paise per sq. m, is

  1. ₹ 456
  2. ₹ 458
  3. ₹ 558
  4. ₹ 568

3892. The length of a room is double its breadth. The cost of colouring the ceiling at ₹ 25 per sq. m is ₹ 5000 and the cost of painting the four walls at ₹ 240 per sq. m is ₹ 64800. Find the height of the room. (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 3.5 m
  2. 4 m
  3. 4.5 m
  4. 5 m

3893. The dimensions of a room are 12.5 metres by 9 metres by 7 metres. There are 2 doors and 4 windows in the room; each door measures 2.5 metres by 1.2 metres and each window 1.5 metres by 1 metre. Find the cost of painting the walls at ₹ 3.50 per square metre.

  1. ₹ 1050.50
  2. ₹ 1011.50
  3. ₹ 1101.50
  4. Cannot be determined

3894. A hall, whose length is 16 m and the breadth is twice its height, takes 168 m of paper with 2 m as its width to cover its four walls. The area of the floor is

  1. 96 m 2
  2. 190 m 2
  3. 192 m 2
  4. 216 m 2

3895. The cost of papering the four walls of a room is ₹ 475. Each one of the length, breadth and height of another room is double that of this room. The cost of papering the walls of this new room is (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. ₹ 712.50
  2. ₹ 950
  3. ₹ 1425
  4. ₹ 1900

3896. The ratio of the height of a room to its semi-perimeter is 2 : 5. It costs ₹ 260 to paper the walls of the room with paper 50 cm wide at ₹ 2 per metre allowing an area of 15 sq. m for doors and windows. The height of the room is

  1. 2.6 m
  2. 3.9 m
  3. 4 m
  4. 4.2 m

3897. The length, breadth and height of the room are in the ratio 3 : 2 : 1. The breadth and height of the room are halved and length of the room is doubled. The area of the four walls of the room will (SNAP, 2010)

  1. decrease by 13.64%
  2. decrease by 15%
  3. decrease by 18.75%
  4. decrease by 30%

3898. Consider the following: I. 9 4 II. 6 6 III. 8 9 Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn form these figures?

  1. The areas of the three figures are all different.
  2. The areas of all the three figures are equal.
  3. The perimeters of the three figures are equal.
  4. The perimeters of figures I and II are equal.

3899. The base of a triangle is 15 cm and height is 12 cm. The height of another triangle of double the area having the base 20 cm is

  1. 8 cm
  2. 9 cm
  3. 12.5 cm
  4. 18 cm

3900. The area of a right-angled triangle is 40 times its base. What is its height?

  1. 45 cm
  2. 60 cm
  3. 80 cm
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

3901. The area of a triangle is p sq. cm and its base is x cm. What is the height of the triangle (in cm)? (M.C.A., 2005 )

  1. 2p x
  2. 2 x p
  3. 2 p x
  4. 2x p

3902. The area of an equilateral triangle whose side is 8 cm is

  1. 32 3 cm2
  2. 16 3 cm2
  3. 16 3 cm2
  4. 16 cm 2

3903. The ratio of the areas of a square of side 6 cm and an equilateral triangle of side 6 cm is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 3: 3
  2. 8 : 3
  3. 6 : 3
  4. 4 : 3

3904. ABCD is a rectangle and ABE is a triangle whose vertex E lies on CD. If AB = 5 cm and the area of the triangle is 10 sq. cm, then the perimeter of the rectangle is

  1. 14 cm
  2. 15 cm
  3. 18 cm
  4. 20 cm

3905. The area of a triangle is equal to the area of a square whose each side is 60 metres. The height of the triangle is 90 metres. The base of the triangle will be (R.R.B., 2006 )

  1. 65 m
  2. 75 m
  3. 80 m
  4. 85 m

3906. What is the area of the given figure? (R.R.B., 2006 )

  1. 98.8 cm 2
  2. 110.4 cm 2
  3. 120 cm 2
  4. 132.6 cm 2

3907. In DPQR, side PQ = 32 cm and side PR = 25 cm. What is the measure of side QR ? (M.B.A., 2011)

  1. 4 154 cm
  2. 2 308 cm
  3. 4 308 cm
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3908. What is the area of DPQR, shown in Q. 162? (M.B.A., 2011)

  1. 2 154 sq. cm
  2. 3 154 sq. cm
  3. 4 308 sq. cm
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3909. Out of a square of side 8 cm, a triangle is drawn with base as one side of the square and third vertex at any point on the opposite side of the square. What is the area of the remaining portion of the square if the triangle is taken out?

  1. 16 sq. cm
  2. 32 sq. cm
  3. 64 sq. cm
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3910. Consider the given figure. If the areas of the triangles LDC, BMC and AMC are denoted by x , y and z respectively, then

  1. x = y = z
  2. x = 2y = 2z
  3. y = 2 x = 2 z
  4. z = 2 x = 2 y

3911. If the area of a triangle is 1176 cm 2 and base : cor - responding altitude is 3 : 4, then the altitude of the triangle is

  1. 42 cm
  2. 52 cm
  3. 54 cm
  4. 56 cm

3912. The area of a triangle whose sides are of lengths 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm is (P.C.S., 2008; E.S.I.C., 2007; R.R.B., 2009 )

  1. 8 cm 2
  2. 6 cm 2
  3. 10 cm 2
  4. None of these

3913. The three sides of a triangular field are 20 metres, 21 metres and 29 metres long respectively. The area of the field is (I.I.F.T., 2005 )

  1. 210 sq. m
  2. 215 sq. m
  3. 230 sq. m
  4. None of these

3914. The perimeter of an isosceles triangle is equal to 14 cm and the lateral side is to the base in the ratio 5 : 4. The area of the triangle is (M.B.A., 2008)

  1. 21 cm 2
  2. 0.5 21 cm2
  3. 1.5 21 cm2
  4. 2 21 cm2

3915. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio of 111::.234 If the perimeter is 52 cm, then the length of the smallest side is (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 9 cm
  2. 10 cm
  3. 11 cm
  4. 12 cm

3916. The sides of a triangle are consecutive integers. The perimeter of the triangle is 120 cm. Find the length of the greatest side. (M.C.A., 2007 )

  1. 39 cm
  2. 40 cm
  3. 41 cm
  4. 42 cm

3917. The area of a triangle is 216 cm 2 and its sides are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5. The perimeter of the triangle is (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. 6 cm
  2. 12 cm
  3. 36 cm
  4. 72 cm

3918. If three sides of a triangle are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm, then the altitude of the triangle, using the largest side as its base, will be

  1. 4.4 cm
  2. 4.8 cm
  3. 6 cm
  4. 8 cm

3919. The sides of a triangle are 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm. The area (in cm 2) of the triangle formed by joining the mid-points of the sides of this triangle is

  1. 3. 4
  2. 3 2
  3. 3
  4. 6

3920. If D, E and F are the mid-points of the sides of a DABC, the ratio of the areas of the triangles DEF and DCE is

  1. 1.1 : 1
  2. 1 : 1.1
  3. 1 : 1
  4. 0.9 : 1

3921. The sides of a triangle are 5 cm, 6 cm, and 7 cm. One more triangle is formed by joining the mid-points of the sides. The perimeter of the second triangle in cm is

  1. 6
  2. 9
  3. 12
  4. 18
  5. None of these

3922. In a triangle ABC, a line XY is drawn parallel to BC meeting AB in X and AC in Y. The area of the triangle AXY is half of the area of the triangle ABC. XY divides AB in the ratio of

  1. 1 : 2
  2. ( )2: 2 1 −
  3. 1 : ( 2 1)−
  4. 2: 3

3923. The areas of two similar triangles are 12 cm 2 and 48 cm 2. If the height of the smaller one is 2.1 cm, then the corresponding height of the bigger one is (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 0.525 cm
  2. 4.2 cm
  3. 4.41 cm
  4. 8.4 cm

3924. A triangle of area 9 y cm2 has been drawn such that its area is equal to the area of an equilateral triangle of side 6 cm. The value of y would be (M.B.A. 2005, 2007 )

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 2
  4. 3

3925. The hypotenuse of a right-angled isosceles triangle is 5 cm. The area of the triangle is

  1. 5 cm 2
  2. 6.25 cm 2
  3. 6.5 cm 2
  4. 12.5 cm 2

3926. One side of a right-angled triangle is twice the other, and the hypotenuse is 10 cm. The area of the triangle is

  1. 20 cm 2
  2. 133 3 cm2
  3. 40 cm 2
  4. 50 cm 2

3927. The area of a right-angled triangle is 20 sq. cm and one of the sides containing the right angle is 4 cm. The altitude on the hypotenuse is (R.R.B., 2006 )

  1. 41 34 cm
  2. 41 40 cm
  3. 29 20 cm
  4. 20 29 cm

3928. The base and altitude of a right-angled triangle are 12 cm and 5 cm respectively. The perpendicular distance of its hypotenuse from the opposite vertex is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 44 13 cm
  2. 84 13 cm
  3. 5 cm
  4. 7 cm

3929. If the hypotenuse of a right-angled triangle is 41 cm and the area of the triangle is 180 sq. cm, then the difference between the lengths of the legs of the triangle must be

  1. 22 cm
  2. 25 cm
  3. 27 cm
  4. 31 cm

3930. The perimeter of a right-angled triangle is 60 cm. Its hypotenuse is 26 cm. The area of the triangle is

  1. 120 cm 2
  2. 240 cm 2
  3. 390 cm 2
  4. 780 cm 2

3931. If the perimeter of a right-angled isosceles triangle is (4 24+ ) cm, the length of the hypotenuse is

  1. 4 cm
  2. 6 cm
  3. 8 cm
  4. 10 cm

3932. If the perimeter of an isosceles right triangle is (6 3 2 )+ m, then the area of the triangle is

  1. 4.5 m 2
  2. 5.4 m 2
  3. 9 m 2
  4. 81 m 2

3933. The perimeter of an isosceles right-angled triangle having an area of 162 cm 2 is

  1. 40 cm
  2. 56.5 cm
  3. 61.38 cm
  4. 68.2 cm

3934. In an isosceles triangle, the measure of each of the equal sides is 10 cm and the angle between them is 45º. The area of the triangle is

  1. 25 cm 2
  2. 25 22 cm2
  3. 25 2 cm2
  4. 25 3 cm2

3935. The perimeter of a triangle is 30 cm and its area is 30 cm2. If the largest side measures 13 cm, then what is the length of the smallest side of the triangle?

  1. 3 cm
  2. 4 cm
  3. 5 cm
  4. 6 cm

3936. If the area of an equilateral triangle is 24 3 sq. cm, then its perimeter is

  1. 2 6 cm
  2. 4 6 cm
  3. 12 6 cm
  4. 96 cm

3937. The altitude of an equilateral triangle of side 2 3 cm is (M.B.A., 2005, 2008 )

  1. 1 cm2
  2. 3 cm4
  3. 3 2 cm
  4. 3 cm

3938. The height of an equilateral triangle is 10 cm. Its area is

  1. 2100 cm3
  2. 30 cm 2
  3. 100 cm 2
  4. 2100 cm 3

3939. The areas of two equilateral triangles are in the ratio 25 : 36. Their altitudes will be in the ratio

  1. 25 : 36
  2. 36 : 25
  3. 5 : 6
  4. 5: 6

3940. From a point within an equilateral triangle, perpendiculars drawn to the three sides are 6 cm, 7 cm, and 8 cm respectively. The length of the side of the triangle is

  1. 7 cm
  2. 10.5 cm
  3. 14 3 cm
  4. 14 3 cm3

3941. If x is the length of a median of an equilateral triangle, then its area is

  1. x2
  2. 21 2 x
  3. 23 2 x
  4. 23 3 x

3942. ABCD is a square. E is the mid-point of BC and F is the mid--point of CD. The ratio of the area of triangle AEF to the area of the square ABCD is

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 1 : 3
  3. 1 : 4
  4. 3 : 8

3943. If the area of a square with side a is equal to the area of a triangle with base a, then the altitude of the triangle is

  1. 2 a
  2. a
  3. 2 a
  4. 4 a

3944. An equilateral triangle is described on the diagonal of a square. What is the ratio of the area of the triangle to that of the square?

  1. 2: 3
  2. 4: 3
  3. 3:2
  4. 3:4

3945. What will be the ratio between the area of a rectangle and the area of a triangle with one of the sides of the rectangle as base and a vertex on the opposite side of the rectangle ?

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 2 : 1
  3. 3 : 1
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

3946. If an equilateral triangle of area X and a square of area Y have the same perimeter, then X is

  1. equal to Y
  2. greater than Y
  3. less than Y
  4. less than or equal to Y

3947. A square and an equilateral triangle have equal perimeters. If the diagonal of the square is 12 2 cm, then the area of the triangle is

  1. 224 2 cm
  2. 224 3 cm
  3. 248 3 cm
  4. 264 3 cm

3948. The ratio of bases of two triangles is x : y and that of their areas is a : b. Then the ratio of their corresponding altitudes will be (S.S.C. 2004)

  1. ax : by
  2. :ab xy
  3. ay : bx
  4. :xb ay

3949. If the sides of a triangle be in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4, the ratio of the corresponding altitudes is

  1. 6 : 5 : 3
  2. 4 : 5 : 6
  3. 5 : 4 : 3
  4. 6 : 4 : 3

3950. If the side of an equilateral triangle is decreased by 20%, its area is decreased by

  1. 36%
  2. 40%
  3. 60%
  4. 64%

3951. If every side of a triangle is doubled, the area of the new triangle is K times the area of the old one. K is equal to (R.R.B., 2003 )

  1. 2
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

3952. Two isosceles triangles have equal vertical angles and their corresponding sides are in the ratio 3 : 5. What is the ratio of their areas?

  1. 3 : 5
  2. 6 : 10
  3. 9 : 25
  4. None of these

3953. If an angle of a triangle remains unchanged but each of its two including sides is doubled, then by what factor does the area get multiplied?

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 6

3954. In the given figure, ABCD is a rectangle with AD = 4 units and AE = EB. EF is perpendicular to DB and is half of DF. If the area of the triangle DEF is 5 sq. units, then what is the area of ABCD?

  1. 18 3 sq. units
  2. 20 sq. units
  3. 24 sq. units
  4. 28 sq. units

3955. Four equilateral triangles are described on the four sides of a rectangle with perimeter 12 cm. If the sum of the areas of the four triangles is 10 3 cm2, what is the area of the rectangle?

  1. 5 cm 2
  2. 8 cm 2
  3. 9 cm 2
  4. 6.75 cm 2

3956. The dimensions of the field shown in the given figure are AC = 150 m, AH = 120 m, AG = 80 m, AF = 50 m, EF = 30 m, GB = 50 m, HD = 20 m The area of this field is

  1. 6500 m 2
  2. 6550 m 2
  3. 6600 m 2
  4. 6650 m 2

3957. The readings in a field book are: It is subsequently realised that the distances to C and D had been interchanged by mistake. The are of the actual field would be

  1. 1300 sq. m
  2. 1500 sq. m
  3. 1800 sq. m
  4. 2000 sq. m

3958. The measurements of a field are as shown If the total area of the field is 27500 sq. m, then the value of x is equal to

  1. 25 m
  2. 30 m
  3. 50 m
  4. 75 m 400 300 200 100 x to D ToB(in metres) From A 100 to E 50 to C

3959. A field in the form of a parallelogram has one side 150 metres and its distance from the opposite side is 80 metres. The cost of watering the field at the rate of 50 paise per square metre is (R.R.B., 2006 )

  1. ₹ 3500
  2. ₹ 5000
  3. ₹ 6000
  4. ₹ 7000

3960. Let ABCD be a parallelogram and ABEF be a rectangle with EF lying along the line CD. If AB = 7 cm and BE = 6.5 cm, then the area of the parallelogram is

  1. 11.375 cm 2
  2. 22.75 cm 2
  3. 45 cm 2
  4. 45.5 cm 2

3961. A rectangle and a parallelogram are drawn between the same parallel lines on a common base of 10 cm. If the perimeter of the rectangle is 36 cm, then the area of the parallelogram is

  1. 60 cm 2
  2. 80 cm 2
  3. 81 cm 2
  4. 100 cm 2

3962. A rectangle and a parallelogram have equal areas. If the sides of the rectangle are 10 m and 12 m and the base of the parallelogram is 20 m, then the altitude of the parallelogram is

  1. 3 m
  2. 5 m
  3. 6 m
  4. 7 m

3963. A parallelogram has sides 30 m and 14 m and one of its diagonals is 40 m long. Then, its area is

  1. 168 m 2
  2. 336 m 2
  3. 372 m 2
  4. 480 m 2

3964. One diagonal of a parallelogram is 70 cm and the perpendicular distance of this diagonal from either of the outlying vertices is 27 cm. The area of the parallelogram (in sq. cm) is

  1. 1800
  2. 1836
  3. 1890
  4. 1980

3965. A triangle and a parallelogram are constructed on the same base such that their areas are equal. If the altitude of the parallelogram is 100 m, then the altitude of the triangle is

  1. 10 2 m
  2. 100 m
  3. 100 2 m
  4. 200 m

3966. Two equilateral triangles of side 23 cm are joined to form a quadrilateral. The altitude of the quadrilateral, thus formed, is equal to

  1. 3 cm
  2. 4 cm
  3. 6 cm
  4. 8 cm

3967. If a parallelogram with area P, a rectangle with area R and a triangle with area T are all constructed on the same base and all have the same altitude, then which of the following statements is false?

  1. P = R
  2. P + T = 2 R
  3. P = 2T
  4. 1 2TR=

3968. The area of a rhombus is 150 cm 2. The length of one of its diagonals is 10 cm. The length of the other diagonal is

  1. 25 cm
  2. 30 cm
  3. 35 cm
  4. 40 cm

3969. One of the diagonals of a rhombus is double the other diagonal. Its area is 25 sq. cm. The sum of the diagonals is

  1. 10 cm
  2. 12 cm
  3. 15 cm
  4. 16 cm

3970. The perimeter of a rhombus is 56 m and its height is 5 m. Its area is

  1. 64 sq. m
  2. 70 sq. m
  3. 78 sq. m
  4. 84 sq. m

3971. If the diagonals of a rhombus are 24 cm and 10 cm, the area and the perimeter of the rhombus are respectively (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 120 cm 2, 52 cm
  2. 120 cm 2, 64 cm
  3. 240 cm 2, 52 cm
  4. 240 cm2, 64 cm

3972. Each side of a rhombus is 26 cm and one of its diagonals is 48 cm long. The area of the rhombus is

  1. 2400 cm 2
  2. 3000 cm 2
  3. 3600 cm 2
  4. 4800 cm 2

3973. A diagonal of a rhombus is 6 cm. If its area is 24 cm2 then the length of each side of the rhombus is

  1. 5 cm
  2. 6 cm
  3. 7 cm
  4. 8 cm

3974. If each side of a rhombus is 20 metres and its shorter diagonal is three-fourths of its longer diagonal, then the area of this rhombus must be

  1. 375 sq. m
  2. 380 sq. m
  3. 384 sq. m
  4. 395 sq. m

3975. The length of one diagonal of a rhombus is 80% of the other diagonal. The area of the rhombus is how many times the square of the length of the other diagonal?

  1. 4 5
  2. 2 5
  3. 3 4
  4. 1 4

3976. If a square and a rhombus stand on the same base, then the ratio of the areas of the square and the rhombus is

  1. greater than 1
  2. equal to 1
  3. equal to 1 2
  4. equal to 1 4

3977. The two parallel sides of a trapezium are 1.5 m and 2.5 m respectively. If the perpendicular distance between them is 6.5 metres, the area of the trapezium is

  1. 10 m 2
  2. 13 m 2
  3. 20 m 2
  4. 26 m 2

3978. If the area of the trapezium whose parallel sides are 6 cm and 10 cm is 32 sq. cm, then the distance between the parallel sides is

  1. 2 cm
  2. 4 cm
  3. 5 cm
  4. 8 cm

3979. The distance between the parallel sides of a trapezium = The distance between the mid-points of the slant sides = 4 cm. What is the area of the trapezium?

  1. 4 cm 2
  2. 8 cm 2
  3. 16 cm 2
  4. 20 cm 2

3980. ABCD is a rectangle and E and F are the mid-points of AD and DC respectively. Then the ratio of the areas of EDF and AEFC would be

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 1 : 3
  3. 1 : 4
  4. 2 : 3

3981. The area of a field in the shape of a trapezium measures 1440 m 2. The perpendicular distance between its parallel sides is 24 m. If the ratio of the parallel sides is 5 : 3, the length of the longer parallel side is

  1. 45 m
  2. 60 m
  3. 75 m
  4. 120 m

3982. The cross-section of a canal is trapezium in shape. The canal is 12 m wide at the top and 8 m wide at the bottom. If the area of the cross-section is 840 sq. m, the depth of the canal is

  1. 8.75 m
  2. 42 m
  3. 63 m
  4. 84 m

3983. Which two figure have an equal area? 10 cm 12 cm 12 cm 12 cm 12 cm 14 cm 14 cm AB C D

  1. A and B
  2. B and D
  3. A and C
  4. A and D

3984. Which of the following figures has the longest perimeter? (P.C.S., 2009; R.R.B., 2006 )

  1. A square of side 10 cm
  2. A rectangle of sides 12 cm and 9 cm
  3. A circle of radius 7 cm
  4. A rhombus of side 9 cm

3985. Which one of the following has a greater perimeter than the rest?

  1. A square with an area of 36 sq. cm
  2. An equilateral triangle with a side of 9 cm
  3. A rectangle with 10 cm as length and 40 sq. cm as area
  4. A circle with a radius of 4 cm

3986. The diameter of a circle is 3.5 cm. What is the circumference of the circle?

  1. 11 cm
  2. 22 cm
  3. 38.5 cm
  4. 45.2 cm
  5. None of these

3987. The area of a circle of radius 5 is numerically what percent of its circumference?

  1. 200
  2. 225
  3. 240
  4. 250

3988. A man runs round a circular field of radius 50 m at the speed of 12 km / hr. What is the time taken by the man to take twenty rounds of the field?

  1. 30 min.
  2. 32 min.
  3. 34 min.
  4. None of these

3989. From a circular sheet of paper with radius 20 cm, four circles of radius 5 cm each are cut out. What is the ratio of the uncut to the cut portion?

  1. 1 : 3
  2. 3 : 1
  3. 4 : 1
  4. 4 : 3

3990. A cow is tethered in the middle of a field with a 14 feet long rope. If the cow grazes 100 sq. ft. per day, then approximately what time will be taken by the cow to graze the whole field?

  1. 2 days
  2. 6 days
  3. 18 days
  4. 24 days
  5. None of these

3991. A circle and a rectangle have the same perimeter. The sides of the rectangle are 18 cm and 26 cm. What is the area of the circle? (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 88 cm 2
  2. 154 cm 2
  3. 1250 cm 2
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3992. The area of a circular field is equal to the area of a rectangular field. The ratio of the length and the breadth of the rectangular field is 14 : 11 respectively and perimeter is 100 metres. What is the diameter of the circular field?

  1. 14 m
  2. 22 m
  3. 24 m
  4. 28 m
  5. None of these

3993. The circumference of a circle, whose area is 24.64 m2, is

  1. 14.64 m
  2. 16.36 m
  3. 17.60 m
  4. 18.40 m

3994. What will be the cost of building a fence around a circular field with area equal to 18634 sq. metres if the cost of building the fence per metre is ₹ 365?

  1. ₹ 1,76,660
  2. ₹ 2,43,250
  3. ₹ 56,60,220
  4. ₹ 68,01,410
  5. None of these

3995. The circumference of a circular plot is 396 metres. what is the area of the circular plot?

  1. 9446 sq. m
  2. 9856 sq. m
  3. 12474 sq. m
  4. 18634 sq. m
  5. None of these

3996. What is the area of a circle whose circumference is 1047.2 metres?

  1. 69843.23 sq. m
  2. 78621.47 sq. m
  3. 79943.82 sq. m
  4. 85142.28 sq. m
  5. 87231.76 sq. m

3997. The circumferences of two circles are 132 metres and 176 metres respectively. What is the difference between the area of the larger circle and the smaller circle?

  1. 1048 sq. m
  2. 1076 sq. m
  3. 1078 sq. m
  4. 1090 sq. m
  5. None of these

3998. Cost of fencing a circular plot at the rate of ₹ 15 per metre is ₹ 3300. What will be the cost of flooring the plot at the rate of ₹ 100 per square metre?

  1. ₹ 2,20,000
  2. ₹ 3,50,000
  3. ₹ 3,85,000
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

3999. If the circumference and the area of a circle are numerically equal, then the diameter is equal to

  1. 2 π
  2. 2 p
  3. 2
  4. 4

4000. The magnitude of the area of a circle is seven times that of its circumference. What is the circumference (in units) of the circle?

  1. 88
  2. 132
  3. 616
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

4001. The difference between the circumference and the radius of a circle is 37 cm. The area of the circle is

  1. 111 cm 2
  2. 148 cm 2
  3. 154 cm 2
  4. 259 cm 2

4002. Two small circular parks of diameters 16 m and 12 m are to be replaced by a Bigger circular park. What would be the radius of this new park, If the new park has to occupy the same space as the two small parks? (M.A.T., 2008)

  1. 10 m
  2. 15 m
  3. 20 m
  4. 25 m

4003. The sum of areas of two circles A and B is equal to the area of a third circle C whose diameter is 30 cm. If the diameter of circle A is 18 cm, then the radius of circle B is

  1. 10 cm
  2. 12 cm
  3. 15 cm
  4. 18 cm

4004. The sum of radii of two circles is 140 cm and the difference of their circumferences is 88 cm. The diameters of the circles are

  1. 77 cm, 63 cm
  2. 150 cm, 120 cm
  3. 154 cm, 126 cm
  4. 160 cm, 120 cm

4005. The radius of a circle is 20% more than the height of a right-angled triangle. The base of the triangle is 36 cm. If the area of triangle and circle be equal, what will be the area of circle?

  1. 72 cm 2
  2. 128 cm 2
  3. 144 cm 2
  4. 216 cm 2
  5. Cannot be determined

4006. A circular pond has area equal to 616 m 2. A circular stage is made at the centre of the pond whose radius is equal to half the radius of the pond. What is the area where water is present? (R.R.B., 2008 )

  1. 454 sq. m
  2. 462 sq. m
  3. 532 sq. m
  4. 564 sq. m

4007. Between a square of perimeter 44 cm and a circle of circumference 44 cm, which figure has larger area and by how much?

  1. Both have equal area
  2. Square, 33 cm 2
  3. Circle, 33 cm 2
  4. Square, 495 cm 2

4008. The perimeter of a circular field and a square field are equal. If the area of the square field is 12100 m 2, the area of the circular field will be (R.R.B., 2006 )

  1. 15200 m 2
  2. 15300 m 2
  3. 15400 m 2
  4. 15500 m 2

4009. If the perimeter of a square is equal to the radius of a circle whose area is 39424 sq. m. What is the are area of the square?

  1. 441 sq.m
  2. 784 sq.m
  3. 1225 sq.m
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

4010. A wire can be bent in the form of a circle of radius 56 cm. If it is bent in the form of a square, then its area will be (R.R.B., 2002 )

  1. 3520 cm 2
  2. 6400 cm 2
  3. 7744 cm 2
  4. 8800 cm 2

4011. The circumference of a circle is equal to the side of a square whose area measures 407044 sq. cm. What is the area of the circle?

  1. 22583.2 sq. cm
  2. 32378.5 sq. cm
  3. 39483.4 sq. cm
  4. 41263.5 sq. cm
  5. Cannot be determined

4012. A wire when bent in the form of a square encloses an area of 484 sq. cm. What will be the enclosed area when the same wire is bent into the form of a circle?

  1. 462 sq. cm
  2. 539 sq. cm
  3. 616 sq. cm
  4. 693 sq. cm

4013. A circular wire of diameter 42 cm is bent in the form of a rectangle whose sides are in the ratio 6 : 5. The area of the rectangle is

  1. 540 cm 2
  2. 1080 cm 2
  3. 2160 cm 2
  4. 4320 cm 2

4014. A square lawn with side 100 m long has a circular flower bed in the centre. If the area of the lawn, excluding the flower bed, is 8614 m 2, the radius of the circular flower bed is

  1. 21 m
  2. 31 m
  3. 41 m
  4. None of these

4015. There is a rectangular tank of length 180 m and breadth 120 m in a circular field. If the area of the land portion of the field is 40000 m 2, what is the radius of the field?

  1. 130 m
  2. 135 m
  3. 140 m
  4. 145 m

4016. If the ratio between the areas of two circles is 4 : 1 then the ratio between their radii will be (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 2 : 1
  3. 1 : 3
  4. 4 : 1

4017. The areas of two circular fields are in the ratio 16 : 49. If the radius of the latter is 14 m, then what is the radius of the former? (IGNOU, 2003 )

  1. 4 m
  2. 8 m
  3. 18 m
  4. 32 m

4018. The ratio of the radii of two circles is 3 : 2. What is the ratio of their circumferences? (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 2 : 3
  2. 3 : 2
  3. 4 : 9
  4. None of these

4019. The ratio of the radii of two circles is 1 : 3. Then the ratio of their areas is

  1. 1 : 3
  2. 1 : 6
  3. 1 : 9
  4. None of these

4020. The ratio of the circumferences of two circles is 2 : 3. What is the ratio of their areas? (M.B.A., 2008)

  1. 2 : 3
  2. 4 : 9
  3. 9 : 4
  4. None of these

4021. The perimeter of a circle is equal to the perimeter of a square. Then, their areas are in the ratio

  1. 4 : 1
  2. 11 : 7
  3. 14 : 11
  4. 22 : 7

4022. A circle and a square have the same area. The ratio of the side of the square and the radius of the circle is

  1. 22 : 7
  2. :1π
  3. 1 : p
  4. 7 : 22

4023. If the areas of a circle and a square are equal then the ratio of their perimeters is

  1. 1 : 1
  2. 2 : p
  3. p : 2
  4. :2π

4024. The diameter of a wheel is 1.26 m. How far will it travel in 500 revolutions?

  1. 1492 m
  2. 1980 m
  3. 2530 m
  4. 2880 m

4025. The number of revolutions made by a wheel of diameter 56 cm in covering a distance of 1.1 km is:

  1. 31.25
  2. 56.25
  3. 62.5
  4. 625

4026. The diameter of the driving wheel of a bus is 140 cm. How many revolutions per minute must the wheel make in order to keep a speed of 66 km per hour?

  1. 200
  2. 250
  3. 300
  4. 350

4027. If the wheel of the engine of a train 24 7 metres in circumference makes 7 revolutions in 4 seconds, then the speed (in km/hr) of the train is (G.B.O., 2007)

  1. 27
  2. 28
  3. 29
  4. 30

4028. The radius of the wheel of a vehicle is 70 cm. The wheel makes 10 revolutions in 5 seconds. The speed of the vehicle is (M.B.A., 2008)

  1. 29.46 km/hr
  2. 31.68 km/hr
  3. 32.72 km/hr
  4. 36.25 km/hr

4029. The diameter of a cycle wheel is 70 cm. A cyclist takes 30 hours to reach a destination at the speed of 22 km/hr. How many revolutions will the wheel make during this journey?

  1. 3 lakh
  2. 4 lakh
  3. 30 million
  4. None of these

4030. Wheels of diameters 7 cm and 14 cm start rolling simultaneously from X and Y, which are 1980 cm apart, towards each other in opposite directions. Both of them make the same number of revolutions per second. If both of them meet after 10 seconds, the speed of the smaller wheel is (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 22 cm/sec
  2. 44 cm/sec
  3. 66 cm/sec
  4. 132 cm/sec

4031. A toothed wheel of diameter 50 cm is attached to a smaller wheel of diameter 30 cm. How many revolutions will the smaller wheel make when the larger one makes 15 revolutions? (M.B.A., 2005, 2007 )

  1. 18
  2. 20
  3. 25
  4. 30

4032. A small ring of negligible thickness and radius 2 cm moves on a bigger rung of radius 10 cm. How many rotations will the small ring take on the bigger ring to make a complete round? (Hotel Management, 2010)

  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. 10

4033. Find the diameter of a wheel that makes 113 revolutions to go 2 km 26 decameters.

  1. 44 13 m
  2. 46 11 m
  3. 412 11 m
  4. 812 11 m

4034. The circumference of the front wheel of a cart is 40 ft long and that of the back wheel is 48 ft long. What is the distance travelled by the cart, when the front wheel has done five more revolutions than the rear wheel? (M.B.A., 2011)

  1. 850 ft
  2. 950 ft
  3. 1200 ft
  4. 1450 ft

4035. The radii of the front wheel and the rear wheel of a bike are 14 cm and 21 cm respectively. Rahul puts a red mark on the point of contact of each of the wheels with the ground when the bike is station - ary. Once the bike starts moving, then after what distance will the two red marks touch the ground again simultaneously?

  1. 42 cm
  2. 84 cm
  3. 264 cm
  4. 294 cm

4036. The circumferences of the front and rear wheels of a bicycle are 3.5 m and 3 m respectively. If the vehicle is moving at a speed of 15 m/sec, the shortest time in which both the wheels will make a whole number of turns is (R.R.B., 2008 )

  1. 1.4 seconds
  2. 2.1 seconds
  3. 4 seconds
  4. 6.4 seconds

4037. The circumference of the back-sided wheel of a vehicle is 1 m greater than that of front side wheel. To travel 600 m, the front wheel rotates 30 times more than the back wheel. The circumference of the front wheel is (Hotel Management, 2007)

  1. 2 m
  2. 4 m
  3. 5 m
  4. None of these

4038. Two boys are running on two different circular paths with same centre. If their radii are 5 m and 10 m, the maximum possible distance between them is (I.A.M., 2007 )

  1. 5 m
  2. 10 m
  3. 15 m
  4. 20 m

4039. A circular ground whose diameter is 35 metres, has a 1.4 m broad garden around it. What is the area of the garden in square meters?

  1. 160.16
  2. 176.16
  3. 196.16
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

4040. A circular grassy plot of land, 42 cm in diameter, has a path 3.5 m wide running around it outside. The cost of gravelling the path at ₹ 4 per square metre is (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. ₹ 1002
  2. ₹ 1802
  3. ₹ 2002
  4. ₹ 3002

4041. A circle of radius 5 cm is drawn and another circle of 3 cm radius is cut out of this circle. What is the radius of a circle which has the same area as the area of the bigger circle excluding the cut one?

  1. 2 cm
  2. 3 cm
  3. 4 cm
  4. 4.5 cm

4042. The circumference of a circular ground is 88 metres. A strip of land, 3 metres wide, inside and along the circumference of the ground is to be levelled. What is the budgeted expenditure if the levelling costs ₹ 7 per square metre? (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. ₹ 1050
  2. ₹ 1125
  3. ₹ 1325
  4. ₹ 1650

4043. The areas of two concentric circles forming a ring are 154 sq. cm and 616 sq. cm. The breadth of the ring is

  1. 7 cm
  2. 14 cm
  3. 21 cm
  4. 28 cm

4044. A circular road runs around a circular garden. If the difference between the circumference of the outer circle and the inner circle is 44 m, the width of the road is (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 3.5 m
  2. 4 m
  3. 7 m
  4. 7.5 m

4045. A small disc of radius r is cut out from a disc of radius R. The weight of the disc which now has a hole in it, is reduced to 24 25 of the original weight. If R = xr, what is the value of x?

  1. 4
  2. 4.5
  3. 24
  4. 25
  5. None of these

4046. A circular swimming pool is surrounded by a con - crete wall 4 ft. wide. If the area of the concrete wall surrounding the pool is 11 25 that of the pool, then the radius of the pool is

  1. 8 ft
  2. 16 ft
  3. 20 ft
  4. 30 ft

4047. The ratio of the outer and the inner perimeters of a circular path is 23 : 22. If the path is 5 metres wide, the diameter of the inner circle is (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. 55 m
  2. 110 m
  3. 220 m
  4. 230 m

4048. If a region bounded by a circle C is to be divided into three regions of equal areas by drawing two circles concentric with C, then the ratio of the radii of the two circles must be

  1. 1 : 3
  2. 1 : 3
  3. 1 : 2
  4. 1 : 2

4049. The area of a circle is increased by 22 sq. cm if its radius is increased by 1 cm. The original radius of the circle is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 3 cm
  2. 3.2 cm
  3. 3.5 cm
  4. 6 cm

4050. The perimeter of a square is equal to twice the pe - rimeter of a rectangle of length 8 cm and breadth 7 cm. What is the circumference of a semi-circle whose diameter is equal to the side of the square? (rounded off to two decimal places)

  1. 23.57 cm
  2. 38.57 cm
  3. 42.46 cm
  4. 47.47 cm
  5. None of these

4051. What will be the area of a semi-circle of 14 m diameter?

  1. 22 m 2
  2. 77 m 2
  3. 154 m 2
  4. 308 m 2
  5. None of these

4052. A semi-circular shaped window has diameter of 63 cm. Its perimeter equals

  1. 126 cm
  2. 162 cm
  3. 198 cm
  4. 251 cm

4053. A vertical rod of height 33 metres is bent to form a semi-circular shape so that the top touches the ground. The distance between the top head and the base on the ground is (I.A.M., 2007 )

  1. 10.5 m
  2. 12 m
  3. 21 m
  4. 33 m

4054. What will be the area of a semi-circle whose perimeter is 36 cm? (R.R.B., 2009 )

  1. 154 cm 2
  2. 168 cm 2
  3. 308 cm 2
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

4055. If the area of a semi-circular plot is 11088 m 2, then its perimeter is

  1. 264 m
  2. 348 m
  3. 432 m
  4. 452 m

4056. If a wire is bent into the shape of a square, then the area of the square is 81 sq. cm. When the wire is bent into a semi-circular shape, then the area of the semi-circle will be

  1. 22 cm 2
  2. 44 cm 2
  3. 77 cm 2
  4. 154 cm 2

4057. If MN = x, then what is the area of the shaded region? L NM 90º

  1. p x2
  2. 2 2 xπ
  3. 2 2 xπ
  4. 2 4 xπ

4058. In the given figure, ABC is a right-angled triangle with B as the right angle. Three semi-circles are drawn with AB, BC and AC as diameters. What is the area of the shaded portion if the area of the triangle ABC is 12 square units?

  1. 6 square units
  2. 12 square units
  3. 24 square units
  4. Cannot be determined as the data is insufficient

4059. If in the given figure OP = OQ = 14 cm and OP, PQ and OQ are all joined by semi-circles, then the perimeter of the shaded are a is equal to

  1. 88 cm
  2. 176 cm
  3. 264 cm
  4. 352 cm

4060. In the given diagram, ABCD is a square and semi-circular regions have been added to it by drawing two semi- circles with AB and CD as diameters. If the total area of the three regions is 350 sq. cm, then the length of the side of the square is equal to

  1. 57 cm
  2. 7 cm
  3. 13 cm
  4. 14 cm

4061. If r and R and the respective radii of the smaller and the bigger semi-circles then the area of the shaded portion in the given figure is :

  1. pr2 sq. units
  2. pR2 – pr2 sq. units
  3. pR2 + pr2 sq. units
  4. pR2 sq. units B CA O P Q

4062. Two circular wheels of the same radius r have their central hubs at a distance of a from one another. The minimum length of a fan belt which will pass around both the wheels is a

  1. 2( a + pr)
  2. 2 ra π+
  3. 2 a + pr)
  4. 2 ar+π

4063. The area of the shaded region in the adjoining figure is (S.S.C., 2007) C a

  1. a2(p – 1) sq. units
  2. 1 sq. units2a2 π −
  3. 2 ( 1) sq. units2 a π−
  4. 2 1 sq. units22 a π − 

4064. An athletic track 14 m wide consists of two straight sections 120 m long joining semi-circular ends whose inner radius is 35 m. The area of the track is (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 7026 m 2
  2. 7036 m 2
  3. 7046 m 2
  4. 7056 m 2

4065. A square of area 40 sq. cm is inscribed in a circle as shown in the figure. The area (in sq.cm) of the semi-circle is

  1. 20 p
  2. 25 p
  3. 30 p
  4. 40 p

4066. A square is inscribed in a circle and another in a semi-circle of same radius. The ratio of the area of the first square to the area of the second square is (Hotel Management, 2010 )

  1. 2 : 5
  2. 5 : 2
  3. 4 : 5
  4. 5 : 4

4067. Semi-circular lawns are attached to the edges of a rectangular field measuring 42 m × 35 m. The area of the total field is

  1. 1358 m 2
  2. 3818.5 m 2
  3. 5813 m 2
  4. 8318 m 2

4068. The area of a sector of a circle of radius 5 cm, formed by an arc of length 3.5 cm, is

  1. 7.5 cm 2
  2. 7.75 cm 2
  3. 8.5 cm 2
  4. 8.75 cm 2

4069. In a circle of radius 7 cm, an arc subtends an angle of 108º at the centre. The area of the sector is

  1. 43.2 cm 2
  2. 44.2 cm 2
  3. 45.2 cm 2
  4. 46.2 cm 2

4070. A sector of 56º has an area of 17.6 cm2. The its radius will be

  1. 1.5 cm
  2. 3 cm
  3. 4.2 cm
  4. 6 cm

4071. There are three circles each of radius 7 cm. A triangle is formed by joining their centres. The angles at the centre made by the triangle are shown in the figure. The area of the shaded portion is

  1. 4 7 cm2
  2. 11 7 cm2
  3. 22 7 cm2
  4. 11 cm2

4072. The minute hand of a clock is 7 cm long. Find the area of the sector made by the minute hand between 7 a.m. and 7.05 a.m. (R.R.B., 2006 )

  1. 11.5 cm 2
  2. 12.8 cm 2
  3. 15.4 cm 2
  4. None of these

4073. A horse is tied at the corner of a rectangular field whose length is 20 m and width is 16 m, with a rope whose length is 14 m. Find the area which the horse can graze: (R.R.B., 2006 )

  1. 144 sq. m
  2. 154 sq. m
  3. 156 sq. m
  4. 164 sq. m

4074. Area of the segment of a circle is

  1. 1 2 lr
  2. 180º rπθ
  3. 2 1 sin360º 2r πθ −θ 
  4. None of these

4075. If in a circle of radius 21 cm, an arc subtends an angle of 56º at the centre, the length of the arc is

  1. 15.53 cm
  2. 16.53 cm
  3. 18.53 cm
  4. 20.53 cm

4076. If the circumference of a circle is 100 units, then what will be the length of the arc described by an angle of 20 degrees?

  1. 5.55 units
  2. 4.86 units
  3. 5.85 units
  4. None of these

4077. The area of the greatest circle which can be inscribed in a square whose perimeter is 120 cm, is (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. 2 222 7 cm72 × 
  2. 2 222 9 cm72 ×  
  3. 2 222 15 cm72 ×  
  4. ( )2 222 15 cm7 × 58º 80º 42º

4078. The area of the largest circle, that can be drawn inside a rectangle with sides 18 cm by 14 cm, is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 49 cm 2
  2. 154 cm 2
  3. 378 cm 2
  4. 1078 cm 2

4079. The sides of a rectangle are 8 cm and 6 cm. The corners of the rectangle lie on a circle. Find the are a of the circle without the rectangle. (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 30.6 cm 2
  2. 39 cm 2
  3. 42.4 cm 2
  4. 65.3 cm 2

4080. The area of the rectangle circumscribed by a circle is 32 cm2 and the length of one side of the rectangle is 8 cm. The length of the diameter of the circle is

  1. 16 cm
  2. 12 cm
  3. 5 2 cm
  4. 45 cm

4081. The area of a circle is 220 sq. cm. The area of a square inscribed in this circle will be

  1. 49 cm 2
  2. 70 cm 2
  3. 140 cm 2
  4. 150 cm 2

4082. A square is inscribed in a circle whose radius is 4 cm. The area of the portion between the circle and the square is :

  1. (8 p – 16)
  2. (8 p – 32)
  3. (16 p – 16)
  4. (16p – 32)

4083. The circumference of a circle is 100 cm. The side of a square inscribed in the circle is

  1. 50 2 cm2
  2. 100 π cm2
  3. 50 2 cmπ 2
  4. 100 2 π cm2

4084. A circle is inscribed in a square of side 54 cms and another circle circumscribes the same square. Then the ratio of circumferences of the bigger circle to the smaller circle is

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 2 :1
  3. 3 :1
  4. None of these

4085. A circle is circumscribed around a square as shown in the figure. The area of one of the four shaded portions is equal to 4 7 . The radius of the circle is (R.R.B., 2006 )

  1. 2
  2. 1 2
  3. 2
  4. 3

4086. The ratio of the areas of the incircle and the circumcircle of a square is (S.S.C., 2008)

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 2 :1
  3. 1: 2
  4. 2 : 1

4087. A square circumscribes a circle and another square is inscribed in this circle with one vertex at the point of contact. The ratio of the areas of the circumscribed and the inscribed squares is

  1. 1
  2. 2 : 1
  3. 3
  4. 4

4088. What is the area of the shaded region? 8 4

  1. 32 – 4 p sq. units
  2. 32 – 8 p sq. units
  3. 16 – 4 p sq. units
  4. 16 – 8 p sq. units

4089. Four equal sized maximum circular plates are cut off from a square paper sheet of area 784 cm 2. The circumference of each plate is

  1. 22 cm
  2. 44 cm
  3. 66 cm
  4. 88 cm

4090. There are 4 semi-circular gardens on each side of a square-shaped pond with each side 21 m. The cost of fencing the entire plot at the rate of ₹ 12.50 per metre is

  1. ₹ 1560
  2. ₹ 1650
  3. ₹ 3120
  4. ₹ 3300

4091. The circumradius of an equilateral triangle is 8 cm. The inradius of the triangle

  1. 3.25 cm
  2. 4 cm
  3. 3.5 cm
  4. 4.25 cm

4092. The ratio of the areas of the incircle and circumcircle of an equilateral triangle is

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 1 : 3
  3. 1 : 4
  4. 1 : 9

4093. The radius of the circumcircle of an equilateral triangle of side 12 cm is

  1. 42 cm3
  2. 4 2 cm
  3. 43 cm3
  4. 4 3 cm

4094. The area of the incircle of an equilateral triangle of side 42 cm is

  1. 222 3 cm
  2. 231 cm 2
  3. 462 cm 2
  4. 924 cm 2

4095. The area of a circle inscribed in an equilateral triangle is 154 cm 2. Find the perimeter of the triangle. (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 71.5 cm
  2. 71.7 cm
  3. 72.3 cm
  4. 72.7 cm

4096. A circle is inscribed in a square. An equilateral triangle of side 43 cm is inscribed in that circle. The length of the diagonal of the square is

  1. 42 cm
  2. 8 cm
  3. 82 cm
  4. 16 cm

4097. In the given figure, ABC is an equilateral triangle which is inscribed inside a circle and whose radius is r. Which of the following is the area of the triangle? (S.B.I.P.O., 2005)

  1. 13 22() ()r DE r DE+−
  2. 1 22( )( )r DE r DE−+
  3. 22() ()r DE r DE−+
  4. 13 22( )( )r DE r DE−+

4098. Three boys are standing on a circular boundary of a fountain. They are at equal distance from each other. If the radius of the boundary is 5 m, the shortest distance between any two boys is (Hotel Management, 2010)

  1. 53 m2
  2. 5 3m
  3. 15 3 m2
  4. 10 m3 π

4099. What is the area of an equilateral triangle inscribed in a circle of unit radius?

  1. 3 3 sq. units
  2. 33 sq. units2
  3. 33 sq. units4
  4. 33 sq. units16

4100. The sides of a triangle are 6 cm, 11 cm and 15 cm. The radius of its incircle is

  1. 3 2 cm
  2. 42 cm5
  3. 52 cm4
  4. 6 2 cm

4101. The product of the lengths of three sides of a triangle is 196 and the radius of its circumscribe is 2.5 cm. The area of the triangle is

  1. 19.6 cm 2
  2. 39.2 cm 2
  3. 61.25 cm 2
  4. 122.5 cm 2

4102. A triangle with sides 13 cm, 14 cm and 15 cm is inscribed in a circle. The radius of the circle is (M.B.A., 2007)

  1. 2 cm
  2. 3 cm
  3. 4 cm
  4. 8.125 cm

4103. The perimeter of a triangle is 30 cm and the circumference of its incircle is 88 cm. The area of the triangle is

  1. 70 cm 2
  2. 140 cm 2
  3. 210 cm 2
  4. 420 cm 2

4104. If in a triangle, the area is numerically equal to the perimeter, then the radius of the inscribed circle of the triangle is

  1. 1
  2. 1.5
  3. 2
  4. 3

4105. An equilateral triangle, a square and a circle have equal perimeters. If T denotes the area of the triangle, S, the area of the square and C, the area of the circle, then

  1. S < T < C
  2. T < C < S
  3. T < S < C
  4. C < S < T

4106. A circle, a square and an equilateral triangle have the same area. The correct increasing order of the perimeters will be

  1. triangle, square, circle
  2. triangle, circle, square
  3. circle, triangle, square
  4. circle, square, triangle

4107. The area of the largest triangle that can be inscribed in a semi-circle of radius r, is

  1. r2
  2. 2r2
  3. r3
  4. 2r3

4108. ABC is a right-angled triangle with right angle at B. If the semi-circle on AB with AB as diameter encloses an area of 81 sq. cm and the semi-circle on BC with BC as diameter encloses an area of 36 sq. cm, then the area of the semi-circle on AC with AC as diameter will be

  1. 117 cm 2
  2. 121 cm 2
  3. 217 cm 2
  4. 221 cm 2

4109. If the radius of a circle is increased by 75%, then its circumference will increase by

  1. 25%
  2. 50%
  3. 75%
  4. 100%

4110. When the circumference of a toy balloon is increased from 20 cm to 25 cm, its radius is increased by

  1. 5 π
  2. 5 π
  3. 5
  4. 5 2π

4111. A can go round a circular path 8 times in 40 min - utes. If the diameter of the circle is increased to 10 times the original diameter, then the time required by A to go round the new path once, travelling at the same speed as before, is

  1. 20 min.
  2. 25 min.
  3. 50 min.
  4. 100 min.

4112. If the radius of a circle is increased by 6%, then the area is increased by

  1. 6%
  2. 12%
  3. 12.36%
  4. 16.64%

4113. If the radius of a circle is increased by 200%, then its area will increase by (P.C.S. 2009)

  1. 200%
  2. 400%
  3. 800%
  4. 900%

4114. If the radius of a circle is diminished by 10%, then its area is diminished by

  1. 10%
  2. 19%
  3. 20%
  4. 36%

4115. If the radius of a circle is doubled, its area is increased by

  1. 100%
  2. 200%
  3. 300%
  4. 400%

4116. If the radius of a circle is increased to 3 times, then how many times will its circumference be increased?

  1. 1 times3
  2. 2 times
  3. 3 times
  4. 9 times

4117. If the circumference of a circle increases form 4 p to 8p, what change occurs in its area?

  1. It is halved.
  2. It doubles.
  3. it triples.
  4. It quadruples.

4118. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 20%, what will be the effect on the circle?

  1. 40% increase
  2. 44% increase
  3. 48% increase
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

4119. If the circumference of a circle is decreased by 50% then the percentage of decrease in its area is (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 25
  2. 50
  3. 60
  4. 75

4120. Three equal circles are described with vertices of the triangles as centres. If the radius of each circle is r, the sum of areas of the portions of the circles intercepted in a triangle is

  1. 2 pr2
  2. 3 2 pr2
  3. pr2
  4. 1 2 pr2

4121. Three circles of radius 3.5 cm are placed in such a way that each circle touches the other two. The area of the portion enclosed by the circles is (S.S.C., 2003)

  1. 1.967 cm 2
  2. 1.975 cm 2
  3. 19.67 cm 2
  4. 21.21 cm 2

4122. Four circles each of radius ‘a‘ units touch one another. The area enclosed between them in square units is

  1. 2 7 a
  2. 3a2
  3. 26 7 a
  4. 241 7 a

4123. Four horses are tethered at four corners of a square plot of side 63 metres so that they just cannot reach one another. The area left ungrazed is

  1. 675.5 m 2
  2. 780.6 m 2
  3. 785.8 m 2
  4. 850.5 m 2

4124. In the adjoining figure, if the radius of each of the four outer circles is r, what is the radius of the inner circle?

  1. 2 21 r +
  2. 1 2 r
  3. ( 2 1) r−
  4. 2 r

4125. Four equal circles are described at the four corners of a square so that each touches two of the others. The area enclosed by the circumferences of the circles is 513 7 sq. cm. Find the radius of the circle.

  1. 2.5 cm
  2. 4 cm
  3. 6 cm
  4. 7.5 cm

4126. In order to reach his office on time, Mr. Roy goes through the middle passage of a round fort which he takes 14 minutes to pass through. However, on a certain day, due to repairs, the straight road being blocked, he had to take the roundabout way as a result of which he reached his office late. How late was he?

  1. 6 min
  2. 8 min
  3. 12 min
  4. 17 2 min

4127. A kite-shaped quadrilateral of the largest possible area is cut from a circular sheet of paper. If the lengths of the sides of the kite are in the ratio 3 : 3 : 4 : 4, what percentage of the circular sheet is wasted?

  1. 34%
  2. 39%
  3. 42%
  4. 47%

4128. What is the area that can be grazed by the cow if the length of the rope is 8?

  1. 133 6 π sq. m
  2. 121 p sq. m
  3. 132 p sq. m
  4. 176 sq. m3 π

4129. What is the area that can be grazed by the cow if the length of the rope is 12 m ?

  1. 1134 sq. m3 π
  2. 121 p sq.m
  3. 132 p sq.m
  4. 176 sq. m3 π

4130. Two identical circles intersect so that their centres, and the points at which they intersect, form a square of side 1 cm. The area (in sq. cm) of the portion that is common to the circles is

  1. 4 π
  2. 12 π −
  3. 5 π
  4. 21−

4131. A one-rupee coin is placed on a plain paper. How many coins of the same size can be placed round it so that each one touches the centre and adjacent coins? (R.R.B., 2006 )

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 7

4132. A skating champion moves along the circumference of a circle of radius 28 m in 44 sec. How many seconds will it take her to move along the perimeter of a hexagon of side 48 m? (M.B.A., 2011)

  1. 48
  2. 68
  3. 72
  4. 84
  5. 90

4133. Each side of a regular hexagon is 1 cm. The area of the hexagon is

  1. 23 2 cm
  2. 24 3 cm
  3. 233 cm4
  4. 233 cm2

4134. The difference between the areas of the circumcircle and the incircle of a regular polygon of n sides with each side of length 2 a, is

  1. pa2
  2. (2n + 1) pa2
  3. pna2
  4. 2 pna2

4135. If a circle touching all the n sides of a polygon of perimeter 2p has radius r, then the area of the poly - gon is

  1. (p – n)r
  2. pr
  3. (2 p – n)r
  4. (p + n )r

4136. Two equal circles are drawn in square in such a way that a side of the square forms diameter of each circle. If the remaining area of the square is 42 cm 2. How much will the diameter of the circle measures? [IBPS—RRB Officers Gr. ‘B’ Exam, 2015]

  1. 3.5 cm
  2. 4 cm
  3. 14 cm
  4. 7.5 cm

4137. If radius of a circle is 3cm, what is the area of the circle in sq. cm.? [Indian Railway Gr. ‘D’ Exam, 2014]

  1. 6 p
  2. 9 p
  3. 3 2 π
  4. 29π

4138. A plate on square base made of brass is of length x c and width 1 mm. The plate weights 4725gm. If 1 cubic cm of brass weights 8.4 gram. then the value of x is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 75
  2. 76
  3. 72
  4. 74

4139. Area of a rectangle is 150 metre sq. When the breadth of the same rectangle is increased by 2 meter and the length decreased by 5 metre the area of the rectangle decreases by 30 metre square. What is the perimeter of the square whose side are equal to the length of the rectangle? [RBI Officers Gr. ‘B’ (Phase I) Exam, 2015]

  1. 76 m
  2. 72 m
  3. 120 m
  4. 60 m

4140. The area of a circle whose radius is the diagonal of a square whose area is 4 sq. units is

  1. 16 p sq. units
  2. 4 p sq. units
  3. 6 p sq. units
  4. 8 p sq. units [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

4141. The ratio of circumference and diameter of a circle is 22 : 7. If the circumference be 1 4 7 m. then the radius of the circle is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 1 3 m
  2. 1 2 m
  3. 1 4 m
  4. 1m

4142. A rectangular carpet has an area of 120 m 2 and a perimeter of 46 metre. The length of its diagonal is

  1. 23 metre
  2. 13 metre
  3. 17 metre
  4. 21 metre [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

4143. The total surface area of a right circular cylinder with radius of the base 7 cm and height 20 cm is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 900 cm2
  2. 140 cm2
  3. 1000 cm2
  4. 1188 cm2

4144. The height of a triangle is equal to the perimeter of a square whose diagonal is 82 metre and the base of the same triangle is equal to the side of a square whose area is 729sq. metre. What is the area of the triangle? (In sq. metre) [United India Insurance (UIICL) Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 378
  2. 206
  3. 472
  4. 432

4145. A boundary wall around a rectangular plot is constructed at a total cost of ₹ 46000 at the rate of ₹ 200 per metre. What is the area of the plot if the respective ratio between the bradth and the length of the plot is 10 : 13? (in sq. metre) [United India Insurance (UIICL) Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 3750
  2. 3250
  3. 3000
  4. 3900

4146. Four circles having equal radii are drawn with centres at the four corners of a square. Each circle touches the other two adjacent circles. If the remaining area of the square is 168 cm 2, what is the size of the radius of the circle?(in centimeters) [RBI Officers Gr. ‘B’ (Phase I) Exam, 2015]

  1. 14
  2. 1.4
  3. 35
  4. 21

4147. A courtyard is 25m long and 16m broad is to be paved with bricks of dimensions 20cm by 10cm. What is the total number of bricks required? [IBPS—RRB Office Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 16000
  2. 18000
  3. 20000
  4. 22000

4148. The diameter of a circle is equal to the perimeter of a square whose area is 3136 cm 2. What is the circumference of the circle? [IBPS—RRB Office Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 352 cm
  2. 704 cm
  3. 39424 cm
  4. 1024 cm

4149. The base of triangle is 15 cm and height is 12 cm. the height of another triangle of double the area having base 20cm is [IBPS—RRB Office Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 22 cm
  2. 20 cm
  3. 18 cm
  4. 10 cm

4150. The base of an isosceles is 14 cm and its perimeter is 36 cm. Find its area.

  1. 42 2 sq. cm.
  2. 42 sq. cm
  3. 84 sq. cm
  4. 48 sq. cm [ESIC—UDC Exam, 2016]

4151. What would be the area of a rectangle whose area is equal to the area of a circle of radius 7 cm? [SBI Jr. Associates (Pre.) Exam, 2016]

  1. 77 cm2
  2. 154 cm2
  3. 184 cm2
  4. 180 cm2

4152. If the total surface area of a cube is 864 square cm, find the volume of the cube:

  1. 1728 cm3
  2. 1624 cm3
  3. 144 cm3
  4. 1684 cm3 [DMRC—Train Operator/Station Controller Exam, 2016]

4153. The circumference of a circle is 10% more than the perimeter of a square. If the difference between the area of the circle and that of the square is 216 cm 2, how much does the diagonal of the square measure? (in cm) [CET—Maharashtra (MBA), 2016]

  1. 14 2
  2. 14
  3. 20
  4. 20 2

4154. A circular park, 42 m in diameter, has a path 3.5 m wide running around it on the outside. Find the cost of gravelling the path at ₹ 4 per sq. m. [CLAT, 2016]

  1. ₹ 2048
  2. ₹ 1652
  3. ₹ 1672
  4. ₹ 2002

4155. The area of a rhombus with side 13 cm and one diagonal 10 cm will be [CDS, 2016]

  1. 140 cm2
  2. 130 cm2
  3. 120 cm2
  4. 110 cm2

4156. A piece of wire when bent to form a circle will have a radius of 84cm. if the wrie is bent to form a square, the length of a side of the square is [DMRC—Customer Relationship Assistant

  1. 216 cm
  2. 133 cm
  3. 132 cm
  4. 168 cm

4157. A hall 50m long and 45m broad is to be paved with square tiles. Find the largest tile as well as its number in the given options so that the tiles exactly fit in the hall. [DMRC—Junior Engineer

  1. 36 sq. m and 80 tiles
  2. 16 sq m and 80 tiles
  3. 25 sq. m and 90 tiles
  4. 36 sq. m and 90 tiles

4158. The perimeters of a square and a regular hexagon are equal. The ratio of the area of the hexagon to the area of the square is [DMRC—Junior Engineer

  1. 2 3 :1
  2. 2 3:3
  3. 3 3:2
  4. 2:3

4159. What is the area of rectangular field ? I. The perimeter of the field is 110 metres. II. The length is 5 metres more than the width. III. The ratio between length and width is 6 : 5 respectively.

  1. I and II only
  2. Any two of the three
  3. All I, II and III
  4. I, and either II or III only
  5. None of these

4160. What is the area of the hall ? I. Material cost of flooring per square metre is ₹ 2.50. II. Labour cost of flooring the hall is ₹ 3500. III. Total cost of flooring the hall is ₹ 14,500.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. All I, II and III
  4. Any two of the three
  5. None of these

4161. What is the area of the square?

  1. Only II
  2. Only III
  3. Only I and III
  4. Only II and III
  5. Any one of the three

4162. What is the length of the diagonal of the given rectangle? I. The perimeter of the rectangle is 34 cm. II. The difference between the length and breadth is 7 cm. III. The length is 140% more than the breadth.

  1. Any two of the three
  2. All I, II and III
  3. I, and either II or III
  4. I and II only
  5. II and III only

4163. What is the cost of flooring the rectangular hall ? (M.A.T. 2006, R.B.I., 2002) I. Length and breadth of the hall are in the respec - tive ratio of 3 : 2. II. Length of the hall is 48 m and cost of flooring is ₹ 85 per sq. m. III. Perimeter of the hall is 160 m and cost of flooring is ₹ 85 per sq. m.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. III only
  4. I, and either II or III only
  5. Any two of the three

4164. What is the area of a right-angled triangle ? (M.A.T., 2007) I. The perimeter of the triangle is 30 cm. II. The ratio between the base and the height of the triangle is 5 : 12. III. The area of the triangle is equal to the area of a rectangle of length 10 cm.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. III, and either I or II only
  5. None of these

4165. A path runs around a rectangular lawn. What is the width of the path ? I. The length and breadth of the lawn are in the ratio of 3 : 1 respectively. II. The width of the path is ten times the length of the lawn. III. The cost of gravelling the path @ ₹ 50 per m 2 is ₹ 8832.

  1. All I, II and II
  2. III, and either I or II
  3. I and III only
  4. II and III only
  5. None of these

4166. What is the area of the equilateral triangle ? I. Length of the perpendicular from one of the vertices to the opposite side is x cm. II. Length of each side of the triangle is y cm. III. Perimeter of the triangle is z cm.

  1. Any one of the three
  2. Any two of the three
  3. I and either II and III
  4. All I, II and III
  5. Question cannot be answered even with informa- tion in all three statements

4167. What is the area of the isosceles triangle ? I. Perimeter of the isosceles triangle is 18 metres. II. Base of the triangle is 8 metres. III. Height of the triangle is 3 metres.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. II, and either I or III only
  5. Any two of the three

4168. What will be the cost of painting the four walls of a room with length, width and height 5 metres, 3 metres and 8 metres respectively? The room has one door and one window. I. Cost of painting per square metre is ₹ 25. II. Area of window is 2.25 sq. metres which is half of the area of the door. III. Area of the room is 15 sq. metres.

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. III only
  4. II or III
  5. All are required to answer the question

4169. What is the cost of painting the two adjacent walls of a hall at ₹ 5 per m 2 which has no windows or doors ? I. The area of the hall is 24 sq. m. II. The breadth, length and height of the hall are in the ratio of 4 : 6 : 5 respectively. III. Area of one wall is 30 sq. m.

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. III only
  4. Either I or III
  5. All I, II and III are required

4170. What is the area of the given rectangle ? I. Perimeter of the rectangle is 60 cm. II. Breadth of the rectangle is 12 cm. III. Sum of two adjacent sides is 30 cm.

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. III only
  4. I and II only
  5. I or III only

4171. What is the area of the given right-angled triangle? I. Length of the hypotenuse is 5 cm. II. Perimeter of the triangle is four times its base. III. One of the angles of the triangle is 60°.

  1. II only
  2. III only
  3. II or III only
  4. II and III both
  5. Information given in all the three statements together is not sufficient to answer the question.

4172. What is the height of the triangle whose area is equal to the area of a rectangle? I. The ratio between the length and breadth of the rectangle is 3 : 2. II. The base of the triangle is 16 cm. III. The perimeter of the rectangle is 80 cm.

  1. Only I
  2. Only I or II
  3. Only III
  4. All I, II. and III together are required
  5. None of these

4173. A cuboid has .......... edges. (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 4
  2. 8
  3. 12
  4. 16

4174. 1 litre is equal to

  1. 1 cu. cm
  2. 10 cu. cm
  3. 100 cu. cm
  4. 1000 cu. cm

4175. A rectangular water tank is 8 m high, 6 m long and 2.5 m wide. How many litres of water can it hold? (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 120 litres
  2. 1200 litres
  3. 12000 litres
  4. 120000 litres

4176. The dimensions of a cuboid are 7cm, 11 cm and 13 cm. The total surface area is (Teachers‘ Exam, 2011)

  1. 311 cm2
  2. 622 cm2
  3. 1001 cm2
  4. 2002 cm2

4177. A closed aquarium of dimensions 30 cm × 25 cm × 20 cm is made up entirely of glass plates held together with tapes. The total length of tape required to hold the plates together (ignore the overlapping tapes) is (Hotel Management, 2009)

  1. 75 cm
  2. 120 cm
  3. 150 cm
  4. 300 cm

4178. The dimensions of a room are 15 m, 10 m and 8 m. The volume of a bag is 2.25 m 3. The maximum number of bags that can be a accommodated in the room is

  1. 531
  2. 533
  3. 535
  4. 550

4179. A rectangular water reservoir contains 42000 litres of water. If the length of reservoir is 6 m and breadth of the reservoir is 3.5 m, then the depth of the reservoir will be (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 2 m
  2. 5 m
  3. 6 m
  4. 8 m

4180. A cistern 6 m long and 4 m wide contains water up to a depth of 1 m 25 cm. The total area of the wet surface is

  1. 49 m2
  2. 50 m2
  3. 53.5 m2
  4. 55 m2

4181. A boat having a length 3 m and breadth 2 m is floating on a lake. The boat sinks by 1 cm when a man gets on it. The mass of man is

  1. 12 kg
  2. 60 kg
  3. 72 kg
  4. 96 kg

4182. A water tank is 30 m long, 20 m wide and 12 m deep. It is made of iron sheet which is 3 m wide. The tank is open at the top. If the cost of the iron sheet is ₹ 10 per metre, then the total cost of the iron sheet required to build the tank is

  1. ₹ 6000
  2. ₹ 8000
  3. ₹ 9000
  4. ₹ 10000

4183. Given that 1 cu. cm of marble weighs 25 gms, the weight of a marble block 28 cm in width and 5 cm thick is 112 kg. The length of the block is

  1. 26.5 cm
  2. 32 cm
  3. 36 cm
  4. 37.5 cm

4184. Half cubic metre of gold sheet is extended by hammering so as to cover an area of 1 hectare. The thickness of the sheet is

  1. 0.0005 cm
  2. 0.005 cm
  3. 0.05 cm
  4. 0.5 cm

4185. In a shower, 5 cm of rain falls. The volume of water that falls on 1.5 hectares of ground is :

  1. 75 cu. m
  2. 750 cu. m
  3. 7500 cu. m
  4. 75000 cu. m

4186. The breadth of a room is twice its height and half its length. The volume of the room is 512 cu. m. The length of the room is (N.M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 16 m
  2. 18 m
  3. 20 m
  4. 32 m

4187. The length of a cold storage is double its breadth. Its height is 3 metres. The area of its four walls (including the doors) is 108 m 2. Find its volume.

  1. 215 m3
  2. 216 m3
  3. 217 m3
  4. 218 m3

4188. The length of a hall is 20 metres and the width is 16 metres. The sum of the areas of the floor and roof is equal to the sum of the areas of the four walls. Find the volume of the hall.

  1. 2844.4 m3
  2. 2866.8 m3
  3. 2877.8 m3
  4. 2899.8 m3

4189. The volume of a rectangular block of stone is 10368 dm3. Its dimensions are in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. If its entire surface is polished at 2 paise per dm 2, then the total cost will be

  1. ₹ 31.50
  2. ₹ 31.68
  3. ₹ 63
  4. ₹ 63.36

4190. The dimensions of a rectangular box are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4 and the difference between the cost of covering it with sheet of paper at the rate of ₹ 8 and ₹ 9.50 per square metre is ₹ 1248. Find the dimensions of the box in meters.

  1. 2 m, 12 m, 8 m
  2. 4 m, 9 m, 16 m
  3. 8 m, 12 m, 16 m
  4. None of these

4191. It is required to construct a big rectangular hall to accommodate 500 persons, allowing 22.5 m 3 space per person. The height of the hall is to be kept at 7.5 m, while the total inner surface area of the walls must be 1200 sq. m. Then the length and breadth of the hall respectively are

  1. 40 m and 30 m
  2. 45 m and 35 m
  3. 50 m and 30 m
  4. 60 m and 20 m

4192. A cuboidal water tank contains 216 litres of water. Its depth is 1 3 of its length and breadth is 11of23 of the difference between length and depth. The length of the tank is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 2 dm
  2. 6 dm
  3. 18 dm
  4. 72 dm

4193. The length of the longest rod that can be placed in a room of dimensions 10 m × 10 m × 5 m is (S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 15 3
  2. 15
  3. 10 2
  4. 53

4194. Find the length of the longest rod that can be placed in a room 16 m long, 12 m broad and 210 m3 high.

  1. 122 m3
  2. 222 m3
  3. 23 m
  4. 68 m

4195. The volume of a rectangular solid is 210 cm 3 and the surface area is 214 cm 2. If the area of the base is 42 cm2, then the edges of the rectangular solid are

  1. 3, 4 and 5 cm
  2. 4, 5 and 6 cm
  3. 5, 6 and 7 cm
  4. 6, 6 and 8 cm

4196. How many bricks, each measuring 25 cm × 11.25 cm × 6 cm, will be needed to build a wall 8 m × 6 m × 22.5 cm? (M.A.T., 2008)

  1. 5600
  2. 6000
  3. 6400
  4. 7200

4197. The number of bricks, each measuring 25 cm × 12.5 cm × 7.5 cm, required to construct a wall 6 m long, 5 m high and 0.5 m thick, while the mortar occupies 5% of the volume of the wall, is

  1. 3040
  2. 5740
  3. 6080
  4. 8120

4198. 50 men took a dip in a water tank 40 m long and 20 m broad on a religious day. If the average displacement of water by a man is 4 m 3, then the rise in the water level in the tank will be :

  1. 20 cm
  2. 25 cm
  3. 35 cm
  4. 50 cm

4199. A swimming bath is 24 m long and 15 m broad. When a number of men dive into the bath, the height of the water rises by 1 cm. If the average amount of water displaced by one of the men be 0.1 cu. m, how many men are there in the bath? (N.M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 32
  2. 36
  3. 42
  4. 46

4200. A school room is to be built to accommodate 70 children so as to allow 2.2 m 2 of floor and 11 m 3 of space for each child. If the room be 14 metres long, what must be its breadth and height? (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. 11 m, 4 m
  2. 11 m, 5 m
  3. 12 m, 5.5 m
  4. 13 m, 6 m

4201. A rectangular tank measuring 5 m × 4.5 m × 2.1 m is dug in the centre of the field measuring 13.5 m by 2.5 m. The earth dug out is evenly spread over the remaining portion of the field. How much is the level of the field raised? (M.A.T. 2005)

  1. 4 m
  2. 4.1 m
  3. 4.2 m
  4. 4.3 m

4202. A plot of land in the form of a rectangle has dimensions 240 m × 180 m. A drainlet 10 m wide is dug all around it (outside) and the earth dug out is evenly spread over the plot, increasing its surface level by 25 cm. The depth of the drainlet is (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 1.223 m
  2. 1.225 m
  3. 1.227 m
  4. 1.229 m

4203. A cistern, open at the top, is to be lined with sheet of lead which weights 27 kg/m 2. The cistern is 4.5 m long and 3 m wide and holds 50 m 3. The weight of lead required is (M.A.T., 2009)

  1. 1660.5 kg
  2. 1764.5 kg
  3. 1860.5 kg
  4. 1864.5 kg

4204. If a river 2.5 m deep and 45 m wide is flowing at the rate of 3.6 km per hour, then the amount of water that runs into the sea per minute is

  1. 6650 cu. m
  2. 6750 cu. m
  3. 6850 cu. m
  4. 6950 cu. m

4205. A rectangular water tank is 80 m × 40 m. Water flows into it through a pipe 40 sq. cm at the opening at a speed of 10 km / hr. By how much, the water level will rise in the tank in half an hour?

  1. 3 cm2
  2. 4 cm9
  3. 5 cm8
  4. None of these

4206. A rectangular tank is 225 m by 162 m at the base. With what speed must water flow into it through an aperture 60 cm by 45 cm so that the level may be raised 20 cm in 5 hours? (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 5000 m/hr
  2. 5200 m/hr
  3. 5400 m/hr
  4. 5600 m/hr

4207. The water in a rectangular reservoir having a base 80 m by 60 m is 6.5 m deep. In what time can the water be emptied by a pipe of which the cross-section is a square of side 20 cm, if the water runs through the pipe at the rate of 15 km per hour?

  1. 26 hrs
  2. 42 hrs
  3. 52 hrs
  4. 65 hrs

4208. Rita and Meeta both are having lunch boxes of a cuboidal shape. Length and breadth of Rita’s lunch box are 10% more than that of Meeta’s lunch box, but the depth of Rita’s lunch box is 20% less than that of Meeta’s lunch box. The ratio of the capacity of Rita’s lunch box to that of Meeta’s lunch box is (Hotel Management, 2010)

  1. 11 : 15
  2. 15 : 11
  3. 121 : 125
  4. 125 : 121

4209. The sum of the length, breadth and depth of a cuboid is 19 cm and its diagonal is 5 5 cm. It surface area is

  1. 125 cm2
  2. 236 cm2
  3. 361 cm2
  4. 486 cm2

4210. The sum of perimeters of the six faces of a cuboid is 72 cm and the total surface area of the cuboid is 16 cm2. Find the longest possible length that can be kept inside the cuboid

  1. 5.2 cm
  2. 7.8 cm
  3. 8.05 cm
  4. 8.36 cm

4211. A swimming pool 9 m wide and 12 m long is 1 m deep on the shallow side and 4 m deep on the deeper side. Its volume is :

  1. 208 m3
  2. 270 m3
  3. 360 m3
  4. 408 m3

4212. Length of a rectangular solid is increased by 10% and breadth is decreased by 10%. Then the volume of the solid

  1. remains unchanged
  2. decreases by 1%
  3. decreases by 10%
  4. increases by 10%

4213. The length, breadth and height of a cuboid are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. The length, breadth and height of the cuboid are increased by 100%, 200% and 200% respectively. Then the increase in the volume of the cuboid is

  1. 5 times
  2. 6 times
  3. 12 times
  4. 17 times

4214. A rectangular piece of cardboard 18 cm × 24 cm is made into an open box by cutting a square of 5 cm side from each corner and building up the side. Find the volume of the box in cu. cm.

  1. 216
  2. 432
  3. 560
  4. None of these

4215. An open box is made by cutting the congruent squares from the corners of a rectangular sheet of cardboard of dimensions 20 cm × 15 cm. If the side of each square is 2 cm, the total outer surface area of the box is (Hotel Management, 2010)

  1. 148 cm 2
  2. 284 cm2
  3. 316 cm2
  4. 460 cm2

4216. A closed box made of wood of uniform thickness has length, breadth and height 12 cm, 10 cm and 8 cm respectively. If the thickness of the wood is 1 cm, the inner surface area is

  1. 264 cm 2
  2. 376 cm2
  3. 456 cm2
  4. 696 cm2

4217. A covered wooden box has the inner measures as 115 cm, 75 cm and 35 cm and the thickness of wood is 2.5 cm. Find the volume of the wood. (M.B.A., 2008)

  1. 81000 cu.cm
  2. 81775 cu.cm
  3. 82125 cu.cm
  4. None of these

4218. The dimensions of an open box are 52 cm × 40 cm × 29 cm. Its thickness is 2 cm. If 1 cu. cm of metal used in the box weighs 0.5 gm, then the weight of the box is (M.B.A., 2011)

  1. 6.832 kg
  2. 7.576 kg
  3. 7.76 kg
  4. 8.56 kg

4219. An open box is made of wood 3 cm thick. Its external dimensions are 1.46 m, 1.16 m and 8.3 dm. The cost of painting the inner surface of the box at 50 paise per 100 sq. cm is

  1. ₹ 138.50
  2. ₹ 277
  3. ₹ 415. 50
  4. ₹ 554

4220. A cistern of capacity 8000 litres measures externally 3.3 m by 2.6 m by 1.1 m and its walls are 5 cm thick. The thickness of the bottom is

  1. 90 cm
  2. 1 dm
  3. 1 m
  4. 1.1 m

4221. If a metallic cuboid weighs 16 kg, how much would a miniature cuboid of metal weigh, if all dimensions are reduced to one-fourth of the original?

  1. 0.25 kg
  2. 0.50 kg
  3. 0.75 kg
  4. 1 kg

4222. A rectangular water tank is open at the top. Its capacity is 24 m 3. Its length and breadth are 4 m and 3 m respectively. Ignoring the thickness of the material used for building the tank, the total cost of painting the inner and outer surfaces of the tank at the rate of ₹ 10 per m 2 is (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. ₹ 400
  2. ₹ 500
  3. ₹ 600
  4. ₹ 800

4223. If the areas of three adjacent faces of a cuboid are x, y, z respectively, then the volume of the cuboid is (M.B.A. 2005, 2007)

  1. xyz
  2. 2 xyz
  3. xyz
  4. 3 xyz

4224. If the areas of the three adjacent faces of a cuboidal box are 120 cm 2, 72 cm 2 and 60 cm 2 respectively, then find the volume of the box.

  1. 720 cm3
  2. 864 cm3
  3. 7200 cm3
  4. (72) 2 cm3

4225. If the areas of three adjacent faces of a rectangular block are in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4 and its volume is 9000 cu. cm; then the length of the shortest side is

  1. 10 cm
  2. 15 cm
  3. 20 cm
  4. 30 cm

4226. The dimensions of a certain machine are 48 ″ × 30 ″ × 52 ″. If the size of the machine is increased proportionately until the sum of its dimensions equals 156″, what will be the increase in the shortest side?

  1. 4 ″
  2. 6 ″
  3. 8 ″
  4. 9 ″

4227. If a metal slab of size 1 m × 20 cm × 1 cm is melted to another slab of 1 mm thickness and 1 m width, then the length of the new slab thus formed will be

  1. 200 cm
  2. 400 cm
  3. 600 cm
  4. 1000 cm

4228. Rahul hired a contractor to dig a well of 10 metres length, 10 metres breadth and 10 metres depth for ₹ 40000. However, when the contractor was about to start the work, he changed his mind and asked him to get two wells dug, each with a length of 5 metres, breadth of 5 metres and depth of 5 metres. How much should Rahul pay to the contractor?

  1. ₹ 10000
  2. ₹ 20000
  3. ₹ 40000
  4. None of these

4229. Each side of a cube measures 8 metres. What is the volume of the cube? (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 72 cu. m
  2. 144 cu. m
  3. 196 cu. m
  4. None of these

4230. The perimeter of one face of a cube is 20 cm. Its volume must be

  1. 125 cm3
  2. 400 cm3
  3. 1000 cm3
  4. 8000 cm3

4231. Total surface area of a cube whose side is 0.5 cm is

  1. 21 cm4
  2. 21 cm8
  3. 23 cm4
  4. 23 cm2

4232. The cost of the paint is ₹ 36.50 per kg. If 1 kg of paint covers 16 square feet, how much will it cost to paint outside of a cube having 8 feet each side?

  1. ₹ 692
  2. ₹ 768
  3. ₹ 876
  4. ₹ 972
  5. None of these

4233. If the volume of a cube is 729 cm 3, then the surface area of the cube will be

  1. 456 cm 2
  2. 466 cm2
  3. 476 cm2
  4. 486 cm2

4234. The surface area of a cube is 150 cm 2. Its volume is

  1. 64 cm 3
  2. 125 cm3
  3. 150 cm3
  4. 216 cm3

4235. The dimensions of a piece of iron in the shape of a cuboid are 270 cm × 100 cm × 64 cm. If it is melted and recast into a cube, then the surface area of the cube will be

  1. 14400 cm2
  2. 44200 cm2
  3. 57600 cm2
  4. 86400 cm2

4236. The cost of painting the whole surface area of a cube at the rate of 13 paise per sq. cm is ₹ 343.98. Then the volume of the cube is :

  1. 8500 cm3
  2. 9000 cm3
  3. 9250 cm3
  4. 9261 cm3

4237. An aluminium sheet 27 cm long, 8 cm broad and 1 cm thick is melted into a cube. The difference in the surface areas of the two solids would be (M.B.A., 2008)

  1. Nil
  2. 284 cm2
  3. 286 cm2
  4. 296 cm2

4238. The length of an edge of a hollow cube open at one face is 3 metres. What is the length of the largest pole that it can accommodate?

  1. 3m
  2. 3 m
  3. 3 3m
  4. 3 m 3

4239. What is the volume of a cube (in cubic cm) whose diagonal measures 4 3 cm?

  1. 8
  2. 16
  3. 27
  4. 64

4240. If the total length of diagonals of a cube is 12 cm, then what is the total length of the edges of the cube?

  1. 6 3 cm
  2. 12 cm
  3. 15 cm
  4. 12 3 cm

4241. If the surface area of a cube is 13254 cm 2, then the length of its diagonal is

  1. 44 3 cm
  2. 45 3 cm
  3. 46 3 cm
  4. 47 3 cm

4242. V1, V2, V3 and V4 are the volumes of four cubes of side lengths x cm, 2 x cm, 3 x cm and 4 x cm respec - tively. Some statements regarding these volumes are given below (1) V1 + V2 + 2 V3 < V4 (2) V1 + 4 V2 + V3 < V4 ( 3) 2(V1 + V3) + V2 = V4 Which of these statements are correct?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3

4243. From a cube of side 8m, a square hole of 3m side is hollowed from end to end. What is the volume of the remaining solid? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 440 m 3
  2. 480 m3
  3. 508 m3
  4. 520 m3

4244. If the numbers representing volume and surface area of a cube are equal, then the length of the edge of the cube in terms of the unit of measurement will be

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

4245. The volume of a cube is numerically equal to the sum of its edges. What is its total surface area in square units?

  1. 36
  2. 66
  3. 72
  4. 183

4246. Except for one face of a given cube, identical cubes are glued through their faces to all the other faces of the given cube. If each side of the given cube measures 3 cm, then what is the total surface area of the solid body thus formed?

  1. 225 cm 2
  2. 234 cm2
  3. 270 cm2
  4. 279 cm2

4247. A solid cube just gets completely immersed in water when a 0.2 kg mass is placed on it. If the mass is removed, the cube is 2 cm above the water level. What is the length of each side of the cube? (P.C.S., 2009)

  1. 6 cm
  2. 8 cm
  3. 10 cm
  4. 12 cm

4248. A cube of length 1 cm is taken out from a cube of length 8 cm. What is the weight of the remaining portion?

  1. 7 8 of the weight of the original cube
  2. 8 9 of the weight of the original cube
  3. 63 64 of the weight of the original cube
  4. 511 512 of the weight of the original cube

4249. How many cubes of 10 cm edge can be put in a cubical box of 1 m edge? (M.B.A., 2008)

  1. 10
  2. 100
  3. 1000
  4. 10000

4250. A 4 cm cube is cut into 1 cm cubes. The total surface area of all the small cubes is (M.B.A., 2005)

  1. 24 cm 2
  2. 96 cm2
  3. 384 cm2
  4. None of these

4251. A rectangular block with a volume of 250 cm 3 was sliced into two cubes of equal volume. How much greater (in sq. cm) is the combined surface area of the two cubes then the original surface area of the rectangular block?

  1. 48.64
  2. 50
  3. 56.25
  4. 84.67

4252. A rectangular box measures internally 1.6 m long, 1 m broad and 60 cm deep. The number of cubical blocks each of edge 20 cm that can be packed inside the box is

  1. 30
  2. 53
  3. 60
  4. 120

4253. How many cubes of 3 cm edge can be cut out of a cube of 18 cm edge?

  1. 36
  2. 216
  3. 218
  4. 432

4254. Shobhraj takes a cube of 1 m edge-length and me - ticulously cuts smaller cubes, each of edge-length 1 mm from the parent cube. He joins these small cubes end-to-end. Thus, the total length of this ‘cube-robe’ will be

  1. 1 km
  2. 10 km
  3. 100 km
  4. 1000 km

4255. How many small cubes, each of 96 cm surface area, can be formed from the material obtained by melting a larger cube of 384 cm surface area? (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 5
  2. 8
  3. 800
  4. 8000

4256. The volume of a cuboid is twice that of a cube. If the dimensions of the cuboid are 9 cm, 8 cm and 6 cm, the total surface area of the cube is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 72 cm 2
  2. 108 cm2
  3. 216 cm2
  4. 432 cm2

4257. A cuboidal block of 6 cm × 9 cm × 12 cm is cut up into an exact number of equal cubes. The least possible number of cubes will be

  1. 6
  2. 9
  3. 24
  4. 30

4258. The size of a wooden block is 5 × 10 × 20 cm. How many such blocks will be required to construct a solid wooden cube of minimum size?

  1. 6
  2. 8
  3. 12
  4. 16

4259. An iron cube of side 10 cm is hammered into a rectangular sheet of thickness 0.5 cm. If the sides of the sheet are in the ratio 1 : 5, the sides are

  1. 10 cm, 50 cm
  2. 20 cm, 100 cm
  3. 40 cm, 200 cm
  4. None of these

4260. A cube of white chalk is painted red, and then cut parallel to the sides to form two rectangular solids of equal volumes. What percent of the surface area of each of the new solids is not painted red?

  1. 15%
  2. 216 %3
  3. 20%
  4. 25%

4261. There is a cube of volume 216 cm 3. It is to be moulded into a cuboid having one edge equal to 6 cm. The number of ways that it can be done so that the edges have different integral values is

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

4262. If three cubes of copper, each with an edge of 6 cm 8 cm and 10 cm respectively are melted to form a single cube, then the diagonal of the new cube will be

  1. 18 cm
  2. 19 cm
  3. 19.5 cm
  4. 20.8 cm

4263. A larger cube is formed from the material obtained by melting three smaller cubes of 3, 4 and 5 cm side. The ratio of the total surface areas of the smaller cubes and the larger cube is (I.I.F.T., 2005)

  1. 2 : 1
  2. 3 : 2
  3. 25 : 18
  4. 27 : 20

4264. Five equal cubes, each of side 5 cm, are placed adjacent to each other. The volume of the new solid formed will be

  1. 125 cm3
  2. 625 cm3
  3. 15525 cm3
  4. None of these

4265. If three equal cubes are placed adjacently in a row, then the ratio of the total surface area of the new cuboid to the sum of the surface areas of the three cubes will be (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 1 : 3
  2. 2 : 3
  3. 5 : 9
  4. 7 : 9

4266. Three cubes with sides in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 are melted to form a single cube whose diagonal is 12 3 cm. The sides of the cubes are

  1. 3 cm, 4 cm, 5 cm
  2. 6 cm, 8 cm, 10 cm
  3. 9 cm, 12 cm, 15 cm
  4. None of the se

4267. If the volumes of two cubes are in the ratio 27 : 1, the ratio of their edges is

  1. 1 : 3
  2. 1 : 27
  3. 3 : 1
  4. 27 : 1

4268. The volumes of two cubes are in the ratio 8 : 27. The ratio of their surface areas is

  1. 2 : 3
  2. 4 : 9
  3. 12 : 9
  4. None of these

4269. Two cubes have volumes in the ratio 1 : 27. Then the ratio of the area of the face of one of the cubes to that of the other is

  1. 1 : 3
  2. 1 : 6
  3. 1 : 9
  4. 1 : 12

4270. If each edge of a cube is doubled, then its volume:

  1. is doubled
  2. becomes 4 times
  3. becomes 6 times
  4. becomes 8 times

4271. By what percent the volume of a cube increases if the length of each edge was increased by 50%?

  1. 50%
  2. 125%
  3. 237.5%
  4. 273.5%

4272. If each edge of a cube is increased by 25%, then the percentage increase in its surface area is :

  1. 25%
  2. 48.75%
  3. 50%
  4. 56.25%

4273. A cube of edge 20 cm is completely immersed in a rectangular vessel containing water. If the dimen - sions of the base of the vessel are 20 cm by 40 cm, the rise in water level will be

  1. 2 cm
  2. 8 cm
  3. 10 cm
  4. 14 cm

4274. A circular well with a diameter of 2 metres, is dug to a depth of 14 metres. What is the volume of the earth dug out? (S.S.C., 1999)

  1. 32 m3
  2. 36 m3
  3. 40 m3
  4. 44 m3

4275. Find the cost of a cylinder of radius 14 m and height 3.5 m when the cost of its metal is ₹ 50 per cubic metre.

  1. ₹ 100208
  2. ₹ 107800
  3. ₹ 10800
  4. ₹ 109800

4276. If the radius and height of a right circular cylinder are 21 cm and 35 cm respectively, then the total surface area of the cylinder is

  1. 7092 sq cm
  2. 7192 sq cm
  3. 7292 sq cm
  4. 7392 sq cm

4277. The capacity of a cylindrical tank is 246.4 litres. If the height is 4 metres, what is the diameter of the base?

  1. 1.4 m
  2. 2.8 m
  3. 14 m
  4. 28 m
  5. None of these

4278. The volume of a right circular cylinder, 14 cm in height is equal to that of a cube whose edge is 11 cm. The radius of the base of the cylinder is

  1. 5.2 cm
  2. 5.5 cm
  3. 11 cm
  4. 22 cm

4279. Capacity of a cylindrical vessel is 25.872 litres. If the height of the cylinder is three times the radius of its base, what is the area of the base?

  1. 336 cm2
  2. 616 cm2
  3. 1232 cm2
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

4280. Two rectangular sheets of paper, each 30 cm × 18 cm are made into two right circular cylinders, one by rolling the paper along its length and the other along the breadth. The ratio of the volumes of the two cylinders, thus formed, is (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 2 : 1
  2. 3 : 2
  3. 4 : 3
  4. 5 : 3

4281. Three rectangles A1, A2 and A3 have the same area. Their lengths a1, a2 and a3 respectively are such that a1 < a2 <a3. Cylinders C1, C2 and C3 are formed from A1, A2 and A3 respectively by joining the parallel sides along the breadth. Then

  1. C1 will enclosed maximum volume
  2. C2 will enclosed maximum volume
  3. C3 will enclosed maximum volume
  4. Each of C1, C2 and C3 will enclose equal volume

4282. The volume of a right circular cylinder whose curved surface area is 2640 cm 2 and circumference of its base is 66 cm, is

  1. 3465 cm3
  2. 7720 cm3
  3. 13860 cm3
  4. 55440 cm3

4283. A well has to be dug out that is to be 22.5 m deep and of diameter 7m. Find the cost of plastering the inner curved s urface at ₹ 3 per sq. meter. (M.A.T., 2006; M.B.A., 2007)

  1. ₹ 1465
  2. ₹ 1475
  3. ₹ 1485
  4. ₹ 1495

4284. The radius and height of a cylinder are in the ratio 5 : 7 and its volume is 4400 cm 3. Then its radius will be

  1. 4 cm
  2. 5 cm
  3. 10 cm
  4. 12 cm

4285. The height of a right circular cylinder is 14 cm and its curved surface is 704 sq. cm. Then its volume is:

  1. 1408 cm3
  2. 2816 cm3
  3. 5632 cm3
  4. 9856 cm3

4286. A closed metallic cylindrical box is 1.25 m high and its base radius is 35 cm. If the sheet metal costs ₹ 80 per m 2, the cost of the material used in the box is

  1. ₹ 281.60
  2. ₹ 290
  3. ₹ 340.50
  4. ₹ 500

4287. The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder of base radius r is obtaine d by multiplying its volume by

  1. 2r
  2. 2 r
  3. 2 r2
  4. 2 2 r

4288. The ratio of total surface area to lateral surface area of a cylinder whose radius is 20 cm and height 60 cm, is

  1. 2 : 1
  2. 3 : 2
  3. 4 : 3
  4. 5 : 3

4289. Two cans have the same height equal to 21 cm. One can is cylindrical, the diameter of whose base is 10 cm. The other can has square base of side 10 cm. What is the difference in their capacities? (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. 250 cm3
  2. 300 cm3
  3. 350 cm3
  4. 450 cm3

4290. The diameter of the base of a cylindrical drum is 35 dm and the height is 24 dm. It is full of kerosene. How many tins each of size 25 cm × 22 cm × 35 cm can be filled with kerosene from the drum?

  1. 120
  2. 600
  3. 1020
  4. 1200

4291. The radius of the cylinder is half its height and area of the inner part is 616 sq. cms. Approximately how many litres of milk can it contain?

  1. 1.4
  2. 1.53
  3. 1.7
  4. 1.9
  5. 2.2

4292. The sum of the radius of the base and the height of a solid cylinder is 37 metres. If the total surface area of the cylinder be 1628 sq. metres, its volume is

  1. 3180 m3
  2. 4620 m3
  3. 5240 m3
  4. None of these

4293. The curved surface area of a cylindrical pillar is 264 m2 and its volume is 924 m 3. Find the ratio of its diameter to its height.

  1. 3 : 7
  2. 7 : 3
  3. 6 : 7
  4. 7 : 6

4294. The height of a right circular cylinder is 6 m. If three times the sum of the areas of its two circular faces is twice the area of the curved surface, then the radius of its base is

  1. 1 m
  2. 2 m
  3. 3 m
  4. 4 m

4295. The height of a closed cylinder of given volume and the minimum surface area is

  1. equal to its diameter
  2. half of its diameter
  3. double of its diameter
  4. None of these

4296. If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is halved, keeping the height same, what is the ratio of the volume of the reduced cylinder to that of the original one? (Hotel Management, 2005)

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 1 : 4
  3. 1 : 8
  4. 8 : 1

4297. The radii of the bases of two cylinders are in the ratio 3 : 4 and their heights are in the ratio 4 : 3. The ratio of their volumes is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 2 : 3
  2. 3 : 2
  3. 3 : 4
  4. 4 : 3

4298. If the height of a cylinder is increased by 15 percent and the radius of its base is decreased by 10 percent then by what percent will its curved surface area change? (S.S.C., 2006)

  1. 3.5 percent decrease
  2. 3.5 percent increase
  3. 5 percent decrease
  4. 5 percent increase

4299. If two cylinders of equal volumes have their heights in the ratio 2 : 3, then the ratio of their radii is

  1. 6: 3
  2. 5: 3
  3. 2 : 3
  4. 3: 2

4300. X and Y are two cylinders of the same height. The base of X has diameter that is half the diameter of the base of Y. If the height of X is doubled, the volume of X becomes

  1. equal to the volume of Y
  2. double the volume of Y
  3. half the volume of Y
  4. greater than the volume of Y

4301. The radius of a wire is decreased to one-third and its volume remains the same. The new length is how many times the original length?

  1. 1 time
  2. 3 times
  3. 6 times
  4. 9 times

4302. If the radius of a cylinder is decreased by 50% and the height is increased by 50% to form a new cylinder, the volume will be decreased by

  1. 0%
  2. 25%
  3. 62.5%
  4. 75%

4303. A cylindrical tank of diameter 35 cm is full of water. If 11 litres of water is drawn off, the water level in the tank will drop by

  1. 110 cm2
  2. 311 cm7
  3. 612 cm7
  4. 14 cm

4304. A well with inner diameter 8 m is dug 14 m deep. Earth taken out of its has been evenly spread all around it to a width of 3 m to form an embankment. The height of the embankment will be (G.B.O., 2007)

  1. 264m33
  2. 265 cm33
  3. 266 cm33
  4. 267 cm33

4305. Water flows through a cylindrical pipe of internal diameter 7 cm at 2 m per second. If the pipe is always half full, then what is the volume of water (in litres) discharged in 10 minutes?

  1. 2310
  2. 3850
  3. 4620
  4. 9240

4306. The radius of a cylindrical cistern is 10 metres and its height is 15 metres. Initially the cistern is empty. We start filling the cistern with water through a pipe whose diameter is 50 cm. Water is coming out of the pipe with a velocity of 5 m/sec. How many minutes will it take in filling the cistern with water ? (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 20
  2. 40
  3. 60
  4. 80

4307. It is required to fix a pipe such that water flowing through it at a speed of 7 metres per minute fills a tank of capacity 440 cubic metres in 10 minutes. The inner radius of the pipe should be (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 2m
  2. 2 m
  3. 1 m2
  4. 1 m 2

4308. Water flows out through a circular pipe whose internal diameter is 2 cm, at the rate of 6 metres per second into a cylindrical tank, the radius of whose base is 60 cm. By how much will the level of water rise in 30 minutes? (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 2 m
  2. 3 m
  3. 4 m
  4. 5 m

4309. Water is poured into an empty cylindrical tank at a constant rate for 5 minutes. After the water has been poured into the tank, the depth of the water is 7 feet. The radius of the tank is 100 feet. Which of the following is the best approximation for the rate at which the water was poured into the tank? (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 140 cubic feet/sec
  2. 440 cubic feet/sec
  3. 700 cubic feet/sec
  4. 2200 cubic feet/sec

4310. The number of circular pipes with an inside diameter of 1 inch which will carry the same amount of water as a pipe with an inside diameter of 6 inches is (M.B.A., 2011)

  1. 6 p
  2. 12
  3. 36
  4. 36 p

4311. Find the number of coins 1.5 cm in diameter and 0.2 cm thick, to be melted to form a right circular cylinder of height 10 cm and diameter 4.5 cm. (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 430
  2. 440
  3. 450
  4. 460

4312. Two cylindrical vessels with radii 15 cm and 10 cm and heights 35 cm and 15 cm respectively are filled with water. If this water is poured into a cylindrical vessel 15 cm in height, then the radius of the vessel is

  1. 17.5 cm
  2. 18 cm
  3. 20 cm
  4. 25 cm

4313. 66 cubic centimetres of silver is drawn into a wire 1 mm in diameter. The length of the wire in metres will be

  1. 84
  2. 90
  3. 168
  4. 336

4314. A copper rod of 1 cm diameter and 8 cm length is drawn into a wire of uniform diameter and 18 m length. The radius (in cm) of the wire is, (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 1 15
  2. 1 30
  3. 2 15
  4. 15

4315. The diameter of a garden roller is 1.4 m and it is 2 m long. How much area will it cover in 5 revolutions ?

  1. 36 m2
  2. 40 m2
  3. 44 m2
  4. 48 m2

4316. A square pond has 2 m sides and is 1 m deep. If it is to be enlarged, the depth remaining the same, into a circular pond with the diagonal of the square as diameter as shown in the figure, then what would be the volume of earth to be removed ?

  1. (2 p – 2) m 3
  2. (2 p – 4) m 3
  3. (4 p – 2) m 3
  4. (4 p – 4) m 3

4317. What part of a ditch, 48 metres long, 16.5 metres broad and 4 metres deep can be filled by the earth got by digging a cylindrical tunnel of diameter 4 metres and length 56 metres ? (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 1 9
  2. 2 9
  3. 7 9
  4. 8 9

4318. Water is flowing at the rate of 5 km/hr through a cylindrical pipe of diameter 14 cm into a rectangular tank which is 50 m long and 44 m wide. Determine the time in which the level of water in the tank will rise by 7 cm. (S.S.C., 2008)

  1. 1 hour
  2. 11 hours2
  3. 2 hours
  4. 3 hours

4319. The trunk of a tree is a right cylinder 1.5 m in radius and 10 m high. The volume of the timber which remains when the trunk is trimmed just enough to reduce it to a rectangular parallelopiped on a square base is (M.A.T. 2006)

  1. 44 m3
  2. 45 m3
  3. 46 m3
  4. 47 m3

4320. Rain water, which falls on a flat rectangular surface of length 6 m and breadth 4 m is transferred into a cylindrical vessel of internal radius 20 cm. What will be the height of water in the cylindrical vessel if a rainfall of 1 cm has fallen?

  1. 188 cm
  2. 189 cm
  3. 190 cm
  4. 191 cm

4321. An iron pipe 20 cm long has exterior diameter equal to 25 cm. If the thickness of the pipe is 1 cm, then the whole surface of the pipe is (M.A.T. 2007)

  1. 3068 cm2
  2. 3168 cm2
  3. 3268 cm2
  4. 3368 cm2

4322. A hollow garden roller 63 cm wide with a girth of 440 cm is made of iron 4 cm thick. The volume of the iron used is

  1. 54982 cm3
  2. 56372 cm3
  3. 57636 cm3
  4. 58752 cm3

4323. A cylindrical tube open at both ends is made of metal. The internal diameter of the tube is 11.2 cm and its length is 21 cm. The metal everywhere is 0.4 cm thick. The volume of the metal is

  1. 280.52 cm3
  2. 306.24 cm3
  3. 310 cm3
  4. 316 cm3

4324. What length of solid cylinder 2 cm in diameter must be taken to cast into a hollow cylinder of external diameter 12 cm, 0.25 cm thick and 15 cm long?

  1. 42.3215 cm
  2. 44.0123 cm
  3. 44.0625 cm
  4. 44.6023 cm

4325. A hollow iron pipe is 21 cm long and its external diameter is 8 cm. If the thickness of the pipe is 1 cm and iron weighs 8 g / cm3, then the weight of the pipe is

  1. 3.6 kg
  2. 3.696 kg
  3. 36 kg
  4. 36.9 kg

4326. 1496 cm 3 of metal is used to cast a pipe of length 28 cm. If the internal radius of the pipe is 8 cm, the outer radius of the pipe is (M.A.T., 2007)

  1. 7 cm
  2. 9 cm
  3. 10 cm
  4. 12 cm

4327. A milkman saves milk in two vessels, a cuboidal and the other a cylindrical one. The capacity of the cuboidal vessel is 20 litres more than the cylinddrical one. When 30 litres of milk is drawn from each of the two full vessels, the amount left in the cuboidal vessel is twice that left in the cylindrical vessel. The capacity (in litres) of the cuboidal vessel is (I.I.F.T., 2005)

  1. 30
  2. 50
  3. 70
  4. 130
  5. None of these

4328. A circular cylinder can hold 61.6 c.c. of water. If the height of the cylinder is 40 cm and the outer diameter is 16 mm, then the thickness of the material of the cylinder is

  1. 0.2 mm
  2. 0.3 mm
  3. 1 mm
  4. 2 mm

4329. Which one of the following figures will generate a cone when rotated about one of its straight edges?

  1. An equilateral triangle
  2. A sector of a circle
  3. A segment of a circle
  4. A right-angled triangle

4330. The radius of the base and height of a cone are 3 cm and 5 cm respectively whereas the radius of the base and height of a cylinder are 2 cm and 4 cm respectively. The ratio of the volume of cone to that of the cylinder is

  1. 1 : 3
  2. 15 : 8
  3. 15 : 16
  4. 45 : 16

4331. What is the weight of water contained in a conical vessel 21 cm deep and 16 cm in diameter? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 1.256 kg
  2. 1.408 kg
  3. 2.480 kg
  4. 3.875 kg

4332. Find the slant height of the cone whose height is 4.8 cm and the diameter of base is 4 cm.

  1. 4.2 cm
  2. 5.2 cm
  3. 6.2 cm
  4. 7.2 cm

4333. The curved surface of a right circular cone of height 84 cm and base diameter 70 cm is

  1. 1001 cm2
  2. 9900 cm2
  3. 10001 cm2
  4. 10010 cm2

4334. The curved surface of a right circular cone of height 15 cm and base diameter 16 cm is

  1. 60 p cm2
  2. 68 p cm2
  3. 120 p cm2
  4. 136 p cm2

4335. What is the total surface area of a right circular cone of height 14 cm and base radius 7 cm?

  1. 344.35 cm2
  2. 462 cm2
  3. 498.35 cm2
  4. None of these

4336. A right triangle with sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm is rotated about the side of 3 cm to form a cone. The volume of the cone so formed is

  1. 12 p cm3
  2. 15 p cm3
  3. 16 p cm3
  4. 20 p cm3

4337. The slant height of a right circular cone is 10 m and its height is 8 m. Find the area of its curved surface.

  1. 30 p m2
  2. 40 p m2
  3. 60 p m2
  4. 80 p m2

4338. If a right circular cone of height 24 cm has a volume of 1232 cm 3, then the area of its curved surface is

  1. 154 cm2
  2. 550 cm2
  3. 704 cm2
  4. 1254 cm2

4339. A conical tent is to accommodate 11 persons. Each person must have 4 sq. metres of the space on the ground and 20 cubic metres of air to breathe. The height of the cone is (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 13 m
  2. 14 m
  3. 15 m
  4. 16 m

4340. Area of the canvas cloth needed to erect a right conical tent of height 12 ft and circular base having circumference 10 p ft is

  1. 60 sq ft
  2. 65 sq ft
  3. 65 p sq ft
  4. 120 p sq ft

4341. The slant height of a conical mountain is 2.5 km and the area of its base is 1.54 km 2. The height of the mountain is

  1. 2.2 km
  2. 2.4 km
  3. 3 km
  4. 3.11 km

4342. If the area of the base of a right circular cone is 3850 cm2 and its height is 84 cm, then the curved surface area of the cone is

  1. 10001 cm2
  2. 10010 cm2
  3. 10100 cm2
  4. 11000 cm2

4343. Volume of a right circular cone having base radius 70 cm and curved surface area 40040 cm 2 is

  1. 823400 cm3
  2. 824000 cm3
  3. 840000 cm3
  4. 862400 cm3

4344. The radius and height of a right circular cone are in the ratio 3 : 4. If its volume is 35301 cm ,7 what is its slant height?

  1. 8 cm
  2. 9 cm
  3. 10 cm
  4. 12 cm

4345. A vertical cone of volume V with vertex downwards is filled with water upto half of its height. The vol - ume of the water is

  1. 2 V
  2. 4 V
  3. 8 V
  4. 16 V

4346. A semicircular sheet of paper of diameter 28 cm is bent to cover the exterior surface of an open conical ice-cream cup. The depth of the ice-cream cup is (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 8.12 cm
  2. 1 0.12 cm
  3. 12.12 cm
  4. 14.12 cm

4347. The length of canvas 1.1 m wide required to build a conical tent of height 14 m and the floor area 346.5 sq. m is

  1. 490 m
  2. 525 m
  3. 665 m
  4. 860 m

4348. If the height of a cone is doubled and its base diameter is trebled, then the ratio of the volume of the resultant cone to that of the original cone is

  1. 6 : 1
  2. 9 : 1
  3. 9 : 2
  4. 18 : 1

4349. If both the radius and height of a right circular cone are increased by 20%, its volume will be increased by

  1. 20%
  2. 40%
  3. 60%
  4. 72.8%

4350. If the height of a right circular cone is increased by 200% and the radius of the base is reduced by 50%, then the volume of the cone

  1. remains unaltered
  2. decreases by 25%
  3. increases by 25%
  4. increases by 50%

4351. If the height of a cone be doubled and radius of base remains the same, then the ratio of the volume of the given cone to that of the second cone will be

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 2 : 1
  3. 1 : 8
  4. 8 : 1

4352. If the height, curved surface area and the volume of a cone are h, c and v respectively, then 3 p vh3 – c2h2 + 9v2 will be equal to

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. chv
  4. v2h

4353. If the heights of two cones are in the ratio 7 : 3 and their diameters are in the ratio 6 : 7, what is the ratio of their volumes? (M.B.A., 2009)

  1. 3 : 7
  2. 4 : 7
  3. 5 : 7
  4. 12 : 7

4354. The radii of two cones are in the ratio 2 : 1, their volumes are equal. Find the ratio of their heights.

  1. 1 : 8
  2. 1 : 4
  3. 2 : 1
  4. 4 : 1

4355. If the ratio of volumes of two cones is 2 : 3 and the ratio of the radii of their bases is 1 : 2, then the ratio of their heights will be

  1. 3 : 4
  2. 4 : 3
  3. 3 : 8
  4. 8 : 3

4356. Find the volume of the largest right circular cone that can be cut out from a cube whose edge is 9 cm.

  1. 170.93 cm3
  2. 180.93 cm3
  3. 190.93 cm3
  4. 200.93 cm3

4357. A cone of height 7 cm and base radius 3 cm is carved from a rectangular block of wood 10 cm × 5 cm × 2 cm. The percentage of wood wasted is

  1. 34%
  2. 46%
  3. 54%
  4. 66%

4358. A right circular cone and a right circular cylinder have equal base and equal height. If the radius of the base and the height are in the ratio 5 : 12, then the ratio of the total surface area of the cylinder to that of the cone is

  1. 3 : 1
  2. 13 : 9
  3. 17 : 9
  4. 34 : 9

4359. A conical cavity is drilled in a circular cylinder of 15 cm height and 16 cm base diameter. The height and base diameter of the cone are the same as those of the cylinder. Determine the total surface area of the remaining solid.

  1. 215 p cm2
  2. 376 p cm2
  3. 440 p cm2
  4. 542 p cm2

4360. The radius of the base and height of a metallic solid cylinder are r cm and 6 cm respectively. It is melted and recast into a solid cone of the same radius of base. The height of the cone is

  1. 9 cm
  2. 18 cm
  3. 27 cm
  4. 54 cm

4361. A solid metallic right circular cylinder of base di - ameter 16 cm and height 2 cm is melted and recast into a right circular cone of height three times that of the cylinder. Find the curved surface area of the cone. [Use p = 3.14] (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 196.8 cm2
  2. 228.4 cm2
  3. 251.2 cm2
  4. None of these

4362. A right cylindrical vessel is full of water. How many right cones having the same radius and height as those of the right cylinder will be needed to store that water?

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 8

4363. A solid metallic cylinder of base radius 3 cm and height 5 cm is melted to form cones, each of height 1 cm and base radius 1 mm. The number of cones is

  1. 450
  2. 1350
  3. 4500
  4. 13500

4364. Ice cream completely filled in a cylinder of diameter 35 cm and height 32 cm is to be served by completely filling identical disposable cones of diameter 4 cm and height 7 cm. The maximum number of persons that can be served this way is

  1. 950
  2. 1000
  3. 1050
  4. 1100

4365. A solid cylinder and a solid cone have equal base and equal height. If the radius and height be in the ratio of 4 : 3, the ratio of the total surface area of the cylinder to that of the cone is

  1. 10 : 9
  2. 11 : 9
  3. 12 : 9
  4. 14 : 9

4366. Water flows at the rate of 10 metres per minute from a cylindrical pipe 5 mm in diameter. How long will it take to fill up a conical vessel whose diameter at the base is 40 cm and depth 24 cm?

  1. 48 min. 15 sec.
  2. 51 min. 12 sec.
  3. 52 min. 1 sec.
  4. 55 min.

4367. A conical flask has base radius a cm and height h cm. it is completely filled with milk. The milk is poured into a cylindrical thermos flask whose base radius is p cm. What will be the height of the milk level in the flask?

  1. 2 2 cm 3 ah p
  2. 2 2 3 cmhp a
  3. 2 2 cm 3 p h
  4. 2 2 3 cma hp

4368. A solid cylindrical block of radius 12 cm and height 18 cm is mounted with a conical block of radius 12 cm and height 5 cm. The total lateral surface of the solid thus formed is

  1. 528 cm2
  2. 251357 cm7
  3. 1848 cm2
  4. None of these

4369. A tent is in the form of a right circular cylinder surmounted by a cone. The diameter of the cylin - der is 24 m. The height of the cylindrical portion is 11 m while the vertex of the cone is 16 m above the ground. The area of the canvas required for the tent is (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 1300 m2
  2. 1310 m2
  3. 1320 m2
  4. 1330 m2

4370. A fountain having the shape of a right circular cone is fitted into a cylindrical tank of volume V so that the base of the tank coincides with the base of the cone and the height of the tank is the same as that of the cone. The volume of water in the tank, when it is completely filled with water from the fountain, is

  1. 2 V
  2. 3 V
  3. 4 V
  4. 2 3 V

4371. In a right circular cone, the radius of its base is 7 cm and its height is 24 cm. A cross-section is made through the mid-point of the height parallel to the base. The volume of the upper portion is (S.S.C., 2006)

  1. 154 cm3
  2. 169 cm3
  3. 800 cm3
  4. 1078 cm3

4372. A right circular cone is divided into two portions by a plane parallel to the base and passing through a point which is 1 rd3 of the height from the top. The ratio of the volume of the smaller cone to that of the remaining frustum of the cone is

  1. 1 : 3
  2. 1 : 9
  3. 1 : 26
  4. 1 : 27

4373. A bucket is in the form of a frustum of a cone and holds 28.490 litres of water. The radii of the top and bottom are 28 cm and 21 cm respectively. Find the height of the bucket.

  1. 15 cm
  2. 20 cm
  3. 25 cm
  4. 30 cm

4374. A cone of height 10 cm and radius 5 cm is cut into two parts at half its height. The cut is given parallel to its circular base. What is the ratio of the curved surface area of the original cone and the curved surface area of the frustum?

  1. 3 : 1
  2. 3 : 2
  3. 4 : 1
  4. 4 : 3

4375. A sphere, cylinder and cone of dimensions radius = r cm and height = 2 r cm are made. Which one has the greatest volume?

  1. Cone
  2. Sphere
  3. Cylinder
  4. All have equal volume

4376. A sphere of radius 3 cm The volumes of these in the decreasing order is :

  1. 1, 2, 3, 4
  2. 1, 3, 2, 4
  3. 4, 2, 3, 1
  4. 4, 3, 2, 1

4377. The volume of a sphere is 3112145 cm .21 Its radius is equal to (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 7 cm
  2. 8 cm
  3. 9 cm
  4. None of these

4378. The volume of a sphere is 4851 cu. cm. Its curved surface area is

  1. 1386 cm2
  2. 1625 cm2
  3. 1716 cm2
  4. 3087 cm2

4379. The curved surface area of a sphere is 5544 sq. cm. Its volume is

  1. 22176 cm3
  2. 33951 cm3
  3. 38808 cm3
  4. 42304 cm3

4380. The volume of a sphere of radius r is obtained by multiplying its surface area by

  1. 4 3
  2. 3 r
  3. 4 3 r
  4. 3 r

4381. For a sphere of radius 10 cm, what percent of the numerical value of its volume would be the numeri- cal value of the surface area?

  1. 24%
  2. 26.5%
  3. 30%
  4. 45%

4382. If the volume of a sphere is divided by its surface area, the result is 27 cm. The radius of the sphere is

  1. 9 cm
  2. 36 cm
  3. 54 cm
  4. 81 cm

4383. If the radii of two spheres are in the ratio 1 : 4, then their surface areas are in the ratio

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 1 : 4
  3. 1 : 8
  4. 1 : 16

4384. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 3 : 2. Their volumes will be in the ratio

  1. 9 : 4
  2. 8 : 27
  3. 27 : 8
  4. 3 : 2

4385. Surface area of a sphere is 2464 cm 2. If its radius be doubled, then the surface area of the new sphere will be :

  1. 4928 cm2
  2. 9856 cm2
  3. 19712 cm2
  4. Data insufficient

4386. If the radius of a sphere is doubled, how many times does its volume become? (R.R.B., 2006, 2008)

  1. 2 times
  2. 4 times
  3. 6 times
  4. 8 times

4387. If the radius of a sphere is increased by 2 cm, then its surface area increases by 352 cm 2. The radius of the sphere before the increase was

  1. 3 cm
  2. 4 cm
  3. 5 cm
  4. 6 cm

4388. If the measured value of the radius is 1.5% larger, the percentage error

  1. 2.1
  2. 3.2
  3. 4.6
  4. 5.4

4389. The volumes of two spheres are in the ratio of 64 : 27. The ratio of their surface areas is

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 2 : 3
  3. 9 : 16
  4. 16 : 9

4390. If the surface areas of two spheres are in the ratio of 4 : 25, then the ratio of their volumes is (M.B.A., 2009)

  1. 4 : 25
  2. 25 : 4
  3. 125 : 8
  4. 8 : 125

4391. If the volume and surface area of a sphere are numerically the same, then its radius is

  1. 1 unit
  2. 2 units
  3. 3 units
  4. 4 units

4392. If three metallic spheres of radii 6 cms, 8 cms and 10 cms are melted to form a single sphere, the diameter of the new sphere will be

  1. 12 cms
  2. 24 cms
  3. 30 cms
  4. 36 cms

4393. A solid metallic sphere of radius 8 cm is melted and recast into spherical balls each of radius 2 cm. The number of spherical balls, thus obtained, is

  1. 16
  2. 48
  3. 64
  4. 82

4394. A spherical ball of lead, 3 cm in diameter is melted and recast into three spherical balls. The diameter of two of these are 1.5 cm and 2 cm respectively. The diameter of the third ball is (M.A.T., 2005; 2009)

  1. 2.5 cm
  2. 2.66 cm
  3. 3 cm
  4. 3.5 cm

4395. If a solid sphere of radius 10 cm is moulded into 8 spherical solid balls of equal radius, then the surface area of each ball is

  1. 50 p cm2
  2. 60 p cm2
  3. 75 p cm2
  4. 100 p cm2

4396. A hollow spherical metallic ball has an external diameter 6 cm and is 1 cm2 thick. The volume of metal used in the ball is

  1. 3237 cm3
  2. 3240 cm3
  3. 3241 cm3
  4. 3247 cm3

4397. A solid piece of iron of dimensions 49 × 33 × 24 cm is moulded into a sphere. The radius of the sphere is

  1. 21 cm
  2. 28 cm
  3. 35 cm
  4. None of these

4398. How many bullets can be made out of a cube of lead whose edge measures 22 cm, each bullet being 2 cm in diameter?

  1. 1347
  2. 2541
  3. 2662
  4. 5324

4399. The volume of the largest sphere which can be carved out of a cube of side 6 cm is

  1. 113.14 cm3
  2. 166 cm3
  3. 179.66 cm3
  4. 188.52 cm3

4400. How many lead shots each 3 mm in diameter can be made from a cuboid of dimensions 9 cm × 11 cm × 12 cm?

  1. 7200
  2. 8400
  3. 72000
  4. 84000

4401. A sphere and a cube have equal surface areas. The ratio of the volume of the sphere to that of the cube is (S.S.C., 2005; M.A.T., 2006)

  1. :6π
  2. 2: π
  3. :3π
  4. 6: π

4402. The ratio of the volume of a cube to that of a sphere which will fit inside the cube is (M.A.T., 2010)

  1. 4 : p
  2. 4 : 3 p
  3. 6 : p
  4. 2 : p

4403. The volume of the largest possible cube that can be inscribed in a hollow spherical ball of radius r cm is (Hotel Management, 2009)

  1. 22 3 r
  2. 24 3 r
  3. 38 33 r
  4. 31 33 r

4404. A right circular cylinder and a sphere are of equal volumes and their radii are also equal. If h is the height of the cylinder and d, the diameter of the sphere, then (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. h = d
  2. 2 h = d
  3. 32 hd=
  4. 23 hd=

4405. The surface area of a sphere is same as the curved surface area of a right circular cylinder whose height and diameter are 12 cm each. The radius of the sphere is

  1. 3 cm
  2. 4 cm
  3. 6 cm
  4. 12 cm

4406. The diameter of the iron ball used for the shot-put game is 14 cm. It is melted and then a solid cylinder of height 12 cm3 is made. What will be the diameter of the base of the cylinder?

  1. 14 cm
  2. 14 cm3
  3. 28 cm
  4. 28 cm3

4407. A solid metallic sphere of radius r is converted into a solid right circular cylinder of radius R. If the height of the cylinder is twice the radius of the sphere, then

  1. R = r
  2. 2 3Rr=
  3. 2 3 rR =
  4. 2 3 rR =

4408. The ratio of the volumes of a right circular cylinder and a sphere is 3 : 2. If the radius of the sphere is double the radius of the base of the cylinder, find the ratio of the total surface areas of the cylinder and the sphere. (S.S.C., 2006)

  1. 9 : 8
  2. 13 : 8
  3. 15 : 8
  4. 17 : 8

4409. The volume of the greatest sphere that can be cut off from a cylindrical log of wood of base radius 1 cm and height 5 cm is

  1. 4 3 π
  2. 10 3 π
  3. 5 p
  4. 20 3 π

4410. How many spherical bullets can be made out of a lead cylinder 15 cm high and with base radius 3 cm, each bullet being 5 mm in diameter?

  1. 6000
  2. 6480
  3. 7260
  4. 7800

4411. A cylindrical rod of iron whose height is eight times its radius is melted and cast into spherical balls each of half the radius of the cylinder. The number of spherical balls is

  1. 12
  2. 16
  3. 24
  4. 48

4412. A copper wire of length 36 m and diameter 2 mm is melted to form a sphere. The radius of the sphere (in cm) is (M.B.A., 2008; S.S.C., 2010)

  1. 2.5
  2. 3
  3. 3.5
  4. 4

4413. The diameter of a sphere is 8 cm. It is melted and drawn into a wire of diameter 3 mm. The length of the wire is (M.B.A., 2009)

  1. 36.9 m
  2. 37.9 m
  3. 38.9 m
  4. 39.9 m

4414. A cylindrical vessel of radius 4 cm contains water. A solid sphere of radius 3 cm is lowered into the water until it is completely immersed. The water level in the vessel will rise by :

  1. 2 cm9
  2. 4 cm9
  3. 9 cm4
  4. 9 cm2

4415. The ratio of the surface area of a sphere and the curved surface area of the cylinder circumscribing the sphere is

  1. 1 : 1
  2. 1 : 2
  3. 2 : 1
  4. 2 : 3

4416. 12 spheres of the same size are made from melting a solid cylinder of 16 cm diameter and 2 cm height. The diameter of each sphere is

  1. 3 cm
  2. 2 cm
  3. 3 cm
  4. 4 cm

4417. A spherical iron ball is dropped into a cylindrical vessel of base diameter 14 cm containing water. The water level is increased by 19 cm.3 What is radius of the ball?

  1. 3.5 cm
  2. 7 cm
  3. 9 cm
  4. 12 cm

4418. If a hollow sphere of internal and external diam - eters 4 cm and 8 cm respectively is melted into a cylinder of base diameter 8 cm, then the height of the cylinder is

  1. 4 cm
  2. 13 cm3
  3. 14 cm3
  4. 5 cm

4419. Each of the measures of the radius of the base of a cone and that of a sphere is 8 cm. Also, the volumes of these two solids are equal. The slant height of the cone is

  1. 34 cm
  2. 34 2 cm
  3. 4 17 cm
  4. 8 17 cm

4420. A metallic sphere of radius 5 cm is melted to make a co ne with base of the same radius. What is the height of the cone? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 5 cm
  2. 10 cm
  3. 15 cm
  4. 20 cm

4421. Some solid metallic right circular cones, each with radius of the base 3 cm and height 4 cm, are melted to form a solid sphere of radius 6 cm. The number of right circular cones is

  1. 6
  2. 12
  3. 24
  4. 48

4422. A metallic sphere of radius 10.5 cm is melted and recast into small right circular cones, each of base radius 3.5 cm and height 3 cm. The number of cones so formed is (S.S.C., 2008)

  1. 105
  2. 113
  3. 126
  4. 135

4423. A cone of height 15 cm and base diameter 30 cm is carved out of a wooden sphere of radius 15 cm. The percentage of wood wasted is

  1. 25%
  2. 40%
  3. 50%
  4. 75%

4424. A metallic cone of radius 12 cm and height 24 cm is melted and made into spheres of radius 2 cm each. How many spheres are there?

  1. 108
  2. 120
  3. 144
  4. 180

4425. In what ratio are the volumes of a cylinder, a cone and a sphere, if each has the same diameter and the same height?

  1. 1 : 3 : 2
  2. 2 : 3 : 1
  3. 3 : 1 : 2
  4. 3 : 2 : 1

4426. If the diameter of a sphere is 6 m, its hemisphere will have a volume of (R.R.B., 2007)

  1. 18 p
  2. 36 p
  3. 72 p
  4. None of these

4427. The total surface area of a solid hemisphere of diameter 14 cm, is

  1. 308 cm2
  2. 462 cm2
  3. 1232 cm2
  4. 1848 cm2

4428. Volume of a hemisphere is 19404 cu. cm. Its radius is

  1. 10.5 cm
  2. 17.5 cm
  3. 21 cm
  4. 42 cm

4429. A hemispherical bowl is 176 cm round the brim. Supposing it to be half full, how many persons may be served from it in hemispherical glasses 4 cm in diameter at the top? (M.A.T., 2009)

  1. 1 172
  2. 1272
  3. 1372
  4. 1472

4430. The capacities of two hemispherical vessels are 6.4 litres and 21.6 litres. The areas of inner curved surfaces of the vessels will be in the ratio of

  1. 2: 3
  2. 2 : 3
  3. 4 : 9
  4. 16 : 81

4431. A hemispherical bowl is made of steel 0.5 cm thick. The inside radius of the bowl is 4 cm. The volume of steel used in making the bowl is

  1. 55.83 cm3
  2. 56.83 cm3
  3. 57.83 cm3
  4. 58.83 cm3

4432. The external and internal diameters of a hemispheri- cal bowl are 10 cm and 8 cm respectively. What is the total surface area of the bowl?

  1. 257.7 cm2
  2. 286 cm2
  3. 292 cm2
  4. 302 cm2

4433. A hemispherical bowl of internal radius 12 cm con - tains liquid. This liquid is to be filled into cylindrical container of diameter 4 cm and height 3 cm. The number of containers that is necessary to empty the bowl is

  1. 80
  2. 96
  3. 100
  4. 112

4434. A hemispherical bowl is filled to the brim with a beverage. The contents of the bowl are transferred into a cylindrical vessel whose radius is 50% more than its height. If the diameter is same for both the bowl and the cylinder, the volume of the beverage in the cylindrical vessel is

  1. 266 %3
  2. 178 %2
  3. 100%
  4. More than 100% ( i.e., some liquid will be left in the bowl)

4435. A water tank open at the top is hemispherical at the bottom and cylindrical above it. If radius of the hemisphere is 12 m and the total capacity of the tank is 3312 p m3, then the ratio of the surface areas of the hemispherical and the cylindrical portions is

  1. 1 : 1
  2. 3 : 5
  3. 4 : 5
  4. 6 : 5

4436. If a cylindrical tower D metres in diameter and H metres high is capped with a semi-spherical dome, then the total visible surface of the tower will be

  1. π +(2 )2 D HD
  2. ( 2)3 D HDπ +
  3. 222 DD Hπ  +
  4. 232 DD Hπ  +

4437. The ratio of the volumes of a hemisphere and a cylinder circumscribing this hemisphere and having a common base is (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 2 : 3
  3. 3 : 4
  4. 4 : 5

4438. A metallic hemisphere is melted and recast in the shape of a cone with the same base radius (R) as that of the hemisphere. If H is the height of the cone, then

  1. H = 2 R
  2. H = 3 R
  3. 3HR=
  4. 2 3HR=

4439. A hemisphere of lead of radius 6 cm is cast into a right circular cone of height 75 cm. The radius of the base of the cone is

  1. 1.4 cm
  2. 2 cm
  3. 2.4 cm
  4. 4.2 cm

4440. A hemisphere and a cone have equal bases. If their heights are also equal, then the ratio of their curved surfaces will be

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 2 : 1
  3. 1: 2
  4. 2 :1

4441. If the radius of the base and height of a cylinder and cone are each equal to r, and the radius of a hemisphere is also equal to r, then the volumes of the cone, cylinder and hemisphere are in the ratio (N.M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 1 : 2 : 3
  2. 1 : 3 : 2
  3. 2 : 1 : 3
  4. 3 : 2 : 1

4442. A solid body is made up of a cylinder of radius r and height r, a cone of base radius r and height r fixed to the cylinder’s one base and a hemisphere of radius r to its other base. The total volume of the body (given r = 2) is

  1. 8 p
  2. 16 p
  3. 32 p
  4. 64 p

4443. A solid cylinder of base radius 7 cm and height 24 cm is surmounted by a cone of the same radius and same vertical height. A hemisphere surmounts the cylinder at the other end. Surface area of the solid will be

  1. 527 p cm2
  2. 609 p cm2
  3. 707 p cm2
  4. 805 p cm2

4444. A solid is in the form of a right circular cylinder with hemispherical ends. The total length of the solid is 35 cm. The diameter of the cylinder is 1 4 of its height. The surface area of the solid is

  1. 462 cm2
  2. 6 93 cm2
  3. 750 cm2
  4. 770 cm2

4445. A sphere of maximum volume is cut out from a solid hemisphere of radius r. The ratio of the volume of the hemisphere to that of the cut out sphere is :

  1. 3 : 2
  2. 4 : 1
  3. 4 : 3
  4. 7 : 4

4446. What is the volume in cubic cm of a pyramid whose area of the base is 25 sq cm and height 9 cm? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 60
  2. 75
  3. 90
  4. 105

4447. If a regular square pyramid has a base of side 8 cm and height 30 cm, its volume is

  1. 120 cc
  2. 240 cc
  3. 640 cc
  4. 900 cc

4448. The base of a pyramid is an equilateral triangle of side 1 m. If the height of the pyramid is 4 metres, then the volume is

  1. 0.550 m3
  2. 0.577 m3
  3. 0.678 m3
  4. 0.750 m3

4449. A right pyramid is on a regular hexagonal base. Each side of the base is 10 m and the height is 60 m. The volume of the pyramid is

  1. 5000 m3
  2. 5100 m3
  3. 5195 m3
  4. 5196 m3

4450. A pyramid has an equilateral triangle as its base of which each side is 1m. Its slant edge is 3 m. The whole surface area of the pyramid is equal to

  1. +3 2 13 sq. m4
  2. +3 3 13 sq. m4
  3. +3 3 35 sq. m4
  4. +3 2 35 sq. m4

4451. A right pyramid has an equilateral triangular base of side 4 units. If the number of square units of its whole surface area is three times the number of cubic units of its volume, find its height.

  1. 3 units
  2. 4 units
  3. 5 units
  4. 6 units

4452. Length of each edge, of a regular tetrahedron is 1 cm. Its volume is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 3 12 cm3
  2. 1 34 cm3
  3. 2 6 cm3
  4. 1 212 cm3

4453. The volume of a right circular cone which is obtained from a wooden cube of edge 4.2 dm wasting minimum amount of wood is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 19404 dm3
  2. 194.04 dm3
  3. 19.404 dm3
  4. 1940.4 dm3

4454. Base of a right prism is a rectangle, the ratio of whose length and breadth is 3 : 2. If the height of the prism is 12 cm and total surface area is 288 sq. cm. the volume of the prism is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 291cm 3
  2. 288cm 3
  3. 290cm 3
  4. 286cm 3

4455. The radius of a cylinder is 5m more than its height. If the curved surface area of the cylinder is 792m 2, what is the volume of the cylinder? (in m 3) [IBPS—Bank Spl. Officers (IT) Exam, 2015]

  1. 5712
  2. 5244
  3. 5544
  4. 5306
  5. 5462

4456. The radius of base and curved surface area of a right cylinder is ‘ r’ units and 4 prh square units respectively. The height of the cylinder is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 2 h units
  2. h units
  3. 2 h units
  4. 4 h units

4457. A hemispherical bowls has 3.5cm radius. It is to be painted inside as well as outside. The cost of paint - ing it at the rate of ₹ 5 per 10sq. cm will be [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. ₹ 77
  2. ₹ 100
  3. ₹ 175
  4. ₹ 50

4458. If the volume and curved surfaces area of a cylinder are 616 m3 and 352m2 respectively, what is the total surface area of the cylinder (in m 2) [IBPS—Bank PO/MT (Pre.) Exam, 2015]

  1. 429
  2. 419
  3. 435
  4. 421
  5. 417

4459. The radius of a hemispherical bowls is 6cm. The capacity of the bowl is 22Take = 7  π [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 495.51cm 3
  2. 452.57cm 3
  3. 345.53cm 3
  4. 422cm 3

4460. Each side of a cube is decreased by 25%. Find the ratio of the volumes of the original cube and the resulting cube. [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 64 : 1
  2. 27 : 64
  3. 64 : 27
  4. 8 : 1

4461. A hemisphere and a cone have equal bases. If their heights are also equal, then the ratio of their curved surfaces will be [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 2 :1
  2. 1 : 2
  3. 2 : 1
  4. 1 : 2

4462. The base of a right prism is a trapezium whose lengths of two parallels sides are 10 cm and 6cm and distance between them is 5 cm. If the heights of the prism is 8cm, its volume is

  1. 320 cm3
  2. 300 cm3
  3. 310 cm3
  4. 300.5 cm3 [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

4463. The sum of the radius and the height of a cylinder is 19 m. The total surface area of the cylinder is 1672m2, what is the volume of the cylinder? (in m 3) [IBPS—Bank PO (Pre.) Exam, 2015]

  1. 3080
  2. 2940
  3. 3220
  4. 2660
  5. 2800

4464. A solid piece of iron is in the form of a cuboids of dimensions (49cm × 33cm × 24cm) is melted and moulded to form a solid sphere. The radius of the sphere is

  1. 19cm
  2. 21cm
  3. 23cm
  4. 25cm [DMRC—Train Operator (Station Controller) Exam, 2016]

4465. A patient in a hospital is given soup daily in a cylindrical bowl of diameter 7 cm. If the bowl is filled with soup to a height of 4 cm. How much soup the hospital has to prepare daily to serve 250 patients? [CLAT 2016]

  1. 38L
  2. 40L
  3. 39.5L
  4. 35.5L

4466. A sphere and a cube have same surface area. The ratio of squares of their volumes is [CDS, 2016]

  1. 6 : p
  2. 5 : p
  3. 3 : 5
  4. 1 : 1

4467. The radius of a sphere is equal to the radius of the base of a right circular cone, and the volume of the sphere is double the volume of the cone. The ratio of the height of the cone to the radius of its base is [CDS, 2016]

  1. 2 : 1
  2. 1 : 2
  3. 2 : 3
  4. 3 : 2

4468. A rectangular paper of 44 cm long and 6 cm wide is rolled to form a cylinder of height equal to width of the paper. The radius of the base of the cylinder so rolled is [CDS, 2016]

  1. 3.5 cm
  2. 5 cm
  3. 7 cm
  4. 14 cm

4469. If three metallic spheres of radii 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm are melted to form a single sphere, then the diameter of the new sphere will be [CDS, 2016]

  1. 12 cm
  2. 24 cm
  3. 30 cm
  4. 36 cm

4470. If the height of a right circular cone is increased by 200% and the radius of the base is reduced by 50%, then the volume of the cone [CDS, 2016]

  1. remains unaltered
  2. decrease by 25%
  3. increase by 25%
  4. increase by 50%

4471. If the radius of a sphere is increased by 10%, then the volume will be increased by [CDS, 2016]

  1. 33.1%
  2. 30%
  3. 50%
  4. 10%

4472. When a ball bounces, it rises to 2 3 of the height from which it fell. If the ball is dropped from a height of 36 m, how high will it rise at the third bounce? [CDS, 2016]

  1. 10 1 3 m
  2. 10 2 3 m
  3. 12 1 3 m
  4. 12 2 3 m

4473. A swimming pool 9m wide and 12m long and 1m deep on the shallow side and 4m deep on the deeper side. Its volume is [DMRC—Customer Relations Assistant

  1. 360 m3
  2. 270 m3
  3. 420 m3
  4. None of these

4474. A metal cube of edge 12 cm is melted and formed into three smaller cubes. If the edges of two smaller cubes are 6cm and 8cm, find the edges of the third smaller cube. [DMRC—Jr. Engineer

  1. 8 cm
  2. 10 cm
  3. 12 cm
  4. None of these

4475. What is the capacity of the cylindrical tank? I. The area of the base is 61,600 sq. cm. II. The height of the tank is 1.5 times the radius. III. The circumference of base is 880 cm.

  1. Only I and II
  2. Only II and III
  3. Only I and III
  4. Any two of the three
  5. Only II and either I or III

4476. What is the capacity of the cylindrical tank?

  1. Only I and II
  2. Only II and III
  3. Only I and III
  4. All I, II and III
  5. Any two of the three

4477. A solid metallic cone is melted and recast into a sphere. What is the radius of the sphere? I. The radius of the base of the cone is 2.1 cm. II. The height of the cone is four times the radius of its base. III. The height of the cone is 8.4 cm.

  1. Only I and II
  2. Only II and III
  3. Only I and III
  4. Any two of the three
  5. All I, II and III

4478. What is the total surface area of the cone? I. The area of the base of the cone is 154 cm 2. II. The curved surface area of the cone is 550 cm 2. III. The volume of the cone is 1232 cm 3.

  1. I, and either II or III
  2. II, and either I or III
  3. III, and either I or II
  4. Any two of the three
  5. None of these

4479. In a 100 m race, A covers the whole distance in 36 seconds and B in 45 seconds. In this race, A beats B by

  1. 20 m
  2. 25 m
  3. 22.5 m
  4. 9 m

4480. In a kilometre race, A beats B by 100 m and B beats C by 150 m. In the same race, by how many metres does A beat C? (M.B.A., 2004)

  1. 225 m
  2. 235 m
  3. 240 m
  4. 250 m

4481. A can run 22.5 m while B runs 25 m. In a kilometre race, B beats A by (M.B.A., 2006)

  1. 100 m
  2. 1111 m9
  3. 25 m
  4. 50 m

4482. In a kilometre race, A, B and C are three partici - pants. A can give B a start of 50 m and C a start of 69 m. The start which B can allow C, is (S.S.C., 2006)

  1. 17 m
  2. 18 m
  3. 19 m
  4. 20 m

4483. In a 1000 m race, A can beat B by 100 m. In a race of 400 m, B can beat C by 40 m. By how many metres will A beat C in a race of 500 m? (Railways, 2006)

  1. 85 m
  2. 95 m
  3. 105 m
  4. 115 m

4484. In a 100 m race, A beats B by 10 m and C by 13 m. In a race of 180 m, B will beat C by

  1. 5.4 m
  2. 4.5 m
  3. 5 m
  4. 6 m

4485. In a 200 m race, A can beat B by 31 m and C by 18 m. In a race of 350 m, C will beat B by:

  1. 22.75 m
  2. 25 m
  3. 19.5 m
  4. 13 m

4486. In a race of 200 m, B can give a start of 10 m to A and C can give a start of 20 m to B. The start that C can give to A in the same race is (S.S.C., 2007)

  1. 27 m
  2. 29 m
  3. 30 m
  4. 25 m

4487. In a 200 m race, A beats B by 35 m or 7 seconds. A’s time over the course is

  1. 40 sec
  2. 47 sec
  3. 33 sec
  4. None of these

4488. In a 500 m race, the ratio of the speeds of two contestants A and B is 3 : 4. If A has a start of 140 m, then A wins by

  1. 60 m
  2. 40 m
  3. 20 m
  4. 10 m

4489. A runs 21 3 times as fast as B. If A gives B a start of 80 m, how far must the winning post be so that A and B might reach it at the same time?

  1. 200 m
  2. 300 m
  3. 270 m
  4. 160 m

4490. In a 100 m race, A can beat B by 25 m and B can beat C by 4 m. In the same race A can beat C by

  1. 21 m
  2. 26 m
  3. 28 m
  4. 29 m

4491. A and B take part in a 100 m race. A runs at 5 km an hour. A gives B a start of 8 m and still beats him by 8 seconds. The speed of B is (Railways, 2007)

  1. 4.45 km/hr
  2. 4.14 km/hr
  3. 4.15 km/hr
  4. 4.25 km/hr

4492. In a 400 m race, A gives B a start of 5 seconds and beats him by 15 m. In another race of 400 m, A beats B by 17 7 seconds. Their respective speeds are (M.A.T. 2009)

  1. 6 m/sec, 7 m/sec
  2. 5 m/sec, 7 m/sec
  3. 8 m/sec, 7 m/sec
  4. 9 m/sec, 7 m/sec

4493. In a kilometre race, A beats B by 30 seconds and B beats C by 15 seconds. If A beats C by 180 m, the time taken by A to run 1 kilometre, is (S.S.C., 2006)

  1. 200 sec
  2. 205 sec
  3. 210 sec
  4. 250 sec

4494. In a 800 metre race, A defeated B by 15 seconds. If A’s speed was 8 km/hr, the speed of B was (S.S.C., 2004)

  1. 16 km/hr27
  2. 27 km/hr16
  3. 177 km/hr25
  4. 178 km/hr25

4495. A and B can cover a 200 m race in 22 seconds and 25 seconds respectively. When A finished the race, then B is at what distance from the finishing line?

  1. 24 m
  2. 30 m
  3. 48 m
  4. 54 m (Railways, 2004)

4496. In a game of 100 points, A can give B 20 points and C 28 points. Then, B can give C:

  1. 8 points
  2. 10 points
  3. 14 points
  4. 40 points

4497. At a game of billiards, A can give B 15 points in 60 and A can give C 20 points in 60. How many points can B give C in a game of 90?

  1. 30 points
  2. 20 points
  3. 10 points
  4. 12 points

4498. Four sisters Suvarna, Tara, Uma and Vibha are play- ing a game such that the loser doubles the money of each of the other players from her share. They played four games and each sister lost one game in alphabetical order. At the end of fourth game, each sister had ₹ 32. How much money did Suvarna start with?

  1. ₹ 60
  2. ₹ 34
  3. ₹ 66
  4. ₹ 28 [SSC—CGL (Tier I) Exam, 2012]

4499. A team played 40 games in a season and won in 24 of them. What percent of games played did the team win?

  1. 70%
  2. 40%
  3. 60%
  4. 35% (SSC—CGL (Tier I) Exam, 2012]

4500. What fraction of the total money did T have at the beginning of the game? [SNAP, 2012]

  1. 1/3
  2. 1/8
  3. 2/9
  4. 1/5

4501. In racing over a distance d at uniform speed, A can beat B by 20 metres, B can beat C by 10 metres, and A can beat C by 28 metres. Then d, in metres, is [GBO Exam, 2012]

  1. 50
  2. 75
  3. 100
  4. 120

4502. A runs 1 2 3 times as fast as B. If A gives B a start of 80m, how far must the winning post from the start - ing point be so that A and B might reach it at the same time? [CDS Exam, 2016]

  1. 200m
  2. 300m
  3. 270m
  4. 160m

4503. January 1, 2007 was Monday. What day of the week lies on Jan. 1, 2008?

  1. Monday
  2. Tuesday
  3. Wednesday
  4. Sunday

4504. January 1, 2008 is Tuesday. What day of the week lies on Jan. 1, 2009?

  1. Monday
  2. Wednesday
  3. Thursday
  4. Sunday

4505. On 8th Dec, 2007 Saturday falls. What day of the week was it on 8th Dec. 2006?

  1. Sunday
  2. Thursday
  3. Tuesday
  4. Friday

4506. On 6th March, 2005 Monday falls. What was the day of the week on 6th March, 2004?

  1. Sunday
  2. Saturday
  3. Tue sday
  4. Wednesday

4507. The calendar for the year 2007 will be the same for the year:

  1. 2014
  2. 2016
  3. 2017
  4. 2018

4508. On what dates of April, 2001 did Wednesday fall?

  1. 1st, 8th, 15th, 22nd, 29th
  2. 2nd, 9th, 16th, 23rd, 30th
  3. 3rd, 10th, 17th, 24th
  4. 4th, 11th, 18th, 25th

4509. What was the day of the week on 17th June, 1998?

  1. Monday
  2. Tuesday
  3. Wednesday
  4. Thursday

4510. What was the day of the week on 28th May, 2006?

  1. Thursday
  2. Friday
  3. Sat urday
  4. Sunday

4511. What will be the day of the week on 15th August, 2010?

  1. Sunday
  2. Monday
  3. Tuesday
  4. Friday

4512. Today is Monday. After 61 days, it will be

  1. Wednesday
  2. Saturday
  3. Tuesday
  4. Thursday

4513. The last day of a century cannot be

  1. Monday
  2. Wednesday
  3. Tuesday
  4. Friday

4514. Which of the following is not a leap year?

  1. 700
  2. 800
  3. 1200
  4. 2000

4515. How many days are there in x weeks x days?

  1. 7x2
  2. 8x
  3. 14x
  4. 7

4516. It was Sunday on Jan 1, 2006. What was the day of the week on Jan 1, 2010?

  1. Sunday
  2. Saturday
  3. Friday
  4. Wednesday

4517. On 8th Feb, 2005 it was Tuesday. What was the day of the week on 8th Feb, 2004?

  1. Tuesday
  2. Monday
  3. Sunday
  4. Wednesday

4518. For a certain month, the dates of three of the Sun- days are even numbers. Then, the 15th of the that month falls on a [SSC—CGL (Tier I) Exam, 2012]

  1. Thursday
  2. Friday
  3. Saturday
  4. Sunday

4519. What was the day of the week on 15 August, 1947? [DMRC— Customer Relationship Assistant

  1. Saturday
  2. Friday
  3. Thursday
  4. Wednesday

4520. The calendar for the year 2009 will be the same as that of the year [DMRC— Customer Relationship Assistant

  1. 2013
  2. 2014
  3. 2015
  4. 2014

4521. London time is five and a half hours behind Delhi time. What time is it in London if it is 0.2.35 in Delhi?

  1. 07.05
  2. 08.05
  3. 21.05
  4. 21.35

4522. A bus leaves at 12.25 noon and reaches destination at 10.45 am. The duration of the journey is (R.R.B., 2005)

  1. 22 hrs 20 min
  2. 22 hrs 40 min
  3. 24 hrs 20 min
  4. 24 hrs 40 min

4523. An accurate clock shows 80 ′ clock in the morning. Through how many degrees will the hour hand rotate when the clock shows 2O ′ clock in the afternoon?

  1. 144°
  2. 150°
  3. 168°
  4. 180°

4524. How many rotations will the hour hand of a clock complete in 72 hours?

  1. 3
  2. 6
  3. 9
  4. 12

4525. Through what angle does the minute hand of a clock turn in 5 minutes?

  1. 30°
  2. 32°
  3. 35°
  4. 36°

4526. In an accurate clock, in a period of 2 hours 20 minutes the minute hand will move over

  1. 140°
  2. 320°
  3. 520°
  4. 840°

4527. A clock is started at noon. By 10 minutes past 5, the hour hand has turned through

  1. 145°
  2. 150°
  3. 155°
  4. 160°

4528. At 9 : 38 A.M, through how many degrees the hour hand of a clock moved since noon the previous day? (SNAP, 2004)

  1. 323
  2. 612
  3. 646
  4. 649

4529. At 3.40, the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock form an angle of (Hotel Management, 2004; Campus Recruitment, 2008)

  1. 120°
  2. 125°
  3. 130°
  4. 135°

4530. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time is 8.30, is (R.R.B. 2006)

  1. 80°
  2. 75°
  3. 60°
  4. 105°

4531. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time is 4.20, is (P.C.S., 2008)

  1. 0°
  2. 10°
  3. 5°
  4. 20°

4532. At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined at 15 minutes past 5? (L.I.C.A.A.O., 2003)

  1. 158 2 °
  2. 64°
  3. 167 2 °
  4. 172 2 °

4533. The reflex angle between the hands of a clock at 10.25 is

  1. 180°
  2. 1192 2 °
  3. 195°
  4. 1197 2 °

4534. 30° A B C A B C

  1. 4 2 1
  2. 4 3 2
  3. 5 2 1
  4. 4 3 2

4535. An accurate clock shows the time as 3.00. After the hour hand has moved 135°, the time would be

  1. 6.30
  2. 7.30
  3. 8.00
  4. 9.30

4536. What is the area of the face of a clock described by its minute hand between 9 a.m. and 9.35 a.m; if the minute hand is 10 cm long? (M.B.A., 2004)

  1. 36 2 3 cm2
  2. 157 1 7 cm2
  3. 183 1 3 cm2
  4. None of these

4537. The hands of a clock are 10 cm and 7 cm respectively. The difference between the distance traversed by their extremities in 3 days 5 hours is (M.A.T., 2006)

  1. 4552.67 cm
  2. 4555.67 cm
  3. 4557.67 cm
  4. 4559.67 cm

4538. The minute arm of a clock is 10 cm long. The number of minutes taken by the tip of the arm to travel a length of 10 cm is nearly equal to

  1. 5
  2. 10
  3. 15
  4. 20

4539. At which time number of minutes elapsed since midnight is nine times the number of minutes before noon? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 8.30 a.m.
  2. 6.56 a.m.
  3. 9.46 a.m.
  4. 10.48 a.m.

4540. How many times do the hands of a clock coincide in a day?

  1. 20
  2. 21
  3. 22
  4. 24

4541. How many times in a day, the hands of a clock are straight? (I.I.F.T., 2005)

  1. 22
  2. 24
  3. 44
  4. 48

4542. How many times are the hands of a clock at right angle in a day?

  1. 22
  2. 24
  3. 44
  4. 48

4543. How many times in a day, are the hands of a clock in straight line but opposite in direction? (R.R.B., 2003)

  1. 20
  2. 22
  3. 24
  4. 48

4544. How many times are the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock at right angles during their motion from 1.00 p.m. to 10.00 p.m.? (I.A.S., 2009)

  1. 9
  2. 10
  3. 18
  4. 20

4545. A clock gains 5 minutes in one hour. Therefore, the angle traversed by the minute hand in 1 hour is

  1. 360°
  2. 390°
  3. 390.5°
  4. None of these

4546. A clock strikes once at 1O ′ clock, twice at 2O ′ clock, thrice at 3O′ clock and soon. What is the total number of strikings in a day? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 136
  2. 146
  3. 156
  4. 166

4547. A wall-clock takes 9 seconds in tringing at 9O′ clock. The time, it will take in tringing at 11O ′ clock, is

  1. 10 seconds
  2. 10.80 seconds
  3. 11 seconds
  4. 11.25 seconds

4548. If a clock strikes six times in 5 seconds, the number of strikes in 10 seconds is

  1. 8
  2. 9
  3. 10
  4. 11

4549. In every 30 minutes the time of a watch increases by 3 minutes. After showing the correct time at 5 a.m; what time will the watch show after 6 hours?

  1. 10 : 54 a.m.
  2. 11 : 30 a.m.
  3. 11 : 36 a.m.
  4. 11 : 42 a.m.
  5. 11 : 38 p.m.

4550. A watch becomes fast by 5 minutes everyday. By what percent does it become fast? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 5 %24
  2. 1 %12
  3. 5%
  4. 50 %144

4551. A clock goes slow from midnight by 5 minutes at the end of the first hour, by 10 minutes at the end of the second hour, by 15 minutes at the end of the third hour and so on. What will be the time by this clock after 6 hours? (S.S.C., 2002)

  1. 5.15 a.m.
  2. 5.30 a.m.
  3. 6 a.m.
  4. 6.30 a.m.

4552. A watch goes fast by 15 minutes compared to the right time everyday. If it is corrected and set to the standard time at 120 ’ clock at noon, which of the following will be the time shown by it at 4 : 00 a.m. in the morning?

  1. 3 : 45 a.m.
  2. 4 : 10 a.m.
  3. 4 : 15 a.m.
  4. 4 : 30 a.m.

4553. It is between 3 P.M. and 4 P.M. and the distance between the hour and the minute hand of clock is 18 minute spaces. What time does the clock show? (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 3.12 P.M.
  2. 3.27 P.M.
  3. 3.31 P.M.
  4. 3.36 P.M.

4554. At what time between 9 and 10 o’clock are the hands of a clock 23 minute spaces apart?

  1. 9 : 18
  2. 9 : 23
  3. 9 : 24
  4. 9 : 26

4555. How much does a watch lose per day, if its hands coincide every 64 minutes? (M.B.A. 2004, 05, 06; G.B.O., 2007; Campus Recruitment, 2008, 2010)

  1. 832 min .11
  2. 536 min .11
  3. 90 min.
  4. 96 min.

4556. At what time, in minutes, between 3 o’clock and 4 o’clock, both the needles will coincide each other? (R.R.B., 2002)

  1. 15 11 ′′ past
  2. 412 11 ′′ past
  3. 413 11 ′′ past
  4. 416 11 ′′ past

4557. At what time between 9 and 10 o’clock will the hands of a watch be together?

  1. 45 min. past 9
  2. 50 min. past 9
  3. 149 min . past 911
  4. 248 min . past 911

4558. At what time between 7 and 8 o’clock will the hands of a clock be in the same straight line but, not together?

  1. 5 min. past 7
  2. 25 min . past 711
  3. 35 min . past 711
  4. 55 min . past 711

4559. At what time between 4 and 5 o’clock will the hands of a watch point in opposite directions?

  1. 45 min. past 4
  2. 40 min. past 4
  3. 450 min . past 411
  4. 654 min . past 411

4560. At what time between 5.30 and 6 will the hands of a clock be at right angles?

  1. 543 min . past 511
  2. 743 min . past 511
  3. 40 min. past 5
  4. 45 min. past 5

4561. Henry started a trip into the country between 8 A.M. and 9 A.M. when the hands of clock were together. He arrived at his destination between 2 P.M. and 3 P.M. when the hands of the clock were exactly 180° apart. How long did he travel? (SNAP, 2004)

  1. 6 hours
  2. 7 hours
  3. 9 hours
  4. 11 hours

4562. Imagine that your watch was correct at noon, but then it began to lose 30 minutes each hour. It now shows 4 p.m. but it stopped 5 hours ago. What is the correct time now? (M.B.A. 2004)

  1. 9.30 p.m.
  2. 11 p.m.
  3. 1 a.m.
  4. 1.30 a.m.

4563. A mechanical grandfather clock is at present showing 7 hr 40 min 6 sec. Assuming that it loses 4 seconds in every hour, what time will it show after exactly 16 2 hours? (M.B.A. 2004)

  1. 14 hr 9 min 34 sec
  2. 14 hr 9 min 40 sec
  3. 14 hr 10 min 6 sec
  4. 14 hr 10 min 32 sec

4564. I have two watches with a 12 hour cycle. One of them gains one minute a day and the other loses 11 2 minutes per day. If I set them both at the correct time, how long will it be before they again tell the correct time together?

  1. 288 days
  2. 480 days
  3. 720 days
  4. 1440 days

4565. A watch is 1 minute slow at 1 p.m. on Tuesday and 2 minutes fast at 1 p.m. on Thursday. When did it show the correct time? (M.A.T. 2004)

  1. 1.00 a.m. on Wednesday
  2. 5.00 a.m. on Wednesday
  3. 1.00 p.m. on Wednesday
  4. 5.00 p.m. on Wednesday

4566. A watch which gains uniformly is 2 minutes low at noon on Monday and is 4 min. 48 sec fast at 2 p.m. on the following Monday. When was it correct?

  1. 2 p.m. on Tuesday
  2. 2 p.m. on Wednesday
  3. 3 p.m. on Thursday
  4. 1 p.m. on Friday

4567. A watch which gains 5 seconds in 3 minutes was set right at 7 a.m. In the afternoon of the same day, when the watch indicated quarter past 4 o’clock, the true ti me is

  1. 759 min . past 312
  2. 4 p.m.
  3. 758 min . past 311
  4. 32 min . past 411

4568. Between 5 and 6, a lady looked at her watch and mistaking the hour hand for the minute hand, she thought that the time was 57 minutes earlier than the correct time. The correct time was (M.B.A. 2003)

  1. 12 minutes past 5
  2. 24 minutes past 5
  3. 36 minutes past 5
  4. 48 minutes past 5

4569. How much does a watch losse per day if its hands coincide every 64 minutes? [IDBI Bank Executive Officers Exam, 2012]

  1. 37 minutes
  2. 32 8 11 minutes
  3. 31 minutes
  4. None of these

4570. Wall clock gains 2 minutes in 12 hours, while a table clock loses 2 minutes every 36 hours. Both are set right at 12 noon on Tuesday. The correct time when both show the same time next would be [SSC—FCI Gr. III Exam, 2012]

  1. 12:30 at night, after 130 days
  2. 12 noon, after 135 days
  3. 1:30 at nights, after 130 days
  4. 12 midnight after 135 days

4571. The angle between the hands of a clock when the time is 4 : 25 am is [CLAT, 2016]

  1. 13 1 2 °
  2. 17 1 2 °
  3. 14 1 2 °
  4. 12 1 2 °

4572. At 8:30, the hour hand and the minute hand of clock form an angle of [CDS Exam, 2016]

  1. 80º
  2. 75º
  3. 70º
  4. 60º

4573. A clock is displaying correct time at 9am on Mon - day. If the clock loses 12 minutes in 24 hours, then the actual time when the clock indicates 8:30pm on Wednesday of the same week is [DMRC—Customer Relationship Assistant

  1. 8 pm
  2. 7 pm
  3. 9 pm
  4. 8: 59 : 45 pm

4574. There are two clocks, both set to show 10 pm on 21st January 2010. One clock gains 2 minutes in an hour and the other clock loses 5 minutes in an hour. Then by how many minutes do the two clocks differ at 4 pm on 22 nd January 2010? [DMRC—Customer Relationship Assistant

  1. 126 minutes
  2. 136 minutes
  3. 96 minutes
  4. 106 minutes

4575. The cost price of a ₹ 100 stock at 4 discount, when brokerage is 1 4 % is

  1. ₹ 95.75
  2. ₹ 96
  3. ₹ 96.25
  4. ₹ 104.25

4576. The cash realised on selling a 14% stock at ₹ 106.25, brokerage being 1 %4 , is

  1. ₹ 105.50
  2. ₹ 106
  3. ₹ 106.50
  4. ₹ 113.75

4577. How many shares of market value ₹ 25 each can be purchased for ₹ 12750, brokerage being 2%?

  1. 450
  2. 500
  3. 550
  4. 600

4578. A man invests in a 16% stock at 128. The interest obtained by him is

  1. 8%
  2. 12%
  3. 12.5%
  4. 16%

4579. The income derived from a ₹ 100, 13% stock at ₹ 105, is

  1. ₹ 5
  2. ₹ 8
  3. ₹ 13
  4. ₹ 18

4580. A wants to secure an annual income of ₹ 1500 by investing in 15% debentures of face value ₹ 100 each and available for ₹ 104 each. If the brokerage is 1%, then the sum of money he should invest is (M.A.T., 2002)

  1. ₹ 10504
  2. ₹ 10784
  3. ₹ 15000
  4. ₹ 19642

4581. A man invested ₹ 4455 in ₹ 10 shares quoted at ₹ 8.25. If the rate of dividend be 12%, his annual income is : (G.B.O., 2007)

  1. ₹ 207.40
  2. ₹ 534.60
  3. ₹ 648
  4. ₹ 655.60

4582. A man invested ₹ 14,400 in ₹ 100 shares of a company at 20% premium. If the company declares 5% dividend at the end of the year, then how much does he get? (R.R.B., 2008; Hotel Management, 2003)

  1. ₹ 500
  2. ₹ 600
  3. ₹ 650
  4. ₹ 720

4583. A person has deposited ₹ 13200 in a bank which pays 14% interest. He withdraws the money and invests in ₹ 100 stock at ₹ 110 which pays a dividend of 15%. How much does he gain or lose? (M.A.T., 2004)

  1. Loses ₹ 48
  2. Gains ₹ 48
  3. Loses ₹ 132
  4. Gains ₹ 132

4584. A 6% stock yields 8%. The market value of the stock is

  1. ₹ 48
  2. ₹ 75
  3. ₹ 96
  4. ₹ 133.33

4585. A 9% stock yields 8%. The market value of the stock is

  1. ₹ 72
  2. ₹ 92
  3. ₹ 112.50
  4. ₹ 116.50

4586. A 12% stock yielding 10% is quoted at

  1. ₹ 83.33
  2. ₹ 110
  3. ₹ 112
  4. ₹ 120

4587. By investing ₹ 3450 in a 14%2 stock, a man obtains an income of ₹ 150. Find the market price of the stock. (SCMHRD, 2002)

  1. ₹ 103.50
  2. ₹ 105
  3. ₹ 107.50
  4. ₹ 110

4588. To produce an annual income of ₹ 1200 from a 12% stock at 90, the amount of stock needed is

  1. ₹ 10,000
  2. ₹ 10,800
  3. ₹ 14,400
  4. ₹ 16,000

4589. In order to obtain an income of ₹ 650 from 10% stock at ₹ 96, one must make an investment of

  1. ₹ 3100
  2. ₹ 6240
  3. ₹ 6500
  4. ₹ 9600

4590. By investing in 216 %3 stock at 64, one earns ₹ 1500. The investment made is

  1. ₹ 5640
  2. ₹ 5760
  3. ₹ 7500
  4. ₹ 9600

4591. A man invested ₹ 1552 in a stock at 97 to obtain an income of ₹ 128. The dividend from the stock is

  1. 7.5%
  2. 8%
  3. 9.7%
  4. None of these

4592. A man bought 20 shares of ₹ 50 at 5 discount, the rate of dividend being 113 %.2 The rate of interest obtained is :

  1. 112 %2
  2. 113 %2
  3. 15%
  4. 216 %3

4593. At what price should I buy a share the value of which is ₹ 100, paying a dividend of 8% so that my yield is 11%? (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. ₹ 70
  2. ₹ 72.72
  3. ₹ 75
  4. ₹ 84

4594. A man buys ₹ 50 shares in a company which pays 10% dividend. If the man gets 12.5% on his investment, at what price did he buy the shares? (L.I.C.A.A.O., 2003)

  1. ₹ 37.50
  2. ₹ 40
  3. ₹ 48
  4. ₹ 52

4595. The market value of a 10.5% stock, in which an income of ₹ 756 is derived by investing ₹ 9000, brokerage being 1 %4 , is

  1. ₹ 108.25
  2. ₹ 112.20
  3. ₹ 124.75
  4. ₹ 125.25

4596. Sakshi invests a part of ₹ 12,000 in 12% stock at ₹ 120 and the remainder in 15% stock at ₹ 125. If his total dividend per annum is ₹ 1360, how much does he invest in 12% stock at ₹ 120?

  1. ₹ 4000
  2. ₹ 4500
  3. ₹ 5500
  4. ₹ 6000

4597. ₹ 9800 are invested partly in 9% stock at 75 and 10% stock at 80 to have equal amount of incomes. The investment in 9% stock is

  1. ₹ 4800
  2. ₹ 5000
  3. ₹ 5400
  4. ₹ 5600

4598. A person wants to invest ₹ 140000 in two types of bonds. The annual return is 12% on bond A and 16% on bond B. One of the conditions requires that the investment in bond B cannot be more than 40% of the investment in bond A. What is the maximum return he can get per year? (S.S.C., 2002)

  1. ₹ 15600
  2. ₹ 16800
  3. ₹ 19200
  4. ₹ 20800

4599. A man invests some money partly in 9% stock at 96 and partly in 12% stock at 120. To obtain equal dividends from both, he must invest the money in the ratio

  1. 3 : 4
  2. 3 : 5
  3. 4 : 5
  4. 16 : 15

4600. Which is better investment — 11% stock at 143 or 39%4 stock at 117?

  1. 11% stock at 143
  2. 39%4 stock at 117
  3. Both are equally good
  4. C annot be compared, as the total mount of investment is not given

4601. A person invests ₹ 5508 in 4% stock at 102. He afterwards sells out at 105 and reinvests in 5% stock at 126. What is the change in his income? (I.I.F.T., 2005)

  1. ₹ 7
  2. ₹ 9
  3. ₹ 10
  4. ₹ 20

4602. A retired man sells out ₹ 7500 of a 10% stock at ₹ 105.50 and invests the proceeds in 14% stock at ₹ 124.50. What is the change in income if he pays a service charge of 0.5% of the face value on each transaction?

  1. ₹ 95
  2. ₹ 114
  3. ₹ 132
  4. None of these

4603. (75P2 – 75C2) =?

  1. 0
  2. 75
  3. 150
  4. 2775
  5. 5550

4604. In how many different ways can the letters of the word DISPLAY be arranged?

  1. 720
  2. 1440
  3. 2520
  4. 5040
  5. None of these

4605. In how many different ways can the letters of the word SMART be arranged?

  1. 25
  2. 60
  3. 180
  4. 200
  5. None of these

4606. In how many different ways can the letters of the word FORMULATE be arranged?

  1. 8100
  2. 40320
  3. 153420
  4. 362880
  5. None of these

4607. In how many different ways can the letters of the word GAMBLE be arranged?

  1. 15
  2. 25
  3. 60
  4. 125
  5. None of these

4608. In how many different ways can the letters of the word RIDDLED be arranged?

  1. 840
  2. 1680
  3. 2520
  4. 5040
  5. None of these

4609. In how many different ways can the letters of the word CREATE be arranged?

  1. 25
  2. 36
  3. 360
  4. 720
  5. None of these

4610. In how many different ways can the letters of the word TOTAL be arranged?

  1. 45
  2. 60
  3. 72
  4. 120
  5. None of these

4611. In how many different ways can the letters of the word OFFICES be arranged?

  1. 2520
  2. 5040
  3. 1850
  4. 1680
  5. None of these

4612. In how many different ways can the letters of the word BANANA be arranged?

  1. 60
  2. 120
  3. 360
  4. 720
  5. None of these

4613. In how many different ways can the letters of the word WEDDING be arranged?

  1. 2500
  2. 2520
  3. 5000
  4. 5040
  5. None of these

4614. In how many different ways can the letters of the word INCREASE be arranged?

  1. 40320
  2. 10080
  3. 20160
  4. 64
  5. None of these

4615. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ABSENTEE be arranged?

  1. 512
  2. 6720
  3. 9740
  4. 40320
  5. None of these

4616. In how many different ways can the letters of the word AWARE be arranged?

  1. 40
  2. 60
  3. 120
  4. 150
  5. None of these

4617. In how many different ways can the letters of the word DAILY be arranged?

  1. 48
  2. 60
  3. 120
  4. 160
  5. None of these

4618. In how many different ways can the letters of the word RUMOUR be arranged?

  1. 30
  2. 90
  3. 180
  4. 720
  5. None of these

4619. In how many different ways can the letters of the word OPERATE be arranged?

  1. 360
  2. 720
  3. 5040
  4. 2520
  5. None of these

4620. In how many different ways can the letters of the word PUNCTUAL be arranged?

  1. 64
  2. 960
  3. 20160
  4. 40320
  5. None of these

4621. In how many different ways can the letters of the word CREAM be arranged?

  1. 25
  2. 120
  3. 260
  4. 480
  5. None of these

4622. Out of 5 men and 3 women, a committee of three members is to be formed so that it has 1 woman and 2 men. In how many different ways can it be done?

  1. 10
  2. 20
  3. 23
  4. 30
  5. None of these

4623. Out of 5 women and 4 men, a committee of three members is to be formed in such a way that at least one member is a woman. In how many different ways can it be done?

  1. 76
  2. 80
  3. 84
  4. 96
  5. None of these

4624. A committee of 5 members is to be formed out of 3 trainees, 4 professors and 6 research associates. In how many different ways can this be done, if the committee should have 4 professors and 1 research associate or all 3 trainees and 2 professors? (S.B.I. P.O., 2010)

  1. 12
  2. 13
  3. 24
  4. 52
  5. None of these

4625. A committee of 5 members is to be formed out of 3 trainees, 4 professors and 6 research associates. In how many different ways can this be done if the committee should have 2 trainees and 3 research associates? (S.B.I. P.O., 2010)

  1. 15
  2. 45
  3. 60
  4. 9
  5. None of these

4626. In how many ways can a committee of 4 people be chosen out of 8 people?

  1. 32
  2. 70
  3. 110
  4. 126
  5. None of these

4627. A committee of 5 members is to be formed by selecting out of 4 men and 5 women. In how many different ways the committee can be formed if it should have 2 men and 3 women?

  1. 16
  2. 36
  3. 45
  4. 60
  5. None of these

4628. A committee of 5 members is to be formed by selecting out of 4 men and 5 women. In how many different ways the committee can be formed if it should have at least 1 man?

  1. 115
  2. 120
  3. 125
  4. 140
  5. None of these

4629. In how many ways a committee consisting of 5 men and 6 women can be formed from 8 men and 10 women?

  1. 266
  2. 5040
  3. 11760
  4. 86400
  5. None of these

4630. A select group of 4 is to be formed from 8 men and 6 women in such a way that the group must have at least 1 woman. In how many different ways can it be done?

  1. 364
  2. 728
  3. 931
  4. 1001
  5. None of these

4631. From a group of 7 men and 6 women, 5 persons are to be selected to form a committee so that at least 3 men are there on the committee. In how many ways can it be done?

  1. 564
  2. 645
  3. 735
  4. 756
  5. None of these

4632. A box contains 2 white, 3 black and 4 red balls. In how many ways can 3 balls be drawn from the box, if at least 1 black ball is to be included in the draw?

  1. 32
  2. 48
  3. 64
  4. 96
  5. None of these

4633. In how many ways can a group of 5 men and 2 women be made out of a total of 7 men and 3 women?

  1. 45
  2. 63
  3. 90
  4. 126
  5. None of these

4634. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ENGINEERING be arranged?

  1. 277200
  2. 92400
  3. 69300
  4. 23100
  5. None of these

4635. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ALLAHABAD be arranged?

  1. 3780
  2. 1890
  3. 7560
  4. 2520
  5. None of these

4636. In how many different ways can the letters of the word JUDGE be arranged in such a way that the vowels always come together?

  1. 48
  2. 120
  3. 124
  4. 160
  5. None of these

4637. In how many different ways can the letters of the word AUCTION be arranged in such a way that the vowels always come together?

  1. 30
  2. 48
  3. 144
  4. 576
  5. None of these

4638. In how many different ways can the letters of the word SOFTWARE be arranged in such a way that the vowels always come together?

  1. 120
  2. 360
  3. 1440
  4. 13440
  5. 4320

4639. In how many different ways can the letters of the word OPTICAL be arranged in such a way that the vowels always come together?

  1. 120
  2. 720
  3. 2160
  4. 4320
  5. None of these

4640. In how many different ways can the letters of the word BANKING be arranged in such a way that the vowels always come together?

  1. 120
  2. 240
  3. 360
  4. 540
  5. 720

4641. In how many different ways can the letters of the word CAPITAL be arranged so that the vowels always come together?

  1. 120
  2. 360
  3. 720
  4. 840
  5. None of these

4642. In how many ways can the letters of the word MATHEMATICS be arranged so that all the vowels always come together?

  1. 10080
  2. 120960
  3. 4989600
  4. 20160
  5. None of these

4643. In how many different ways can the letters of the word CORPORATION be arranged so that the vowels always come together?

  1. 810
  2. 1440
  3. 2880
  4. 50400
  5. 5760

4644. In how many different ways can the letters of the word MACHINE be arranged so that the vowels may occupy only the odd positions?

  1. 210
  2. 576
  3. 144
  4. 1728
  5. 3456

4645. In how many different ways can the letters of the word EXTRA be arranged so that the vowels are never together?

  1. 120
  2. 48
  3. 72
  4. 168
  5. None of these

4646. In an examination there are three multiple choice questions and each question has 4 choices. The number of ways in which a student can fail to get all answers correct is [MAT, 2012]

  1. 11
  2. 27
  3. 12
  4. 63

4647. There are six teachers. Out of them two are primary teachers and two are secondary teachers. They are to stand in a row, so as the primary teachers, middle teachers and secondary teachers are always in a set. The number of ways in which they can do So, is [MAT, 2011]

  1. 52
  2. 48
  3. 34
  4. None of these

4648. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘BAKERY’ be arranged? [SBI— Bank Clerical Exam, 2012]

  1. 2,400
  2. 2,005
  3. 720
  4. 5,040
  5. None of these

4649. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘TRANSPIRATION’ be arranged so that the vowels always come together? [DMRC—Train Operator/Station Controller Exam, 2016]

  1. 2429500
  2. 1360800
  3. 1627800
  4. None of these

4650. In how many ways can the letters of the word ‘MO - MENT’ be arranged? [UPSSSC—Lower Subordinate (Pre.) Exam, 2016]

  1. 360
  2. 60
  3. 720
  4. 120

4651. In a simultaneous throw of two coins, the probability of getting at least one head is

  1. 1 2
  2. 1 3
  3. 2 3
  4. 3 4

4652. Three unbiased coins are tossed. What is the probability of getting at least 2 heads ?

  1. 1 4
  2. 1 2
  3. 1 3
  4. 1 8

4653. Three unbiased coins are tossed. What is the probability of getting at most two heads ?

  1. 3 4
  2. 1 4
  3. 3 8
  4. 7 8

4654. In a single throw of a die, what is the probability of getting a number greater than 4 ?

  1. 1 2
  2. 1 3
  3. 2 3
  4. 1 4

4655. In a simultaneous throw of two dice, what is the probability of getting a total of 7 ?

  1. 1 6
  2. 1 4
  3. 2 3
  4. 3 4

4656. What is the probability of getting a sum 9 from two throws of a dice ?

  1. 1 6
  2. 1 8
  3. 1 9
  4. 1 12

4657. In a simultaneous throw of two dice, what is the probability of getting a doublet ?

  1. 1 6
  2. 1 4
  3. 2 3
  4. 3 7

4658. In a simultaneous throw of two dice, what is the probability of getting a total of 10 or 11 ?

  1. 1 4
  2. 1 6
  3. 7 12
  4. 5 36

4659. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting two numbers whose product is even ?

  1. 1 2
  2. 3 4
  3. 3 8
  4. 5 16

4660. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ticket drawn bears a number which is a multiple of 3 ?

  1. 3 10
  2. 3 20
  3. 2 5
  4. 1 2

4661. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ticket drawn has a number which is a multiple of 3 or 5 ?

  1. 1 2
  2. 2 5
  3. 8 15
  4. 9 20

4662. In a lottery, there are 10 prizes and 25 blanks. A lottery is drawn at random. What is the probability of getting a prize ?

  1. 1 10
  2. 2 5
  3. 2 7
  4. 5 7

4663. One card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that the card drawn is a face card ?

  1. 1 13
  2. 4 13
  3. 1 4
  4. 9 52

4664. A card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. The probability of getting a queen of club or a king of heart is

  1. 1 13
  2. 2 13
  3. 1 26
  4. 1 52

4665. One card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that the card drawn is either a red card or a king ?

  1. 1 2
  2. 6 13
  3. 7 13
  4. 27 52

4666. From a pack of 52 cards, one card is drawn at random. What is the probability that the card drawn is a ten or a spade ?

  1. 4 13
  2. 1 4
  3. 1 13
  4. 1 26

4667. The probability that a card drawn from a pack of 52 cards will be a diamond or a king, is

  1. 2 13
  2. 4 13
  3. 1 13
  4. 1 52

4668. From a pack of 52 cards, two cards are drawn to - gether at random. What is the probability of both the cards being kings ?

  1. 1 15
  2. 25 57
  3. 35 256
  4. 1 221

4669. Two cards are drawn together from a pack of 52 cards. The probability that one is a spade and one is a heart, is

  1. 3 20
  2. 29 34
  3. 47 100
  4. 13 102

4670. Two cards are drawn from a pack of 52 cards. The probability that either both are red or both are kings, is

  1. 7 13
  2. 3 26
  3. 63 221
  4. 55 221

4671. A bag contains 6 black and 8 white balls. One ball is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ball drawn is white ?

  1. 3 4
  2. 4 7
  3. 1 8
  4. 3 7
  5. None of these

4672. In a box, there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6 green balls. One ball is picked up randomly. What is the probability that it is neither red nor green ?

  1. 2 3
  2. 3 4
  3. 7 19
  4. 8 21
  5. 9 21

4673. A box contains 4 red, 5 green and 6 white balls. A ball is drawn at random from the box. What is the probability that the ball drawn is either red or green ?

  1. 2 5
  2. 3 5
  3. 1 5
  4. 7 15
  5. None of these

4674. A basket contains 4 red, 5 blue and 3 green marbles. If 2 marbles are drawn at random from the basket, what is the probability that both are red? (S.B.I. P.O., 2010)

  1. 3 7
  2. 1 2
  3. 1 11
  4. 1 6
  5. None of these

4675. An urn contains 6 red, 4 blue, 2 green and 3 yellow marbles. If two marbles are drawn at random from the urn, what is the probability that both are red? (S.B.I. P.O., 2010)

  1. 1 6
  2. 1 7
  3. 2 15
  4. 2 5
  5. None of these

4676. A basket contains 6 blue, 2 red, 4 green and 3 yellow balls. If three balls are picked up at random, what is the probability that none is yellow?

  1. 3 455
  2. 1 5
  3. 4 5
  4. 44 91
  5. None of these

4677. An urn contains 6 red, 4 blue, 2 green and 3 yellow marbles. If three marbles are picked up at random, what is the probability that 2 are blue and 1 is yellow ? (S.B.I. P.O., 2010)

  1. 3 91
  2. 1 5
  3. 18 455
  4. 7 15
  5. None of these

4678. An urn contains 6 red, 4 blue, 2 green and 3 yellow marbles. If four marbles are picked up at random, what is the probability that 1 is green, 2 are blue and 1 is red ? (S.B.I. P.O., 2011)

  1. 13 35
  2. 24 455
  3. 11 15
  4. 1 13
  5. None of these

4679. An urn contains 6 red, 4 blue, 2 green and 3 yellow marbles. If two marbles are picked up at random, what is the probability that either both are green or both are yellow?

  1. 5 91
  2. 1 35
  3. 1 3
  4. 4 105
  5. None of these

4680. A basket contains 6 blue, 2 red, 4 green and 3 yellow balls. If four balls are picked up at random, what is the probability that 2 are red and 2 are green ?

  1. 4 15
  2. 5 27
  3. 1 3
  4. 2 455
  5. None of these

4681. A basket contains 4 red, 5 blue and 3 green marbles. If three marbles are picked up at random what is the probability that at least one is blue? (S.B.I. P.O., 2010)

  1. 7 12
  2. 37 44
  3. 5 12
  4. 7 44
  5. None of these

4682. An urn contains 6 red, 4 blue, 2 green and 3 yellow marbles. If 4 marbles are picked up at random, what is the probability that at least one of them is blue? (S.B.I. P.O., 2010)

  1. 4 15
  2. 69 91
  3. 11 15
  4. 22 91
  5. None of these

4683. A basket contains 6 blue, 2 red, 4 green and 3 yellow balls. If 5 balls are picked up at random, what is the probability that at least one is blue?

  1. 137 143
  2. 18 455
  3. 9 91
  4. 2 5
  5. None of these

4684. An urn contains 2 red, 3 green and 2 blue balls. If 2 balls are drawn at random, find the probability that no ball is blue. (Railways, 2006)

  1. 5 7
  2. 10 21
  3. 2 7
  4. 11 21
  5. None of these

4685. A box contains 10 black and 10 white balls. What is the probability of drawing 2 balls of the same colour?

  1. 9 19
  2. 9 38
  3. 10 19
  4. 5 19
  5. None of these

4686. A box contains 20 electric bulbs, out of which 4 are defective. Two balls are chosen at random from this box. The probability that at least one of them is defective, is

  1. 4 19
  2. 7 19
  3. 12 19
  4. 21 95
  5. None of these

4687. In a class, there are 15 boys and 10 girls. Three students are selected at random. The probability that the selected students are 2 boys and 1 girl, is:

  1. 21 46
  2. 25 117
  3. 1 50
  4. 3 25
  5. None of these

4688. Four persons are chosen at random from a group of 3 men, 2 women and 4 children. The chance that exactly 2 of them are children, is

  1. 1 9
  2. 1 5
  3. 1 12
  4. 10 21
  5. None of these

4689. Two dice are tossed. The probability that the total score is a prime number is

  1. 1 6
  2. 1 2
  3. 5 12
  4. 7 9
  5. None of these

4690. In a class, 30% of the students offered English, 20% offered Hindi and 10% offered both. If a student is selected at random, what is the probability that he has offered English or Hindi ?

  1. 2 5
  2. 3 5
  3. 3 4
  4. 3 10
  5. None of these

4691. A man and his wife appear in an interview for two vacancies in the same post. The probability of husband’s selection is 1 7 and the probability of wife’s selection is 1 .5 What is the probability that only one of them is selected ?

  1. 4 5
  2. 2 7
  3. 4 7
  4. 8 15
  5. None of these

4692. A speaks truth in 75% cases and B in 80% of the cases. In what percentage of cases are they likely to contradict each other, in narrating the same incident?

  1. 5%
  2. 15%
  3. 35%
  4. 45%
  5. None of these

4693. A speaks truth in 60% cases and B speaks truth in 70% cases. The probability that they will say the same thing while describing a single event, is (Railways, 2006)

  1. 0.54
  2. 0.56
  3. 0.68
  4. 0.94
  5. None of these

4694. A committee of 3 members is to be selected out of 3 men and 2 women. What is the probability that the committee has at least 1 woman?

  1. 1 10
  2. 9 20
  3. 1 20
  4. 9 10
  5. None of these

4695. A bag contains 3 blue, 2 green and 5 red balls. If four balls are picked at random, what is the prob - ability that two are green and two are blue? [DMRC—Customer Relationship Assistant

  1. 1 18
  2. 1 70
  3. 3 5
  4. 1 2

4696. Dev can hit a target 3 times in 6 shorts Pawan can hit the target 2 times in 6 shorts and Lakhan can hit the target 4 times in 4 shorts. What is the probability that at least 2 shorts hit the target [DMRC—Customer Relationship Assistant

  1. 2 3
  2. 1 3
  3. 1 2
  4. None of these

4697. A bag contains 10 mangoes out of which 4 are taken out together. If one of them is found to be good, the probability that other is also good is [DMRC—Train Operator (Station Controller) Exam, 2016]

  1. 1 3
  2. 8 15
  3. 5 18
  4. 2 3

4698. A bag contains 4 red, 5 yellow and 6 pink balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that none of the balls drawn are yellow in colour? [IBPS—Bank PO/MT (Pre.) Exam, 2015]

  1. 1 7
  2. 3 7
  3. 2 7
  4. 5 14
  5. 9 14

4699. A bag contains 6 red balls 11 yellow balls and 5 pink balls. If two balls are drawn at random from the bag. One after another what is the probability that the first ball is red and second ball is yellow. [IBPS—Bank PO (Pre.) Exam, 2015]

  1. 1 14
  2. 2 7
  3. 5 7
  4. 3 14
  5. None of these

4700. A bag contains 4 red balls, 6 blue balls and 8 pink balls. One ball is drawn at random and replace with 3 pink balls. A probability that the first ball drawn was either red or blue in colour and the second ball drawn was pink in colour? [CET—(Maharashtra (MBA) Exam, 2016]

  1. 12/21
  2. 13/17
  3. 11/30
  4. 13/18
  5. None of these

4701. The present worth of ₹ 2310 due 12 2 years hence, the rate of interest being 15% per annum, is

  1. ₹ 1750
  2. ₹ 1680
  3. ₹ 1840
  4. ₹ 1443.75

4702. If the true discount on a sum due 2 years hence at 14% per annum be ₹ 168, the sum due is

  1. ₹ 768
  2. ₹ 968
  3. ₹ 1960
  4. ₹ 2400

4703. The true discount on ₹ 2562 due 4 months hence is ₹ 122. The rate percent is

  1. 12%
  2. 113 %3
  3. 15%
  4. 14%

4704. The true discount on ₹ 1760 due after a certain time at 12% per annum is ₹ 160. The time after which it is due is

  1. 6 months
  2. 8 months
  3. 9 months
  4. 10 months

4705. The true discount on a bill due 9 months hence at 16% per annum is ₹ 189. The amount of the bill is

  1. ₹ 1386
  2. ₹ 1764
  3. ₹ 1575
  4. ₹ 2268

4706. The interest on ₹ 750 for 2 years is the same as the true discount on ₹ 960 due 2 years hence. If the rate of interest is the same in both cases, it is

  1. 12%
  2. 14%
  3. 15%
  4. 216 %3

4707. The simple interest and the true discount on a certain sum for a given time and at a given rate are ₹ 85 and ₹ 80 respectively. The sum is

  1. ₹ 1800
  2. ₹ 1450
  3. ₹ 1360
  4. ₹ 6800

4708. If ₹ 10 be allowed as true discount on a bill of ₹ 110 due at the end of a certain time, then the discount allowed on the same sum due at the end of double the time is

  1. ₹ 20
  2. ₹ 21.81
  3. ₹ 22
  4. ₹ 18.33

4709. Goods were bought for ₹ 600 and sold the same day for ₹ 688.50 at a credit of 9 months and thus gaining 2%. The rate of interest per annum is

  1. 216 %3
  2. 114 %2
  3. 113 %3
  4. 15%

4710. The present worth of ₹ 1404 due in two equal half- yearly instalments at 8% per annum simple interest is

  1. ₹ 1325
  2. ₹ 1300
  3. ₹ 1350
  4. ₹ 1500

4711. A trader owes a merchant ₹ 10,028 due 1 year hence. The trader wants to settle the account after 3 months. If the rate of interest is 12% per annum, how much cash should he pay?

  1. ₹ 9025.20
  2. ₹ 9200
  3. ₹ 9600
  4. ₹ 9560

4712. A man buys a watch for ₹ 1950 in cash and sells it for ₹ 2200 at a credit of 1 year. If the rate of interest is 10% per annum, the man

  1. gains ₹ 55
  2. gains ₹ 50
  3. loses ₹ 30
  4. gains ₹ 30

4713. A man purchased a cow for ₹ 3000 and sold it the same day for ₹ 3600, allowing the buyer a credit of 2 years. If the rate of interest be 10% per annum, then the man has a gain of

  1. 0%
  2. 5%
  3. 7.5%
  4. 10%

4714. A owes B, ₹ 1573 payable 11 2 years hence. Also B owes A, ₹ 1444.50 payable 6 months hence. If they want to settle the account forthwith, keeping 14% as the rate of interest, then who should pay and how much? (M.A.T. 2006; G.B.O., 2007)

  1. A, ₹ 28.50
  2. B, ₹ 37.50
  3. A, ₹ 50
  4. B, ₹ 50

4715. A has to pay ₹ 220 to B after 1 year. B asks A to pay ₹ 110 in cash and defer the payment of ₹ 110 for 2 years. A agrees to it. If the rate of interest be 10% per annum, in this mode of payment

  1. There is no gain or loss to any one
  2. A gains ₹ 7.34
  3. A loses ₹ 7.34
  4. A gains ₹ 11

4716. ₹ 20 is the true discount on ₹ 260 due after a certain time. What will be the true discount on the same sum due after half of the former time, the rate of interest being the same?

  1. ₹ 10
  2. ₹ 10.40
  3. ₹ 15.20
  4. ₹ 13

4717. The true discount on a certain sum of money due 2 2 3 years hence, is ₹ 150 and the simple interest on the same sum for the same time and at the same rate is ₹ 200. Interest rate per annum is [MAT, 2011]

  1. 10%
  2. 12%
  3. 12 1 %2
  4. 8 1 %2

4718. ₹ 20 is the true discount on ₹ 260 due after a certain time. What will be the true discount on the same sum due after half of the former time, the rate of interest being the same? [MAT, 2011]

  1. ₹ 15.20
  2. ₹ 10.40
  3. ₹ 10.83
  4. ₹ 13

4719. The total discount on ₹ 1860 due after a certain time at 5% is ₹ 60. Find the time after which it is due [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 9 months
  2. 10 months
  3. 7 months
  4. 8 months

4720. The difference between simple interest and the true discount on ₹ 2400 due 4 years hence at 5% per annum simple interest is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. ₹ 70
  2. ₹ 30
  3. ₹ 50
  4. ₹ 80

4721. The true discount on a bill of ₹ 540 is ₹ 90. The banker’s discount is

  1. ₹ 60
  2. ₹ 108
  3. ₹ 110
  4. ₹ 112

4722. The present worth of a certain bill due sometime hence is ₹ 800 and the true discount is ₹ 36. The banker’s discount is

  1. ₹ 37
  2. ₹ 37.62
  3. ₹ 34.38
  4. ₹ 38.98

4723. The present worth of a certain sum due sometime hence is ₹ 1600 and the true discount is ₹ 160. The banker’s gain is

  1. ₹ 20
  2. ₹ 24
  3. ₹ 16
  4. ₹ 12

4724. The banker’s gain of a certain sum due 2 years hence at 10% per annum is ₹ 24. The present worth is

  1. ₹ 480
  2. ₹ 520
  3. ₹ 600
  4. ₹ 960

4725. The banker’s gain on a bill due 1 year hence at 12% per annum is ₹ 6. The true discount is

  1. ₹ 72
  2. ₹ 36
  3. ₹ 54
  4. ₹ 50

4726. The banker’s discount on a bill due 4 months hence at 15% is ₹ 420. The true discount is

  1. ₹ 400
  2. ₹ 360
  3. ₹ 480
  4. ₹ 320

4727. The banker’s gain on a sum due 3 years hence at 12% per annum is ₹ 270. The banker’s discount is

  1. ₹ 960
  2. ₹ 840
  3. ₹ 1020
  4. ₹ 760

4728. The present worth of a sum due sometime hence is ₹ 576 and the banker’s gain is ₹ 16. The true discount is

  1. ₹ 36
  2. ₹ 72
  3. ₹ 48
  4. ₹ 96

4729. The banker’s discount on ₹ 1600 at 15% per annum is the same as true discount on ₹ 1680 for the same time and at the same rate. The time is

  1. 3 months
  2. 4 months
  3. 6 months
  4. 8 months

4730. The banker’s discount on a sum of money for 11 2 years is ₹ 558 and the true discount on the same sum for 2 years is ₹ 600. The rate percent is

  1. 10%
  2. 13%
  3. 12%
  4. 15%

4731. The banker’s discount of a certain sum of money is ₹ 72 and the true discount on the same sum for the same time is ₹ 60. The sum due is

  1. ₹ 360
  2. ₹ 432
  3. ₹ 540
  4. ₹ 1080

4732. The banker’s discount on a certain sum due 2 years hence is 11 10 of the true discount. The rate percent is (M.A.T., 2005)

  1. 11%
  2. 10%
  3. 5%
  4. 5.5%

4733. The banker’s gain on a certain sum due 11 2 years hence is 3 25 of the banker’s discount. The rate percent is :

  1. 15%5
  2. 19%9
  3. 18%8
  4. 16%6

4734. The angle of elevation of the sun, when the length of the shadow of a tree is 3 times the height of the tree, is (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 30°
  2. 45°
  3. 60°
  4. 90°

4735. From a point P on a level ground, the angle of elevation of the top of a tower is 30°. If the tower is 100 m high, the distance of point P from the foot of the tower is (R.R.B., 2006)

  1. 149 m
  2. 156 m
  3. 173 m
  4. 200 m

4736. The angle of elevation of a ladder leaning against a wall is 60° and the foot of the ladder is 4.6 m away from the wall. The length of the ladder is :

  1. 2.3 m
  2. 4.6 m
  3. 7.8 m
  4. 9.2 m

4737. An observer 1.6 m tall is 20 3 m away from a tower. The angle of elevation from his eye to the top of the tower is 30°. The height of the tower is :

  1. 21.6 m
  2. 23.2 m
  3. 24.72 m
  4. None of these

4738. Two ships are sailing in the sea on the two sides of a lighthouse. The angles of elevation of the top of the lighthouse as observed from the two ships are 30° and 45° respectively. If the lighthouse is 100 m high, the distance between the two ships is

  1. 173 m
  2. 200 m
  3. 273 m
  4. 300 m

4739. A man standing at a point P is watching the top of a tower, which makes an angle of elevation of 30° with the man’s eye. The man walks some distance towards the tower to watch its top and the angle of elevation becomes 60°. What is the distance between the base of the tower and the point P?

  1. 4 3 units
  2. 8 units
  3. 12 units
  4. Data inadequate
  5. None of these

4740. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a certain poi nt is 30°. If the observer moves 20 m towards the tower, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower increases by 15°. The height of the tower is (S.S.C., 2005)

  1. 17.3 m
  2. 21.9 m
  3. 27.3 m
  4. 30 m

4741. A man is watching from the top of a tower a boat speeding away from the tower. The boat makes an angle of depression of 45° with the man’s eye when at a distance of 60 metres from the tower. After 5 seconds, the angle of depression becomes 30°. What is the approximate speed of the boat, assuming that it is running in still water?

  1. 32 kmph
  2. 36 kmph
  3. 38 kmph
  4. 40 kmph
  5. 42 kmph

4742. On the same side of a tower, two objects are located. Observed from the top of the tower, their angles of depression are 45° and 60°. If the height of the tower is 150 m, the distance between the objects is

  1. 63.5 m
  2. 76.9 m
  3. 86.7 m
  4. 90 m

4743. A man on the top of a vertical observation tower observes a car moving at a uniform speed coming directly towards it. If it takes 12 minutes for the angle of depression to change from 30° to 45°, how soon after this will the car reach the observation tower? (R.R.B., 2008)

  1. 14 min. 35 sec.
  2. 15 min. 49 sec.
  3. 16 min. 23 sec.
  4. 18 min. 5 sec.

4744. The top of a 15 metre high tower makes an angle of elevation of 60° with the bottom of an electric pole and angle of elevation of 30° with the top of the pole. What is the height of the electric pole? (R.R.B., 2009)

  1. 5 metres
  2. 8 metres
  3. 10 metres
  4. 12 metres
  5. None of these

4745. The angle of depression of a point situated at a distance of 70m from the base of a tower is 60º. The height of the tower is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 35 3 m
  2. 70 3 m
  3. 70 3 3 m
  4. 70 m

4746. TF is a tower with F on the ground. The angle of elevation of T from A is xº such that tan 2 5x°= and AF = 200m. The angle of elevation of T from a nearer point B is yº with BF = 80m. The value of yº is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 75º
  2. 45º
  3. 60º
  4. 30º

4747. A boy is standing at the top of the tower and another boy is at the ground at some distance from the foot of the tower, then the angle of elevation and depression between the boys when both look at each other will be [CLAT, 2016]

  1. Equal
  2. Angle of elevation will be greater
  3. Cannot be predicted for relation
  4. Angle of depression will be greater

4748. The angles of elevation of the top of a tower from two points P and Q at distances m2 and n2 respectively, from the base and in the same straight line with it are complementary. The height of the tower is [CDS, 2016]

  1. ( mn)1/2
  2. mn1/2
  3. m1/2n
  4. mn

4749. The angle of elevation of a cloud from a point 200 m above a lake is 30º and the angle of depression of its reflection in the lake is 60º. The height of the cloud is [CDS, 2016]

  1. 200 m
  2. 300 m
  3. 400 m
  4. 600 m

4750. From the top of a tower, the angles of depression of two objects P and Q (situated on the ground on the same side of the tower) separated at a distance of ( )33− m are 45º and 60º respectively. The height of the tower is [CDS, 2016]

  1. 200 m
  2. 250 m
  3. 300 m
  4. None of these

4751. If a 30 m ladder is placed against a 15 m wall such that it just reaches the top of the wall, then the elevation of the wall is equal to [DMRC—Customer Relationship Assistant

  1. 45º
  2. 30º
  3. 60º
  4. 50º

4752. 3, 5, 7, 12, 17, 19

  1. 19
  2. 17
  3. 13
  4. 12

4753. 10, 14, 16, 18, 21, 24, 26

  1. 26
  2. 24
  3. 21
  4. 18

4754. 3, 5, 9, 11, 14, 17, 21

  1. 21
  2. 17
  3. 14
  4. 9

4755. 1, 4, 9, 16, 23, 25, 36

  1. 9
  2. 23
  3. 25
  4. 36

4756. 6, 9, 15, 21, 24, 28, 30

  1. 28
  2. 21
  3. 24
  4. 30

4757. 41, 43, 47, 53, 61, 71, 73, 81

  1. 61
  2. 71
  3. 73
  4. 81

4758. 16, 25, 36, 72, 144, 196, 225

  1. 36
  2. 72
  3. 196
  4. 225

4759. 10, 25, 45, 54, 60, 75, 80

  1. 10
  2. 45
  3. 54
  4. 75

4760. 1, 4, 9, 16, 20, 36, 49

  1. 1
  2. 9
  3. 20
  4. 49

4761. 8, 27, 64, 100, 125, 216, 343

  1. 27
  2. 100
  3. 125
  4. 343

4762. 1, 5, 14, 30, 50, 55, 91

  1. 5
  2. 50
  3. 55
  4. 91

4763. 385, 462, 572, 396, 427, 671, 264

  1. 385
  2. 427
  3. 671
  4. 264

4764. 835, 734, 642, 751, 853, 981, 532

  1. 751
  2. 853
  3. 981
  4. 532 877 35 Odd Man Out and Series

4765. 331, 482, 551, 263, 383, 242, 111

  1. 263
  2. 383
  3. 242
  4. 111

4766. 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, 64

  1. 50
  2. 26
  3. 37
  4. 64

4767. 19, 28, 39, 52, 67, 84, 102

  1. 52
  2. 102
  3. 84
  4. 67

4768. 253, 136, 352, 460, 324, 631, 244

  1. 136
  2. 324
  3. 352
  4. 631

4769. 2, 5, 10, 50, 500, 5000

  1. 0
  2. 5
  3. 10
  4. 5000

4770. 4, 5, 7, 10, 14, 18, 25, 32

  1. 7
  2. 14
  3. 18
  4. 33

4771. 22, 33, 66, 99, 121, 279, 594

  1. 33
  2. 121
  3. 279
  4. 594

4772. 36, 54, 18, 27, 9, 18.5, 4.5

  1. 4.5
  2. 18.5
  3. 54
  4. 18

4773. 582, 605, 588, 611, 634, 617, 600

  1. 634
  2. 611
  3. 605
  4. 600

4774. 46080, 3840, 384, 48, 24, 2, 1

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 24
  4. 384

4775. 1, 8, 27, 64, 124, 216, 343

  1. 8
  2. 27
  3. 64
  4. 124

4776. 5, 16, 6, 16, 7, 16, 9

  1. 9
  2. 7
  3. 6
  4. None of these

4777. 6, 13, 18, 25, 30, 37, 40

  1. 25
  2. 30
  3. 37
  4. 40

4778. 56, 72, 90, 110, 132, 150

  1. 72
  2. 110
  3. 132
  4. 150

4779. 8, 13, 21, 32, 47, 63, 83

  1. 47
  2. 63
  3. 32
  4. 83

4780. 25, 36, 49, 81, 121, 169, 225

  1. 36
  2. 49
  3. 121
  4. 169

4781. 1, 2, 6, 15, 31, 56, 91

  1. 31
  2. 91
  3. 56
  4. 15

4782. 52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16

  1. 27
  2. 34
  3. 43
  4. 48

4783. 105, 85, 60, 30, 0, – 45, – 90

  1. 0
  2. 85
  3. – 45
  4. 60

4784. 4, 6, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12

  1. 10
  2. 11
  3. 12
  4. 9

4785. 125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165

  1. 130
  2. 142
  3. 153
  4. 165

4786. 16, 36, 64, 81, 100, 144, 190

  1. 81
  2. 100
  3. 190
  4. 36

4787. 125, 123, 120, 115, 108, 100, 84

  1. 123
  2. 115
  3. 100
  4. 84

4788. 3, 10, 21, 36, 55, 70, 105

  1. 105
  2. 70
  3. 36
  4. 55

4789. 4, 9, 19, 39, 79, 160, 319

  1. 319
  2. 160
  3. 79
  4. 39

4790. 10, 14, 28, 32, 64, 68, 132

  1. 32
  2. 68
  3. 132
  4. 28

4791. 8, 27, 125, 343, 1331

  1. 1331
  2. 343
  3. 125
  4. None of these

4792. 4, – 8, 16, – 32, 64, (.....)

  1. 128
  2. – 128
  3. 192
  4. – 192

4793. 5, 10, 13, 26, 29, 58, 61, (.....)

  1. 122
  2. 64
  3. 125
  4. 128

4794. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, (.....)

  1. 54
  2. 56
  3. 164
  4. 81

4795. 1, 8, 27, 64, 125, 216, (.....)

  1. 354
  2. 343
  3. 392
  4. 245

4796. 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, (.....)

  1. 43
  2. 47
  3. 53
  4. 51

4797. 16, 33, 65, 131, 261, (.....)

  1. 523
  2. 521
  3. 613
  4. 721

4798. 3, 7, 6, 5, 9, 3, 12, 1, 15, (.....)

  1. 18
  2. 13
  3. – 1
  4. 3

4799. 15, 31, 63, 127, 255, (.....)

  1. 513
  2. 511
  3. 517
  4. 523

4800. 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, (.....)

  1. 60
  2. 64
  3. 72
  4. 70

4801. 8, 24, 12, 36, 18, 54, (.....)

  1. 27
  2. 108
  3. 68
  4. 72

4802. 165, 195, 255,285, 345, (.....)

  1. 375
  2. 420
  3. 435
  4. 390

4803. 7, 26, 63, 124, 215, 342, (.....)

  1. 481
  2. 511
  3. 391
  4. 421

4804. 2, 4, 12, 48, 240, (.....)

  1. 960
  2. 1440
  3. 1080
  4. 1920

4805. 8, 7, 11, 12, 14, 17, 17, 22, (.....)

  1. 27
  2. 20
  3. 22
  4. 24

4806. 10, 5, 13, 10, 16, 20, 19, (.....)

  1. 22
  2. 40
  3. 38
  4. 23

4807. 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, (.....), 256

  1. 148
  2. 128
  3. 154
  4. 164

4808. 71, 76, 69, 74, 67, 72, (.....)

  1. 77
  2. 65
  3. 80
  4. 76

4809. 9, 12, 11, 14, 13, (.....), 15

  1. 12
  2. 16
  3. 10
  4. 17

4810. Complete the series : 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, .....

  1. 76
  2. 74
  3. 75
  4. None of these

4811. 3, 8, 15, 24, 34, 48, 63

  1. 15
  2. 24
  3. 34
  4. 48
  5. 63

4812. 2, 9, 28, 65, 126, 216, 344

  1. 2
  2. 28
  3. 65
  4. 126
  5. 216

4813. 5, 15, 30, 135, 405, 1215, 3645

  1. 3645
  2. 1215
  3. 405
  4. 30
  5. 15

4814. 125, 106, 88, 76, 65, 58, 53

  1. 125
  2. 106
  3. 88
  4. 76
  5. 65

4815. 190, 166, 145, 128, 112, 100, 91

  1. 100
  2. 166
  3. 145
  4. 128
  5. 112

4816. 1, 1, 2, 6, 24, 96, 720

  1. 720
  2. 96
  3. 24
  4. 6
  5. 2

4817. 40960, 10240, 2560, 640, 200, 40, 10

  1. 640
  2. 40
  3. 200
  4. 2560
  5. 10240

4818. 64, 71, 80, 91, 104, 119, 135, 155

  1. 71
  2. 80
  3. 104
  4. 119
  5. 135

4819. 7, 8, 18, 57, 228, 1165, 6996

  1. 8
  2. 18
  3. 57
  4. 228
  5. 1165

4820. 3, 7, 15, 27, 63, 127, 255

  1. 7
  2. 15
  3. 27
  4. 63
  5. 127

4821. 19, 26, 33, 46, 59, 74, 91

  1. 26
  2. 33
  3. 46
  4. 59
  5. 74

4822. 2880, 480, 92, 24, 8, 4, 4

  1. 480
  2. 92
  3. 24
  4. 8
  5. 4

4823. 445, 221, 109, 46, 25, 11, 4

  1. 221
  2. 109
  3. 46
  4. 25
  5. 11

4824. 3, 7, 15, 39, 63, 127, 255, 511

  1. 7
  2. 15
  3. 39
  4. 63
  5. 127

4825. 1, 3, 10, 21, 64, 129, 356, 777

  1. 10
  2. 21
  3. 64
  4. 129
  5. 356

4826. 196, 169, 144, 121, 100, 80, 64

  1. 169
  2. 144
  3. 121
  4. 100
  5. 80

4827. 6, 12, 48, 100, 384, 768, 3072

  1. 768
  2. 384
  3. 100
  4. 48
  5. 12

4828. 10, 26, 74, 218, 654, 1946, 5834

  1. 26
  2. 74
  3. 218
  4. 654
  5. 1946

4829. 15, 16, 34, 105, 424, 2124, 12576

  1. 16
  2. 34
  3. 105
  4. 424
  5. 2124

4830. 2807, 1400, 697, 347, 171, 84, 41, 20

  1. 697
  2. 347
  3. 171
  4. 84
  5. 41

4831. 32, 36, 41, 61, 86, 122, 171, 235

  1. 41
  2. 61
  3. 86
  4. 122
  5. 171

4832. 3, 4, 9, 22.5, 67.5, 202.5, 810

  1. 4
  2. 9
  3. 22.5
  4. 67.5
  5. 202.5

4833. 1, 2, 8, 33, 148, 760, 4626

  1. 2
  2. 8
  3. 33
  4. 148
  5. 760

4834. 3, 8, 18, 46, 100, 210, 432

  1. 8
  2. 18
  3. 46
  4. 100
  5. 210

4835. 789, 645, 545, 481, 440, 429, 425

  1. 645
  2. 545
  3. 481
  4. 440
  5. 429

4836. 1050, 510, 242, 106, 46, 16, 3

  1. 510
  2. 242
  3. 106
  4. 46
  5. 16

4837. 5, 8, 20, 42, 124, 246, 736

  1. 8
  2. 20
  3. 42
  4. 124
  5. 246

4838. 2, 3, 6, 15, 52.5, 157.5, 630

  1. 3
  2. 6
  3. 15
  4. 52.5
  5. 157.5

4839. 888, 440, 216, 104, 48, 22, 6

  1. 440
  2. 216
  3. 104
  4. 48
  5. 22

4840. 4, 5, 15, 49, 201, 1011, 6073

  1. 5
  2. 15
  3. 49
  4. 201
  5. 1011

4841. Complete the following series. 9, 11, 15, 23, 39, ? [DMRC—Customer Relationship Assistant

  1. 71
  2. 64
  3. 42
  4. 56

4842. Find out the wrong number in a given series. 644, 328, 164, 84, 44, 24, 14 [UPSSC—Lower Subordinate (Pre.) Exam, 2016]

  1. 328
  2. 164
  3. 84
  4. 44

4843. 18000, 3600, 720, 144.2, 28.8, 5.76 [DMRC—Train Operator (Station controller), Exam 2016]

  1. 5.76
  2. 720
  3. 144.2
  4. 28.8

4844. What will be come in place of number ? in the following series? 155 151 144 132 133? [IBPS Bank PO/MT (Pre.) Exam, 2015]

  1. 89
  2. 71
  3. 85
  4. 92
  5. 60

4845. What will be come in place of question mark in the given series. 264 262 271 243 308 ? [IBPS—Bank PO (Pre) Exam, 2015]

  1. 216
  2. 163
  3. 194
  4. 205
  5. 182

4846. 48, 23, ?, 4.25, 1.125

  1. 10.5
  2. 10
  3. 2.5
  4. 11
  5. None of these

4847. 13 6 8 13.5 29 75 228 [CET—Maharashtra (MBA) Exam, 2016]

  1. 75
  2. 29
  3. 5
  4. 6
  5. 8

4848. In which years was in zones the difference between the appeared candidates and qualified candidates the second lowest ?

  1. 2005
  2. 2007
  3. 2008
  4. 2009
  5. 2010

4849. The number of candidates who qualified the test from zone R in the year 2010 was approximately what per - centage of the number of candidates who appeared from zone Q in the year 2008 ?

  1. 152
  2. 147
  3. 142
  4. 132
  5. 137

4850. What was the average number of candidates appeared from zone T over all the years together ?

  1. 810
  2. 815
  3. 825
  4. 805
  5. 820

4851. What was the ratio of the number of candidates appeared from zone P in the year 2005 to the number of candidates qualified from zone S in the year 2007 ?

  1. 4 : 7
  2. 4 : 9
  3. 9 : 4
  4. 8 : 13
  5. None of these

4852. From which zone was the total number of candidates who qualified the test, the second highest in the year ?

  1. P
  2. Q
  3. R
  4. S
  5. T 887 36 Tabulation Ex. 2. Directions (Questions 6 to 10 ): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow:

4853. What was the approximate per cent increase in the semester fees of B.Ed course in the year 2007 as compared to the previous year ?

  1. 26 %
  2. 30 %
  3. 20 %
  4. 16 %
  5. 10 %

4854. What was the average semester fee charged for M.Sc. course over all the years together ?

  1. ₹ 12700
  2. ₹ 12600
  3. ₹ 12060
  4. ₹ 12070
  5. ₹ 13140

4855. What was the difference between the total semester fee charged for Diploma course over the years together and the fee charged for B.Tech Course in the year 2009 ?

  1. ₹ 8500
  2. ₹ 8000
  3. ₹ 6500
  4. ₹ 7000
  5. None of these

4856. The semester fee charged for M.Phil course in the year 2008 was approximately what percentage of the semester fee charged for M.Sc course in the year 2009 ?

  1. 67
  2. 84
  3. 80
  4. 76
  5. 72

4857. What was the total semester fee charged for all the courses together in the year 2006 ?

  1. ₹ 42500
  2. ₹ 41500
  3. ₹ 41600
  4. ₹ 42200
  5. none of these Ex. 3. Directions (Questions 11 to 15 ): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below: Number (N) of Candidates (In lakhs) Appearing For An Entrance Examination From Six Different States And The Percentage (P) of Candidates Clearing the Same Over the Years

4858. What is the ratio of the total number of candidates clearing the entrance examination from State B in the year 2004 to that of those clearing the entrance examination from State C in the same year ?

  1. 221 : 148
  2. 218 : 143
  3. 148 : 221
  4. 143 : 218
  5. None of these

4859. In which year did the highest number of candidates clear the entrance exam from State D ?

  1. 2008
  2. 2006
  3. 2009
  4. 2007
  5. None of these

4860. What is the number of candidates not clearing the entrance exam from State A in the year 2007 ?

  1. 186820
  2. 11682
  3. 1868200
  4. 116820
  5. None of these

4861. What is the total number of candidates clearing the entrance examination from States E and F together in the year 2006 ?

  1. 16160
  2. 110660
  3. 11066
  4. 1106600
  5. None of these

4862. What is the average number of candidates appearing for the entrance exam from State D in the years 2007, 2008 and 2009 together ?

  1. 21907 3
  2. 118666 3
  3. 11866 3
  4. 2190666 3
  5. None of these Ex. 4. Directions (Questions 16 to 20 ): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow:

4863. What is the ratio of the number of candidates failing the exam from City D to that of those failing the exam from City A ?

  1. 289 : 42
  2. 42 : 289
  3. 227 : 50
  4. 50 : 227
  5. None of these

4864. The number of candidates appearing for the exam from City C is what per cent of the number of candidates appearing for the exam from City B ? (rounded off to nearest integer)

  1. 27 %
  2. 34 %
  3. 42 %
  4. 21 %
  5. 38 %

4865. The number of candidates passing the examination from City F is what per cent of the total number of can - didates appearing from all the cities together ? (rounded off to two digits after the decimal)

  1. 12.93%
  2. 14.46%
  3. 10.84%
  4. 11.37%
  5. None of these

4866. Which city has the highest number of students failing the entrance exam ?

  1. F
  2. C
  3. B
  4. D
  5. None of these

4867. What is the number of candidates passing the exam from City E ?

  1. 13000
  2. 1110000
  3. 113000
  4. 11000
  5. None of these Ex. 5. Directions (Questions 21 to 25 ): Study the table given below and answer the questions that follow:

4868. What is the respective ratio of the number of females in Production department to the number of females in the Marketing department ?

  1. 22 : 23
  2. 35 : 33
  3. 23 : 22
  4. 33 : 35
  5. None of these

4869. What is the ratio of the number of females in the HR and Accounts departments together to the number of males in the same departments together?

  1. 311 : 269
  2. 268 : 319
  3. 269 : 311
  4. 319 : 268
  5. None of these

4870. What is the total number of employees in all the departments together?

  1. 3260
  2. 3310
  3. 3140
  4. 3020
  5. None of these

4871. The total number of employees in the HR department forms approximately what per cent of the total number of employees in the Accounts department?

  1. 149%
  2. 178%
  3. 157%
  4. 164%
  5. 137%

4872. What is the total number of males in the IT and Customer Service departments together?

  1. 687
  2. 678
  3. 768
  4. 876
  5. None of these

4873. What is the approximate percentage decrease in the number of boys in School D in the year 2008 as compared to that in the previous year ?

  1. 17%
  2. 12%
  3. 9%
  4. 5%
  5. 23%

4874. The number of girls in School B in the year 2009 is approximately what per cent of the total number of stu - dents in School E in the year 2006 ?

  1. 46%
  2. 52%
  3. 70%
  4. 58%
  5. 65%

4875. What is the average number of girls in School A in all the years taken together ?

  1. 760
  2. 800
  3. 860
  4. 600
  5. None of these

4876. What is the ratio of the number of boys in School C in the year 2009 to the number of girls in School A in the year 2009 ?

  1. 29 : 41
  2. 36 : 11
  3. 29 : 43
  4. 36 : 13
  5. None of these

4877. In which year is the total number of students the third highest in School E ?

  1. 2006
  2. 2007
  3. 2008
  4. 2005
  5. 2010

4878. What is the approximate percentage increase in the production of Company A (in tonnes) from the year 2009 to the production of Company A (in tonnes) in the year 2010 ?

  1. 18 %
  2. 38 %
  3. 23 %
  4. 27 %
  5. 32 %

4879. The sales of Company A in the year 2009 was approximately what per cent of the production of Company A in the same year ?

  1. 65 %
  2. 73 %
  3. 79 %
  4. 83 %
  5. 69 %

4880. What is the average production of Company B (in tonnes) from the year 2006 to the year 2011?

  1. 574
  2. 649
  3. 675
  4. 593
  5. 618

4881. What is the ratio of the total production (in tonnes) of Company A to the total sales (in tonnes) of Company A ?

  1. 81 : 64
  2. 64 : 55
  3. 71 : 81
  4. 71 : 55
  5. 81 : 55

4882. What is the ratio of production of Company B (in tonnes) in the year 2006 to production of Company B (in tonnes) in the year 2008 ?

  1. 2 : 5
  2. 4 : 5
  3. 3 : 4
  4. 3 : 5
  5. 1 : 4

4883. In which of the following years was the total number of participants

  1. 2005
  2. 2006
  3. 2007
  4. 2008
  5. None of these

4884. What was the average number of female athletes who participated from Country B over all the years together?

  1. 1200
  2. 400
  3. 600
  4. 1800
  5. 3600

4885. What was the approximate percentage decrease in the number of male athletes who participated from Country C in the year 2007 as compared to the previous year ?

  1. 21%
  2. 30%
  3. 35%
  4. 39%
  5. 25%

4886. The number of female athletes who participated from Country E in the year 2009 was approximately what percentage of the total number of athletes who participated from Country B in the year 2008 ?

  1. 40%
  2. 46%
  3. 50%
  4. 56%
  5. 60%

4887. In which of the following countries is the difference between the number of male and female participants second highest in the year 2006?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. E

4888. The ratio between the total expenditure on Taxes for all the years and the total expenditure on Fuel and Transport for all the years respectively, is approximately :

  1. 4 : 7
  2. 10 : 13
  3. 5 : 6
  4. 5 : 8
  5. 2 : 3

4889. The total expenditure of the company over these items during the year 2009 is

  1. ₹ 544.44 lakhs
  2. ₹ 501.11 lakhs
  3. ₹ 446.46 lakhs
  4. ₹ 478.87 lakhs
  5. ₹ 612.13 lakhs

4890. What is the average amount of interest per year which the company had to pay during this period ?

  1. ₹ 32.43 lakhs
  2. ₹ 33.72 lakhs
  3. ₹ 34.18 lakhs
  4. ₹ 35.69 lakhs
  5. ₹ 36.66 lakhs

4891. Total expenditure on all these items in 2007 was approximately what per cent of the total expenditure in 2011 ?

  1. 62 %
  2. 66 %
  3. 69 %
  4. 71 %
  5. 73 %

4892. The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period is approximately what per cent of the total amount of salary paid during this period ?

  1. 0.1 %
  2. 0.5 %
  3. 1 %
  4. 1.25 %
  5. 1.11 %

4893. In the year 2007, which state had the lowest percentage of candidates selected over the candidates appeared ?

  1. Delhi
  2. H.P.
  3. U.P.
  4. Punjab
  5. Haryana

4894. The percentage of candidates qualified from Punjab over those appeared from Punjab is highest in the year :

  1. 2007
  2. 2008
  3. 2009
  4. 2010
  5. 2011

4895. The percentage of candidates selected from U.P. over those qualified from U.P. is highest in the year :

  1. 2007
  2. 2008
  3. 2009
  4. 2010
  5. 2011

4896. The number of candidates selected from Haryana during the period under review is approximately what percent of the number selected from Delhi during this period ?

  1. 79.5%
  2. 81%
  3. 84.5%
  4. 88.5%
  5. 92.5%

4897. For which state the average number of candidates selected over the years is the maximum ?

  1. Delhi
  2. H.P.
  3. U.P.
  4. Punjab
  5. Haryana

4898. What is the approximate percentage of total number of candidates selected to the total number of candidates qualified for all the five states together during the year 2009 ?

  1. 10%
  2. 11%
  3. 12%
  4. 13%
  5. 14%

4899. What was the aggregate of marks obtained by Sajal in all the six subjects ?

  1. 409
  2. 419
  3. 429
  4. 439
  5. 449

4900. What is the overall percentage of Tarun ?

  1. 52.5%
  2. 55%
  3. 60%
  4. 63%
  5. 64.5%

4901. What are the average marks obtained by all the seven students in Physics ? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)

  1. 77.26
  2. 89.14
  3. 91.37
  4. 96.11
  5. 103.21

4902. The number of students who obtained 60% and above marks in all the subjects is :

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. None
  5. None of these

4903. In which subject is the overall percentage the best ?

  1. History
  2. Maths
  3. Physics
  4. Chemistry
  5. Geography

4904. What will be the number of females above poverty line in the State S if it is known that the population of State S is 7 million ?

  1. 3 million
  2. 2.43 million
  3. 1.33 million
  4. 5.7 million
  5. 1.61 million

4905. If the male population above poverty line for State R is 1.9 million, then the total population of State R is :

  1. 4.5 million
  2. 4.85 million
  3. 5.35 million
  4. 6.25 million
  5. 7.6 million

4906. What will be the male population above poverty line for State P if the female population below poverty line for State P is 2.1 million ?

  1. 2.1 million
  2. 2.3 million
  3. 2.7 million
  4. 3.3 million
  5. 3.4 million

4907. If the population of males below poverty line for State Q is 2.4 million and that for State T is 6 million, then the total populations of states Q and T are in the ratio :

  1. 1 : 3
  2. 2 : 5
  3. 3 : 7
  4. 4 : 9
  5. 5 : 12

4908. In July, if 40% of the Gross revenue of the magazine was collected from advertisement, what was the amount of Gross revenue collected from advertisement in that particular month? [IBPS—RRB (Off. Gr. ‘B’) Exam, 2015]

  1. ₹ 148000
  2. ₹ 164000
  3. ₹ 144000
  4. ₹ 172000
  5. ₹ 156000

4909. In March, if Net revenue of the magazine was 85% of its Gross revenue, what was the amount allocated for discount and others? [IBPS—RRB (Off. Gr. ‘B’) Exam, 2015]

  1. ₹ 23200
  2. ₹ 24200
  3. ₹ 22400
  4. ₹ 22800
  5. ₹ 21600

4910. Amount allocated for commission in March is what percent less than the amount allocated for commission in July? [IBPS—RRB (Off. Gr. ‘B’) Exam, 2015]

  1. 24%
  2. 18%
  3. 28%
  4. 32%
  5. 22%

4911. What is the difference between Net revenue of the magazine in April and its Gross revenue in June? [IBPS—RRB (Off. Gr. ‘B’) Exam, 2015]

  1. ₹ 132000
  2. ₹ 126000
  3. ₹ 118000
  4. ₹ 124000
  5. ₹ 136000

4912. In May, the respective ratio of amount allocated for commission and amount allocated for discount and others was 4 : 3. What was the Gross revenue of the magazine in May? [IBPS—RRB (Off. Gr. ‘B’) Exam, 2015]

  1. ₹ 424000
  2. ₹ 440000
  3. ₹ 380000
  4. ₹ 420000
  5. ₹ 430000

4913. The respective ratio between total number of balls faced by D and that by F in the tournament is 3 : 4. Total number of runs scored by F in the tournament is what percent more than the total runs scored by D in the tournament? [RBI Gr. ‘B’ (Phase – I) Exam, 2015]

  1. 22 2 9
  2. 32 4 9
  3. 18 8 9
  4. 24 4 9
  5. 28 2 9

4914. If the runs scored by E in last 3 matches of the tournament are not considered, his average runs scored in the tournament will decrease by 9. If the runs scored by E in the 26th and 27th match are below 128 and no two scores among these 3 scores are equal, what are the minimum possible runs scored by E in the 28th match? [RBI Gr. ‘B’ (Phase – I) Exam, 2015]

  1. 137
  2. 135
  3. 141
  4. 120.31
  5. 139

4915. In the tournament, the total number of balls faced by batsman A is 74 less than the total number of runs scored by him. What is the average run scored by batsman A in the tournament? [RBI Gr. ‘B’ (Phase – I) Exam, 2015]

  1. 42.5
  2. 39.5
  3. 38
  4. 44
  5. 40.5

4916. Batsman B faced equal number of balls in first 10 matches he played in the tournament and last 10 matches he played in the tournament. If his strike rate in first 10 matches and last 10 matches of the tournament are 120 and 158 respectively, what is the total number of balls faced by him in the tournament? [RBI Gr. ‘B’ (Phase – I) Exam, 2015]

  1. 1150
  2. 1400
  3. 1200
  4. 1446.42
  5. 1500

4917. What is the number of matches played by batsman C in the tournament? [RBI Gr. ‘B’ (Phase – I) Exam, 2015]

  1. 10
  2. 16
  3. 12
  4. 18
  5. 8

4918. What was the profit of all the countries together in the year 2002 if the total imports of all the countries to - gether was ₹ 385 crore? [IBPS—Bank Spl. Officer (IT) Exam, 2015]

  1. ₹ 125 crore
  2. ₹ 160 crore
  3. ₹ 280 crore
  4. ₹ 240 crore
  5. ₹ 200 crore

4919. If the ratio of export to import in country S and country U is 1 : 2 and 4 : 1 in the year 1998, then what is the total import of country U and S together in that particular years? (In ₹ crore) [IBPS—Bank Spl. Officer (IT) Exam, 2015]

  1. 52
  2. 92
  3. 96
  4. 65
  5. 44

4920. If the export of country P in the year 2003 is 20% more than the total export of country Q in 2001 and the export of country T in 2000 together, then what was the profit of P in the year 2003 if its import was ₹ 92 crore for that year? (in ₹ crore) [IBPS—Bank Spl. Officer (IT) Exam, 2015]

  1. 10
  2. 58
  3. 22
  4. 46
  5. 34

4921. By what per cent is the average export of country T over all the given years more than the average export of country R over all the given years? [IBPS—Bank Spl. Officer (IT) Exam, 2015]

  1. 13 7 %11
  2. 9 1 %11
  3. 13 5 %7
  4. 4 7 %11
  5. 12 1 %7

4922. What is the percentage increase in the export of all the countries together during the year 1999 to 2001? (rounded off to two digits after decimal) [IBPS—Bank Spl. Officer (IT) Exam, 2015]

  1. 88.99%
  2. 72.39%
  3. 38.89%
  4. 62.89%
  5. 40.60%

4923. What is the respective ratio between total number of pages printed by printer B on Wednesday and Thursday together and total number of pages printed by printer C on Monday and Friday together? [United India Insurance Co. Ltd. Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 7 : 9
  2. 9 : 11
  3. 11 : 13
  4. 7 : 11
  5. 9 : 11

4924. What is the difference between total number of pages printed by printers C and D together on Tuesday and total number of pages printed by printers A and E together on Thursday? [United India Insurance Co. Ltd. Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 153
  2. 149
  3. 161
  4. 151
  5. 157

4925. The number of pages printed by printer A on Wednesday is what percent of the number of pages printed by printer D on Friday? [United India Insurance Co. Ltd. Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 65 1 8
  2. 69 1 4
  3. 71 7 8
  4. 75 3 8
  5. 65 1 4

4926. What is the average number of pages printed by printer B on Monday, Tuesday and Friday? [United India Insurance Co. Ltd. Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 138
  2. 143
  3. 151
  4. 139
  5. 147

4927. The number of pages printed by printer E on Monday is what percent more than the number of pages printed by printer C on Thursday? [United India Insurance Co. Ltd. Assistant (Online) Exam, 2015]

  1. 60 1 3
  2. 51 2 3
  3. 45 2 3
  4. 53 1 3
  5. 55 1 3

4928. What is the difference between the number of academic books published by publishing house M and P? [IDBI Bank

  1. 450
  2. 640
  3. 540
  4. 504
  5. None of these

4929. How many books were given to each distributor by publisher Q if each publisher gets equal number of books? [IDBI Bank

  1. 1806
  2. 1068
  3. 1608
  4. 1308
  5. None of these

4930. What is the average number of non-academic books published by publishers R and S? [IDBI Bank

  1. 18750
  2. 18850
  3. 19950
  4. 18950
  5. 19990

4931. If the total number of books published by publishers P, Q and R is increased by 30% and the total number of books published by remaining publishers be decreased by 20%, what will be the new average of books published by all the publishers? [IDBI Bank

  1. 33418
  2. 33318
  3. 32518
  4. 33618
  5. None of these

4932. What is the total number of books distributed by publishers O and Q? [IDBI Bank

  1. 26702
  2. 27324
  3. 55026
  4. 54026
  5. None of these

4933. The average export of pearls for the given period (in crores ₹) was

  1. 8.7
  2. 8.73
  3. 9.73
  4. 8.85

4934. In which year was there maximum percentage increase in export of pearls to that in the previous year?

  1. 2002
  2. 2007
  3. 2005
  4. 2004

4935. In how many years was the export above average for the given period?

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 3

4936. In which of the following pairs of years was the average export of pearls around ₹ 9 crores?

  1. 2002 and 2003
  2. 2003 and 2004
  3. 2004 and 2005
  4. 2005 and 2006

4937. What was the percentage increase in export from 2006 to 2007?

  1. 216 %3
  2. 19%
  3. 20%t
  4. 133 %3

4938. What is the sum of the number of girls in School C, the number of girls in School E and the number of boys in School D together ?

  1. 1700
  2. 1900
  3. 1600
  4. 1800
  5. None of these

4939. What is the ratio of the number of boys in School C, the number of girls in School B and the total number of students in School E?

  1. 45 : 7 : 97
  2. 43 : 9 : 97
  3. 45 : 7 : 87
  4. 43 : 9 : 87
  5. None of these

4940. What is the difference between the total number of students in School F and the number of boys in School E ?

  1. 820
  2. 860
  3. 880
  4. 900
  5. None of these

4941. In which of the following schools is the total number of students equal to the number of girls in School E ?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. F

4942. The number of girls in School A is approximately what percentage of the total number of students in School B ?

  1. 55
  2. 50
  3. 35
  4. 45
  5. 40

4943. Which of the following vehicles travelled at the same speed on both the days?

  1. A
  2. C
  3. F
  4. B
  5. None of these

4944. What was the difference between the speed of vehicle A on Day 1 and the speed of vehicle C on the same day?

  1. 7 km/hr
  2. 12 km/hr
  3. 11 km/hr
  4. 8 km/hr
  5. None of these

4945. What was the speed of vehicle C on Day 2 in terms of metres per second?

  1. 15.3
  2. 12.8
  3. 11.5
  4. 13.8
  5. None of these

4946. The distance travelled by vehicle F on Day 2 was approximately what per cent of the distance travelled by it on Day 1?

  1. 80%
  2. 65%
  3. 85%
  4. 95%
  5. 90%

4947. What is the ratio of the speeds of vehicle D and vehicle E on Day 2?

  1. 15 : 13
  2. 17 : 13
  3. 13 : 11
  4. 17 : 14
  5. None o f these

4948. The average number of students qualified in the examination from Schools C and D is what percent of the average number of students appeared for the examination from the same schools? (rounded off to 2 digits after decimal)

  1. 58.62
  2. 73.91
  3. 62.58
  4. 58.96
  5. None of these

4949. What is the ratio of the number of students appeared to the number of students qualified at the scholarship exam from School C ?

  1. 7 : 12
  2. 6 : 5
  3. 9 : 13
  4. 9 : 10
  5. None of these

4950. What is the ratio of the number of students qualified in the scholarship examination from School A and the number of students qualified in the examination from School B?

  1. 8 : 3
  2. 5 : 7
  3. 7 : 3
  4. 7 : 5
  5. None of these

4951. The number of students appeared for the scholar - ship exam from School D is approximately what percent of the total number of students appeared for the exam from all the schools together ?

  1. 12
  2. 24
  3. 29
  4. 18
  5. 8

4952. What is the difference between the average number of students appeared in the scholarship exam from all the given schools and the average number of students qualified from all the schools together?

  1. 950
  2. 1100
  3. 990
  4. 1020
  5. None of these

4953. What is the difference between the production of Company Z in 2008 and Company Y in 2006?

  1. 2 lakh tons
  2. 20 lakh tons
  3. 20 thousand tons
  4. 200 lakh tons
  5. None of these

4954. What is the ratio of the average production of Com - pany X during the period 2008-2010 to the average production of Company Y during the same period?

  1. 1 : 1
  2. 15 : 17
  3. 23 : 25
  4. 27 : 29
  5. None of these

4955. What is the percentage increase in the production of Company Y from 2006 to 2009?

  1. 30%
  2. 45%
  3. 50%
  4. 60%
  5. 75%

4956. The average production for 5 years was maximum for which company?

  1. X
  2. Y
  3. Z
  4. X and Y both
  5. X and Z both

4957. For which of the following years, the percentage rise or fall in production from the previous year is the maximum for Company Y ?

  1. 2007
  2. 2008
  3. 2009
  4. 2010
  5. 2007 and 2010

4958. In which year was the percentage of production of Company Z to the production of Company Y, the maximum?

  1. 2006
  2. 2007
  3. 2008
  4. 2009
  5. 2010

4959. In which years, there is maximum percentage increase in the amount invested in raw materials as compared to the previous year?

  1. 2006
  2. 2007
  3. 2008
  4. 2009
  5. 2010

4960. In which year, the percentage change

  1. 2006
  2. 2007
  3. 2008
  4. 2009
  5. 2010

4961. What was the difference between the average amount invested in raw materials during the given period and the average value of sales of finished goods during this period?

  1. ₹ 62.5 lakhs
  2. ₹ 68.5 lakhs
  3. ₹ 71.5 lakhs
  4. ₹ 77.5 lakhs
  5. ₹ 83.5 lakhs

4962. The value of sales of finished goods in 2009 was approximately what percent of the average amount invested in raw materials in the years 2007, 2008 and 2009?

  1. 33%
  2. 37%
  3. 45%
  4. 49%
  5. 53%

4963. The maximum difference between the amount in - vested in raw materials and the value of sales of finished goods was during the year

  1. 2005
  2. 2006
  3. 2007
  4. 2008
  5. 2009

4964. In how many of the given years was the production of fertilizers more than the average production of the given years?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5

4965. The average production of 2006 and 2007 was ex - actly equal to the average production of which of the following pairs of years?

  1. 2010 and 2011
  2. 2009 and 2010
  3. 2008 and 2010
  4. 2005 and 2009
  5. 2005 and 2011

4966. What was the percentage decline in the production of fertilizers from 2007 to 2008?

  1. 133 %3
  2. 30%
  3. 25%
  4. 21%
  5. 20%

4967. In which year was the percentage increase in production as compared to the previous year, the maximum?

  1. 2012
  2. 2011
  3. 2009
  4. 2007
  5. 2006

4968. What was the percentage increase in production of fertilizers in 2012 compared to that in 2005?

  1. 320%
  2. 300%
  3. 220%
  4. 200%
  5. 150%

4969. The expenditure on the Interest on Loans is by what percent more than the expenditure on Transport?

  1. 5%
  2. 10%
  3. 20%
  4. 30%
  5. 40%

4970. What is the ratio of the total expenditure on Infra - structure and Transport to the total expenditure on Taxes and Interest on Loans?

  1. 5 : 4
  2. 8 : 7
  3. 9 : 7
  4. 13 : 11
  5. Cannot be determined

4971. If the expenditure on Advertisement is ₹ 2.10 crores, then the difference between the expenditures on Transport and Taxes is:

  1. ₹ 1.25 crores
  2. ₹ 95 lakhs
  3. ₹ 65 lakhs
  4. ₹ 35 lakhs
  5. ₹ 25 lakhs

4972. The total expenditure of the company is how many times the expediture on Research and Development?

  1. 27
  2. 20
  3. 18
  4. 8
  5. 5

4973. If the Interest on Loans amounted to ₹ 2.45 crores, then the total expenditure on Advertisement, Taxes and Research and Development is:

  1. ₹ 7 crores
  2. ₹ 5.4 crores
  3. ₹ 4.2 cores
  4. ₹ 3 crores
  5. ₹ 2.4 crores

4974. What is the total number of male teachers in District F, female teachers in District C and female teachers in District B together?

  1. 1080
  2. 1120
  3. 1180
  4. 1020
  5. None of these

4975. The number of female teachers in District D is approximately what per cent of the total number of teachers

  1. 70
  2. 75
  3. 80
  4. 95
  5. 90

4976. In which district is the number of male teachers more than the number of female teachers?

  1. B only
  2. D only
  3. Both B and E
  4. Both E and F
  5. None of these

4977. What is the difference between the number of female teachers in District F and the total number of teachers

  1. 625
  2. 775
  3. 675
  4. 725
  5. None of these

4978. What is the ratio of the number of male teachers in District C to the number of female teachers in District B?

  1. 11 : 15
  2. 15 : 11
  3. 15 : 8
  4. 30 : 13
  5. None of these

4979. Out of the total number of students who opted for the given three subjects in the year 2009, 38% were girls. How many boys opted for Mathematics in the same year?

  1. 1322
  2. 1332
  3. 1312
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

4980. If the total number of students in the university in the year 2007 was 455030, the total number of students who opted for the given three subjects was approximately what percent of the total students?

  1. 19
  2. 9
  3. 12
  4. 5
  5. 23

4981. What is the total number of students who opted for Hindi and Mathematics in the years 2006, 2007 and 2009 together?

  1. 97000
  2. 93000
  3. 85000
  4. 96000
  5. None of these

4982. The total number of students who opted for Mathematics in the years 2005 and 2008 together is approximately what percent of the total number of students who opted for all three subjects in the same years?

  1. 38
  2. 28
  3. 42
  4. 32
  5. 48

4983. What is the ratio of the number of students who opted for English in the years 2006 and 2008 together to the number of students who opted for Hindi in the years 2005 and 2009 together?

  1. 11 : 5
  2. 12 : 7
  3. 11 : 7
  4. 12 : 5
  5. None of these

4984. How many total cars of models manufactured in the year 2008?

  1. 245000
  2. 227500
  3. 210000
  4. 192500
  5. 157500

4985. For which model the percentage rise/fall in produc- tion was minimum from 2008 to 2009?

  1. Q
  2. R
  3. S
  4. T
  5. U

4986. What was the difference in the number of Q type cars produced in 2008 and that produced in 2009?

  1. 35500
  2. 27000
  3. 22500
  4. 17500
  5. 16000

4987. If the percentage production of P type cars in 2009 be the same as in 2008, then the number of P type cars produced in 2009 would have been:

  1. 140000
  2. 132000
  3. 117000
  4. 105000
  5. 97000

4988. If 85% of the S type cars produced in each year were sold by the company, how many S type cars remained unsold?

  1. 7650
  2. 9350
  3. 11850
  4. 12250
  5. 13350 Questions (1–5):

4989. If company A desires to meet the demand by purchasing surplus production of company, then the most suitable company is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. C
  2. D
  3. E
  4. B

4990. If x% of demand for company C equals demand for company B, then x equals. [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 24
  2. 20
  3. 60
  4. 4

4991. If the production of company D is h times of the production of company A. Then h equals: [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 1.5
  2. 2.5
  3. 1.2
  4. 1.8

4992. The difference between average demand and average production of the five companies taken together is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 400
  2. 280
  3. 130
  4. 620

4993. The ratio of the number of companies having more demand to those having more production than production than demand is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 4 : 1
  2. 2 : 2
  3. 3 : 2
  4. 2 : 3

4994. What is the ratio of the total sales of branch B2 for both years to the total sales of branch B4 for both years? [RBI Gr. ‘B’ (Phase—I) Exam, 2015]

  1. 4 : 5
  2. 10 : 1
  3. 7 : 9
  4. 8 : 5

4995. Total sales of branch B6 for both the years is what percent of the total sales of branch B3 for both the years? [RBI Gr. ‘B’ (Phase—I) Exam, 2015]

  1. 73.17
  2. 80.23
  3. 75.3
  4. 85.7

4996. What percent of the average sales of branches B1, B2 and B3 in 2001 is the average sales of branches B1, B3 and B6 in 2000? [RBI Gr. ‘B’ (Phase—I) Exam, 2015]

  1. 45%
  2. 82.5
  3. 90.6
  4. 87.5

4997. What is the average sales of all the branches (in thousands numbers) for the years 2000? [RBI Gr. ‘B’ (Phase—I) Exam, 2015]

  1. 73
  2. 80
  3. 83
  4. 85

4998. Total sales branches B1, B3 and B5 together for both the years (in thousands numbers) is? [RBI Gr. ‘B’ (Phase—I) Exam, 2015]

  1. 250
  2. 315
  3. 560
  4. 435

4999. What was the difference between the total monthly salary of Arun in all the years together and Suman’s monthly income in the year 2007? [IBPS—Bank Clerical Exam, 2012]

  1. ₹ 1.24 lakhs
  2. ₹ 1.14 lakhs
  3. ₹ 11.4 lakhs
  4. ₹ 12.4 lakhs

5000. What is the respective ratio between Arun’s monthly income in the year 2006, Suman’s monthly income in the year 2007 and Jyoti’s monthly income in the year 2005? [IBPS—Bank Clerical Exam, 2012]

  1. 6 : 3 : 5
  2. 5 : 6 : 4
  3. 5 : 4 : 7
  4. None of these

5001. In which year was the difference between Jyoti’s monthly income and Arun’s monthly income second highest? [IBPS—Bank Clerical Exam, 2012]

  1. 2005
  2. 2006
  3. 2007
  4. 2009

5002. Monthly income of Suman in the year 2009 was approximately what percentage of the monthly income of Jyoti in the year 2010? [IBPS—Bank Clerical Exam, 2012]

  1. 72
  2. 89
  3. 83
  4. 67

5003. What was the percentage increase in the monthly income of Jyoti in the year 2008 as compared to previous year? [IBPS—Bank Clerical Exam, 2012]

  1. 50
  2. 150
  3. 160
  4. 60

5004. What is the difference between the total marks obtained by B and the total marks obtained by C? [Gramin Bank— 2012]

  1. 5 marks
  2. 2 marks
  3. 18 mars
  4. No difference

5005. What is C’s overall approximate percentage? [Gramin Bank— 2012]

  1. 56
  2. 63
  3. 70
  4. 75

5006. Which of the following statements is true? [Gramin Bank— 2012]

  1. ‘E’ scored the highest total marks
  2. ‘B’ and ‘D’ had the same score in Hindi
  3. A’s overall percentage is 50
  4. All the students scored maximum marks in Hindi

5007. What is the respective ratio of D’s marks in English to B’s marks in English? [Gramin Bank— 2012]

  1. 8 : 13
  2. 5 : 14
  3. 7 : 12
  4. 6 : 13

5008. What are the approximate average marks obtained by D? [Gramin Bank— 2012]

  1. 38
  2. 43
  3. 50
  4. 54

5009. In 2001, the approximate percentage of profit/loss of all the five companies taken together is equal to [SSC—CHSL (10 + 2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 6.88% loss
  2. 4.65% profit
  3. 6.48% profit
  4. 4% loss

5010. If the income of company Q in 2001 was 10% more than that in 2000 and the company had earned a profit of 20% in 2000, then its expenditure in 2000 (in crore ₹) was [SSC—CHSL (10 + 2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 34.34
  2. 28.28
  3. 29.09
  4. 32.32

5011. The company earning the maximum percentage of profit in the year 2001 is [SSC—CHSL (10 + 2) Exam, 2015]

  1. Q
  2. M
  3. N
  4. P

5012. The companies M and N together had a percentage of profit/loss of [SSC—CHSL (10 + 2) Exam, 2015]

  1. No loss and no profit
  2. 12% loss
  3. 10% loss
  4. 10% profit

5013. For company R if the expenditure had increased by 20% in the year 2001 from the year 2000 and the company had earned profit of 10% in 2000, the company’s income in 2000 was (in crore ₹) [SSC—CHSL (10 + 2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 41.67
  2. 35.75
  3. 37.25
  4. 38.5

5014. What is the difference in the amount estimated by the family on interior decoration and that on architect's fees ?

  1. ₹ 10000
  2. ₹ 9500
  3. ₹ 7200
  4. ₹ 9000
  5. None of these

5015. Other than getting the discount of 12 % on the estimated cost of furniture and the actual miscellaneous expenditure being Total Estimated Cost = ₹ 12 0000 923 38 Pie Chart ₹ 10200 instead of the estimated one, the family's estimated cost is correct. What is the total amount spent by the family in renovating its house?

  1. ₹ 116728
  2. ₹ 115926
  3. ₹ 119500
  4. ₹ 116500
  5. None of these

5016. What is the cost estimated by the family on painting and flooring together ?

  1. ₹ 36500
  2. ₹ 34800
  3. ₹ 36000
  4. ₹ 34500
  5. None of these

5017. What is the ratio of the number of mobile phones sold of Company B during July to those sold during December of the same company?

  1. 119 : 145
  2. 116 : 135
  3. 119 : 135
  4. 119 : 130
  5. None of these

5018. If 35 % of the mobile phones sold by Company A during November were sold at a discount, how many mobile phones of Company A were sold without a discount, during that month?

  1. 882
  2. 1635
  3. 1638
  4. 885
  5. None of these

5019. If the shopkeeper earned a profit of ₹ 433 on each mobile phone sold of Company B during October, what was his total profit earned on the mobile phones of that company during the same month ?

  1. ₹ 649900
  2. ₹ 645900
  3. ₹ 649400
  4. ₹ 649500
  5. None of these

5020. What is the ratio of the number of female lecturers in Physics to the number of male lecturers in Mathematics ?

  1. 5 : 9
  2. 2 : 9
  3. 3 : 7
  4. 5 : 3
  5. None of these Ex 4. (Questions 15–19 ): The pie-chart shown below gives the distribution of land in a village under various food crops. Study the pie-chart carefully and answer the questions that follow: Distribution of areas (in acres) under various food crops

5021. Which combination of three crops contribute to 50% of the total area under the food crops?

  1. 110
  2. 140
  3. 150
  4. 105
  5. 130

5022. What is the total number of mobile phones sold of Company B during August and September together?

  1. 10000
  2. 15000
  3. 10500
  4. 9500
  5. None of these Ex 3. (Questions 10–14) : Study the following pie-chart and the table given below it carefully to answer the questions given below :

5023. Total number of lecturers

  1. 58
  2. 43
  3. 47
  4. 51
  5. 50

5024. What is the difference between the total number of lecturers

  1. 192
  2. 182
  3. 146
  4. 136
  5. None of these

5025. What is the difference between the number of female lecturers in Zoology and the number of male lecturers in Hindi?

  1. 156
  2. 160
  3. 150
  4. 153
  5. None of these

5026. If the total area under jowar was 1.5 million acres, then what was the area (in million acres) under rice ?

  1. 6
  2. 7.5
  3. 9
  4. 4.5

5027. If the production of wheat is 6 times that of barley, then what is the ratio between the yield per acre of wheat and barley?

  1. 3 : 2
  2. 3 : 1
  3. 12 : 1
  4. 2 : 3

5028. If the yield per acre of rice was 50% more than that of barley, then the production of barley is what percent of that of rice?

  1. 30%
  2. 33 1 %3
  3. 35%
  4. 36%

5029. If the total area goes up by 5%, and the area under wheat production goes up by 12%, then what will be the angle for wheat in the new pie-chart?

  1. 62.4°
  2. 76.8°
  3. 80.6°
  4. 84.2° Ex 5. (Questions 20–24): The following pie-charts show the distribution of students of graduate and post-graduate levels in 7 different Institutes : M, N, P, Q, R, S and T in a town. Study the pie-charts carefully and answer the questions given below: Distribution of students at graduate and post-graduate levels in seven institutes — m, n, p, q, r, s and t Total Number of Students of Total Number of Students of Graduate Level = 27300 Post-Graduate Level = 24700

5030. How many students of institutes M and S are studying at graduate level?

  1. 7516
  2. 8463
  3. 9127
  4. 9404

5031. Total number of students studying at post-graduate level from institutes N and P is

  1. 5601
  2. 5944
  3. 6669
  4. 7004

5032. What is the total number of graduate and post- graduate level students in institute R?

  1. 8320
  2. 7916
  3. 9116
  4. 8372

5033. What is the ratio between the number of students studying at post-graduate and graduate levels respectively from institute S?

  1. 14 : 19
  2. 19 : 21
  3. 17 : 21
  4. 19 : 14

5034. What is the ratio between the number of students studying at post-graduate level from institute S and the number of students studying at graduate level from institute Q?

  1. 13 : 19
  2. 21 : 13
  3. 13 : 8
  4. 19 : 13 Ex 6. (Questions 25–29 ): Study the following pie-dia - grams carefully and answer the questions given below: Percentage Composition of Human Body

5035. In the human body, what part is made of neither bones nor skin ?

  1. 1 40
  2. 3 80
  3. 2 5
  4. None of these

5036. What is the ratio of the distribution of proteins in the muscles to that of the distribution of proteins in the bones?

  1. 1 : 18
  2. 1 : 2
  3. 2 : 1
  4. 18 : 1

5037. What will be the quantity of water in the body of a person weighing 50 kg?

  1. 20 kg
  2. 35 kg
  3. 41 kg
  4. 42.5 kg

5038. What is the total number of students having specialisation in IR, Marketing and IT ?

  1. 4640
  2. 4080
  3. 4260
  4. 4400
  5. None of these

5039. Students having IB as specialisation forms approximately what percent of students having Marketing as specialisation ?

  1. 116
  2. 86
  3. 124
  4. 74
  5. 66

5040. What is the total number of students having IB as specialisation ?

  1. 1520
  2. 1280
  3. 1360
  4. 1120
  5. None of these

5041. What is the ratio of the students having Finance as specialisation to students having HR as specialisation?

  1. 11 : 19
  2. 18 : 13
  3. 6 : 7
  4. 4 : 7
  5. None of these

5042. Students having IR as specialisation forms approximately what percent of students having HR as specialisation ?

  1. 87
  2. 106
  3. 76
  4. 62
  5. 114

5043. What percent of the total spendings is spent on Tennis ?

  1. 112 %2
  2. 122 %2
  3. 25%
  4. 45%

5044. How much percent more is spent on Hockey than that on Golf ?

  1. 27%
  2. 35%
  3. 37.5%
  4. 75%

5045. How much percent less is spent on Football than that on Cricket ?

  1. 222 %9
  2. 27%
  3. 133 %3
  4. 137 %2

5046. If the total amount spent on sports during the year was ₹ 2 crores, the amount spent on Cricket and Hockey together was

  1. ₹ 800000
  2. ₹ 8000000
  3. ₹ 12000000
  4. ₹ 16000000

5047. If the total amount spent on sports during the year be ₹ 18000000, the amount spent on Basketball exceeds that on Tennis by

  1. ₹ 450000
  2. ₹ 460000
  3. ₹ 475000
  4. None of these

5048. What percentage of candidates passed the Exam from institute T out of the total number of candidates enrolled from the same institute ?

  1. 50%
  2. 62.5%
  3. 75%
  4. 80%

5049. What is the ratio of candidates passed to the candidates enrolled from institute P ?

  1. 9 : 11
  2. 14 : 17
  3. 6 : 11
  4. 9 : 17

5050. What is the percentage of candidates passed to the candidates enrolled for institutes Q and R together ?

  1. 68%
  2. 83%
  3. 74%
  4. 65%

5051. Which institute has the highest percentage of candidates passed to the candidates enrolled ?

  1. Q
  2. R
  3. V
  4. T

5052. The number of candidates passed from institutes S and P together exceeds the number of candidates enrolled from institutes T and R together by :

  1. 228
  2. 279
  3. 399
  4. 407

5053. What is the total number of boys enrolled in Management and IT together ?

  1. 1050
  2. 810
  3. 1120
  4. 980
  5. None of these

5054. What is the ratio of the number of girls enrolled in Arts to the number of boys enrolled in Science ?

  1. 14 : 23
  2. 2 : 3
  3. 114 : 121
  4. 53 : 65
  5. None of these

5055. What is the total number of girls enrolled in Science and Commerce together ?

  1. 450
  2. 495
  3. 345
  4. 480
  5. None of these

5056. If 20% of the girls enrolled in Science change their stream to Management, then what will be the new number of Management students altogether ?

  1. 593
  2. 733
  3. 453
  4. 1003
  5. None of these

5057. The number of girls enrolled in Arts, Science and Commerce forms what percent of total number of students in the College ?

  1. 25
  2. 40
  3. 60
  4. 75
  5. Non e of these

5058. What is the amount spent by the family on commuting ?

  1. ₹ 10076
  2. ₹ 10534
  3. ₹ 6870
  4. ₹ 8702
  5. None of these

5059. What is the ratio of the amount spent by the family on Medicine to the amount spent on Groceries ?

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 13 : 21
  3. 3 : 5
  4. 11 : 23
  5. None of these

5060. What is the total amount spent by the family on Entertainment and Shopping together ?

  1. ₹ 9618
  2. ₹ 13282
  3. ₹ 13740
  4. ₹ 11908
  5. None of these

5061. The total amount spent by the family on Groceries, Entertainment and Investments together forms approximately what percent of the amount spent on Commuting ?

  1. 209
  2. 76
  3. 154
  4. 42
  5. 218

5062. What is the average number of Dell Laptops sold by stores P, R and S together? [IBPS—RRB (Officer’s Gr. ‘’B’ Exam, 2015]

  1. 424
  2. 432
  3. 428
  4. 454

5063. What is the central angle corresponding to number of Dell laptops sold by store S? [IBPS—RRB (Officer’s Gr. ‘’B’ Exam, 2015]

  1. 29.4º
  2. 38.6º
  3. 36.2º
  4. 32.4º

5064. Number of Dell laptops sold by store Q is approximately what percent of the number of the number of laptops

  1. 28%
  2. 45%
  3. 50%
  4. 38%

5065. What is the difference between number of laptops

  1. 185
  2. 99
  3. 91
  4. 119

5066. Number of Dell laptops sold by store T is what percent more than the number of laptops sold by store P? [IBPS—RRB (Officer’s Gr. ‘’B’ Exam, 2015]

  1. 30%
  2. 45%
  3. 40%
  4. 42.5%

5067. Total expenditure on conveyance is [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. ₹ 12,000
  2. ₹ 15,000
  3. ₹ 20,000
  4. ₹ 10,000

5068. What percentage of total expenditure is on electricity? [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 23%
  2. 25%
  3. 30%
  4. 20%

5069. What is the amount spent on overhead expenses? [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. ₹ 12,000
  2. ₹ 15,000
  3. ₹ 18,000
  4. ₹ 10,000

5070. What percentage of total expenditure is on raw materials? [SSC—CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 25%
  2. 30%
  3. 60%
  4. 23%

5071. What is the central angle corresponding to number of male and female in health club D and E? [RBI Gr. ‘B’ (Phase—I) Exam, 2015]

  1. 115.2º
  2. 125.5º
  3. 210.25º
  4. 155.5º

5072. What is the average number of female members in health clubs A, B and C? [RBI Gr. ‘B’ (Phase—I) Exam, 2015]

  1. 564
  2. 572
  3. 568
  4. 548

5073. Number of male members in health clubs, A and C is what percentage less than the number of both male and female members of health club B and C in 2011? [RBI Gr. ‘B’ (Phase—I) Exam, 2015]

  1. 69
  2. 51.36
  3. 72
  4. 42.21

5074. What is the central angle corresponding to number of both male and female in health club B? [RBI Gr. ‘B’ (Phase—I) Exam, 2015]

  1. 118.8º
  2. 112.6º
  3. 124.8º
  4. 116.4º

5075. Number of female members in health club E is what percent less than number of male members in health club B? [RBI Gr. ‘B’ (Phase—I) Exam, 2015]

  1. 56 2 3
  2. 54 1 2
  3. 60 2 3
  4. 64 1 3

5076. What is the average of Nokia cellular phones sold by store P, R, S and T together? [IBPS—Bank Spl. Officer (IT) Exam, 2015]

  1. 1008
  2. 1048
  3. 984
  4. 1006

5077. The number of Nokia cellular phones sold by store R is what per cent more than that of Samsung cel - lular phones sold by store P and Q together? [IBPS—Bank Spl. Officer (IT) Exam, 2015]

  1. 23 1 %17
  2. 19 5 %17
  3. 18 3 %17
  4. 20 3 %17

5078. What is the central angles corresponding to the total number of cellular phones

  1. 99.2º
  2. 93.6º
  3. 105.6º
  4. 97.4º

5079. What is the ratio of the number of Nokia cellular phones sold by store S to the Samsung cellular phones sold by store T and U together? [IBPS—Bank Spl. Officer (IT) Exam, 2015]

  1. 43 : 72
  2. 49 : 76
  3. 43 : 76
  4. 49 : 72

5080. The total number of cellular phones

  1. 3540
  2. 3720
  3. 3640
  4. 3420

5081. Percentage of students who are not members of any club is [SSC—CHSL (10 + 2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 5%
  2. 8%
  3. 10%
  4. 6%

5082. Number of students who are members of cricket club only [SSC—CHSL (10 + 2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 35
  2. 40
  3. 42
  4. 41

5083. Ratio of members of cricket club only and football club only respectively is [SSC—CHSL (10 + 2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 1 : 3
  2. 2 : 1
  3. 1 : 2
  4. 3 : 1

5084. The number of students who are members of both the clubs is [SSC—CHSL (10 + 2) Exam, 2015]

  1. 500
  2. 650
  3. 550
  4. 600

5085. What is t he ratio of the number of students appearing for the Aptitude Test from Town B to that from Town A?

  1. 3 : 4
  2. 13 : 16
  3. 11 : 16
  4. 2 : 3
  5. None of these

5086. What is the average number of students appearing for the Aptitude Test from all the towns together ?

  1. 33500
  2. 3350
  3. 17500
  4. 33.5
  5. None of these

5087. The number of students appearing for the Aptitude Test from Town E is approximately what per cent of the total number of students appearing for the Aptitude Test from all the towns together ?

  1. 15
  2. 17
  3. 19
  4. 21
  5. 23

5088. What is the ratio of the number of students appearing for the Aptitude Test from Towns C and D together to the number of students appearing for the Aptitude Test from Towns A, D and E together?

  1. 11 : 13
  2. 20 : 43
  3. 20 : 47
  4. 37 : 20
  5. None of these

5089. The number of students appearing for the Aptitude Test from Town D is approximately what percentage of the number of students appearing for the Aptitude Test from Town C ?

  1. 243
  2. 413
  3. 134
  4. 341
  5. 143

5090. What is the approximate percentage increase in the production of Company A from 2009 to 2010 ?

  1. 18%
  2. 38%
  3. 23%
  4. 27%
  5. 32%

5091. The sales of Company A in the year 2009 was approximately what percent of its production in the same year?

  1. 65%
  2. 73%
  3. 79%
  4. 83%
  5. 69%

5092. What is the average production of Company B (in tonnes) from the year 2006 to the year 2011 ?

  1. 574
  2. 649
  3. 675
  4. 593
  5. 618

5093. What is the ratio of the total production of Company A to the total sales of Company A ?

  1. 81 : 64
  2. 64 : 55
  3. 71 : 81
  4. 71 : 55
  5. 81 : 55

5094. What is the ratio of production of Company B in the year 2006 to production of Company B in the year 2008 ?

  1. 2 : 5
  2. 4 : 5
  3. 3 : 4
  4. 3 : 5
  5. 1 : 4

5095. If the profit earned in 2006 by Company B was ₹ 812500, what was the total income of the company in that year ?

  1. ₹ 1250000
  2. ₹ 2062500
  3. ₹ 1650000
  4. 1825000
  5. None of these

5096. If the amounts invested by the two companies in 2005 were equal, what was the ratio of the total income of Company A to that of B on 2005 ?

  1. 31 : 33
  2. 33 : 31
  3. 34 : 31
  4. 14 : 11
  5. None of these

5097. If the total amount invested by the two companies in 2009 was ₹ 27 lakh, while the amount invested by Company B was 50% of the amount invested by Company A, what was the total profit earned by the two companies together ?

  1. ₹ 21.15 lakh
  2. ₹ 20.70 lakh
  3. ₹ 18.70 lakh
  4. ₹ 20.15 lakh
  5. None of these

5098. If the income of Company A in 2007 and that in 2008 were equal and the amount invested in 2007 was ₹ 12 lakh, what was the amount invested in 2008 ?

  1. ₹ 1087500
  2. ₹ 1085700
  3. ₹ 1245000
  4. ₹ 1285000
  5. None of these

5099. If the amount of profit earned by Company A in 2006 was ₹ 10.12 lakh, what was the total investment ?

  1. ₹ 13.8 lakh
  2. ₹ 14.9 lakh
  3. ₹ 15.4 lakh
  4. ₹ 14.2 lakh
  5. None of these

5100. If the amount invested by Company B in 2004 is ₹ 12 lakh and income of 2004 is equal to the investment in 2005, what is the amount of profit earned in 2005 by Company B ?

  1. ₹ 6.6 lakh
  2. ₹ 18.6 lakh
  3. ₹ 10.23 lakh
  4. ₹ 9.6 lakh
  5. None of these

5101. If the investments of Company A in 2007 and 2008 were equal, what is the difference between the profits earned in the two years if the income in 2008 was ₹ 24 lakh ?

  1. ₹ 2.25 lakh
  2. ₹ 3.6 lakh
  3. ₹ 1.8 lakh
  4. ₹ 2.6 lakh
  5. None of these

5102. If each of the companies A and B invested ₹ 25 lakh in 2010, what was the average profit earned by the two companies ?

  1. ₹ 18 lakh
  2. ₹ 22.5 lakh
  3. ₹ 17.5 lakh
  4. ₹ 20 lakh
  5. None of these

5103. What was the ratio between the number of girls enrolled in School C in the year 2011 and the total number of girls enrolled in School A and School B together in the same year ?

  1. 11 : 3
  2. 3 : 11
  3. 4 : 11
  4. 4 : 7
  5. None of these

5104. In which school was the difference between the number of girls enrolled in the years 2012 and 2008 minimum ?

  1. Only School A
  2. Only School B
  3. Only School C
  4. Both School A and School B
  5. Both School A and School C

5105. What was the approximate average number of girls enrolled in the year 2010 in all the three schools together ?

  1. 20800
  2. 2300
  3. 20000
  4. 22500
  5. 21600

5106. Total number of girls enrolled in all the three schools in the year 2008 was what percentage of the number of girls enrolled in School C in the year 2011 ?

  1. 44.4 %
  2. 225%
  3. 165%
  4. 240%
  5. None of these

5107. In which year was the total number of girls enrolled in all the three schools together second highest ?

  1. 2008
  2. 2009
  3. 2010
  4. 2011
  5. 2012

5108. In which year was the difference between the exports from Companies X and Y the minimum ?

  1. 2004
  2. 2005
  3. 2006
  4. 2007
  5. None of these

5109. For which of the following pairs of years the total exports from the three companies together are equal ?

  1. 2005 and 2008
  2. 2006 and 2008
  3. 2007 and 2008
  4. 2005 and 2006
  5. 2003 and 2004

5110. Average annual exports during the given period for Company Y is approximately what percent of the average annual exports for Company Z ?

  1. 87.12%
  2. 89.64%
  3. 91.21%
  4. 93.33%
  5. 95.15%

5111. In how many of the given years, were the exports from Company Z more than the average annual exports over the given years ?

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5
  5. 6

5112. If the expenditure of Company Y in 2007 was ₹ 220 crores, what was its income in that year ?

  1. ₹ 312 crores
  2. ₹ 297 crores
  3. ₹ 283 crores
  4. ₹ 275 crores
  5. ₹ 261 crores

5113. If the incomes of the two companies were equal in 2009, what was the ratio of expenditure of Company X to that of Company Y in that year ?

  1. 6 : 5
  2. 5 : 6
  3. 11 : 6
  4. 16 : 15
  5. 15 : 16

5114. The incomes of the Companies X and Y in 2010 were in the ratio 3 : 4 respectively. What was the respective ratio of their expenditures in 2010 ?

  1. 7 : 22
  2. 14 : 19
  3. 15 : 22
  4. 27 : 35
  5. 33 : 40

5115. If the expenditures of Companies X and Y in 2006 were equal and the total income of the two companies in that year be ₹ 342 crores, what was the total profit of the two companies together in that year ? Profit = (Income) –

  1. ₹ 240 crores
  2. ₹ 171 crores
  3. ₹ 120 crores
  4. ₹ 102 crores
  5. None of these

5116. The expenditure of Company X in the year 2008 was ₹ 200 crores and the income of this company in the same year was the same as its expenditure in 2011. The income of Company X in 2011 was :

  1. ₹ 465 crores
  2. ₹ 385 crores
  3. ₹ 335 crores
  4. ₹ 295 crores
  5. ₹ 255 crores 2006 → (70 + 60 + 90) = 220 ; 2007 → (100 + 80 + 60) = 240 ; 2008 → (50 + 100 + 80) = 230 ; 2009 → (120 + 140 + 100) = 360. The total export of X, Y, Z remains the same during 2005 and 2006.

5117. In which of the following states was the total number of trees planted by NGOs A and B together second lowest ?

  1. Bihar
  2. Punjab
  3. Haryana
  4. Assam
  5. Tamil Nadu

5118. What was the difference between the trees planted by NGO – A in Haryana and those planted by NGO – C in Tamil Nadu ?

  1. 90
  2. 60
  3. 120
  4. 160
  5. None of these

5119. What was the average number of trees planted in Haryana by all the NGOs together ?

  1. 420
  2. 140
  3. 120
  4. 390
  5. None of these

5120. The total number of trees planted by NGOs A and B together in Bihar was approximately what percentage of the total number of trees planted by NGOs B and C together in Punjab ?

  1. 85
  2. 90
  3. 105
  4. 110
  5. 95

5121. What was the ratio of the number of trees planted by NGO – B in Tamil Nadu, the number of trees planted by NGO – C in Assam and the number of trees planted by NGO – A in Assam ?

  1. 5 : 3 : 6
  2. 5 : 6 : 3
  3. 6 : 4 : 5
  4. 6 : 5 : 3
  5. None of these

5122. In how many of the given years were the exports more than the imports ?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. None of these

5123. The imports were minimum proportionate to the exports of the company in which of the following years ?

  1. 2005
  2. 2006
  3. 2007
  4. 2010
  5. 2011

5124. If the imports of the company in 2006 be ₹ 272 crores, the exports from the company in the same year was:

  1. ₹ 370 crores
  2. ₹ 320 crores
  3. ₹ 280 crores
  4. ₹ 275 crores
  5. ₹ 264 crores Ratio of Values of Imports to Exports by a Company Over the Years

5125. What was the percentage increase in imports from 2007 to 2008 ?

  1. 72%
  2. 56%
  3. 28%
  4. None of these
  5. Data inadequate

5126. If the imports in 2008 was ₹ 250 crores and the total exports in the years 2008 and 2009 together was ₹ 500 crores, then the imports in 2009 was

  1. ₹ 250 crores
  2. ₹ 300 crores
  3. ₹ 357 crores
  4. ₹ 420 crores
  5. None of these

5127. What is the respective ratio of total number of calories burned by A and B together on Wednesday and the by the same individuals together on Tuesday? [IBPS—RRB (Off. Gr. ‘B’) Exam, 2015]

  1. 45 : 59
  2. 43 : 57
  3. 41 : 57
  4. 43 : 61
  5. 47 : 61

5128. If the number of calories burned by A and B increased by 10% and 20% respectively from Friday to Saturday, what was the total number of calories burned by them together on Saturday? [IBPS—RRB (Off. Gr. ‘B’) Exam, 2015]

  1. 378
  2. 372
  3. 368
  4. 384
  5. 364

5129. What is the total number of calories burned by A on Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday together? [IBPS—RRB (Off. Gr. ‘B’) Exam, 2015]

  1. 425
  2. 440
  3. 430
  4. 445
  5. 435

5130. If the average number of calories burned by B on Thursday, Friday and Saturday together is 125, what was the number of calories burned by B on Saturday? [IBPS—RRB (Off. Gr. ‘B’) Exam, 2015]

  1. 110
  2. 95
  3. 115
  4. 90
  5. 105

5131. Number of calories burned by B increased by what percent from Monday to Thursday? [IBPS—RRB (Off. Gr. ‘B’) Exam, 2015]

  1. 80%
  2. 60%
  3. 70%
  4. 75%
  5. 65%

5132. What is the average number of watches sold in Town X in January, February, March and June? [IBPS—Bank Spl. Officer (IT) Exam, 2015]

  1. 180
  2. 190
  3. 175
  4. 170
  5. 185

5133. The number of watches sold in Town Y in April is what per cent more than the number of watches sold in Town X in the same month? [IBPS—Bank Spl. Officer (IT) Exam, 2015]

  1. 42%
  2. 40%
  3. 30%
  4. 50%
  5. 38%

5134. The number of watches sold in Town Y increased by what per cent from February to May? [IBPS—Bank Spl. Officer (IT) Exam, 2015]

  1. 96%
  2. 92 1 %3
  3. 97%
  4. 91 2 %3
  5. 95 2 %3

5135. The number of watches sold in Town X in July was 10% more than the number of watches sold in the same town in May. What is the ratio of the number of watches sold in July to that sold in January in the same town? [IBPS—Bank Spl. Officer (IT) Exam, 2015]

  1. 34 : 23
  2. 32 : 25
  3. 31 : 20
  4. 33 : 23
  5. 33 : 20

5136. What is the difference between the total number of watches sold in both the towns together in June and the total number of watches sold in both the towns together in March? [IBPS—Bank Spl. Officer (IT) Exam, 2015]

  1. 50
  2. 90
  3. 60
  4. 70
  5. 80

5137. Expenditure of company B in 2009 and 2010 are ₹ 12 lakhs and ₹ 14.5 lakhs respectively. What was the total income of company B in 2009 and 2010 together (in lakh rupees)? [IDBI Bank

  1. 39.75
  2. 37.95
  3. 38.75
  4. 38.55
  5. None of these

5138. Ratio of expenditures of company A and B in 2012 was 3 : 4 respectively. What was the respective ratio of their incomes in 2012? [IDBI Bank

  1. 21 : 26
  2. 13 : 14
  3. 14 : 13
  4. 26 : 21
  5. None of these

5139. Total expenditure of company A in all the years together was 82.5 lakhs. What was the total income of the company A in all the years together? [IDBI Bank

  1. 1.23 crores
  2. 98.75 crores
  3. 99.85 crores
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

5140. If the expenditure of company A and B in 2013 were equal and the total incomes of the two companies was ₹ 5.7 lakhs. What was the total expenditure of the two companies in 2013? [IDBI Bank

  1. 4 lakhs
  2. 2 lakhs
  3. 4.2 lakhs
  4. Cannot be determined
  5. None of these

5141. If the income of company B in 2010 and 2011 were in the ratio of 2 : 3 respectively, what was the respective ratio of expenditures of that company in these two years? [IDBI Bank

  1. 20 : 29
  2. 9 : 10
  3. 29 : 45
  4. 10 : 29
  5. None of these

5142. Out of the total number of projects handled by Company A in 2005 and 2006 together, 20% were governmental projects. What was the total number of governmental projects handled by Company A in 2005 and 2006 together? [IBPS—RRBs (Off. Gr. ‘B’) Exam, 2015]

  1. 108
  2. 132
  3. 128
  4. 116
  5. 122

5143. The projects handled by a company can be broadly classified into two types: governmental projects and non-governmental projects. If the average number of non-governmental projects handled by the same company B in 2003 and 2004 Is 127. What is the total number of governmental projects handled by the same company in 2003 and 2004 together? [IBPS—RRBs (Off. Gr. ‘B’) Exam, 2015]

  1. 204
  2. 188
  3. 192
  4. 196
  5. 212

5144. The number of projects handled by Company B decreased by what per cent from 2004 to 2006? [IBPS—RRBs (Off. Gr. ‘B’) Exam, 2015]

  1. 35 5 8
  2. 30 7 8
  3. 50 3 8
  4. 45 3 8
  5. 40 5 8

5145. If the number of projects handled by company A increased by 20% from 2007 to 2008 and by 5% from 2008 to 2009, what was the number of projects handled by Company A in 2009? [IBPS—RRBs (Off. Gr. ‘B’) Exam, 2015]

  1. 378
  2. 372
  3. 384
  4. 396
  5. 368

5146. What is the difference between the total number of projects handled by company A in 2003 and 2004 together and the total number of projects handled by Company B in 2005 and 2007 together? [IBPS—RRBs (Off. Gr. ‘B’) Exam, 2015]

  1. 120
  2. 150
  3. 130
  4. 180
  5. 170

5147. What is the difference between the total number of visas issued for Country A and Country B together in April and the total number of visas issued for both the countries together in June? [IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE-V (Pre.) Exam, 2015]

  1. 90
  2. 70
  3. 110
  4. 100
  5. 80

5148. What is the average number of visas issued for Country B in March, May, July and August? [IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE-V (Pre.) Exam, 2015]

  1. 315
  2. 310
  3. 320
  4. 335
  5. 325

5149. The number of visas issued for Country A in March decreased by 20% from the previous month. What is the respective ratio between the number of visas issued for Country A in February and the number of visas issued for the same country in May? [IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE-V (Pre.) Exam, 2015]

  1. 25 : 13
  2. 25 : 18
  3. 26 : 13
  4. 24 : 13
  5. 26 : 15

5150. The number of visas issued for Country A decreased by what percent from May to July? [IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE-V (Pre.) Exam, 2015]

  1. 35 1 3
  2. 33
  3. 30 9 5
  4. 32 2 3
  5. 32 4 9

5151. The number of visas issued for Country B in March is what percent less than the number of visas issued for Country A in June? [IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE-V (Pre.) Exam, 2015]

  1. 8.5
  2. 7.75
  3. 4.25
  4. 6.25
  5. 5.75